KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS

HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
Instruction: D. Mask only
Choose the correct answer to each of the following
10. The first hemostatic response to injury of a blood vessel is:
questions. DON’T FORGET TO PRAY!!! A. Platelet adhesion
B. Platelet aggregation
1. EDTA is used in concentrations of ___ mg/1 mL of whole blood. C. Vasoconstriction
A. 0.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood D. Extrinsic coagulation
B. 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood
C. 2.0 mg/1 mL of whole blood 11. Platelet aggregation studies revealed normal aggregation
D. 2.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood curves with collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an abnormal
aggregation curve with ristocetin. Based on these findings, what is
2. A 7.0 mL EDTA tube is received in the laboratory containing only the differential diagnosis?
2.0 mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual techniques, A. Von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous? B. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia and von Willebrand disease
A. RBC count C. Storage pool disease and Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
B. Hemoglobin D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome and storage pool disease
C. Hematocrit
D. WBC count 12. Which set of platelet responses would be most likely be
associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
3. EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia can be identified on A. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP and ristocetin;
blood smear by: decreased response to collagen
A. Finding platelets pushed to the feathered end B. Normal platelet aggregation response to collagen; decreased
B. Finding platelets adhering to WBCs response to ADP and collagen
C. Finding no platelets at all on the smear C. Normal platelet aggregation response to ristocetin;
D. Bluish discoloration to the macroscopic appearance of the decreased response to collagen, ADP and epinephrine
slide D. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP; decreased
response to collagen and ristocetin
4. Sodium citrate in the concentration of ___ solution has been
adopted as the appropriate concentration for coagulation studies. 13. To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of
A. 1.5% a blood smear, approximately how many platelets, should be
B. 2.8% observed per oil immersion field?
C. 3.2% A. 1 to 4
D. 3.8% B. 8 to 20
C. 4 to 10
5. Which results would be expected for the PT and APTT in a D. 20 to 50
patient with polycythemia?
A. Both prolonged 14. In the Ivy method of bleeding time, the blood pressure cuff is
B. Both shortened inflated to:
C. Normal PT, prolonged APTT A. 20 mm. Hg
D. Both normal B. 30 mm. Hg
C. 40 mm. Hg
6. What is the proper angle of needle insertion for phlebotomy? D. 45 mm. Hg
A. 5 degrees
B. 15 degrees 15. Normal platelet adhesion depends upon:
C. 35 degrees A. Fibrinogen
D. 45 degrees B. Glycoprotein Ib
C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex
7. Most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood D. Calcium
specimen:
A. Bruising 16. Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome?
B. Hematoma A. Platelet adhesion defect
C. Hemoconcentration B. Dense granule defect
D. Anemia C. Alpha granule defect
D. Coagulation defect
8. A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV fluids running in
both arms. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? 17. In which of the following lists the steps of hemostatic response
A. Any obtainable vein is satisfactory. in the correct order?
B. Obtain sample from above the IV site. A. Fibrinolysis → injury → secondary hemostasis → primary
C. Obtain sample from below the IV site with special hemostasis
restrictions. B. Injury → primary hemostasis → secondary hemostasis →
D. Disconnect the IV line. fibrinolysis
C. Injury → secondary hemostasis → primary hemostasis →
9. In enteric isolation, the technologist is required to wear fibrinolysis
A. Gown and gloves D. Injury → fibrinolysis → primary hemostasis → secondary
B. Gown, mask and gloves hemostasis
C. Gown, mask, gloves and shoe coverings

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 KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS

HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
18. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a poor wound 27. The observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged
healing may be associated with: thrombin time is indicative of:
A. Factor VII deficiency A. Presence of fibrin degradation products
B. Factor VIII deficiency B. Hypoplasminogenemia
C. Factor XII deficiency C. Dysfibrinogenemia
D. Factor XIII deficiency D. Presence of heparin

19. Plasma thromboplastin or prothrombinase includes:* 28. The D-dimer test is a specific test for:
A. Calcium ion only A. Plasminogen activation
B. Complex of calcium ions and activated factor XI B. Plasmin degradation of fibrinogen
C. Complex of activated factor VII and calcium ions C. Plasmin degradation of fibrin
D. Complex of activated factors X and V, platelet factor 3 and D. Factor XIII
calcium ion
22. The Bethesda assay is used for which determination?
20. Which of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 A. Lupus anticoagulant titer
adsorbed plasma? B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer
A. Factor VIII C. Factor V Leiden titer
B. Factor II D. Protein S deficiency
C. Factor XII
D. Factor V 30. Fibrinogen, which has been implicated as a primary risk factor
for thrombotic disorders, increases approximately _____ mg/dL
21. Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with per decade in the elderly (65 to 79 years), 174 from 280 mg/dL to
either no bleeding or only a minor bleeding tendency, even after over 300 mg/dL.
trauma or surgery? A. 1 mg/dL per decade
A. Factor X B. 5 mg/dL per decade
B. Factor XII C. 10 mg/dL per decade
C. Factor XIII D. 15 mg/dL per decade
D. Factor V
23. he target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment:
22. Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration A. 1
of: B. 2
A. Vitamin K C. 3
B. Anti-thrombin D. 4
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Warfarin 24. Which of the following is considered to be an advantage of the
MECHANICAL end-point detection methodology?
[Link] of the following laboratory findings is associated with A. It is not affected by lipemia in the test sample
Factor XIII deficiency? B. It has the ability to provide a graph of clot formation
A. Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time C. It can incorporate multiple wavelengths into a single testing
B. Clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution sequence
C. Prolonged thrombin time D. It can measure proteins that do not have fibrin formation as
D. Prolonged prothrombin time the end-point

24. The following results were obtained on a patient: prolonged 32. In end-stage liver disease, the fibrinogen level may fall to less
bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal PT, and prolonged than ___mg/dL, which is a mark of liver failure.
APTT. Which of the following disorders is most consistent with A. Less than 100 mg/dL
these results? B. Less than 200 mg/dL
A. Hemophilia A C. Less than 300 mg/dL
B. Hemophilia B D. Less than 400 mg/dL
C. vWD
D. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia 33. Which of the following locations is not a site of
extramedullary hematopoiesis?
25. The abnormal APTT seen in pathological circulating A. Bone marrow
anticoagulant is: B. Liver
A. Corrected with aged serum C. Spleen
B. Corrected with adsorbed plasma D. Thymus
C. Corrected with normal plasma
D. Not corrected with any of the above 34. Patients with renal failure often exhibit compromised
hematopoietic activity because of which of the following?
26. A prolonged Stypven (Russell viper venom) time is associated A. Concurrent depression of the thyroid
with deficiency of the following factors EXCEPT: B. Decreased production of erythropoietin
A. Factor I C. Decreased production of GM-CSF
B. Factor II D. BM suppression caused by medications
C. Factor X
D. Factor VII 35. Which of the following best describes the function of the
Rapoport-Leubering pathway?

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 KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS

HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
A. It produces ATP to help maintain RBC membrane C. Rupture of the cytoplasm
deformability D. Rupture of the nucleus
B. It results in reduction of glutathione
C. It produces 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG) 45. Tertiary granules of the neutrophils are formed during the:
D. It produces cytochrome reductase A. Promyelocyte stage
B. Myelocyte and metamyelocyte stage
[Link] of the following hemoglobins is composed of four beta C. Metamyelocyte and band stage
globin chains? D. Band and segmented neutrophil stage
A. Hemoglobin F
B. Hemoglobin C 46. Reagent for the solubility test:
C. Bart's hemoglobin A. Ferric cyanide and detergent
D. Hemoglobin H B. 2% sodium metabisulfite
C. Sodium hydrosulfite (dithionite) and a detergent-based lysing
37. In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does hemoglobin agent (saponin)
formation begin? D. 1% sodium hydroxide
A. Reticulocyte
B. Pronormoblast [Link] hemoglobin C, glutamic acid on the 6th position of beta chain
C. Basophilic normoblast is replaced by which amino acid?
D. Polychromatophilic normoblast A. Lysine
B. Valine
38. What is the last nucleated stage in development of C. Arginine
erythrocyte? D. Glutamine
A. Prorubricyte
B. Rubricyte 48. Most reliable way to differentiate a mature from an immature
C. Metarubricyte granulocyte:
D. Reticulocyte A. Size of the cell
B. Color of the cytoplasm
39. Which is the major hemoglobin found in the RBCs of patients C. Size of the nucleus
with sickle cell trait? D. Chromatin pattern
A. Hemoglobin S
B. Hemoglobin F 49. S or DNA replication
C. Hemoglobin A2 A. 1 hour
D. Hemoglobin A1 B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
40. Which of these hemoglobin derivatives cannot be reduced back D. 10 hours
to normal hemoglobin?
A. Methemoglobin 50. What is the ratio of IRON TO PYRROLE in 1 heme portion of the
B. Hemiglobin hemoglobin molecule?
C. Carboxyhemoglobin A. 1 iron to 2 pyrrole rings
D. Sulfhemoglobin B. 2 iron to 1 pyrrole ring
C. 1 iron to 4 pyrrole rings
41. Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as D. 4 iron to 1 pyrrole ring
megakaryoblasts mature into megakaryocytes within the bone
marrow? 51. Very clumped chromatin:
A. Progressive decrease in overall cell size A. Myelocyte
B. Increasing basophilia of cytoplasm B. Metamyelocyte
C. Nuclear division without cytoplasmic division C. Band
D. Fusion of the nuclear lobes D. Segmented neutrophil

42. Which of the following cells is the largest cell in the bone 52. Basophils have an average circulation time of about ____
marrow? hours.
A. Monocyte A. 7 hours
B. Megakaryocyte B. 8.5 hours
C. Osteoblast C. 9 hours
D. Mast cell D. 12 hours

43. Portion of DNA that is inactive during transcription to 53. Lack of vitamin B12 or folic acid hinders the erythroblast in
messenger RNA and stains deeply with Wright stain: manufacturing:
A. Euchromatin A. Heme
B. Heterochromatin B. Globin
C. Peripheral chromatin C. DNA
D. NOTA D. RNA

44. Apoptosis is morphologically identified by: 54. The nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test is used to assist in the
A. Cellular swelling diagnosis of:
B. Nuclear condensation A. Leukocyte adhesion disorders (LADs)

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 KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS

HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
B. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) C. Red cell indices
C. May-Hegglin anomaly D. Total iron-binding capacity
D. Pelger-Huet anomaly
64. The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast
55. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?
with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a Wright’s-stained A. At least 30%
blood smear? B. At least 20%
A. Basophilic stippling C. At least 10%
B. Heinz bodies D. Any percentage
C. Howell-Jolly bodies
D. Siderotic granules 65, When acanthocytes are found on the blood smear, it is usually
the result of:
56. Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in A. Abnormal membrane permeability
iron deficiency anemia? B. Altered membrane lipids
A. Sickle cell anemia C. Mechanical trauma
B. Thalassemia D. Polymerization of hemoglobin molecules
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hereditary spherocytosis 66. Hereditary stomatocytosis is manifested physiologically by
changes in:
57. Sodium fluoride maybe added to naphthyl ASD (NASDA) A. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity
esterase reaction. The fluoride is added to inhibit a positive B. Membrane cation permeability
reaction with: C. Efficiency of hemoglobin reduction
A. Megakaryocytes D. Glycolytic ATP production
B. Monocytes
C. Erythrocytes 67. Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by mild anemia and
D. Granulocytes numerous on the peripheral blood smear.
A. Acanthocytes
58. Of the following, the disease most closely associated with B. Elliptocytes
granulocyte hyposegmentation is: C. Echinocytes
[Link]-Hegglin anomaly D. Stomatocytes
[Link]-Huet anomaly
[Link]-Higashi syndrome 68. A Gaucher cell is best described as a macrophage with:
[Link]'s disease A. "Wrinkled" cytoplasm due to an accumulation of
glucocerebroside
59. Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly B. "Foamy" cytoplasm filled with unmetabolized sphingomyelin
inclusions? C. Pronounced vacuolization and deposits of cholesterol
A. Membrane defect of lysosomes D. Abundant cytoplasm containing storage iron and cellular
B. Dohle bodies and giant platelets remnants
C. Two-lobed neutrophils
D. Mucopolysaccharidosis 69. Solid tumor counterpart of acute lymphoblastic leukemia:
A. Lymphoma, undifferentiated
60. In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red cell B. Lymphoma, poorly-differentiated
morphology is: C. Lymphoma, well-differentiated
A. Target cells D. Myeloma
B. Schistocytes
C. Teardrop cells 70. Microhematocrit tube:
D. Ovalocytes A. Length 75 mm, inner bore of 1.2 mm
B. Length 115 mm, bore of 3 mm
61. DIC is most often associated with which of the following FAB C. Length of 300 mm, bore of 2.5 mm
designation of acute leukemia? D. Length of 11.5 cm, bore of 3 mm
A. M1
B. M3 71. Duplicate hematocrit results should agree within __ unit (%).
C. M4 A. 1%
D. M5 B. 2%
C. 5%
62. In addition to the number of blasts, what other criterion is D. 15%
essential for the diagnosis of RARS?
A. More than 15% ringed sideroblasts 72. When comparing spun microhematocrit results with hematocrit
B. Dyshematopoiesis in all three lineages results obtained on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit
C. More than 5% ringed sideroblasts results may vary from ___ because of this trapped plasma.
D. Pancytopenia
A. 1 to 3% lower
63. Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of B. 1 to 3% higher
chronic infection by: C. 3 to 5% lower
A. Serum iron level D. 3 to 5% higher
B. Red cell morphology

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 KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS

HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
73. The difference between the total cells counted on each side B. BCR/ABL
should be less than ___%. A greater variation could indicate an C. PML/RARA
uneven distribution, which requires that the procedure be D. JAK2
repeated.
A. Less than 10% 82. Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase (specific) is usually
B. Less than 15% positive in _____ cells, and alpha naphthyl acetate esterase
C. Less than 20% (nonspecific)is useful for identifying blast cells of ______lineage.
D. Less than 30% A. Granulocytic; monocytic
B. Monocytic; granulocytic
74. If the WBC count is above 30 x 10 9th/L, it is advisable to use C. Granulocytic; lymphocytic
this dilution: D. Monocytic; lymphocytic
A. 1:10
B. 1:20 83. Blood drop size in the manual wedge technique:
C. 1:100 A. 1 to 2 mm in diameter
D. 1:200 B. 2 to 3 mm in diameter
C. 4 to 5 mm in diameter
75. For manual platelet count, the filled counting chamber should D. 5 to 6 mm in diameter
be allowed to stand for __ prior to performing the count to give the
platelets time to settle. 84. Which of the following appearances describes the types of cells
A. 3 minutes seen in Sezary syndrome?
B. 5 minutes A. Plasma cells containing immunoglobulin deposits
C. 10 minutes B. Large circulating micromegakaryocytes
D. 15 minutes C. Lymphocytes with convoluted, cerebriform nuclei
D. Prolymphocytes with prominent azurophilic granules
76. Insufficient centrifugation will result in:
A. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value 85. Lipemia can cause turbidity in the cyanmethemoglobin method
B. A false decrease in Hct value and a falsely high hemoglobin result. It can be corrected by:
C. No effect on Hct value A. Reagent-sample solution can be centrifuged and the
D. All of these options, depending on the patient supernatant measured
B. Adding 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the
77. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the
are seen on the peripheral smear because: reagent blank
A. The WBC count would be falsely lower C. Making a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted
B. The RBC count is too low sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from
C. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes the standard curve by 2.
D. Nucleated RBCs are confused with giant platelets D. Cannot be corrected

[Link] of the following cells is considered pathognomonic for 86. If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the
Hodgkin’s disease? procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to:
A. Niemann–Pick cells A. 1:10
B. Reactive lymphocytes B. 1:20
C. Flame cells C. 1:100
D. Reed–Sternberg cells D. 1:200

[Link] that exhibit a positive stain with acid phosphatase and are 87. Platelet count that can cause turbidity in the
not inhibited with tartaric acid are characteristically seen in: cyanmethemoglobin method resulting to falsely high hemoglobin
A. Infectious mononucleosis value:
B. Infectious lymphocytosis A. Greater than 150 x 10 9th/L
C. Hairy cell leukemia B. Greater than 200 x 10 9th/L
D. T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia C. Greater than 500 x 10 9th/L
D. Greater than 700 x 10 9th/L
80. In addition to an increase in red blood cells, which of the
following is characteristic of polycythemia vera? 88. Forward, low angle light scatter:
A. Decreased platelets, decreased granulocytes, decreased A. 0 degree angle
erythropoietin level B. 2 to 3 degree angle
B. Decreased platelets, decreased granulocytes, increased C. 5 to 15 degree angle
erythropoietin level D. 90 degree angle
C. Increased platelets, increased granulocytes, increased
erythropoietin level 89. The ESR is ____ proportional to the red blood cell mass and
D. Increased platelets, increased granulocytes, decreased _____proportional to plasma viscosity.*
erythropoietin level
A. Direct, direct
81. Which of the following gene mutations correlates with the B. Direct, inverse
t(9;22) that is present in Philadelphia chromosome positive chronic C. Inverse, direct
myelogenous leukemia? D. Inverse, inverse
A. MYC/IGH

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 KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS

HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
90. In automated cell counters, these parameters are directly C. Reactive lymphocytosis
measured: D. Toxic granulation
A. WBC and RBC
[Link] impedance principle of cell counting is based on the
B. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin
detection and measurement of changes in electrical resistance
C. WBC and hemoglobin
produced by cells as they traverse a small aperture. Electrical
D. RBC only
resistance between the ___ electrodes, or impedance in the
current, occurs as the cells pass through the sensing aperture,
[Link] 60 reticulocytes are counted in 1000 red blood cells, what is causing voltage pulses that are measurable
the reticulocyte count? A. Two (2) electrodes
A. 0.06% B. Three (3) electrodes
B. 0.6% C. Four (4) electrodes
C. 6.0% D. Ten (10) electrodes
D. 60.0%

92. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by flow 100. Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used
cytometry results that are: to measure:
A. Negative for CD55 and CD59 A. Cell size
B. Positive for CD55 and CD59 B. Cytoplasmic granularity
C. Negative for CD4 and CD8 C. Cell number
D. Positive for all normal CD markers D. Immunologic (antigenic) identification

[Link] for the sugar water and sucrose hemolysis test:

A. EDTA
B. Citrate
C. Heparin
D. Oxalate
HAVE FAITH AND BELIEVE IN YOURSELF.
94. Dilution for RBC count in automated cell counters:
A. 1:100 YOU ARE DOING GREAT AND KEEP UP.
B. 1:200
C. 1: 50,000
YOU WILL PASS THE BOARD EXAM.
D. 1: 500

[Link] values should be based on specimens that are between

____ and ___ hours old.
A. 1 and 4 hours old
B. 4 and 6 hours old
C. 6 and 8 hours old
D. 16 and 18 hours old

[Link] and icterus:

A. Decreased hemoglobin and MCH
B. Increased hemoglobin and MCH
C. No effect on hemoglobin and MCH
D. Decreased hemoglobin and increased MCH

[Link] of the following are causes of spurious decrease in MCHC,

except:
A. Autoagglutination
B. High WBCs
C. Spuriously low hemoglobin
D. Spuriously high hematocrit

98.A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be

bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be
expected on this film?
A. Rouleaux
B. Spherocytosis