NARAYANA PU COLLEGE

KARNATAKA
2ND PUC PCMB DATE : 28-04-2014

Time: 3:00 Hrs K-CET MODEL Max Marks: 180

PHYSICS

1. A soap bubble is given negative charge then its radius

1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Remains unchanged
4) Nothing can be predicated as information is in sufficient
2. Two small identical spheres having charges +10C and -90C attract each other with a
force of F Newton. If they are kept in contact and then separated by the same distance, the
new force between them is:
F F
6 9
1) 2)16F 3) 16 4) 9F
3. A charge Q is divided in to two parts q and Q-q and separated by a distance R. The force of
repulsion between them will be maximum when:
Q Q
q q
4 2 qQ
1) 2) 3) 4) none of these
4. Two equal -Ve charges q are fixed at the points (0, a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis. A positive
charge Q is released from rest point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge will:
1) Execute SHM about the origin 2) move to the origin and remains at rest
3) Move to infinity 4) execute oscillatory but not SHM
5. A semi circular arc of radius a is charged uniformly and the charge per unit length is . The
electric field at the centre is:
2
2 0 a 2 0 a 2 4 2 0 a 4 0 a
1) 2) 3) 4)
6. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube. The electric flux through all the six faces of
the cube is:
Q Q Q Q
3 0 6 0 8 0 0
1) 2) 3) 4)
7. A given charge situated at a distance r from an electric dipole on its axis experience a force
F. if the distance of the charge from the dipole is doubled, the force acting on the charge
will be:
 F F F
2 4 8
1) 4F 2) 3) 4)
8. A cylinder of a radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the
cylinder axis. The total flux from the surface of the cylinder is:
R2 R 2
2 R 2 E R2 E E
1) 2) 3) 4) zero

9. The dielectric constant K of an insulator can be:

1) -1 2) zero 3) 0.5 4) 5
10. Two large conducting plates are placed parallel to each other with a separation of d between
them. An electron starting from rest near one of the plates reaches the other plate in time t.
If e is the charge on electron and m is its mass, then the surface charge density on the inner
surface is:
dme dm 0 2dm 0
4 0t 2
4 et 2
et 2
1) 2) 3) 4) none of these
11. The electric flux through a hemisphere surface of radius R, placed in a uniform electric
field of intensity E parallel to the axis of its circular plane is:
4
R E
3

2 RE 2 R E
2
R E
2
3
1) 2) 3) 4)
12. The total electrical flux leaving spherical surface of radius 1 cm and surrounding an electric
dipole is
q 2q 8 R 2 q
0 0 0
1) 2) zero 3) 4)
13. Two particles of masses m and 2m with charges 2q and 2q are placed in a uniform electric
field E and allowed to move for the same time. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be
1) 2:1 2) 8:1 3) 4:1 4) 1:4
14. What is the angle between the electric dipole moment and the electric strength due to it on
the equatorial line?
1) 00 2) 900 3) 1800 4) None of these
l
15. Electric charge q,q,-2q are placed at the vertices of an equatorial triangle ABC of side .
The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is
ql 2ql 3ql 4ql
1) 2) 3) 4)
16. An uncharged metal sphere is placed between two equal and oppositely charged metal
plates. The nature of lines of force will be
 1) 2) 3) 4)
17. A simple pendulum of mass m and positive charge q is in a downward vertical electric
field E, then time period is
l
2 l
2 2
l 2 E 2E
2 g2 g
g m m
1) 2) 3) 4) 0
18. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in an electric field of
constant magnitude E. The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is
2E 2t 2 E 2 q 2t 2 Eq 2 m Eqm
mq 2m 2t 2
2t
1) 2) 3) 4)
19. A non conducting sheet S is given a uniform charge density . Two uncharged thin and
small metal rods X and Y are placed near the sheet as shown. Then the correct statement is

1) S attracts both X and Y 2) X attracts both S and Y

3) Y attracts both S and X 4) all of the above
20. A uniform horizontal electric field E is established in the space between two large vertical
parallel plates. A small conducting sphere of mass m is suspended in the field from a string
of length L. If the sphere is given +q charge, then the period of oscillation of the pendulum
is
L
L L L 2
2 2 2 1
g g (qE / m) g (qE / m) [ g 2 ( qE / m) 2 ] 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
21. Charge on an originally uncharged conductor is separated by holding a positively charged
rod very close to nearby as in the figure. Assume that the induced negative charge on the
conductor is equal to the positive charge q on the rod. Then flux through the surface S1 is
 q q
0 0
1) Zero 2) 3) 4) none of these
22. A metallic particle having no net charge is placed near a finite metal carrying a positive
charge. The particle will
1) Be attracted towards plate 2) be repelled by the plate
3) Experience zero force 4) experience force parallel to plate
23. The electric field at a point at a distance r from a point charge is proportional to
1 1 1
2 3
r 3
r r r
1) 2) 3) 4)
24. 1 coulomb of charge contains..... Number of electrons
6.251018 3.1251012 6.251012 3.1251012
1) 2) 3) 4)
25. Two spheres of equal mass A and B are given +q and -q charge respectively then
1) Mass of A increases 2) mass of B increases
3) Mass of A remains constant 4) mass of B decreases

26. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown in the figure. The
force on the charge kept at the centre O is [diagram]

1) Zero 2) along the diagonal AC

3) Along the diagonal BD 4) perpendicular to side AB
27. Two identical +ve charges are at the ends of a straight line AB. Another identical +ve
charge is placed at C such that AB=BC. A, B and C being on the same line. Now the
force on A
1) Increases 2) decreases 3) Remains same 4) we cannot say
28. If two coherent sources are placed at a distance 3 from each other symmetric to the centre
of the circle shown in the figure, then number of fringes shown on the screen placed along
the circumference is

1)16 2)12 3)8 4)4

29. A plate of thickness t made of material of refractive index is placed in front of one of the
slits in a double slit experiment. What should be the minimum thickness t which will make
the intensity at the centre of fringe pattern zero

( 1)
2 ( 1) 2( 1) ( 1)
1) 2) 3) 4)
30. The phenomenon of diffraction can be exhibited by:
1) Infrared waves 2) micro waves 3) X- rays 4) all of these
31. A slit of width a is illuminated by white light. The first minimum for red light ( = 6500
6.5104 A0 300
) will fall at , when a will be:
A0 6.510 4 cm 2.6 104
1) 3250 2) 3) 1.3 micron 4) cm
32. The fact that light is transverse wave phenomenon derives its evidential support from the
observation that:
1) Light is a wave motion 2) light is characterized by interference
3) light shows polarizing effects 4) light can be diffracted
33. Diffraction is most important when size of diffracting element is
1) Much greater than wave length 2) much less than wave length
3) compare bale to wave length 4) independent of wave length
600
34. A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of incidence of and the reflected
beam is completely plane polarized. The refractive index of the glass is:
3 2 (3 2)
1) 1.5 2) 3) 4)
45 0 I0
35. A Polaroid is placed at to an incoming light of intensity . Now the intensity of light
passing through the Polaroid after polarization would be:
I0 I0
I0 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4) zero
36. Waves that cannot be polarized are:
1) Light waves 2) electromagnetic waves
3) Transverse waves 4) longitudinal waves
37. According to Newtons corpuscular theory of light:
1) Light behaves as transverse 2) speed of light is same in medium
3) Speed of light is more in rarer medium 4) speed of light is more in denser medium
38. In a youngs double slit experiment, let A and B be the two slits. A thin film of thickness t
and refractive index is placed in front of A. Let = fringe width. The central maximum
will shift:

1

1) by t towards B 2) by t towards B

1

3)by t towards A 4) by t towards A
39. The width of the differential band varies:
1) Inversely as the wavelength
2) directly as the width of the slit
3) Directly as the distance between the slit and the screen
4) Inversely as the size of the source from which the slit is illuminated
I0
40. An unpolarised beam of intensity beam of intensity is incident on a pair of Nichols
600
making an angle of with each other. The intensity of light emerging from the pair is:
I0 I0 I0
I0 2 4 8
1) 2) 3) 4)
41. In double slit experiment, the distance between two slit is 0.6mm and these are illuminated
0
A
with light of wavelength 4800 . The angular width of first dark fringe on the screen
distant 120 cm from slits will be:
8104 6 10 4 4 104 16104
1) rad 2) rad 3) rad 4) rad

6
42. In a youngs double slit experiment the intensity at a point where the path difference is
I
I0 I0
( being the wave length of light used) is I. If denotes the maximum intensity, is
equal to:
3 1 3 1
4 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
I1 I2
43. Two beams of light of intensity and interfere to give an interference pattern. If the
25 I1
9 I2
ratio of maximum intensity to that of minimum intensity is ,then is:
 5 81
3 625
1) 2)4 3) 4)16
I0
44. In the youngs double slit experiment, the central maxima is observed to be .If one of the
slits is covered, then the intensity at the central maxima will become:
I0 I0 I0
2 2 4 I0
1) 2) 3) 4)
45. In the propagation of light waves, the angle between the direction of vibration and plane of
polarization is
00 900 450 800
1) 2) 3) 4)
46. The maximum number of possible interference maxima when slits separation is equal to 4
times the wavelength of light used in a double slit experiment

1) 2) 9 3) 8 4) 4
47. In Fraunhofer diffraction, L is the distance between screen and the obstacle, b is the size of

obstacle and is wavelength of incident light. The general condition for the applicability
of Fraunhofer diffraction is
b2 b2 b2 b2
1 1 1 1
L L L L
1) 2) 3) 4)
q 2q
48. Two point charges and are placed at a certain distance apart. Where should a
third point charge be placed so that it is in equilibrium?[diagram]
2q
1) On the line joining the two charges on the right of
q
2) On the line joining the two charges on the left of
q 2q
3) Between and
q 2q
4) At any point on the right bisector of the line joining and .

49. Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric field
EA EB
at A and B are and respectively and if the displacement between A and B is
r then
 EB EB
EA EA
E A EB E A EB r r2
1) 2) 3) 4)
50. Figure shows lines of force for a system of two point charges. The possible choice for the
charges is

q1 4 C , q2 1.0 C q1 1 C , q2 4 C
1) 2)
q1 2 C , q2 4 C q1 3 C , q2 2 C
3) 4)
51. An electron is projected with certain velocity into an electric field in a direction
opposite to the field. Then it is
1) Accelerated 2) retarded
3) Neither accelerated nor retarded 4) either accelerated or retarded
52. The bob of a pendulum is positively charged. Another identical charge is placed at the
point of suspension of the pendulum. The time period of pendulum
1) Increases 2) decreases 3) Becomes zero 4)remains same.
53. A cube of side b has charge q at each of its vertices. The electric field at the centre of the
cube will be
32q q q
2 2
b 2b b2
1) Zero 2) 3) 4)
54. An electron is moving with constant velocity along x-axis. If a uniform electric field is
applied along y-axis, then its path in the x-y plane will be

1) A straight line 2) a circle 3) A parabola 4) an ellipse

55. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field generated by a point charge
1) The net electric force on the dipole must be zero
2) The net electric force on the dipole may be zero
3) The torque on the dipole due to the field must be zero
4) The torque on the dipole due to the field is not equal to zero
56. The electric field at a point at a distance r from an electric dipole is proportional to
1 1 1
2
r r r3 r3
1) 2) 3) 4)
57. Mark the correct options
1) Gauss law is valid only for unsymmetrical charge distributions
2) Gauss law is valid only for charge placed in vacuum
3) The electric field calculated by Gauss law is the field due to the charges outside the
Gaussian surface.
4) The flux of the electric field through a closed surface due to all the charges is equal to
the flux due to the charges enclosed by the surface
58. If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero
1) The electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
2) The electric field must not be zero everywhere on the surface
3) The charge inside the surface must be zero
4) The charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero
l l
59. The electric flux from a cube of edge is . Its value if edge of cube is made 2 and
charge enclosed is halved is

2 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
1 2
60. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is and , the
electric charge inside the surface will be
1 2 1 2
0 0 0 2 0 1 2 0
1) 2) 3) 4)
CHEMISTRY
61. The most thermodynamically stable allotropic form of phosphorus is
1) White P 2) Red P 3) Black P 4) Scarlet P
62. Which is used to produce smoke screens?
1) Zinc Sulphide 2) Calcium Phosphide
3) Zinc Phosphate 4) Sodium Carbonate
63. Phosphine is not obtained by the reaction
1) White P heated with NaOH 2) Ca3P2 is heated in HCl
3) Ca3P2 is heated in water 4) All
64. The spontaneous combustion of phosphine is technically used in
1) Holmes signal 2) Train Signal 3) Traffic signal 4)Ansil Alarm
65. The structure of PCl5 is
1) Pyramidal 2) Tetrahedral
3) Trigonal pyramidal 4)Trigonal bipyramidal
66. Dense white fumes occur when white phosphorus readily catches fire in air are due to
formation of
1) P4O10 2) PH3 3)H3PO3 4)PCl5
67. PCl3 on hydrolysis gives
1)H3PO4 2) H3PO3 3) POCl3 4) H3PO2
68. Oxidation state of phosphorous is lowest in
1) hypophosphorous acid 2) ortho phosphorous acid
3) meta phosphoric acid 4) pyro phosphorous acid
69. H3PO2 is the molecular formula of an acid of phosphorous. Its name and basicity
respectively are
1) Metaphosphorous acid and one 2) Hypophosphorous acid and one
3) Metaphosphoric acid and two 4) Hypophosphoric acid and two
70. The oxyacid of phosphorous which has more non-ionisable hydrogens
1) H3PO2 2) H3PO3 3) H4P2O7 4) H4P2O6
71. Number of hydroxy groups present in Phosphoric acid
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
72. The acid which exists in Polymeric form only is
1) H3PO2 2) HPO3 3) H4P2O7 4) H4P2O6
73. The number of P-O-P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is
1) 0 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
74. An oxyacid of phosphorus is a white deliquescent crystalline solid. It can be prepared by
the hydrolysis of P2O3 or PCl3 and its formula is
1) H3PO2 2) H3PO3 3) H4P2O7 4) H4P2O6
75. Elements O,S,Se and Te are commonly known as
1) Halogens 2) Rare earth elements 3) Chalcogens 4) Pnicogens
76. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers belongs to Chalcogens
1) 8, 52, 84 2) 9, 17, 35 3) 20, 37, 56 4) 14, 32, 50
77. Assertion (A): Thermal stability of the hydrides of VIA group elements decreases from
H2O to H2Po
Reason(R): M-H bond length increases.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
78. Oxygen can be prepared by thermal decomposition of
i)KClO 3 ii)Ag 2O iii)Pb 3O 4 iv)H 2O

1) only i & ii 2) only i & iii 3) only i,ii & iii 4) i,ii,iii,iv
i)CrO3 ii)CaO iii)Cl 2O 7 iv)Al 2O3 v)NO
79. Following oxides are categorized as
(A=Acidic, B= Basic, N= Neutral, Z=Amphoteric)
1)ABAZN 2)ABBZN 3)NABAZ 4)BBAZN
80. The hybridisation of sulphur in SCl2 is
1) sp2 2) sp3 3) dsp2 4) sp3d
81. Oxygen is divalent but Sulphur exhibits valency 2, 4 and 6 due to
1) Lower E.N. 2) Presence of d-orbitals
3) S - being bigger atom 4) Ionisation energy is less
82. Oxidation number of oxygen in OF2 is
1)-1 2) -2 3) +1 4) +2
83. Ozone is an
1) Isomorphic form of O2 2) Allotropic form of O2
3) Isomer of O2 4) Isotope of O2
84. Which is wrong about ozone
1) It is paramagnetic in nature 2) It has a linear structure
3) It oxidises Lead Sulphate 4) All
85. The temperature above which rhombic sulphur becomes monoclinic sulphur is
1) 369K 2) 365K 3) 359K 4) 300K
86. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur is
1) Rhombic 2)Monoclinic 3) Plastic 4) Colloidal
87. A gas which bleaches substances by reduction process is
1) Moist Cl2 2) SO2 3) O3 4) Dry Cl2
88. Solution of SO2 in water is known as
1) Sulphuric acid 2)Sulphurous acid
3) Hydrosulphuric acid 4)Thiosulphurous acid
89. The catalyst used in the manufacture of Sulphuric acid by contact process
1) Al2O3 2) Cr2O3 3) V2O5 4) Mn3O4
90. Conversion of SO2 to SO3 is
1) Exothermic reaction 2) Endothermic reaction
3) Photochemical reaction 4) Reduction reaction
91. Sulphurdioxide is used in
1) Refining petroleum and Sugar 2)Bleaching Silk and Wool
3) removal of Chlorine (antichlor) 4) All the above
92. Sulphuric acid is prepared on large scale by
1) Solvay process 2) Contact Process 3) Habers Process 4)Ostwald Process
93. Which allotropic form of sulphur shows paramagnetic nature
1) Amorphous S 2) S8 3) S6 4)S2
94. Oleum is
1)H 2SO 4 2)H 2S2O8 3)H 2S2O 7 4)H 2S2O 5
.
95. The chemical reactions of sulphuric acid are as a result of the following characteristics:
(a) low volatility (b) strong acidic character
(c) strong affinity for water (d) ability to act as an oxidising agent.
1) only b 2) b & c 3) b, c & d 4) all
96. Sulphuric acid forms which types of salts
1) normal sulphates 2) acid sulphates 3) both 1 & 2 4) Basic sulphates
97. The key step in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is
S O 2 SO 2 2SO 2 O 2
Catalyst 2SO3
1) 2)
SO3 H 2SO 4 H 2S2O7
3) 4) All are key stepsS
98. One of the following has O-O bond
H 2SO 4 H 2S2O8 H 2S2O 7 H 2S2O5
1) 2) 3) 4)
99. Shape of S8 and S6 allotropic form of Sulphur are
1) Crown and Chair 2) Chair, Chair 3) Crown and Crown 4) Chair and |Crown
100. Which statement is not correct about sulphuric acid.
1) Oxidising agent 2) Reducing agent 3) dehydrating agent 4) Oily Liquid
H 2SX O 6
101. An oxyacid of sulphur has a general formula . The value of x is
1) 2 to 5 2) 10 3) 6 to 7 4) 8 to 9
102. General electronic configuration of Noble gases
ns 2np 6 ns 2np 5 ns 2np 4 ns 6np 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
103. Noble gas which does not occur in atmosphere
1) Ar 2) Ne 3) Rn 4) Xe
104. Rarest elements of 18th group are
1) He & Rn 2) Ne & Rn 3)Xe & Rn 4)Ar & Rn
105. Noble gas which diffuses through commonly used laboratory materials like rubber, glass or
plastics is
1) He 2) Ne 3) Ar 4) Kr
106. Low boiling points of noble gases is due to
1) Octet configuration 2) Weak dispersion forces
3) Strong dispersion forces 4) Being last in the Periodic table
107. One of the product formed on complete hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF6
1) XeO3 2) XeOF4 3)XeO2F2 4)Xe
108. Structure of XeF2 and XeF4 according to VSEPR theory is
1) Linear, Square planar 2) Trigonal bipyramidal , Trigonal bipyramidal
3)Linear, Octahedral 4) Linear, Linear.
109. The outer electronic configuration of group VA elements is
1) ns2 np2 2) ns2 np3 3) ns2 np4 4) ns2 np5
110. Basicity decreases in the order of
NH 3 PH 3 AsH3 SbH 3 BiH 3 NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH3 BiH 3
1) 2)
NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 BiH 3 NH 3 PH 3 AsH3 SbH3 BiH 3
3) 4) S
111. Nature of pentahalides in comparison to trihalides of 15th group are
1) both are ionic 2) ionic and covalent
3) more covalent than trihalides 4) none
112. Very pure nitrogen can be obtained by thermal decomposition of
 1)Ba(N3)2 2)(NH4)2Cr2O7 3)NH4NO3 4)Pb(NO3)2
113. Nitrogen act as a Lewis base due to
1) Small size 2) Non metal hydride
3) ability to donate LP electrons on nitrogen 4) It accepts a pair of electrons
114. Blue solid of nitrogen oxides is
N 2O NO 2 N 2O3 N 2O5
1) 2) 3) 4)
115. Azeotropic mixture in the following
1)68%HNO3+32%H2O by mass 2) 98%HNO3+2%H2O by mass
3)58%HNO3+42%H2O by mass 4) 38%HNO3+62%H2O by mass
116. Vant hoff factor for the Na2SO4 assuming complete dissociation is
1)one 2) two 3) three 4) four
117. Standard electrode potential for Hydrogen electrode is assumed to be
1) 0V 2) 0.59V 3) -0.59V 4) +1.1
118. Units of Specific conductance are
1) S cm-1 2) S cm2 3) Ohm Cm-1 4) Ohm
119. Dissociation constant can be calculated as
o 2m
om m
m m m mo om
1) 2) 3) 4)
120. The formula for the Rust of Iron is
Fe2O3 Fe 2O3.xH 2O FeO FeSO 4
1) 2) 3) 4) S
BOTANY

121. The phenotype of an individual may be affected if the modified allele produces
A) No enzyme at all
B)The normal /less efficient enzyme
C)A non functional enzyme
1) only (A) is correct 2) A and C is correct
3) B and C is correct 4) only C is correct
122. In garden pea, starch is synthesized effectively in
1) Heterozygous round seeded plants 2) Homozygous round seeded plants
3) Wrinkled seeded plants 4) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
123. Heterozygous tall and violet flowered pea plants were selfed and total 512 seeds are
collected. What will be total number of seeds for both heterozygous traits ?
1) 128 2) 256 3) 384 4) 64
124. Which of the following statement for chromosomal theory of inheritance is incorrect ?
1) pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the segregation of a
factor they carried
2) Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to the behaviour of genes
3) The two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites on homologous
chromosomes
4) Chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs.
125. Morgan hybridized yellow bodied, white eyed female to Brown bodied, Red eyed males
and intercrossed their F1 progeny. He observed that
1) F2 ratio was deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1
2) Both genes did not segregate independently of each other
3) Recombinant types are not obtained in F2 generation
4) Both genes segregate independently of each other.
Select the correct set of statements
1) 1 & 2 2) 2 & 3 3) 2 & 4 4) 3 & 4
126. Generation of non-parental gene combinations is termed as
1) Linkage 2) Polyploidy 3) Recombination 4) Aneuploidy
127. Mark the odd one (with reference to F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross
1) Frequency of TtRR genotyte = 12.5% 2) Frequency of ttrr genotyte = 6.25%
3) Frequency of TTRR genotyte = 6.25% 4) Frequency of ttRr genotyte = 25%
128. Cytidine is a
1) Nucleoside 2) Nitrogen base
3) Nucleotide 4) Common dinucleotide of DNA & RNA.
129. Dominance of RNA world is proved by
1) Metabolism 2) Splicing 3) Translation 4) All
130. Which plant was used by Taylor to prove semiconservative replication at chromosomal
level?
1) pisum sativum 2) Vicia faba 3) Trillium 4) Ophioglossum.
131. The bacteria grown in the medium S35 as alone source of sulphur show its incorporation
into:
1) DNA 2) Protein 3) RNA 4) None

132. The experimental system used in the studies on the discovery of replication of DNA has
been
1) E.coli 2) Neurospora crassa
3) Drosophila melanogaster 4) Diplococcos
133. DNA polymerase is required for the synthesis of
1) RNA from DNA 2) DNA from RNA 3) DNA from DNA 4) RNA from RNA
134. Okazaki segments are:
1) segment of a nucleotide formed during transcription
2) segment of a nucleotide formed during replication of DNA
3) segments of recombination
4) segment of a nucleoside formed during replication of DNA.
135. Transcription is the process by which
1) two daughter strands of DNA are synthesized
2) amino acids are joined to form polypeptide
3) mRNA molecule is synthesized within a ribosome
4) mRNA molecule is synthesized on a DNA strand.
136. DNA Replication is aided by:
1) DNA polymerase only 2) DNA polymerase and ligese
3) DNA ligase only 4) RNA Polymerase
137. A DNA molecule in which both stands have radioactive Thymine is allowed to duplicate
in an environment containing non- radioactive thymine. What will be the correct number
of DNA molecules that contain same radio- active thymine after three duplications?
1) Four 2) eight 3) Two 4)No such molecules
138. What is name of Noble laureates in relation with DNA ?
1) Watson and Crick 2) Watson and crick and Korenberg
3) Watson and crick and Calvin 4) Watson and Crick and Ingram
139. The semi conservative mode of DNA replication was proved by:
1)Beadle and Tatum 2) Meselson and Stahl
3) Watson and crick 4) H.G Khorana
140. The hydrogen bonds between adenine and guanine are
1) 2 2)3 3)4 4)None
141. The two strands of DNA are:
1) similar and complementary 2) antiparallel and complementary
3) antiparallel and non-complementary 4)basically different in nature
142. 50 DNA molecules labeled with 15-N, heavy isotopic nitrogen are replicated in a culture
medium containing 14-N. After two generations what is obtained
1) 100 heavy DNA molecules 100 light molecules
2) 200 hybrid molecules
3) 100 hybrid and 100 light molecules
4) 200 light molecules
143. DNA duplication occurs in :
1) G1phase 2)S phase 3)G2 phase 4)Interphase

144. Match the list I and II and select the correct answer
List-I List -II
1.ligase 1.joins short segments of DNA
2.DNA polymerase 2.cuts DNA at specific DNA sequence
3.Helicase 3.Breaks Hydrogen bonds
1)1,2 and 3 are correct 2)1 only correct
3)1,3 are correct 4) 1,2 are correct
145. A gene may best be defined according to is :
1) function 2)Structure
3) capability to undergo mutation 4) recombination
146. Formation of new DNA strand during replication occurs in :
1)5-3 direction 2)3-5 direction 3)Both of above 4) None of above
147. Approach of Meselson and Stahl to establish the semi- conservative replication of DNA
as to use :
1) N15 isotope for making nucleotides 2) C14 isotope
35
3) S isotope 4) P32 isotope
148. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic
Cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
1) Super coiling in nucleosomes 2) DNase digestion
 3)Through elimination of DNA 4) deletion
149. Which of the following is incorrect?
1) A gene should be able to store and express information
2) Gene should be able to replicate
3) A Gene should have a mechanism to undergo mutation
4) none of above
150. The structural stability of the double helixof DNA is ascribed largely to :
1) Hydrogen bonding between adjacent purine bases
2) hydrophobic bonding between stacked purine and pyrimidine
3) hydrogen bonding between adjacent pyrimidine bases
4) Hydrogen bonding between purine and pyrimidine bases
ZOOLOGY
151. Acrosome of sperm is
1) Pointed structure 2) Round structure
3) Cap like structure 4) Spiral structure
152. Read the following statements and chose the number of statements which are correct?
A. Human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during a coitus.
B. For normal fertility, at least 40 per cent sperms must have normal shape and size
C. For normal fertility at least 60 per cent of them must show vigorous motility.
D. Acrosome is filled with enzymes that help fertilisation of the ovum
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
153. Match the following
SET-I SET-II
1. Oogonia A. Haploid
2. Spermatogenesis B. Diploid
3. Secondary spermatocyte C. When sperm enters into ovum it is released
4. Second polar body D. Formation of sperms
1) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C 2) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
3) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C 4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
154. What is the figure given below showing in particular

1) Tubectomy 2) Vasectomy 3) Ovarian cancer 4) Uterine cancer

155. According to the 2001 census report, the population growth rate in India was around
1) 1.5% 2) 1.6% 3) 1.7% 4) 1.8%
156. In Periodic abstinence coitus is avoided
 1) During 14th day of menstrual cycle 2) During 7th to 10th day of menstrual cycle
3) During 10th to 17th day of menstrual cycle 4) During menstruation
157. In XX-XO type, determination of sex depend on
1) Autosomes 2) Allosomes
3) Both autosomes and allosomes
4) X chromosomes and number of sets of autosomes
158. In honey bees
1) Males are diploid, produced from unfertilised eggs
2) Females are haploid produced from fertilised eggs
3) Males are haploid produced from unfertilized eggs
4) Females are diploid produced from unfertilized eggs
159. Male bird produces sperms containing
1) Autosomes and one W chromosome 2) Autosomes and one X chromosome
3) Allosomes and one Y chromosome 4) Allosome and one Z chromosome
160. Myotonic dystrophy is a
1) Autosomal dominant trait 2) Autosomal recessive trait
3) X-linked dominant trait 4) X-linked recessive trait
161. Analyse the following pedigree chart and chose the correct pattern of inheritance

1) X-linked dominant trait Ex: Haemoplilia

2) Autosomal dominant trait Ex: Colour blindness
3) Y-linked trait Ex: Thalassemia
4) Autosomal recessive trait Ex: Sickle cell anaemia
162. Assertion (A): The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare
Reason (R): Because mother of such a female has to be at least carrier and the father
should be haemophilic
1) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong
2) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is correct
3) Both the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and (R) is the reason for (A)
4) Both the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and (R) is not the reason for (A)
163. A normal man married a colour blind woman, whose father also a colour blind, and what
is the possible genotype of her mother
1) Colour blind 2) Normal 3) Carrier 4) Both 1 or 3
164. In Sickle Cell Anaemia, defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by
 1) Glycine (Gly) at the third position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin
molecule
2) Histamine (His) at the fourth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin
molecule
3) Leucine (Leu) at the fifth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin
molecule
4) Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule
165. Find the odd one
1) Haemophilia, Colour blindness 2) Cystic fibrosis, Sickle-cell anaemia
3) Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria 4) Klinefelters syndrome, Turners syndrome
166. Thalassemia is controlled by
1) HBA and HBS genes 2) HBB gene
3) HBA1 and HBA2 genes 4) Both 2 and 3
167. The family pedigree of ______________shows a number of haemophilic descendents as
she was a carrier of the disease
1) Queen Elizabeth 2)Queen Diana 3) Queen Victoria 4) Queen Kate
168. In Sickle cell anaemia, substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to
substitution of which codon
1) From GAG to GUG 2) From AGA to ATA
3) From CTC to CAC 4) From AUG to GUG
169. In Phenylketoneurea, affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts
1) Phenylalanine into phenylpyruvic acid 2) Phenylalanine into Alanine
3) Phenylalanine into Valine 4) Phenylalanine into tyrosine
170. Accumulation of this substance in brain results in mental retardation
1) Phenylalanine 2) Phenylpyruvic acid 3) Valine 4) Tyrosine
171. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in
1) Polyploids 2) Allosomes 3) Autosomes 4) Aneuploidy
st
172. Ttrisomy of 21 chromosome was first described by
1) Dalton 2) Klinefelter 3) Langdon Down 4) Turner
173. Short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth is the
characters of
1) Cyctic fibrosis 2) Downs syndrome
3) Klinefelters syndrome 4) Turners syndrome
174. Development of breast in males is called
1) Gynandromorphs 2) Gynaecomastism 3) Cryptorchinidism 4) Infertile
175. karyotype 47, AAXXY is observed in
1) Downs syndrome 2) Turners syndrome
3) Klinefelters syndrome 4) Cystic fibrosis
176. Turners syndrome karyotype is
1) 47,AAXXY 2) 45,AAXO 3) 47, AAXYY 4) 45, AAYO
177. Human genome project was launched in the year
 1) 1970 2) 1980 3) 1990 4) 1995
178. Human genome consist approximately
1) 3 x 103 bp 2) 3 x 106 bp 3) 3 x 109 bp 4) 3 x 1012 bp
179. HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called
1) Biochemistry 2) Information technology
3) Biotechnology 4) Bioinformatics
180. Among the following statements which is not a goals of HGP
1. Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in human DNA.
2. Determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up human
DNA.
3. Store this information in databases.
4. Improve tools for pedigree analysis.