Grade 10
Note:
Answer all the question
In each of the questions 01 to 100, pick one of the alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) which you consider is
correct or most appropriate.
1) Among the elements contained in the human body, the element that contains the highest percentage by
mass is:
(1) Oxygen (2) Carbon (3) Hydrogen (4) Nitrogen
2) The false statement about the composition of element in Organic compound is,
(1) The elemental ratio of Hydrogen and Oxygen in a carbohydrate molecule is always 2:1.
(2) A protein molecule can have N addition to C, H, and O.
(3) The ratio of H and O in a lipid molecule is always greater than 2:1’
(4) A Nucleic acid molecule necessarily contains P.
3) Which of the following compounds is a monosaccharide?
(1) Starch (2) Sucrose (3) Cellulose (4) Fructose
4) The test done to identify proteins in the laboratory is:
(1) Benedict test (2) Sudan III test (3) Biuret test (4) Iodine test
5) Above is a nucleotide. The sequence of components indicated by A, B, and C are:
(1) Phosphate group, Pentose sugar and Nitrogenous base
(2) Pentose sugar, Nitrogenous base, Phosphate group
(3) Phosphate group, Nitrogenous base, Pentose sugar
(4) Nitrogenous base, Phosphate group, Pentose sugar
6) A vector quantity from the following quantities is:
(1) Distance (2) Displacement (3) Speed (4) time
7) A Child starts from A and arrives at B along the path indicated by the arrows. The magnitude of the
displacement of the of the child in the direction of AB is :
(1) 100m (2) 150m (3) 200m (4) 400m
8) Among the following options the standard unit corresponding to
the given quantity is:
(1) Displacement - Km (2) speed- ms-1
(3) Velocity -Kmh-1 (4) Acceleration - ms-1
9) The true statement about speed and velocity among the following statements is:
(1) Speed is a vector quantity whereas velocity is a scalar quantity
(2) The speed and the velocity of a moving object is always equal.
(3) The velocity of a free falling object decreases uniformly.
(4) The magnitude and the direction of an object moving at a uniform velocity remain same.
10) If and object started from rest moves with an acceleration of 0.5 ms-2 for 10 seconds, find the velocity of
the object at the end of that 10 seconds.
(1) 1ms-1 (2) 2.5ms-1 (3) 5ms-1 (4) 10ms-1
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11) The following velocity time graph is drawn for a moving object.
Find the acceleration of the object.
(1) 1ms-2
(2) 2ms-2
(3) 3ms-2
(4) 4ms-2
12) The disparagement shown in the following graph is
(1) 20m
(2) 25m
(3) 50m
(4) 100m
13) The displacement with uniform velocity of the graph is:
(1) 25m
(2) 50m
(3) 75m
(4) 100m
14) An object that starts moving along a straight line form rest
moves with acceleration for a few seconds, reaches a
maximum velocity, moves with the same velocity, moves with deceleration for the last few seconds and
comes to rest. The velocity-time graph for this motion is,
15) The velocity -time graph of a coconut falling from a 10 m tall coconut tree is shown as:
16) Choose the correct statement about the charge of an electron.
(1) Positively charged (2) negatively charged (3) Neutral (4) Not sure
17) Choose the correct statement made by the scientist Neil’s Bohr about the atomic model.
(1) The nucleus is positively charged (2) Electrons move in orbits around the nucleus.
(3)Protons moves in orbits around the nucleus (4) Electrons slowly revolve around the nucleus
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18) The order of atomic shells from the nucleus to outward is,
(1) K, L,M,N (2) L,K,M,N (3) M,K,L,N (4) N,M,L,K
19) Followings are some statements about an atom.
(A) A positively charged nucleus is inside the atom.
(B) The energy of energy levels in an atom gradually decreases towards outermost energy level.
(C) The number of maximum electrons that can be occupied in the third energy level is 18.
The correct statement/s ,
(1) A and B (2) A and C (3) B and C (4) A,B and C
20) The maximum number of electrons found in the consecutive energy levels of an atom form the nucleus
in order is,
(1) 2, 8, 18, 32 (2) 2, 8, 8, 18 (3) 2, 18, 18, 32 (4) 2, 8, 8, 8
21) …………………… exist in energy levels of an atom. The word in the blank is,
(1) Protons (2) Neutrons (3) Electrons (4) All the above
22) The pattern of arrangement of electrons in the energy levels around the nucleus of an atom is called as,
(1) Proton configuration (2) Valency (3) Mass number (4) Electronic configuration
23) The electronic configuration of an element is known as,
(1) Number of Electrons in the nucleus (2) Number of Protons in the nucleus
(3) Number of Neutrons in the nucleus (4) All the above
24) The electronic configuration of the element with the atomic number 11 is,
(1) 2 ,8 ,2 (2) 2, 8, 1 (3) 2, 8, 3 (4) 2, 8, 36
25) Consider the following statements.
A. Number protons are equal to the number electrons in a ion
B. Different atoms contain different number of protons in their nucleus.
C. Number of protons is equal to number of electrons in a neutral atom.
The correct statement/s of mentioned above,
(1) Only A (2) A and C (3) B and C (4) A,B, and C
26) The modern periodic table is based on,
(1) Mass number (2) Atomic Number
(3) Electron configuration (4) Atomic number and electronic configuration
27) Select the correct statement about the Periodic Table
(1) Elements with similar properties recur at regular intervals of elements
(2) Elements show different properties all the times.
(3) Similar elements are found alternatively.
(4) Mass number of elements is considered in making the Periodic Table.
28) The Group number in the periodic table shows,
(1) The number of energy levels in the atom (2) The number of protons
(3) The number of electrons in the last energy level (4) the number of neutrons in the nucleus
29) The period number of the periodic table is determine by the,
(1) Number of energy level in the atom (2) Atoms number of the element
(3) Electronic configuration of the atom (4) Mass number of the element
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30) What the name given for the number of electrons in the last energy level of an atom?
(1) Lone pair electrons (2) Free electrons (3) Bonding electrons (4) Valence electrons
31) An unbalanced force can be seen ,
(1) On a book kept on a table (2) when a bus is at rest
(3) When a bus is moving in uniform velocity (4) when lifting a brick
32) The incorrect statement among the following statements is,
(1) A resting object can be moved by applying a force
(2) The velocity of a moving object can be changed by exerting a force.
(3) A moving object can be made rest by applying a force
(4) None of the above can be done by a force.
33) The correct point of action of the force applied on the given object is,
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
34) Newton’s first, second and third laws respectively represent,
(1) Product of Mass and Acceleration, Action and Reaction, Unbalanced force
(2) Unbalanced force, Product of mass and acceleration, Action and Reaction
(3) Action and Reaction, Unbalanced force, product of mass and acceleration
(4) Action and reaction, product of mass and acceleration, Unbalanced force
35) The unbalanced force act on the given object is,
(1) 50N- East (2) 100N- West
(3) 70N- East (4) 20N- East
36) A force of 500N is applied on a box kept on a table. The frictional force between the box and the table is
250N. The correct statement regarding the above mentioned situation is,
(1) The Object stays at rest. (2) The object moves at uniform velocity.
(3) The unbalanced force on the object is 250N. (3) The unbalanced force on the object is 750N
37) A lorry traveled at acceleration. Then some additional goods were loaded to it on the way and it traveled
in the same force.
(1) The lorry travels in the same acceleration which it was travelling
(2) The acceleration is reduced.
(3) The acceleration is increased.
(4) Nothing can be said about the motion.
38) The Acceleration attained by a cupboard mass of 250kg pushed with a horizontal force of 1000N is,
(1) 3ms-2 (2) 3.5ms-2 (3) 4 ms-2 (4) 4.5 ms-2
39) The correct definition of one Newton (1N) of force is,
(1) The force required to give an object of mass 1kg an acceleration of 10ms-2
(2) The force required to give an object of mass 1kg an acceleration of 1ms-2
(3) The force required to give an object of mass 1g an acceleration of 1ms-2
(4) The force required to give an object of mass 1g an acceleration of 10ms-2
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40) The most suitable definition of newton’s third law is,
(1) Action has a Reaction in the same direction.
(2) Action has a Reaction in the same magnitude
(3) Action has a Reaction of same magnitude but in the opposite direction
(4) Action has a Reaction of different magnitude and in the same direction
41) A factor that not effect on the frictional force between two surfaces in contact with each other is,
(1) Nature of the surface (2) Mass of the surface
(3) Area of the surface (4) Perpendicular reaction to the surface
42) The most suitable statement to define dynamic frictional force is,
(1) The force exerted by a surface on a moving object in the opposite direction of the motion.
(2) The force exerted by a surface on a moving object in the direction of the motion.
(3) The perpendicular force exerted by a surface on a resting object.
(4) The force between the two surfaces when the object is about to move.
43) The force exerted on an object when it is in motion should,
(1) be more than the limiting frictional force between the two surface.
(2) be less than static frictional force
(3) be equal to static frictional force.
(4) all the above are correct.
44) The frictional force acting on a moving object is,
(1) Limiting frictional force (2) Dynamic frictional force
(3) Static frictional force (4) None of the Above
45) Which frictional force is applied on the object kept on the table?
(1) Static frictional force (2) Dynamic frictional force
(3) Limiting frictional force (3) No frictional force is exerted
46) The Structure that can be seen only in plant cell is,
(1) Cell membrane (2) Cell wall (3) mitochondria (4) Nucleolus
47) A student is provided a specimen slide that could be seen under a light microscope. Following things
was observed in that slide.
● Cell wall was absent ● A large cytoplasm was observed. ● Chloroplast was absent
The cells being observed is,
(1) Human cheek cells (2) Guard cell (3) Palisade mesophyll cells (4) mesophyll cells
48) A postulation which is not mentioned in the Cell theory,
(1) The structural and functional unit of Life is the Cell
(2) All the living being are made up of a single or multiple Cell.
(3) A cell originates by an existing Cell.
(4) New cells are produced by meiosis.
49) Select the organelles that can be observed only in a plant cell
(1) Nucleus, Chloroplast, Mitochondria
(2) Plasma membrane, Nucleus, Golgi Bodies
(3) Chloroplast, Large central vacuole, Cell wall
(4) Nucleus, Cell Membrane, Mitochondria
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50) The correct statement about the Generalized Cell is
(1) The structure of a generalized cell changes according to its function.
(2) It’s a cell including all the cellular organelles.
(3) It’s a cell includes some of the cellular organelles.
(4) The structure of a generalized cell changes according to the place it found.
51) The cellular organelles that are visible under an optical microscope are,
(1) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Nucleus, Central Vacuole
(2) Plasma membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria, Ribosomes
(3) Cell wall, Plasma membrane, Chloroplast, Lysosomes
(4) Nucleus, Golgi bodies, Endoplasmic reticulum, Ribosomes
52) The structure that corresponds to its function correctly is,
(1) Mitochondria - transmission of hereditary features
(2) Nucleus – Photosynthesis
(3) Chloroplast – Release of energy by cellular respiration
(4) Ribosomes- Protein synthesis
53) The cell wall is made up of,
(1) Pectin (2) Chitin (3) Cellulose (4) Calcium Carbonate
54) The semi permeable membranes found in the living cell is,
(1) Cell wall and Cell membrane (2) Cell membrane and vacuole membrane
(3) Vacuole membrane and cell wall (4) Cell wall, vacuole membrane and cell membrane
55) The structure labelled as “a” in the given diagram is,
(1) Cell wall (2) Cell membrane
(3) Vacuole membrane (4) Nuclear membrane
56) The electron in an atom is important,
(1) In making bonds (2) In making isotopes
(3) to decide atomic number (4) to decide mass number
57) Following diagram shows a molecule formed by two atoms labeled as A and B
sharing electrons between two atoms labeled as A and B. The valency of A and
B respectively,
(1) 1, 4 (2) 1,6 (3) 2,1 (4) 2,
6
58) What is the solution needed to use as P in order light the
bulb?
(1) Sugar solution (2) Salt solution
(3) Glucose Solution (4) Distilled water
59) Sodium atom becomes a ion by removing an electron. Select
the incorrect statement regarding a sodium ion is,
(1) number of electrons is 10
(2) number of protons is 10
(3) Net charge is +1
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(4) Number of protons is 11
60) The correct equation of the formation of an ion is,
(1) Cl + e ----------------- Cl-1 (2) Na -------------------- Na+2 + 2e
(3) Cl + e ---------------- Cl +1 (4) Na + 2e ----------------- Na2-
61) When attaining a stable electronic configuration, A Chlorine atom,
(1) Receives electrons (2) Remove seven electrons
(3) Receive one electron (4) Remove one electron
62) The given diagram shows,
(1) Electrostatic attraction between Ca2+ and Cl- ions
(2) Electrostatic attraction between Na+ and Cl- ions
(3) Electrostatic attraction between Na+ and O2- ions
(4) Electrostatic attraction between Li+ and O2- ions
63) Electronic configuration of element X is 2,8,3. The charge of the ion formed by X is,
(1) +3 (2) -3 (3) +5 (4) -5
64) An element named as “M” forms M2- ion by receiving two electrons. The electronic configuration of the
element M is,
(1) 2,8,2 (2) 2,8,1 (3) 2,8,4 (4) 2,8,6
65) The electronic configuration of the element with the atomic number 12 is,
(1) 2,6 (2) 2,8 (3) 2,8,8 (4) 2,8,2
66) The element Z receives 3 electrons to form an ion. The correct representation of the ion is,
(1) Z5+ (2) Z3+ (3) Z5- (4) Z3-
67) Following statements are of formation of ions.
a. An atom forms a +1 ion by removing an electron
b. An atom forms a -1 ion by removing an electron
c. An atom forms a +1 ion by receiving an electron
d. An atom forms a -1 ion by receiving an electron
The correct statements are,
(1) a and b (2) b and c (3) b and d (4) a and d
68) Select the property which is not of an ionic compound.
(1) Solids conduct electricity
(2) Exits as solid crystals at room temperature
(3) Having a high meting point and boiling point
(4) Dissolves in water
69) Following properties are shown by a compound X.
Hetero atomic molecule
Aqueous solutions do not conduct electricity
Exist as a gas at room temperature
The most suitable compound represent as X can be
(1) NaCl (2) O2 (3) NH3 (4) C6H12O6
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70) The compound with a central atom which not follows the octet rule is,
(1) CO2 (2) AlCl3 (3) NH3 (4) H2O
71) A Lewis Diagram of a molecule is shown as XY2. The Valency of X and Y respectively is,
(1) 2,4 (2) 4,2 (3) 4,4 (4) 2,6
72) When atoms forming covalent bonds, they,
(1) Share electrons (2) Exchange electrons (3) Share protons (4) Exchange protons
73)
a. HF is a polar molecule
b. F is more electronegative than H
The correct answer is,
(1) a is true and b is true (2) a is false and b is true
(3) a and b are true, a explains b (4) a and b are true, b explains a
74) The correct dot cross diagram of the molecule form by combining C and O atom is,
75) A special property of water that not count as a result of the intermolecular attraction is,
(1) having a high boiling point
(2) having high heat capacity
(3) Ice floats on water
(4) exists as a gas at room temperature
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