Pathology

Direct questions

1. What are the complications of Myocardial Infarction?

2. What are the causes of secondary hypertension?
3. mention the classification of lung tumor
4. discuss pathogenesis of acute Pancreatitis.
5. Mention complications of peptic ulcer.
6. Mention the patterns of injury that cause liver failure.
7. Mention the genes that lost in colorectal cancer.
8. What are the complications of pneumonia?
9. Discuss the types of atelectasis
10. Mention the four types of Ischemic heart disease
11. Discuss angina pectoris.
12. Discuss the types of atelectasis.

Multiple Choice questions

1. Collapse of the lung due to loss of lung volume is:

A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Atelectasis
D. Bronchiolitis
2. The most common type of asthma is
A. Panacinar
B. Centriacinar
C. Distal acinar
D. None
3. One of the following is reversible airway disease
A. Chronic Bronchitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Emphysema
D. Asthma
4. All of the following are attributed to tobacco smoking except:
A. Emphysema
B. Lung cancer
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthma
5. increased blood urea & serum creatinine without symptoms & signs is termed:
A. uremia
B. Hematuria
C. azotemia
 D. pyuria
6. Cholestasis is characterized by elevation of
A. Transaminases
B. Lactate dehydrogenase
C. Alkaline Phosphatase
D. Alpha antitrypsin
7. Post-hepatic cause of portal hypertension is
A. Portal vein thrombosis.
B. Cirrhosis.
C. Hepatic vein thrombosis
D. Schistosomiasis
8. In the stage of Grey hepatisation, which of the following is a finding?
A. WBC’s fill the alveoli
B. RBC’s fill the alveoli
C. Organisms fill the alveoli
D. Accumulation of fibrin
9. The alveoli are filled with exudates the air is displaced converting the lung into a
solid organ this description suggests
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Lobar pneumonia
10. Late response in bronchial asthma is due to:
A. Mast cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages
11. Thickening of pulmonary membrane is seen in:
A. Asthma
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchitis
D. Bronchiectasis
12. A 45 yrs old male had severe chest pain and was admitted to the hospital with a
diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. Four days later he died and autopsy
showed transmural coagulative necrosis. Which of the following microscopic
features will be seen on further examination?
A. Fibroblasts and collagen
B. Granulation tissue
C. Neutrophilic infiltration surrounding coagulative necrosis
D. Granulomatous inflammation
13. Major criteria for rheumatic fever, consists of all except:
 A. Pancarditis
B. Arthritis
C. Subcutaneous nodule
D. Erythema nodosum
14. Most friable vegetation is seen in:
A. Infective endocarditis
B. Libman Sacks endocarditis
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Rheumatoid heart disease
15. Aschoff’s nodules are seen in:
A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis
C. Rheumatic carditis
D. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
16. Aschoff bodies in Rheumatic heart disease show all of the following features,
except:
A. Anitschkow cells
B. Epithelioid cells
C. Giant cells
D. Fibrinoid necrosis
17. Most common cause of right sided heart failure is:
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Systemic hypertension
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Left side heart failure
18. Mitral valve vegetations do not embolise usually to:
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lung
19. Which of the following cardiac valves is not commonly involved in rheumatic
fever?
A. Mitral
B. Pulmonary
C. Aortic
D. Tricuspid
20. What is the investigation for second MI after 1 week of previous MI?
A. Troponin I
B. Troponin T
C. CPK-MB
D. LDH
21. Most common artery involved in myocardial infarction is:
A. Right coronary artery
B. Left coronary artery
C. Left anterior descending coronary artery
D. Left circumflex coronary artery
22. 7 day old MI the most sensitive biochemical marker:
A. Troponin T
B. CK MB
C. LDH
D. Myoglobin
23. Which of the following is the commonest histological finding in benign
hypertension?
A. Proliferative end arteritits
B. Necrotizing arteriolitis
C. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
D. Cystic medial necrosis
24. Most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm is:
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Syphilis
C. Trauma
D. Congenital
25. All are seen in malignant hypertension, except:
A. Fibrinoid necrosis
B. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
C. Necrotizing glomerulonephritis
D. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
26. In atherosclerosis, increased macrophage is due to:
A. LDL receptors on macrophage
B. LDL receptors on endothelium
C. Lipids in LDL get auto-oxidized
D. All of the above
27. Monckeberg’s calcific sclerosis affects the medium sized muscular arteries by
involving the structure of:
A. Intima
B. Media
C. Adventitia
D. All of the above
28. Renal biopsy in an old man Hitesh demonstrates concentric, laminated
thickening of arteriolar walls due to proliferation of smooth muscle cells. This
process is best described by which of the following terms?
A. Atherosclerosis
 B. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
C. Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
D. Mönckeberg’s arteriosclerosis
29. Onion skin thickening of arteriolar wall is seen in:
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Median calcific sclerosis
C. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
D. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
30. Which of the following is a feature of temporal arteritis?
A. Giant cell arteritis
B. Granulomatous vasculitis
C. Necrotizing vasculitis
D. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis
31. Which of the following is not a common cause of Vasculitis in adults?
A. Giant Cell Arteritis
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
32. Polyarteritis nodosa does not involve:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Bronchial artery
C. Renal artery
D. Cerebral artery
33. The following have strong causal association with H. Pylori infection except
A. Chronic gastritis
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Gastric adenoma
34. In pernicious anemia, antibody is formed against:
A. G-cell
B. Parietal cell
C. Stem cell
D. All
35. Most common site of carcinoma pancreas is
A. Head
B. Body
C. Tail
D. Equal incidence at all sites
36. Which of the following is high risk to develop into malignant?
A. Tubular adenoma
B. Villous Adenoma
 C. Tubulovillous adenoma
D. None
37. Nutmeg liver is seen in which of the following conditions?
A. Right sided heart failure
B. Left sided heart failure
C. Increased pulmonary pressure
D. Decreased pulmonary pressure
38. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
D. Indian childhood cirrhosis
39. In pregnancy, which viral infection has maximum mortality?
A. Hepatitis A Virus
B. Hepatitis B Virus
C. Hepatitis C Virus
D. Hepatitis E Virus.
40. Most common primary malignant tumour of liver in adult is
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Hepatoblastoma
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Hepatoma
41. Crescent formation is characteristic of which of the following glomerular
disease:
A. Minimal change disease
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
C. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Rapidly non progressive glomerulonephritis
42. True about light microscopy in minimal change disease is:
A. Loss of foot process seen
B. Anti-GBM antibodies are seen
C. IgA deposits seen
D. No change seen
43. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by:
A. Proteinuria
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Edema
D. Haematuria
Answers
1. Complications of Myocardial Infarction
A. Contractile dysfunction => Lt. ventricular failure or cardiogenic
shock
B. Arrhythmias
C. Myocardial rupture
D. Pericarditis
E. Right Ventricular infarction
F. Papillary muscle dysfunction
2. Causes of secondary hypertension
A. Chronic renal disease
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Sleep apnea
E. Cushing syndrome
3. Lung cancers are classified into:
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Nonsmall cell lung cancer
• Adenocarcinoma
• Squamous cell carcinoma
• Large cell carcinoma
• Carcinoid tumors
4. Pathogenesis of acute Pancreatitis:
A. Autodigestion by inappropriately activated pancreatic enzymes
B. Activation of trypsinogen is an important triggering event
5. Complications of peptic ulcer are:
A. Perforation
B. Bleeding
C. Obstruction
6. The pattern of liver injury that cause liver failure are:
A. Acute liver failure with massive necrosis
B. Chronic liver failure
C. Hepatic dysfunction without overt necrosis
7. The genes that lost in colorectal cancer include
A. TP53
B. KRAS
C. APC
8. The complications of pneumonia:
A. Pleural effusion and pyothorax
B. Abscess formation
C. Empyema
 D. Atelectasis
9. Types of atelectasis:
A. Resorption atelectasis ( obstructive ) : caused by
• Foreign body
• Mucus plug in asthma & chronic bronchitis
• Post surgery
• Tumor.
B. Compression atelectasis : caused by
• Air or fluid in pleural cavity
• Elevated diaphragm
C. Contraction atelectasis: it can be Localized or generalized. It is
caused by
• Post inflammatory scarring
• Fibrotic changes
10. The types of Ischemic heart disease are:
• Angina pectoris
• Myocardial infarction (MI)
• Chronic IHD with heart failure
• Sudden cardiac death
11. Types of angina are:
A. STABLE ANGINA (most common)
• caused by the reduction of coronary perfusion to a critical
level by chronic stenosing coronary atherosclerosis
• induced by increased demand (physical activity,
emotional excitement or increased cardiac workload
• relieved by rest (decreased demand) or nitroglycerin
(vasodilator)
B. PRINZMETAL ANGINA (uncommon)
• episodic angina that occurs at rest
• it is due to coronary artery spasm, unrelated to physical
Activity, heart rate, or BP
• responds to vasodilators & Ca channel blockers
C. UNSTABLE (CRESCENDO) ANGINA
• Pain that occurs with progressively less effort, often occurs at
rest, & tends to be of more prolonged duration.
• it is induced by disruption of an atherosclerotic plaque with
superimposed partial (mural) thrombosis or possibly
embolization or vasospasm or both.
• It is prodrome of subsequent acute MI
 Answers of Multiple choice questions

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B

11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. C

21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. A

31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C

41. B 42. D 43. A