16-02-2025

1015CMD303361250004 MD

PHYSICS

1)

Match the columns and select the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II

Two spheres have their radius in the ratio 1 : 2.

(A) Ratio of surface density of charge if the ratio (i) 2:1
of charge on them is 1 : 2

Two sphere have equal surface density of charge if

(B) their radius are in the ratio 1 : 4 then the ratio of the (ii) 1 : 64
charge?

Two sphere of radius 10 cm and 40 cm have the

(C) same volume density of charge. Ratio of charge on (iii) 1 : 16
them.
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-ii

2) Linear charge density of wire is λ = λ0x2, where x is the distance from origin and λ0 is a constant.

The total charge on wire is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) λ0L
2
(4) λ0L

3) Three +ve charges of equal magnitude 'q' are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side 'ℓ'. How can the system of charges be placed in equilibrium ?

(1) By placing a charge at the centroid of the triangle

(2) By placing a charge at the centroid of the triangle
(3) By placing a charge Q = q at a distance ℓ from all the three charges
By placing a charge Q = –q above the plane of the triangle at a distance ℓ from all the three
(4)
charges

4) Two equal point charge Q are placed at (a, 0) and (–a, 0). A third point charge Q is released from
(0, a) then it will execute (neglect gravity):-

(1) Only oscillation

(2) Oscillation with SHM
(3) It will not execute oscillation
(4) None

5) In the basic crystal structure, Cs+ and Cl– ions are arranged in a BCC [ is at body centre
and are at corners of the cube] configuration as shown in Fig. The net electrostatic force exerted

by the eight Cs+ ions on the Cl– ion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

6) Two infinite linear charges are placed parallel to each other at a distance 0.3 m from each other.
If the linear charge density on each is 5 μC/m, then the force acting on a unit length of each linear
charge will be :-

(1) 1.5 N/m

(2) 3.25 N/m
(3) 4.5 N/m
(4) 7.5 N/m

7) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown. The force on a +ve charge
kept at the centre of the square is

(1) zero
(2) along diagonal AC
(3) along diagonal BD
(4) perpendicular to the side AB

8) Figure shows suspended charge ball system. If α > β then at equilibrium which of the following

may be true :-

(1) q1 > q2 & m1 = m2

(2) q1 = q2 & m1 = m2
(3) q1 > q2 & m1 < m2
(4) q1 = q2 & m1 > m2

9)

A thin spherical shell is given a charge q = 4 µC, uniformly distributed over its surface. Consider a
point P outside the shell at distance of 2 m from surface. If the radius of shell is 1 m, what is electric
field at point P?

(1) 9 kN C–1
(2) 4 kN C–1
(3) 2 kN C–1
(4) 36 kN C–1

10) Two point charge 2µC and –8µC are placed at (2, 1, 1) and (1, 2, 0) respectively then what will
be force on –8µC charge :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None

11) A cube of side b has equal point charge q at seven vertices. The electric field due to this charge
distribution at the centre of this cube will be :-

2
(1) q / (4π∈0b )
2
(2) q / (3π∈0b )
(3) 32q / b2
(4) Zero

12) Consider the charge configuration and a spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. At

the spherical surface, the electric field will be due to :-

(1) q2
(2) +q1 and –q1
(3) All the charges
(4) Only the positive charges

13) A surface is kept in an electric field . How much electric flux will come
out through this surface ?

(1) 40 units
(2) 50 units
(3) 30 units
(4) 20 units

14) Given figure shows an arrangement of six fixed charged particles. The net electrostatic force F
acting on charge +q at the origin due to other charges is :-

(1)

(2) zero

(3)
(4)

15) A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an angle θ with a large charged
conduction sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface charge density σ of the sheet is proportional

to :-

(1) sin θ
(2) tan θ
(3) cos θ
(4) cot θ

16) Charge +q0 is placed inside thick metal shell near to any part of the surface as shown in figure
then identify correct electric field lines in following options :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) A ring of radius R carries a uniformly distributed charge +Q. A point charge –q is placed on the
axis of the ring at a distance 2R from the centre of the ring and released from rest. The particle :-

(1) Executes a SHM along the axis of the ring

(2) Moves to the centre of the ring and remains at rest there
(3) Executes oscillatory motion but not SHM
(4) Moves through the centre of the ring to infinity along the axis

18) If the charge situated at the centre of the cube then the flux emanating out of each face will be:

(1) q/6ε0
(2) q/10ε0
(3) 24ε0
(4) 16ε0

19) An imaginary truncted cone is placed in uniform electric field E then total flux related to it:

(1) Zero
(2) Non zero
(3) Positive
(4) Negative

20) The electric field in a region shown here is given by then the total electric

flux through the cube of side is:

(1) Zero
(2) E0
 5/2
(3) E0a
7/2
(4) E0a

21) Statement-1 : Upon the displacement of charges within a closed surface the at any point on
surface doesn't change.
Statement-2 : The flux crossing through closed surface is independent of location of charge within
the surface.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

22) Dimensional formulae for electric flux is :-

(1) M1L3T–3A–1
(2) M1L3T3A–1
(3) M–1L–3T3A–1
(4) M1L–3T3A–1

23) A circular disc of radius m is placed in electric field v/m in x-y plane then
electric flux through the disc will be :-

(1) 2V - m
(2) 4V - m
(3) 0.5V - m
(4) 1 V-m

24) If co-ordinates of position of object are (–60 cm, 6 cm) then co-ordinates of image will be :-

(1) (–120 cm, 12 cm)

(2) (–120 cm, –12 cm)
(3) (–60 cm, –12 cm)
(4) None of these

25) An object is placed at a distance u cm from a concave mirror of focal length f cm. The real image
of the object is received on a screen placed at a distance v cm from the mirror. The values of u are
changed and corresponding values of v are measured. Which one of the graphs shown in the figure
represents the variation of with ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) You are asked to design a shaving mirror assuming that a person keeps it 10 cm from his face
and views the magnified image of the face at the closest comfortable distance of 15 cm. The radius
of curvature of the mirror would then be :-

(1) 30 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) –24 cm

27) A beam of convergent light converges to a point 0.5 m in front of a convex mirror after
reflection. But in the absence of the mirror the beam converges to a point 0.2 m behind the mirror.

The radius of curvature of the mirror is :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 50 cm
(3) 66.67 cm
(4) 28.57 cm

28) When an object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a mirror, the magnification is m1. The
object is moved 15 cm farther away with respect to the earlier position, and the magnification
becomes m2. If = 4, then calculate the focal length of the mirror:

(1) 25 cm
(2) – 25 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) –20 cm

29) A thin rod of 5 cm length is kept along the axis of a concave mirror of 10 cm focal length such
that its image is real and magnified and one end touches the rod. Length of image will be :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) None

30) A squre ABCD of side 1 mm is kept at dist. 15 cm in front of concave mirror as shown in figure.
The focal length of mirror is 10 cm. the length of the perimeter of it's image will be :-

(1) 8 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 12 mm
(4) 6 mm

31) If light ray emerges parallel to AB, then the refractive index of the sphere is :-

(1) 1.3
(2) 1.5
(3)
(4)

32) If a concave mirror having focal length 12 cm is divide in two parts as shown in diagram the
separation between the images formed in upper and lower part will be :- (object is at C)
(1) 2 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 6 cm

33)

According to given diagram which colors will not emerge out :-

(1) Yellow, Orange, Red

(2) Violet, Indigo, Blue
(3) All will emerge Out
(4) None

34) A point object is placed in front of a thick plane mirror as shown in figure. Find the location of
final image w.r.t. object :-

(1) 15/2 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 40/3 cm
(4) 80/3 cm

35)

Find out total deviation just after reflection from plane mirror.
(1) 176° c.w.
(2) 178° c.w.
(3) 180° c.w.
(4) None

36) In the figure shown here, the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of

refractive index is (Region of medium are parallel).

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) None of these

37) If light travels a distance x in t1 sec in air and 10x distance in t2 sec in a medium, the critical
angle of the medium will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A fish is a little away below the surface of a lake. If the critical angle is 49°, then the fish could

see things above the water surface within an angular range of θ° where

(1) θ = 49°
(2) θ = 90°
(3) θ = 98°

(4)

39) A divergent beam of light from a point source S having divergence angle α falls symmetrically on
a glass slab as shown in the figure. The angles of incidence of the two extreme rays are equal. If the
thickness of the glass slab is t and its refractive index is n, then the divergence angle of the

emergent beam is

(1) Zero
(2) α

(3)

(4)

40) A medium shows relation between i and r as shown. If speed of light in the medium is nc then

value of n is

(1) 1.5
(2) 2
(3) 2–1
(4) 3–1/2

41) A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels as shown in the figure. The minimum refractive

index of the material should be :

(1) 4/3
(2)
(3) 1.5
(4)

42)

If 'θ1' is increased slightly then what will happens to 'θ2' -

(1) Increases slightly

(2) Remains unchanged
(3) Decreases Slightly
(4) None

43) A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a refractive index of . It is surrounded by air. A light
ray is incident at the midpoint of one end of the rod as shown in the figure. The incident angle θ for

which the light ray grazes along the wall of the rod is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A light ray passes from air into another medium at point P. How long does it take the light ray to
travel from P to Q?

(1) 9 × 10–10 s
(2) 9 × 10–7 s
(3) 9 × 10–8 s
(4) 9 × 10–6 s

45) The angle of an equilateral prism is 60°. What should be the refractive index of prism so that the
ray is parallel to the base inside the prism and get deviation of 60° ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
shown below :-
O(g) + e– O–(g); ΔH° = –142 kJ mol–1
O–(g) + e– O2–(g); ΔH° = +844 kJ mol–1
This is because :

(1) Oxygen is more electronegative

(2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(3) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
(4) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of electron

2) Assertion : Electron gain enthalpy of N is +ve while that of P is –ve

Reason : Smaller atomic size of N in which there is a considerable electron-electron repulsion and
hence the additional electron is not accepted easily.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true
3) The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively are :

(1) –333, –349, –325 and –296

(2) –296, –325, –333 and –349
(3) –333, –325, –349 and –296
(4) –349, –333, –325 and –296

4) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using given codes-

Column-I Column-II
(Atoms) (Properties)

(a) He (p) Highest electron gain enthalpy

(b) Cl (q) Metalloid

(c) As (r) Highest electronegativity

(d) F (s) High ionisation potential

(1) (a–p), (b–r), (c–s), (d–q)
(2) (a–r), (b–p), (c–s), (d–q)
(3) (a–s), (b–p), (c–q), (d–r)
(4) (a–s), (b–q), (c–p), (d–q)

5) Assertion : F atom has less electron affinity than Cl atom.

Reason : Additional electrons are repelled more strongly by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p
electrons in F atom.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

6) Mulliken scale of electronegativity uses the concept of :

(1) EA and EN
(2) EA and atomic size
(3) EA and IP
(4) EA and bond energy

7) The correct increasing order of electronegativity is

(1) C < N < Si < P

(2) N < Si < C < P
(3) Si < P < C < N
(4) P < Si < N < C

8) The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is

(1) Al(OH)3 , LiOH
(2) Be(OH)2 , Mg(OH)2
(3) B(OH)3 , Be(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2 , Zn(OH)2

9)

Match the following :-

Oxide Nature

(a) CO (i) Basic

(b) BaO (ii) Neutral

(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic

(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric

Which of the following is correct option ?
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

10) Which of the following has highest positive electron gain enthalpy ?

(1) He
(2) Ne
(3) Xe
(4) Rn

11) Assertion :- H2Se is more acidic than H2S.

Reason :- S is more electronegative than Se.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given
acids :

(1) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl

(2) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
(3) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(4) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl

13) The most basic among these hydroxides, is :-

(1) Be(OH)2
(2) Mg(OH)2
(3) Ca(OH)2
(4) Ba(OH)2

14) Which of the following compound of Xe is formed in ground state of Xe -

(1) XeF2
(2) XeF4
(3) XeF6
(4) All are in excited state

15) Incomplete octet (Hypovalent) molecule is :

(1) BF3
(2) PCl5
(3) CH4
(4) SF6

16) Which of the following configuration belongs to 1st excited state of 16S

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) Which is correct order of bond strength?

(1) 1s – 1s > 2p – 2p
(2) 2pπ – 2pπ < 2pπ – 3dπ
(3) 2pπ – 3pπ > 2pπ – 3dπ
(4) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p

18) Statement - 1 : H2 bond is stronger than Li – Li bond.

Statement - 2 : 1s - 1s overlap is stronger than 2s – 2s.

(1) Both the statements are correct & statement-2 explain statement-1.
(2) Both the statement are incorrect.
(3) Both the statement are correct & statement-2 doesn't explain statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect & statement-2 is correct.

19) Which of the following compound has diagonal hybridisation?

(1) CO2
(2) XeF6
(3) AlCl3
(4) SO2Cl2

20) For PCl5 which statements is correct ?

(1) All P – Cl bond are identical

(2) Four P – Cl bonds are identical
(3) Three P – Cl bonds are stronger than two P – Cl bonds
(4) Bond length of all the five P – Cl bonds are different

21) Assertion : SiO2 is not isostructural with CO2.

Reason : 2pπ-3pπ collateral overlapping in SiO2 is not as effective as 2pπ-2pπ in CO2.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct for the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct for the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

22) The geometry of XeO3F2 is :–

(1) Triangular planar

(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square planar
(4) Tetrahedral

23) Statement-I : ion is linear.

Statement-II : In ion, iodine is in 'sp' hybridised state.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

24) The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10°C rise of temperature. If the temperature is
raised by 50°C, the rate of reaction increases upto

(1) 10 times
(2) 24 times
(3) 32 times
(4) 64 times

25) The activation energy of a certain reaction is 87 kJ mol–1. When the temperature is decreased
from 37°C to 15°C then what is the ratio of the rate constant at 37°C and at 15°C for this reaction ?

(1) 5/1
(2) 8.3/1
(3) 13/1
(4) 24/1

26)

For a first order reaction, the value of rate constant for the reaction is :

A(g) → 3B(g) + C(g) If here P0 is the initial pressure of reactant and Pt is pressure of reaction
mixture at time t.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) For the reaction 2A → B, the rate constant is 2.5 × 10–4 mol ltr–1 sec–1, what will be the concn of A
& B after 10 min, if initial concentration of A is 0.5 M :-

(1) 0.3 M & 0.2 M

(2) 0.2 M & 0.3 M
(3) 0.35 M & 0.075 M
(4) 0.15 M & 0.075 M

28) 70% of a first order reaction was completed in 70 min. What is the half life of the reaction ?

(1) 4 min
(2) 40.2 min
(3) 4.2 hr
(4) 4.23 min

29) The reaction

CH3COOC2H5(aq) + NaOH(aq) → CH3COONa(aq) + C2H5OH(aq) is :-

(1) Bimolecular reaction

(2) II order reaction
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None

30) For a reaction A → Product, half-life measured for two different values of initial concentrations 5
× 10–3 M and 25 × 10–4 M are 1.0 and 2.0 hrs respectively. If initial concentration is adjusted to 1.25
× 10–3 M, the new half-life would be :-

(1) 16 hrs
(2) 32 hrs
(3) 64 hrs
(4) 4 hrs

31)

The energy of activation for a reaction is 100 kJ/mol. Presence of a catalyst lowers the energy of
activation by 75%. What will be the effect on rate of reaction at 27°C, other things being equal ?

(1) 1.06 × 1013 times

(2) 2.76 × 1015 times
(3) 5.41 × 1011 times
(4) 1.06 × 1030 times

32) Order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) None

33) The activation energy of exothermic reaction, A → B is 80 kJ mole–1. The magnitude of heat of
reaction is 200 kJ mole–1. The activation energy for the reaction B → A (in kJ/mole) will be :-

(1) 280
(2) 120
(3) – 120
(4) 200

34) The temperature coefficient of two reactions are 2 and 3 respectively. Which would be correct
for these reactions ?

(1) Ea1 < Ea2

(2) Ea1 > Ea2
(3) Ea1 = Ea2
(4) Cannot be predicted

35) Rate constant k varies with temperature by equation, logk(min–1) = 5 – . We can conclude:-
(1) Pre–exponential factor (A) is 5
(2) Ea is 2000 kcal
(3) Pre–exponential factor (A) is 105
(4) None of these

36) , is the expression for first order reaction :-

(1) 3/4th life of reaction

(2) 25% completion of reaction
(3) 96% reactants are consumed
(4) 1/4th life of reaction

37)

Choose the correct statement (s) ?

(a) Half-life of a second order reaction decreases with increase in concentration of reactant
(b) Half-life of a first order reaction is independent of concentration
(c) The unit of frequency factor 'A' in Arrhenius equation is unit of half-life of the reaction

(d) The unit of rate constant of a second order reaction is mol L–1 s–1.
(1) b, c
(2) a, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, b

38) A homogeneous catalytic reaction takes place through the three alternative plots A, B and C
shown in the given figure which one of the following indicates the relative ease with which the

reaction can take place :-

(1) A > B > C

(2) C > B > A
(3) A > C > B
(4) A = B = C

39) Consider the plots given below for the types of reaction nA → B + C :-
 These plots respectively correspond to the reaction orders :-

(1) 0, 1, 2
(2) 1, 2, 0
(3) 1, 0, 2
(4) 2, 1, 0

40) Consider the following PE diagram

Which of the following is true for the forward reaction?

PE of activated
ΔH (kJ)
Complex (kJ)

(1) +25 25

(2) –25 150

(3) +25 50

(4) +25 150

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column - I Column - II

(A) Activation energy (i)

(B) Boltzmann factor (ii) First order reaction

(C) Radioactive disintegration (iii) Less than threshold energy

(D) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) (iv) Explosive reaction

(1) A → (iii), B → (i), C → (iv), D → (ii)
(2) A → (iii), B → (iv), C → (i), D → (ii)
(3) A → (iv), B → (i), C → (ii), D → (iii)
(4) A → (iii), B → (i), C → (ii), D → (iv)
42) Assertion : For a Ist order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially
with time.
Reason : For Ist order reaction .

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

43)

Molality of 4% NaOH solution will be :

(1) 1.04 m
(2) 1 m
(3) 2.08 m
(4) 0.52 m

44) Normality of 30 g of H2SO4 in 100 ml solution is nearly ?

(1) 3.061 N
(2) 12.01 N
(3) 5.01 N
(4) 6.12 N

45)

Which of the following changes with increase in temperature ?

(I) Molality (II) Molarity
(III) % W/V (IV) Normality

(1) I, II
(2) II, III, IV
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) None of above

BIOLOGY

1) Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking :-

(1) Emphysema
(2) Asthma
(3) Respiratory acidosis
(4) Respiratory alkalosis

2) In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is
lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it primarily leads to :-

(1) Allergic response

(2) Graft rejection
(3) Auto-immune disease
(4) Active immunity

3) Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as :-

(1) Spasm
(2) Fatigue
(3) Tetanus [Tetanic contraction]
(4) Tonus

4) Assertion :- In biopsy test for cancer, piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is
stained and examined under microscope by a pathologist.
Reason :- In CT scan use of X-ray beam is able to generate a 3-D image of the section of affected
tissue.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Which of the following is not at autoimmune disease?

(1) Psoriasis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Alzheimer's disease
(4) Vitiligo

6) Assertion: Cocaine and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.

Reason: Both these drugs suppress brain function.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

7) Assertion :- Emphysema can be caused by cigarette smoking.

Reason :- Cigarette smoking increases the gaseous exchange surface area.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false
8)

Vaccines prepared by recombinant DNA technology are totally safe or potent, because they contain-

(1) inactivated pathogens

(2) attenuated pathogens
(3) Killed pathogens
(4) proteins from the coat of pathogen

9) LSD is very powerful hallucinogenic drug obtained from :-

(1) Papaver somniferum

(2) Claviceps purpurea
(3) Cannabis sativa
(4) Erythroxylum coca

10) Which of the following cells kill virus infected cells :-

(1) NK cells
(2) T-killer
(3) B-lymphocytes
(4) Both (1) & (2)

11) Which is known as anamnestic response :-

(1) Primary immune response

(2) Secondary immune response
(3) Fever
(4) Phagocytosis by neutrophills

12) Which of the following can be the probable mechanism for inducing cancer :-

(1) Overactivity of tumor suppresor gene

(2) Overactivity of telomerase
(3) Overactivity of telomerase inhibitor
(4) Normal regulation of proto-oncogene

13) Which one of the following is not the criteria for successful organ transplantation ?

(1) Immuno-suppressive therapy

(2) MHC matching
(3) Hormone therapy
(4) Blood group matching

14) Which toxin is associated with malaria ?

(1) Hemozoin
(2) Biliverdin
(3) Hemoglobin
(4) Bilirubin

15) Which part of the HIV structure is complementary to CD4 proteins ?

(1) GP120
(2) GP41
(3) P17
(4) P24

16) Which of the following is a vector-borne helminthic disease ?

(1) Filariasis
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Chikungunya
(4) Plague

17) IgE is related to all except :-

(1) Stimulation of mast cells

(2) Allergy
(3) Immunity to parasite
(4) Opsonization

18) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of acquired immunity ?

(1) Diversity
(2) Discrimination between self and non self
(3) Memory
(4) Non-specific

19) Elephantiasis (Filariasis) in man is caused by

(1) Ancylostoma duodenale

(2) Ascaris lumbricoides
(3) Dracunculus medinensis
(4) Wuchereria bancrofti

20) Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases ?

(1) Ringworm, AIDS

(2) Common cold, dengue
(3) Dysentery, common cold
(4) Typhoid, tuberculosis
21) Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by

(1) Drinking water containing egg of Ascaris

(2) Eating imperfectly cooked pork
(3) Xenopsylla bite
(4) Mosquito bite

22) Which of the following sets of disease is caused by bacteria ?

(1) Typhoid and tetanus

(2) Typhoid and AIDS
(3) Typhoid and smallpox
(4) Covid-19 and Rabies

23) The infectious stage of Plasmodium enters the human body is

(1) Sporozoites
(2) Female gametocytes
(3) Male gametocytes
(4) Motile-zygote

24) Which of the following is true about cancerous growth ?

(1) Tumor suppressor gene activation and protooncogene suppression.

(2) Metastasis is seen in benign tumors.
(3) Carcinogens causes genetic alteration and oncogenic transformation.
(4) All cells formed in cancerous growth are differentiated.

25) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about typhoid?

(a) Sustained high fever
(b) Weakness
(c) Stomach pain
(d) Constipation
(e) Headache and loss of appetite
(f) Coughing

(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only d, e, f
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c but d, e, f are not

26) How many of the following is/are not correct about pneumonia?
(a) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Infects the alveoli of the lungs
(c) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(d) In severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn pinkish
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) All are correct

27) Match disease/pathogen with vector or carrier.

(A) Filariasis (i) House fly (Mechanical carrier)

(B) Dengue (ii) Female anopheles

(C) Entamoeba histolytica (iii) Female culex

(D) Plasmodium falciparum (iv) Aedes mosquito

(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii ii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Which of the following is correct about malaria?

(a) Plasmodium falciparum cause malignant malaria.
(b) Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites.
(c) It is caused through the bite of infected female anopheles.
(d) The rupture of R.B.Cs is associated with release of a toxic substance haemozoin

(1) b, c only
(2) a, c, d only
(3) a, b, c only
(4) a, b, c, d

29) Appearance of dry scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp,
intense itching are the main symptoms of ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Chicken pox
(3) Ring worm
(4) 1 and 3 both

30) Identify the skeletal structure represented in the diagram and select the drug that represent it

and the main function performed by it.

(1) LSD – Synthetic drug – Hallucinogen
(2) Cannabinoid – Bhang – Affects cardio vascular system
(3) Opioid – Morphine – Pain killer
(4) Cocaine – Caffeine – Stimulant

31) Cancerous tumours can be detected by the following techniques:

(1) X-ray imaging

(2) Computed tomography
(3) Magnetic resonance imaging
(4) All of them

32) Read the following statements carefully and choose the incorrect one, regarding AIDS.

(1) HIV has ssRNA as genetic material

(2) HIV virus core contains reverse transcriptase, protease and integrase
(3) Macrophages act as the HIV factory
(4) HIV selectively infects and kill the B-lymphocytes

33)

Normal Cancerous
Properties
Cells Cells

Tumor formation A B

Contact inhibition C D

Metastasis E F
(1) A-Yes, B-No, C-No, D-Yes, E-No, F-Yes
(2) A-No, B-Yes, C-Yes, D-No, E-No, F-Yes
(3) A-No, B-Yes, C-No, D-Yes, E-No, F-Yes
(4) A-Yes, B-No, C-Yes, D-No, E-Yes, F-No

34) Most diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of
symptoms are indicative of amoebiasis?

(1) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache

(2) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots and mucous in stools
(3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
(4) High fever, malaise, stomach ache, loss of appetite and constipation

35) (a) Smack

(b) Diacetylmorphine
(c) White
(d) Odourless
(e) Bitter crystalline compound
(f) Extracted from latex of poppy plant
Above statements/informations are correct for :-

(1) Morphine
(2) Heroin
(3) Coccaine
(4) Barbiturates

36) Antigen binding site of immunoglobuline is made of ?

(1) Variable region of heavy chain

(2) Variable region of light chain
(3) Constant region of light chain
(4) Variable region of both heavy and light chain.

37) Read the following statments regarding spleen and select the correct option for true statements
?
(i) Spleen is a large been-shaped organ which mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
(ii) Spleen is a large reservoir of erythrocytes.
(iii) Spleen is a primary lymphoid organ.
(iv) Spleen acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne micro-organisms.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

38) Which of the following disease is transmitted by Aedes agypti Mosquito ?

(1) Break bone fever (Dengue)

(2) Malaria
(3) Chikun gunya
(4) Both (1) and (3)

39) Statement-I : Injection of dead/Inactivated pathogen causes active immunity.

Statement-II : Antibodies are represented as H2L4.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

40) Given below are two statements –

Statement-I : Autommune disorder is a condition where body defence mechanism recognizes its
own cells as self.
Statement-II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body cell attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

41) Given below are two statements –

Statement-I : Recurrent high fever weakness and stomach pain are some of the common symptoms
of Typhoid.
Statement-II : Malignant malaria is caused by plasmodium falciparum.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

42) Given below are two statements –

Statement-I : Passive immunity : Readymade antibodies are directly given.
Statement-II : The primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thyroid.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

43) Statement-I : In severe case of pneumonia the lips and finger nails can turn gray to bluish in
colour.
Statement-II : Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease pneumonia in human.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

44) Select the correct match of the symptoms of diseases given in column I with their respective
pathogen of the diseases given in column II.

Column –I Column - II
Appearance of dry, scaly
lesions on various parts Entamoeba
(A) (I)
of the body such as skin histolytica
nails and scalp.
 Chronic inflammation of
Ascaris
(B) the lymphatic vessel of (II)
lumbricoides
lower limbs.
Fever, chills, cough,
headache and in severe
Haemophilus
(C) cases the lips and finger (III)
influenza
nails may turn gray to
bluish in colour.
Constipation, abdominal
pain and cramps, stool Wuchereria
(D) (IV)
with excess mucous and bancrofti
blood clots.
Internal bleeding,
muscular pain, fever,
(E) (V) Microsporum
anaemia and blockage of
intestinal passage.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(2) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II, E-IV
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-I, E-II

45) Match the column-I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given :

Column-I Column-II
(1) Typhoid (a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) Pneumonia (b) Trichophyton
(3) Filariasis (c) Plasmodium
(4) Ringworm (d) Salmonella typhi
(5) Malaria (e) Wuchereria malayi
(1) 1-d, 2-a, 3-e, 4-b, 5-c
(2) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-e, 5-d
(3) 1-b, 2-d, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a
(4) 1-b, 2-c, 3-e, 4-d, 5-a

46) Hybrid vigour is induced by :-

(1) Crossing two Varieties

(2) Selection of plant
(3) Clonal selection of clones
(4) Selfing of two plants

47) An organism's genetic constitution or genetic makeup is called :-

(1) Genotype
(2) Phenotype
(3) Holotype
(4) Homozygous
48) A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil and remained dwarf, when it is crossed with
another dwarf plant then :-

(1) All offsprings plants are dwarf

(2) All offsprings plants are tall
(3) It depend upon genotype of tall plant
(4) 75% tall and 25% dwarf

49) Mendelian monohybrid cross phenotypic ratio is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

50) Which of the following process do not cause variations?

(1) Meiosis
(2) Sexual reproduction
(3) Asexual reproduction
(4) Mutation

51) In corn, the trait for tall plant (T) is dominant to the trait for dwarf plant (t) and the trait for
coloured kernels (C) is dominant to the trait for white kernels (c). In a particular cross of corn plant,
the probability of an offspring being tall is 0.5 and probability of a kernel being coloured is 0.75.
Which of the following most probabaly represents the parental genotypes?

(1) TtCc × TtCc

(2) TtCc × ttCc
(3) TtCc × ttcc
(4) TTCc × ttCc

52) How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism, if it is heterozyogous for 3
loci?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Eight
(4) Six

53) A trihybrid AaBbCc plant produces :-

(1) 8 types of gametes in the ratio of 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1

(2) 8 types of gametes in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 27 types of gametes
(4) 16 types of gametes
54) Law of Independent Assortment can be explained with the help of :-

(1) Dihybrid cross

(2) Monohybrid cross
(3) Reverse cross
(4) Reciprocal cross

55) Out of 2000 plants in the F2-generation of a dihybrid cross, how many plants are homozygous for
only one character and heterozygous of another?

(1) 1000
(2) 1500
(3) 250
(4) 500

56) To determine the genetic constitution of a tall plant at F2, Mendel crossed it with a dwarf plant.
This cross is called as :-

(1) Self cross

(2) Test cross
(3) Monohybrid cross
(4) Reciprocal cross

57) Proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2 can be explained by :-

(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Paired factors

58) Which of the following is mismatched :-

Incomplete Exception of 1st

(1)
dominance Law of Mendel

Exception of law of
(2) Codominance
purity of gametes

Exception of law of
(3) Non disjunction
segregation

Due to functional
(4) Dominance
allele
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
59) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross is due to :-

(1) Segregation
(2) Purity of zygotes
(3) Independent assortment
(4) Linkage

60) Mendel did not studied which of the following character of Pisum Sativum ?

(1) Cotyledon colour

(2) Pod position
(3) Seed coat colour
(4) Seed colour

61) When F1 resembles any one of the parent then it is called as :-

(1) Dominance
(2) In complete dominance
(3) Codominance
(4) Segregation

62) Law of segregation is based on fact :-

(1) Alleles do not show any blending

(2) Alleles show phenotypic blending
(3) Non disjunction
(4) Mitosis

63)

Presence of only one allele of a character in a gamete is due to :-

(1) Hemizygous
(2) Segregation
(3) Non disjunction
(4) Heterozygous

64) Mendel did not recognise the linkage phenomenon in his experiments, Which he
published because :

(1) He did not have powerful microscope

(2) He studied only pure plants
(3) There were few chromosomes to handle
(4) Characters he studied were located on different chromosomes.

65) A dihybrid condition is :-

(1) ttRr
(2) Ttrr
(3) ttrr
(4) TtRr

66) The unmodified allele represent the ______ allele and the modified allele is generally the ______
allele :-

(1) Mutant, wild

(2) Recessive, recessive
(3) Dominant, dominant
(4) Dominant, recessive

67) Law of dominance is proved by :-

(1) Test cross

(2) Back cross
(3) Mono hybrid cross
(4) Dihybrid cross

68) What is the probability of obtaining offspring homozygous for both character in F2 generation of
dihybrid cross ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

69) Two plants of garden pea were crossed. In progeny 95 tall plants and 91 dwarf plants were
obtained what would have been the genotype of crossed parents :-

(1) TT × tt
(2) Tt × TT
(3) Tt × tt
(4) tt × tt

70) The recessive gene located on non homologous region of X-chromosome in humans are always:-

(1) expressed in females

(2) expressed in males
(3) lethal (toxic)
(4) sub-lethal (sub-toxic)
71) Phenotype of F1 did not resemble any of two parents, this condition is true for :-

(1) Dominance
(2) Co-dominance
(3) Multiple alleles
(4) Incomplete dominance

72) In garden pea plant in F2 generation 2560 seeds are obtained during a dihybrid cross between
pure round-yellow and pure wrinkled green plant. How many seeds are wrinkled yellow, round-
yellow and wrinkled-green respectively in F2 generation ?

(1) 480, 1440, 160

(2) 480, 640, 1280
(3) 640, 480, 320
(4) 160, 1440, 480

73) "When two characters are combined in a hybrid segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of character." This explains :-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Postulate of paired factors

74) When pink and white flowered Mirabilis plants are crossed. The genotypic and phenotypic ratio
of the progeny will be :-

(1) 1 : 1 and 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 and 1 : 2 :1
(3) 3 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1

75) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct statements :- (A) The progeny
obtained from monohybrid test cross are in equal ratios :- (B) Test cross helps to find out the
genotype of recessive individual. (C) Result of maternal inheritance or cytoplasmic inheritance do
change by reciprocal cross (D) Out cross is a cross in which F1 individuals are crossed with any of
their parents.
(E) Phenotypes and genotypes ratio are same in test cross.

(1) All except B

(2) All except D
(3) All except B and D
(4) All except C and D

76) Assertion (A): Mendel's law of independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that
are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes on a chromosome assort independently.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

77) Assertion (A) : Mendel's results had greater credibility.

Reason (R) : Mendel's experiment had a large sampling size.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

78) A dihybrid cross produces 6 phenotype in F2 generation then which statement is correct ?

(1) Both gene show dominance

(2) Both gene show incomplete dominance
(3) One gene shows dominance and another shows incomplete dominance
(4) Both gene show co-dominance

79) Find out the frequency of AabbCcDdee if parents are AabbCCddEe × AabbccDdee :-

(1) 0.78%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 25%
(4) 50%

80) Number of types of genotypes found in F2 progeny of a dihybrid cross is ?

(1) 9
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 1

81) In cross between pure breeding yellow round (YYRR) seeded plant with pure breeding pea plants
having green wrinkled (yyrr) seed then find out the total seeds (plants) having yellow colour in F2-
generation out of 16 ?

(1) 12
(2) 10
(3) 14
(4) 11

82) When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow seed (TtYy) and tall plant with green seed
(Ttyy), what proportion of phenotype in the offspring could be expected to be tall and green ?

(1) 25%
(2) 18.75%
(3) 37.5%
(4) 50%

83) In the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross, what will be the ratio between plants having new
phenotypes and new genotypes ?

(1) 5 : 3
(2) 3 : 7
(3) 5 : 1
(4) 1 : 7

84) Find out phenotypic categories in following cross- (Types of Phenotypes)

A – AaBbCC × aaBBCc B – GgRrTt × ggrrTT
C – aabbCC × AABBcc

A B C

(1) 2 4 1

(2) 2 2 2

(3) 2 3 1

(4) 3 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85)
In the Punnett square given above, the genotypes of female parent and male parent respectively are
:-

(1) AABb ; AaBb

(2) Aabb ; AaBb
(3) aaBb ; AaBb
(4) AAbb ; AaBb

86) If red flowered plants [RR] of Antirrhinum species are crossed with white flowered plants [rr],
then expected F1 progeny is :-

(1) All with red flowers

(2) All with white flowers
(3) All with pink flowers
(4) All with blue flowers

87) Which of the following do not show incomplete dominance ?

(1) Flower colour in Snapdragon

(2) Flower colour in Mirabilis
(3) Flower colour in Pisum sativum
(4) Size of starch grain in Pisum sativum

88) F1 progeny resembles both of the two parents in case of :

(1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Dominance
(4) 2 and 3 both

89) In co-dominance the alleles of an allelic pair express _______ and follow Law of _______.

(1) Equally, Independent assortment

(2) Unequally, Dominance
(3) Equally, Segregation
(4) Equally, Dominance

90) A gene showing codominance has :-

(1) Alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome

(2) Alleles that are recessive to each other
(3) Both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote
(4) One allele dominant on the other, While other is recessive.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 3 4 1 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 4 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 4 4 1 2 1 1 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 1 3 1 4 2 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 1 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 3 1 1 1 4 4 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 4 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 1 4 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 2 4 4 4 3 4 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 4 1 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 2 1 4 3 3 1 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

6) Force between two line charges =

On a unit length = = 1.5 N/m

Hence [1].

8) ∵ α > β
⇒ m1 < m2
Nothing can't be said about charge

13) (Dot product)

= 40 units.

20)

ϕnet = ϕin + ϕout

ϕin = 0 (at x = 0, E = 0)
ϕout = E0 (a)3/2 (a2) (at x = a, E = E0 a3/2)
E0 a7/2 ⇒ ϕ = E0a7/2

21) When we displace the charges within the closed surface, at every point on surface
changes but flux (ϕ) crossing through closed surface doesn't change.

23) .

24) m= =
V = –120 cm hi = – 12 cm

25) For mirror, which represents a straight line between and with
negative slope.

26) Here, u = –10cm, υ = +15 cm

or or
 R= = – 60 cm

27) ⇒ ; R = 0.667 m

28)

Since = 4, therefore =4
thus f + 40 = 4f + 100
or f = –20 cm

The negative sign shows that the mirror is concave.

29)
For end A : →
uA = –20 cm , f = –10 cm

= –20 cm
For end B : →
uB = –15 cm ; f = –10 cm

⇒ VB = –30 cm
Size of image | ΔV| = (VB – VA) = 10 cm

30)

⇒ y' =
idea f = –10cm
u = –15 cm
y = 1 mm

y' = (1 mm) = –2mm

(y') = 2mm

= m2 ⇒ x' = m2x = x = 4mm

Perimeter of image
= 2x' + 2y' = (2 × 4) + (2 × 2) = 12 mm
32)

m= ⇒ hi = –1 cm
Total separation = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4 cm

36) μ1 sin i = μ3 sin r

1 (sin 60) = sin r ⇒ sin r = ⇒ r = 30

37) Critical angle

38) From figure given in question θ = 2c = 98°.

39) When a ray of light passes through glass slab, the emergent ray is parallel to incident ray
as shown below

Also, i = e
So, divergent angle of the emergent beam is also same i.e. α

40) Slope =
So

speed of light in a medium =

 = 3–1/2

43)

sin2θ =

θ = sin–1

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

70)

T1 = 37 + 273 = 310 K → k1 = rate constant at T1

T2 = 15 + 273 = 288 K → k2 = rate constant at T2

=
 71)

A(gas) → 3B(gas) + C(gas)

P0 0 0
P0–P 3P P
Pt = P0 – P + 3P + P
Pt = P0 + 3P
3P = Pt – P0

then

0
P –P=

so

76)

k1 = Ae–100/RT (In absence of catalyst)

k2 = Ae–25/RT (In presence of catalyst)

⇒ 2.303 log

log = 13.02 ⇒

86)

Activation energy is less than threshold energy.

Boltzmann factor
All radioactive disintegration are of 1st order.
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is an explosive reaction.

BIOLOGY

97)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 144

106)

NCERT Pg.No. 149

115)

NCERT Pg. No. 130

116)

NCERT Pg. No. 147

121)

NCERT XII, Page # 141,142

122)

NCERT, Pg. # 138,139

123)

NCERT XII, Page # 141,142

129) NCERT-XII Pg. # 131,136

130) NCERT XII Pg # 137 (E), 150 (H)

131) NCERT-XII Pg. # 130

132) NCERT-XII Pg. # 152, 154

133) NCERT Pg. # 147

(May → Can)
Ans. Statement-I = Correct
Statement-II = Correct
In NCERT given statement is → In server case of pneumonia the lips and finger nails may turn
gray to bluish in colour.
We changed can instead of may but meaning is the same.

146) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 58

147) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 59

152) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 59

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 58

167) NCERT Pg. # 54

176) NCERT XII Pg # 60