LEBANESE UNIVERSITY MATH 1102 (E)

FACULTY OF SCIENCES Year : 2017-2018

SECTION II, FANAR Second Semestre

- Solution of TD 2 -

Exercice 1 Prove by recurrence the following assertions :

1. For any whole number n ≥ 4, we have 2n ≥ n2 .
— For n = 4, we have 24 = 16 and 42 = 16, so the property is true for n = 4.
— Suppose this is true for n and let’s show it for n + 1 :
2n+1 = 2n × 2 ≥ 2n2 . It remains to show that 2n2√≥ (n + 1)2 .√ √
2n2 − (n + 1)2 = n2 − 2n − 1 whose roots are 1 + 2 and 1 − 2. But n ≥ 4 > 1 + 2
thus n2 − 2n − 1 ≥ 0 for n ≥ 4. Therefore, 2n+1 ≥ 2n2 ≥ (n + 1)2 .
2. ∀ n ∈ N, ∀ α ∈ R+ , we have (1 + α)n ≥ 1 + nα.
— For n = 0, we have (1 + α)0 = 1 and 1 + 0 × α = 1, thus (1 + α)n ≥ 1 + nα is true for
n = 0.
— Suppose this is true for n and let’s show it for n + 1 :
(1 + α)n+1 = (1 + α)n × (1 + α) ≥ (1 + nα)(1 + α) = 1 + (n + 1)α + nα2 ≥ 1 + (n + 1)α
because nα2 ≥ 0.
3. ∀ n ∈ N∗ , we have 3n + 4 × 23n is divisible by 5.
— For n = 1, we have 31 + 4 × 23 = 35 = 7 × 5 is divisible by 5.
— Suppose this is true for n, i.e., ∃ k ∈ Z such that 3n + 4 × 23n = 5k and let’s show it
for n + 1 :
3n+1 + 4 × 23(n+1) = 3n × 3 + 4 × 23n+3
= (5k − 4 × 23n ) × 3 + 4 × 23n+3
= 15k − 3 × 4 × 23n + 4 × 23n+3
= 15k + 4 × 23n (23 − 3) = 15k + 4 × 23n × 5 = 5 × (3k + 4 × 23n )

Thus, ∃ k 0 = 3k + 4 × 23n ∈ Z, tel que 3n+1 + 4 × 23(n+1) = 5k 0 so it’s true for n + 1.

4. For any integer n ≥ 2, n is a prime number or a product of prime numbers.
— For n = 2, 2 is a prime number so the property is true for n = 2.
— Suppose that the property is true for any k ∈ {2, . . . , n}, i.e., k is a prime number or
a product of prime numbers and let’s show that the property is true for n + 1.
There are two cases :
— If n + 1 is a prime number then it’s good.
— Otherwise, then n + 1 has a proper divider therefore n + 1 will be written as
n + 1 = a × b with 2 ≤ a, b ≤ n. Since the property is true for any k ∈ {2, . . . , n},
and a, b ∈ {2, . . . , n}, so in particular the property is true for a and b, thus a, resp. b,
is a prime number or a product of prime numbers. Consequently, n + 1 is a product
of prime numbers. So it’s true for n + 1.

Exercice 2 Let (E, ≤) be a finite total ordered set. We set Card(E) = n. we note ∆ = {(x, y) ∈
E 2 ; x = y}, A = {(x, y) ∈ E 2 ; x < y} and B = {(x, y) ∈ E 2 ; y < x}.
1. Show that Card(∆) = n.
we consider the application
f : E −→ ∆
x 7−→ f (x) = (x, x)
 Show that f is bijective.
— f is injective because ∀ x, x0 ∈ E, f (x) = f (x0 ) =⇒ (x, x) = (x0 , x0 ) =⇒ x = x0 .
— f is surjective because ∀ (x, y) ∈ ∆, we have x ∈ E and x = y then (x, y) = (x, x) =
f (x).
Thus, E ' ∆, therefore ∆ is finite and Card(∆) = n
2. Show that A and B are equipollent.
We consider the correspondance

f : A −→ B
(x, y) 7−→ f (x, y) = (y, x)

f is an application because
— If (x, y) ∈ A then x < y thus (y, x) ∈ B.
— If (x, y) = (x0 , y 0 ) then x = x0 and y = y 0 then (y, x) = (y 0 , x0 ) thus f (x, y) = f (x0 , y 0 ).
Show that f is bijective.
— f is injective because ∀ (x, y), (x0 , y 0 ) ∈ A, f (x, y) = f (x0 , y 0 ) =⇒ (y, x) = (y 0 , x0 ) =⇒
x = x0 and y = y 0 =⇒ (x, y) = (x0 , y 0 )
— f is surjective because ∀ (X, Y ) ∈ B (thus Y < X), there exist (x, y) = (Y, X) ∈ A
(because we have Y < X thus x < y) such that f (x, y) = f (Y, X) = (X, Y ).
3. Deduce that 2 × Card(A) = n(n − 1).
Since (E, ≤) is a total ordered set, then ∀ (x, y) ∈ E 2 , we have x ≤ y or y ≤ x, i.e., x = y
or x < y or y < x.
So, (x, y) of E 2 is either in ∆ or in A or in B, then E 2 = ∆ ∪ A ∪ B. In addition, we have
∆ ∩ A = ∅, ∆ ∩ B = ∅ and A ∩ B = ∅ (i.e., the sets ∆, A and B are 2 by 2 disjoints).
So, Card(E 2 ) = Card(∆)+Card(A)+Card(B). But Card(A) = Card(B) and Card(∆) = n,
thus 2 × Card(A) = n2 − n = n(n − 1).

Exercice 3 Let E and F be two non-empty finites sets of cardinal n and m respectively. Let
f : E −→ F be an application. We assume that there is a non-zero integer p such that ∀ y ∈ F ,
Card(f −1 ({y})) = p. Show that n = mp.
We set F = {y1 , . . . , ym } where yi 6= yj if i 6= j. We know that
m m
!
[ [
−1 −1
E = f (F ) = f {yi } = f −1 ({yi })
i=1 i=1

which is a finite reunion of sets 2 by 2 disjoints because if i 6= j, we have f −1 ({yi })∩f −1 ({yj }) =
f −1 ({yi } ∩ {yj }) = f −1 (∅) = ∅. So,
m m m
!
[ X X
−1 −1
n = Card(E) = Card f ({yi }) = Card(f ({yi }) = p = mp.
i=1 i=1 i=1

Exercice 4 Let E, F and G be three finites sets. Determine Card(E ∪ F ∪ G).

Card(E ∪ F ∪ G) = Card(E ∪ F ) + Card(G) − Card((E ∪ F ) ∩ G)

= Card(E) + Card(F ) − Card(E ∩ F ) + Card(G) − Card((E ∩ G) ∪ (F ∩ G))
= Card(E) + Card(F ) − Card(E ∩ F ) + Card(G) − Card((E ∩ G)−
Card(F ∩ G) + Card(E ∩ F ∩ G).

Exercice 5 Let f : E −→ F be an application.

 1. Show that if A a finite part of E then f (A) is finite and Card(f (A)) ≤ Card(A).
We consider the application

f 0 : A −→ f (A)
x 7−→ f 0 (x) = f (x)

f 0 is a surjective application (according to the definition of f (A)). Since A is finite, it

follows that f (A) is finite and Card(f (A)) ≤ Card(A).
2. Show that if B a finite part of F and if f is injective then f −1 (B) is finite and Card(f −1 (B)) ≤
Card(B).
We consider the application

f 0 : f −1 (B) −→ B
x 7−→ f 0 (x) = f (x)

f 0 is a injective application ( because f it is). Since B is finte then f −1 (B) is finte and
Card(f −1 (B)) ≤ Card(B).

Exercice 6 Let E be a finte set and A be a part of E. Show that if there is an surjection from
A to E then A = E.
A is a part of E which is a finite set, so A is finite with Card(A) ≤ Card(E).
However, there is an surjection from A to E thus Card(E) ≤ Card(A). So Card(E) = Card(A)
with A ⊂ E thus A = E.

Exercice 7 Let E be a non-empty set. We consider the application

f : E −→ P(E)
x 7−→ f (x) = {x}.

1. Show that E is equipollent to Imf .

To do this, it suffices to show that f is injective. Let x, y ∈ E such that f (x) = f (y) =⇒
{x} = {y} =⇒ x = y.
2. Show that if E is finite of cardinal n then n < 2n .
If E is finite of cardinal n then Imf is also finite of cardinal n. But Imf ( P(E) (6= because
∅ ∈ P(E) but ∅ 6∈ Imf ) thus Card(Imf ) < Card(P(E))so n < 2n .

Exercice 8 Show that if there is an injective application of a non-countable set E to a set F ,

then F is not countable.
Suppose there is an injective application f : E → F then E ∼ f (E). Since E is not countable,
it follows that f (E) is also not countable. However f (E) is a part of F , F is therefore not
countable.
nm o
Exercice 9 For all n ∈ N∗ , we pose An = ;m∈Z .
n
1. Show that ∀ n ∈ N∗ , An is countable.
m
Let n ∈ N∗ and f be an application from Z to An defined by f (m) = .
n
f is surjective because ∀ y ∈ An , according to the definition of An , there exist m ∈ Z such
m
that y = = f (m). However Z is countable so there is a bijection g from N to Z. f ◦ g is
n
an application from N to An which is surjective. So, An is countable.
2. Deduce that Q is countable.
Q = ∪n∈N∗ An it is a countable union of countable sets therefore Q is countable.
 n−1
X Cnk+1
Exercice 10 1. Calculate (k + 1) , for n ∈ N∗ .
Cnk
k=0

n−1 n−1 n! n−1

X Cnk+1 X (k+1)!(n−k−1)!
X
2 n−1 n2 + n
(k + 1) = (k + 1) = (n − k) = n − n × =
Cnk n!
k!(n−k)!
2 2
k=0 k=0 k=0

Sum of the terms of an arithmetic sequence is equal to the number of terms multiplied by
half the sum of the first and last terms.
n
Y Pn nn−1 nn
2. By noting Pn = Cnk , show that = = , for all n in N∗ .
Pn−1 (n − 1)! n!
k=0
Qn k n−1
Pn k=0 Cn Cn0 × Cn1 × Cn2 × · · · × Cnn Y Ck
n
= Qn−1 k
= 0 1 2 n−1 = k
× Cnn
Pn−1 k=0 Cn−1 Cn−1 × Cn−1 × Cn−1 × · · · × Cn−1 C
k=0 n−1
n−1
Y n n n n n nn
= = × × × ··· × = .
n−k n n−1 n−2 1 n!
k=0

3. Find the coefficient of x8 y 9 in the development of (3x − 2y)17 .

17  
17
X 17
According to Newton Äôs binome formula, we have (3x−2y) = (3x)k (−2y)17−k .
’ k
  k=0
17
For k = 8, the coefficient of x8 y 9 is (3)8 (−2)9 .
8
n n
p+1
Ckp = Cn+1
X X
4. Show that . Deduce Sn = k 3 . (Hint : calculate Ck+1
3
for k ≥ 2).
k=p k=1
n
p+1
Ckp = Cn+1
X
Show that by recurrence on n for n ≥ p.
k=p
n p n
Ckp Ckp p+1 p+1
Ckp = Cn+1
p+1
X X X
— For n = p, = = Cpp = 1 and Cn+1 = Cp+1 = 1, thus is
k=p k=p k=p
true for n = p.
— Suppose this is true for n and let’s show it for n + 1.
n+1
X p X n
Ck = Ckp + Cn+1
p p+1
= Cn+1 p
+ Cn+1 = Cn+2p+1
so equality is true for n + 1.
k=p k=p
Xn
Deduce Sn = k3 .
k=1
3 (k + 1)! (k + 1)k(k − 1) k3 − k
Calculate Ck+1 = = = =⇒ k 3 = 6Ck+1
3
+ k.
3!(k − 2)! 6 6
n
X X n Xn Xn Xn n+1
X
So, Sn = k 3 = 1+ k 3 = 1+ 3
(6Ck+1 +k) = 1+6 3
Ck+1 + k = 1+6 Ck30 +
k=1 k=2 k=2 k=2 k=2 k0 =3
n+2 4 n+2 4 n2 +n−2 4 n2 + n
(n − 1) = 1 + 6Cn+2 + (n − 1) = 1 + 6Cn+2 + = 6Cn+2 + .
2 2 2 2
n
X n
X
Exercice 11 1. Calculate Cnk and Cnk (−2)k .
k=0 k=0
n
X
— Cnk = (1 + 1)n = 2n .
k=0
 n
X n
X
— Cnk (−2)k = Cnk (−2)k = (−2 + 1)n = (−1)n .
k=0 k=0
2. Calculate Cnp+1 + 2Cnp + Cnp−1 .
p+1 p p+1
Cnp+1 + 2Cnp + Cnp−1 = (Cnp+1 + Cnp ) + (Cnp + Cnp−1 ) = Cn+1 + Cn+1 = Cn+2
p−k
3. Let k, p, n ∈ N such that 0 ≤ k ≤ p ≤ n. Check that Cnk .Cn−k = Cpk .Cnp . Deduce the sum
p
p−k
X
S= Cnk .Cn−k .
k=0
p−k n! (n − k)! n! 1 n! 1
— Cnk .Cn−k = × = × = × ×
k!(n − k)! (p − k)!(n − p)! k! (p − k)!(n − p)! k! (p − k)!(n − p)!
p! p! n!
= × = Cpk .Cnp .
p! k!(p − k)! p!(n − p)!
p p p
p−k
X X X
k k p p
— S= Cn .Cn−k = Cp .Cn = Cn Cpk = 2p Cnp
k=0 k=0 k=0

Exercice 12 A group of people is made up of 4 boys and 7 girls. In how many different ways
can we select a team of 5 people.
1. containing no boys ?
This is equivalent to selecting a team from 5 people only containing girls so there are
C75 = 21 different ways.
2. containing at least one person of each sex ?
From 5 people, we can have a boy and 4 girls, or else 2 boys and 3 girls, or else 3 boys and
2 girls, or else 4 boys and one girl. So the number is C41 ×C74 +C42 ×C73 +C43 ×C72 +C44 ×C71 .
Second method : Let E all the teams of 5 people, and A all the teams containing at least
one person of each sex. We have to find Card(A).
{E A is the set of teams containing only boys or only girls. Selecting a team from 5 people
containing only boys is impossible because there are only 4 boys. So, {E A is the set of
teams containing only girls. Thus, Card{E A = C75 .
5
So finally, CardA = CardE − Card{E A = C11 − C75 = 462 − 21 = 441.
3. containing 2 boys and 3 girls ?
C42 × C73 = 210.
4. containing at least 3 boys ?
C43 × C72 + C44 × C71 = 84 + 7 = 91.

Exercice 13 1. In how many different ways can we arrange the letters of the word ALGE-
BRA ?
7!
we have 7 letters of which 2 are repeated. So it’s = 2520 different ways.
2!
Or we choose 2 places of 7 to put the 2 letterss A. Then we have C72 ways to choose 2
places for the 2 letters A. Once the choice is made, in the 5 remaining places, there are 5!
Different ways to place the 5 other letters. Thus, C72 × 5! = 2520.
2. Among these arrangements, how many are there where the two letters A follow each other ?
We have 6 possibilities to place the 2 letters A successively. In the 5 remaining places, there
are 5! Different ways to place the 5 other letters. Thus, 6 × 5! = 720.
Or, assume that AA is a single letter. So, we have to swap 6 letters. Thus 6!.
3. Among these arrangements, how many are there where the two letters A do not follow
each other ?
Total number - Number of ways where A follow each other = 2520-720=1800.
Exercice 14 In how many different ways can we split 12 people into 3 groups of 4 people each ?
4
The 4 people in the first group are chosen from 12, so the number of possible choices is C12 (the
order inside the group does not count). Once the choice is made, there remain 8 people, among
which we will choose 4 people to build the second group, so we have C84 possible choices. So,
finally, there will be 4 people left to built the last one. So we have only one choice. So, we find
4
C12 × C84 × 1.
However in this enumeration, the order of the groups is taken into consideration which does
not interest us. So divide by the permutation number of these 3 groups which is 3!. Hence, the
C 4 × C84 × 1
number of different ways that we can distribute 12 people in 3 groups of 4 people is 12 .
3!