07/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 6
Topics covered :
Physics : Electrostatics
Chemistry : Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry
Botany : Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Work done in moving a unit positive charge from 3. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field due
point P to A is WA and from P to B is WB. Then
to point source, then net
(1) Force experienced by dipole is zero while
torque will never be zero
(2) Force experienced by dipole will always be
non-zero while torque may or may not be
(1) WA – WB = 0 zero
(2) WA < WB (3) Force experienced by dipole is zero while
(3) WA = WB torque may or may not be zero
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) Force and torque both will be zero
2. Two conducting spheres of radius r1 and r2 have 4. Two particles of masses m and 2m with charges
same electric fields near their surfaces. The ratio
of their electric potential at their surface, is (–2q) and 2q are placed in uniform electric field E
and allowed to move for same time the ratio of
r12 r22
(1) (2) their kinetic energy is
r22 r12
r1 r2 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) (4)
r2 r1 (3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

5. The flux entering and leaving a closed surface 8. The electric field in a region is given by
are 3 × 105 and 4 × 105 MKS unit respectively,  N
then the total charge inside the closed surface E ( 3iˆ + 4 yjˆ ) . The potential at point P having
=
C
will be co-ordinates (2m, 1m) is (assume potential at
(1) 8.85 × 10–7 C (2) – 8.85 × 10–7 C origin zero)
(3) – 6.195 × 10–6 C (4) 3.56 × 10–6 C (1) 8 V (2) 16 V
6. Two concentric spherical conducting shells of (3) –8 V (4) –16 V
radius R and 2R carry charges Q and 2Q 9. N identical drops of mercury are charged
respectively. Change in electric potential of inner simultaneously to 10 V. When combined to form
shell, when they are connected by a conducting one large drop, the potential is found to be 40 V,
wire will be the value of N is
(1) 0 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10
1 Q
(2) 10. In a region of space the electric field is given by
4πε0 2R 
E = 8iˆ + 4 jˆ + 3kˆ . The electric flux through a
1 Q surface of area 50 unit in x – z plane is
(3)
4πε0 R (1) 400 unit (2) 200 unit
1 2Q (3) 150 unit (4) 750 unit
(4)
4πε0 R 11. An electric dipole consists of two opposite
charges each of magnitude 1µC separated by a
7. The velocity v acquired by a proton starting from distance of 2.0 cm. The maximum torque acting
rest and moving through a potential difference V on the dipole in uniform electric field of
is shown by the graph 2.0 × 105 N/C is
(1) 1.0 × 10–3 Nm (2) 2.0 × 10–3 Nm
(3) 3.0 × 10–3 Nm (4) 4.0 × 10–3 Nm
12. Two positive point charges of 9µC and 6µC are
(1)
10 cm apart. The work done in bringing them to a
separation of 4 cm is
(1) 5.25 J (2) 6.29 J
(3) 7.29 J (4) 8.25 J
13. A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has
a charge 2q. Another charge q is placed at the
centre of shell. The electric potential at a point P
(2) R
at distance from centre of shell is
2
1 4q 1  3q 
(1) (2)  
4πε0 R 4πε0 2R 
1  5q  1 2q 
(3)   (4) R 
4πε0 2R  4πε0  
(3)
14. Two equal positive point charges q are held at a
fixed distance a apart. A point test charge is
located in a plane that is normal to the line joining
these charges and midway between them.
Radius of the circle in this plane for which the
force on the test particle is maximum, will be
a a
(1) (2)
(4) 2 2 2
a
(3) (4) 2a
2

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-6 (Code-A)

15. Two concentric conducting thin shells of radius R (3) Remain same
and 2R carry charge Q and 3Q respectively. The (4) Increase by U0 ( K − 1)
magnitude of electric field at points A and B at a
distance x outside and inside from the surface of 20. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is
outer sphere is same. Then value of x is 12µF. If the distance between the plates is
R 2R doubled and area is halved. Then new
(1) (2) capacitance will be
3 3
(1) 12 µF (2) 6 µF
R R
(3) (4) (3) 4 µF (4) 3 µF
4 2
21. Four particles, each having a charge ‘q’ are
16. A spherical conducting shell of radius 10 cm placed at the four vertices of a regular hexagon of
carrying charge q. The electric potential at side a. The electric field at the centre of hexagon
distances 5 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm from centre of is
the spherical shell are V1, V2 and V3 then
(1) V1 > V2 > V3 (2) V1 < V2 < V3
(3) V1 = V2 = V3 (4) V1 = V2 > V3
17. A point charge causes an electric flux of
Nm2
4.0 × 103 to pass through a spherical
C
Gaussian surface of radius 10 cm centred on 1 4q
charge. If radius of sphere reduced to half, then (1) 0 (2)
the flux that would pass through the sphere is
4πε0 a 2

Nm2 Nm2 1 3q 1 2q
(1) 1.0 × 103 (2) 2.0 × 103 (3) (4)
C C 4πε0 a 2 4πε0 a 2
2
Nm Nm2 22. The minimum possible electrostatic force
(3) 4.0 × 103 (4) 3.0 × 103
C C between two points objects placed at a
18. Consider a rhombus ABCD as shown in figure. A separation of 1 cm is
charge +Q placed at corner A produces field E (1) 2.3 × 10-24 N (2) 2.3 × 10-23 N
and potential V at corner D. If we now placed (3) 2.3 × 10-22 N (4) 2.3 × 10-21 N
charges –2Q and +Q at corners B and C 23. The force on a charge due to another charge is
respectively. Now the magnitude of electric field (1) Depends on the presence of other charges
and potential at D will be (2) Independent on the presence of other
charges
(3) Depends on presence of other charges and
their sign
(4) Depends on presence of other charges, their
sign and distances
24. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A
and B. The electric potential at the points A and B
V E (excluding these points) is studied while moving
(1) E 2 , (2) ,V 2
2 3 from A to B. The potential
V (1) Increases continuously
(3) E, 0 (4) E 3 ,
2 (2) Decreases continuously
19. If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is (3) Decreases then increases
introduced between the plates of an isolated (4) Increases then decreases
charged air capacitor having energy U0. The 25. Two insulating small spheres are rubbed against
energy stored in the capacitor will each other and placed 3.0 cm apart. If they
attract each other with a force of 0.256 N. Then
 1
(1) Increase by U0  1 −  the number of electrons transferred from one
 K  sphere to other is
 1 (1) 1.0 × 1012 (2) 2.0 × 1012
(2) Decrease by U0  1 − 
 K  (3) 1.0 × 1013 (4) 2.0 × 1013

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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

26. A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1 µF withstand a 30. The equivalent capacitance of combination

maximum voltage V1 = 6 kV, while a capacitor of shown in figure between points A and B is
capacitance C2 = 3.0 µF withstand the maximum
voltage V2 = 4 kV. The maximum voltage which
the capacitors can withstand when connected in
series
(1) 8 kV (2) 9 kV
(3) 10 kV (4) 5 kV
27. Three charges are arranged on the vertices of an (1) C (2) 3C
equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The dipole
3C
moment of combination is (3) 4C (4)
2
31. A spherical volume of radius 10 cm contains a
uniformly distributed charge of density 2 × 10–4
Cm–3. The electric field at a point inside the
volume at a distance of 5 cm form centre is
N
(1) 2.75 × 105
C
N
(1) qa 3 (2) qa 5 (2) 3 × 105
C
(3) qa 7 (4) 3qa N
(3) 3.75 × 105
28. A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge C
Q on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of N
shell and charge – q1 is placed outside it as (4) 5 × 105
C
shown in figure. The force on the charge at
centre due to shell is 32. Dielectric strength of a dielectric is
(1) The maximum potential which a dielectric can
bear without break down
(2) The maximum value of electric field which a
dielectric can bear without break down
(3) The maximum charge which a dielectric can
bear without break down
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Towards left 33. Five capacitors are connected in a circuit as
shown in figure.
(2) Towards right
(3) Upward
(4) Zero
29. In a certain region of space electric field is along
the z-direction throughout. The magnitude of
electric field is however, not constant but
increases uniformly along positive z-direction at
the rate of 106 N/Cm. The force experienced by a
dipole of dipole moment 0.2 × 10–5 Cm in The charge stored on 4 µF capacitor and
negative z direction is potential drop across its plates are respectively

(1) 2 N along +z-direction (1) 24 µC, 6 V

(2) 2 N along (–z)-direction (2) 30 µF, 7.5 V
(3) 0 N (3) 80 µC, 20 V
(4) 2 N along – x-direction (4) 40 µC, 10 V

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-6 (Code-A)

34. The flux through the hemispherical curved (1) The charge density of A and B are same
surface placed in uniform electric field E in the (2) The electric field inside and outside A is zero
figure shown is
(3) The electric field between A and B is non
zero
(4) The electric field inside and outside B is zero
40. Volume charge density for a solid nonconducting
Qr
sphere is given by ρ = 4 where Q is total
πR
(1) πR 2 E (2) 2πR 2 E charge on sphere and R is its radius, r is distance
from centre of sphere. Magnitude of electric field
2
(3) Zero (4) –πR E at a distance ‘l’ from centre of sphere (l < R) will
35. Some negative charge is uniformly distributed in be
a nonconducting sphere, then its potential is Ql 2 Ql 2
(1) (2)
(1) Minimum at surface 8πε0R 4 4πε0R 4
(2) Minimum at centre
Ql
(3) Remain same throughout the material (3) (4) Zero
4πε0R 2
(4) Minimum somewhere between surface and
centre 41. Two identical capacitors A and B are shown in
figure. If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant
36. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged with a
K is slipped between the plates of capacitor B.
battery and energy stored in capacitor is U. After
Then energy of capacitor B will
disconnecting battery another uncharged
capacitor of same capacity is connected in
parallel to the first capacitor. The energy stored in
each capacitor now is
U
(1) U (2)
2
U U
(3) (4)
4 8
37. The minimum number of 2µF identical capacitors
which can withstand a maximum potential (1) Decrease
difference of 400 V require to design a circuit of (2) Increase
effective capacitance of 2µF and bearing voltage (3) Remain same
1000 V are. (4) Become zero
(1) 3 (2) 6 42. In the circuit shown in figure the charge stored in
(3) 9 (4) 12 2µF capacitor on applying a potential difference
38. A soap bubble of radius 1 m is charged to a of 60 V between A and B is
potential of 100 V. Its radius is then doubled. The
electric field at surface of bubble now will be
(1) 25 V/m (2) 50 V/m
(3) 100 V/m (4) 200 V/m
39. A and B are two concentric spheres. If A is given
a charge q and B is earthed, then

(1) 40 µC
(2) 80 µC
(3) 60 µC
(4) 120 µC

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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

43. Charges +2q and -q are placed at point A and B

respectively which are at a distance 2L apart, C is
the midpoint between A and B.

(1)

The work done in moving a charge (-Q) along the

path CED is

1 4qQ 1 qQ
(1) (2) − (2)
4πε0 3L 4πε0 3L

1 3qQ 1 3qQ
(3) (4) −
4πε0 L 4πε0 L

44. The electric potential at a point having coordinate

x, y, z is given by V = – [x2 + y2 + z3]. The
magnitude of electric field at point having
coordinate (0, 2, 1) is (all quantities are in SI (3)
units)

N N
(1) 7 (2) 10
C C

N N
(3) 5 (4) 12
C C
(4)
45. The variation of electric field vector from centre of
a charged conducting sphere of radius R is
correctly shown in graph.

CHEMISTRY
46. At certain temperature molar conductance of 0.2 48. 2.5 V is required for the following electrolytic
molar aqueous solution of a weak monoacidic reduction of Al2O3 at a high temperature:
hydroxide is 8.44 S cm2 mol–1 and at infinite
dilution its molar conductance is 326 S cm2 mol–1. 2Al2O3 → 4Al + 3O2
The degree of ionisation of weak monoacidic The Gibb’s energy for the decomposition of
hydroxide at the given concentration and same aluminium oxide at same temperature is
temperature is
(1) +5211 kJ mol–1
(1) 2.59% (2) 20.90%
(2) +2895 kJ mol–1
(3) 2.09% (4) 5.21%
47. Standard oxidation potentials of the half-cell (3) +1960 kJ mol–1
reactions are given below (4) +960 kJ mol–1
E° F− /F =
−2.85 V, E° −1.36 V
=
2 Cl− /Cl2 49. Standard electrode potential for Hg2+ / Hg22+ couple
E° Br − /Br =
−1.06 V, E° − −0.53 V
= is +0.92 V and that for the Fe2+ / Fe couple is
2 Ι / Ι2

The weakest oxidising and reducing agents – 0.44 V. These two couples in their standard
respectively are states are connected to make a cell. The cell
potential will be
(1) F2 and Ι − (2) Ι 2 and F – (1) +0.48 V (2) -0.48 V
−
(3) Br2 and Cl (4) F2 and Ι2 (3) +0.89 V (4) +1.36 V

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-6 (Code-A)

50. An increase in molar conductance of CH3COOH 56. The half life of a substance in a certain first order
with dilution is due to ZSM-5 catalysed reaction is 72 s. The time
(1) Increase in mobility of ions only required for the concentration of the substance to
fall from 2.56 mmol L–1 to 0.02 mmol L–1 is
(2) 100% ionisation of acetic acid at normal
(1) 690 s (2) 434 s
dilution
(3) 574 s (4) 504 s
(3) Decrease in both number of ions and ionic
mobility of H+ 57. For the following reaction,
(4) Increase in number of ions as well as ionic A + B → C + 56 kJ mol-1,
mobility of ions energy of activation is 113 kJ mol–1. For the
51. Consider the change in oxidation state of a non- reaction: C → A + B, the energy of activation
metal X corresponding to different emf values as will be
shown below: (1) 57 kJ mol–1 (2) 169 kJ mol–1
(3) 56 kJ mol–1 (4) 226 kJ mol–1
Then the species undergoing disproportionation 58. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid
is solution is represented by this equation
(1) HXO4 (2) X2 CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq) → CH3COCH2Br(aq)
(3) HXO (4) XO3− + H+(aq) + Br–(aq)

52. If the Daniell cell is not working at standard state The rate of reaction is given as rate = k
conditions, which of the following relationships is [CH3COCH3][H+]. The value of rate constant can
correct? be decreased by
(1) Eocell > 0; ∆Go < 0,K eq > 1 (1) Increasing the concentration of acetone
(2) Increasing the concentration of H+
(2) Eocell > 0, ∆Go < 0, K eq < 1
(3) Decreasing the concentration of H+
(3) Eocell < 0; ∆Go > 0; K eq < 1 (4) Decreasing the temperature
59. When initial concentration of ammonia is tripled,
(4) Ecell < 0; ∆Go > 0; K eq > 1 the half-life period of following reaction
53. During the electrolysis of molten calcium Pt
2NH3 (g) →
∆ N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
bromide, the approximate time required to
produce 0.30 mol of bromine gas using a current (1) Is tripled
of 2 amperes is (2) Becomes one-third
(1) 67 minutes (2) 110 minutes (3) Is doubled
(3) 220 minutes (4) 482 minutes (4) Remains unchanged
54. In a first order reaction for every 10°C rise of 60. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate
temperature, the rate becomes 2.2 times. If the of 2 × 10–2 s–1. How much time will it take for
temperature is increased from 40°C to 80°C, the 80 g of the reactant to reduce to 20 g?
rate of the reaction will become approximately
(1) 277.2 s (2) 138.6 s
(1) 19.8 times (2) 23 times
(3) 104.32 s (4) 69.3 s
(3) 39 times (4) 512 times
61. For the reaction X + Y → Products, it is
55. Which one of the following statements for the observed that
order of a reaction is correct?
(i) On doubling the initial concentrations of both
(1) Order of a reaction is multiplication of in X and Y, there is a change by a factor of 16
power to the concentration terms of reactants in the rate of the reaction.
expressed in the rate law.
(ii) On doubling the initial concentration of Y
(2) Order is determined experimentally only, the rate of reaction becomes eight
(3) Order of reaction is always whole number times. The rate of this reaction is given by
(4) Order is influenced by stoichiometric (1) Rate = k [X] [Y]2 (2) Rate = k [X]2 [Y]2
coefficients of reactants only (3) Rate = k [X] [Y]3 (4) Rate = k [X]2 [Y]

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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

62. Which of the following sols is negatively charged? 69. Percentage of free space in a face-centred cubic
(1) Gold sol (2) Al2O3.xH2O sol unit cell is

(3) Methylene Blue sol (4) Haemoglobin (1) 12 % (2) 26 %

63. The coagulation of lyophobic sols cannot be (3) 32 % (4) 47.6 %
carried out by 70. In AB2 type ionic salt, having the fluorite structure,
(1) Electrophoresis number of A2+ and B– in 5 unit cells are
(2) Ultrafiltration (1) 40, 10 (2) 4, 8
(3) Addition of electrolytes (3) 10, 20 (4) 20, 40
(4) Boiling 71. If a is the length of the side of a unit cube, the
64. Which of the following statements is incorrect? distance between the face centred atom and one
corner atom in the cube will be
(1) In Haber’s process finely divided iron is used
as catalyst 2 1
(1) a (2) a
(2) Zeolites are used as catalysts in 3 2
petrochemical industries for cracking of
2 a
hydrocarbons. (3) a (4)
2 2
(3) The maltase enzyme is used for the
conversion of glucose into maltose. 72. Which of the following is not equal to zero for a
(4) Amylase in presence of sodium chloride i.e., solution of n-hexane and n- heptane?
Na+ ions are catalytically very active (1) ∆Hmix
65. Match column I with column II
(2) ∆Vmix
Column I Column II
(a) Hydrogenation
∆P PObseved − PRaoult
(3)=
(i) Control of humidity
of oils by finely (4) ∆Gmix
divided Ni
(b) Silver halides 73. The boiling point of 0.14 mol kg–1 solution of
(ii) Heterogeneous
adsorb eosin A2B4C2 is greater than equimolal solution of A6B12
catalysis
(c) Silica gel in water. Which one of the following statements
(iii) Adsorption indicator may be correct in this case?
(iv) Froth floatation (d) Pine oil
(1) Molecular mass of A2B4C2 is greater than the
process
molecular mass of A6B12
(1) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c)
(2) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (d) (2) A6B12 is undergoing dissociation in water
whereas A2B4C2 undergoes no change
(3) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d)
(4) (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d) (3) Molecular mass of A2B4C2 is less than the
66. Which of the following is an incorrect Freundlich molecular mass of A6B12
adsorption isotherm? (4) A2B4C2 is undergoing dissociation in water
x x whereas A6B12 undergoes no change
(1) = kp3/2 (2) = kp1/10
m m 74. Of the following 0.23 m aqueous solutions, which
x x one will exhibit the largest freezing point
(3) = kp2/5 (4) = kp1/9 depression?
m m
67. The number of tetrahedral void(s) in a unit cell of (1) C12H22O11 (2) NaCl
cubic close-packed structure is (3) Na2SO4 (4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(1) 8 (2) 4
75. van’t Hoff factor i for acetic acid in water and
(3) 2 (4) 1 benzene is respectively
68. A solid compound AB has rock salt (NaCl) type (1) Greater than unity and greater than unity
structure. If the radius of A+ is 200 pm, the radius
of B– will be (2) Less than unity and greater than unity
(1) 165.7 pm (2) 483 pm (3) Greater than unity and less than unity
(3) 550 pm (4) 644 pm (4) Less than unity and less than unity

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-6 (Code-A)

76. Which of the following does not change with 84. The van’t Hoff factor of 0.01 M weak monobasic
change in temperature? acid in aqueous solution is 1.041. The
(1) Volume percentage (2) Normality dissociation constant of acid is approximately
(1) 1 × 10–7 (2) 2 × 10–6
(3) Molarity (4) Mole fraction
(3) 1 × 10–6 (4) 2 × 10–5
77. The osmotic pressure of a solution of a non-
electrolyte containing 20 g L–1 of y (molecular 85. Which of the following ions has highest limiting
mass = 60 g mol–1) is equal to that of a 10% molar conductivity in water at 298 K?
solution (w/v) of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte (1) Cl– (2) Ca2+
solute at 30°C. The molar mass of the solute is
(3) Br– (4) Mg2+
(1) 60 g mol–1 (2) 600 g mol–1
86. Which of the following reactions takes place at
(3) 400 g mol–1 (4) 300 g mol–1 anode of a mercury cell?
78. A solution of aniline in phenol (1) Hg ( l ) + 2OH– → HgO + H2O + 2e –
(1) Behaves like an ideal solution
(2) MnO ( OH) + NH3 → MnO2 + NH4+ + e−
(2) Shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(3) Obeys Raoult’s law (3) Zn (Hg) + 2OH− → ZnO(s) + H2O + 2e−
(4) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(4) Zn(s) → Zn2+ + 2e−
79. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are
123 and 167 torr respectively. The total vapour 87. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 6 moles (1) The main source of energy that is driving our
of A and 3 moles of B would be approximately economy is fossil fuels such as coal, oil and
(1) 138 torr (2) 151 torr gas
(3) 93 torr (4) 1239 torr (2) Hydrogen produced by electrolysis of water is
resulting in the Greenhouse Effect.
80. 2 × 10–3 mol kg–1 solution of a coordination
compound AB4C4 in water shows a fall in freezing (3) The hydrogen combustion in a fuel cell is
point by 0.0108°C. The structure of the based on electrochemical principles
compound will be (given Kf = 1.860 Km–1) (4) Fuel cells produce electricity with an
efficiency of about 70%
(1) [AB4C2] C2 (2) [AB4C]C3
88. Consider a first order gas phase reaction
(3) [AB4]C4 (4) [AB4C3]C
A(g) → B(g) + C(g) . If 10 atm is the initial
81. Which of the following shows Schottky defect? pressure of A and 12 atm is the total pressure
(1) ZnS (2) AgCl after 20 minutes, the rate constant of this reaction
is equal to
(3) AgBr (4) AgΙ
2.303  20  2.303  12 
82. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) log   (2) log  
12  10  20  10 
(1) O2 is paramagnetic
2.303  20  2.303  10 
(3) log   (4) log  
(2) MgFe2O4 becomes paramagnetic on heating 10  12  20  8 
(3) MnO shows ferrimagnetism 89. The number of collisions per second per unit
(4) NaCl is diamagnetic. volume of the reaction mixture is known as
83. Which of the following gases has highest (1) Enthalpy
solubility in water at 298 K? (KH = Henry’s law (2) Activation energy
constant) (3) Collision frequency
(1) A (KH = 40.3 kbar ) (4) Rate constant
90. Hydrolysis of cane sugar in acidic medium is a/an
(2) B (KH = 1.67kbar )
(1) Pseudo zero order reaction
(
(3) C =
K H 1.83 × 10 −5
kbar ) (2) Pseudo first order reaction
(3) Pseudo second order reaction
(4) D (KH = 145 .2 kbar )
(4) Pseudo third order reaction
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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

BOTANY
91. Identify the incorrect statement regarding life 98. In which of the given plants both male and female
span. sex organs are produced on same plant body?
(1) It is specific trait of each organism (1) Marchantia (2) Papaya
(2) It is always correlated with size and (3) Cucumber (4) Date palm
complexity of organisms 99. Chara is similar to Marchantia as both have
(3) Life span of crow is shorter than parrot (1) Jacketed sex organs
(4) It is period from birth to natural death (2) Archegonium as female sex organ
92. Amoeba is said to be immortal because (3) Unicellular sex organs
(1) Its life span is short (4) Non motile male gametes
(2) None of its body part is left to die 100. Which of the given is a post-fertilisational event in
(3) It does not show sexual reproduction plants?
(4) Its growth and reproduction are synonymous (1) Syngamy (2) Gametogenesis
93. Asexual reproduction does not involve (3) Pollination (4) Embryogenesis
(1) Gamete formation 101. The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
(2) Formation of genetically similarly individuals (1) Gamete formation
(3) Gametic fusion (2) Zygote differentiation
(4) Mitosis (3) Fusion of gametes
94. Select the incorrect match. (4) Transfer of gametes
(1) Rhizome – Ginger 102. Water is the medium for gamete transfer in
(2) Bulbil – Agave (1) Algae (2) Angiosperm
(3) Offset – Pistia (3) Bryophytes (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) Bulb – Opuntia 103. Select the incorrect match
95. Which one is monocarpic perennial plant? (1) Algae – External fertilisation
(1) Wheat (2) Pteridophytes – Lack
(2) Strobilanthus embryogenesis
(3) Mango (3) Spirogyra – Shows internal
fertilisation
(4) Carrot
(4) Gymnosperms – Form embryo
96. State true (T) or false (F) to the given statement
and select the correct option. 104. A fertilised ovule develops into a
A. Vegetative reproduction is seen in some (1) Seed (2) Fruit
lower plants only (3) Pericarp (4) Zygote
B. Sexual reproduction can be uniparental 105. Zoospore can not be
C. Cell division itself is a mode of reproduction (1) Asexual structure (2) Motile
in Monera and Protista (3) Haploid (4) Product of syngamy
A B C 106. If a meiocyte of onion has 16 chromosomes then
(1) T T T its gamete will have _______chromosomes
(2) T F T (1) 32 (2) 8
(3) F T T (3) 48 (4) 4
(4) F T F 107. In which of the given plants clear cut distinction
97. Sexual reproduction through morphologically between all the three phases of life cycle are
distinct gametes occur in absent?
(1) Spirogyra (2) Ulothrix (1) Mango (2) Carrot
(3) Rhizopus (4) Fucus (3) Radish (4) Rice

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-6 (Code-A)

108. Read the given statements. a b c d

(i) In potato new plantlets arises from A (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(ii) Penicillium asexually reproduces through
B (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(iii) The Vegetative propagule in Eichhornia is
C 114. Find the incorrect statement regarding embryo
sac.
Select the correct option for A, B and C. (1) It is also called female gametophyte
A B C (2) It contains three celled egg apparatus
(1) Internode Zoospore Stolon (3) Every nucleus of embryo sac is haploid
(2) Bud Conidia Offset except polar nuclei
(3) Internode Conidia Offset (4) Central cell is the largest cell of embryo sac
(4) Bud Zoospore Sucker 115. In anatropous ovule
109. The anther wall layer that provides nourishment (1) Chalaza is absent
to developing pollen grains is (2) Embryo sac is curved like horse shoe
(1) Endothecium (2) Tapetum (3) Micropyle lies close to hilum
(3) Epidermis (4) Middle layer (4) Only single integument is found
110. The outermost layer of pollen grain 116. Choose the odd one w.r.t. ploidy
(a) Lacks sporopollenin (1) Synergid
(b) Protects it from hazardous environment (2) Egg
(c) Is called intine (3) Antipodal cell
Which of the given is/are correct? (4) Secondary nucleus
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) 117. Autogamy can be ensured if the plant
(a) Has bisexual flowers
(3) (a) and (c) (4) Only (b)
(b) Is dioecious
111. Pollen grains of cereals, such as wheat, loose
viability (c) Has cleistogamous flowers
(1) After several months (2) In 20 hours (d) Shows self-incompatibility
(3) After 60 minutes (4) Within 30 minutes Choose the correct option.
112. In pollen grains, the generative cell differs from (1) (a) and (c)
vegetative cell as the former (2) (b) and (d)
(1) Stores food reserve (3) (b) and (c)
(2) Has irregularly shaped nucleus (4) (a) and (d)
(3) Is spindle shaped 118. All of the following features of flowers are in
favour of anemophily, except.
(4) Is larger than the vegetative cell
(1) Feathery stigma
113. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(2) Light weight pollen
Column I Column II (3) Well exposed stamens
(Plants) (Ovary) (4) Mucilage covered pollen
a. Papaver (i) Multicarpellary 119. Which of the given plants is insect pollinated?
apocarpous (1) Water lily (2) Vallisneria
b. Wheat (ii) Many ovules per (3) Wheat (4) Hydrilla
ovary 120. Choose the wrongly matched pair
c. Michelia (iii) Multicarpellary (1) Castor – Geitonogamy is not possible
syncarpous (2) Ficus – Insect pollinated
(3) Grasses – Wind pollinated
d. Papaya (iv) Single ovule per
ovary (4) Groundnut – Pollinators absent

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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

121. During artificial hybridisation of cucumber plant, (3) Ovary wall develops into sporoderm
which of the given steps is not desired? (4) PEN develops into endosperm
(1) Bagging of stigma 130. Identify the incorrect statement for apomixis.
(2) Emasculation (1) Apomictic embryos are genetically identical to
(3) Dusting of pollen on stigma each other.
(4) Rebagging of stigma (2) Apomixis is genetically controlled
122. Double fertilisation involves fusion of all of the phenomenon
following except. (3) Apomictic embryo can not be diploid as they
(1) Egg are not produced after fertilisation
(2) Male gametes (4) Apomictic embryos are found in Citrus fruits.
(3) Polar nuclei 131. The nutritive tissue of ovule
(4) Synergids (a) Is nucellus
123. In angiosperms, endosperm can not be (b) Is involved in embryo sac formation
(1) Triploid (c) May form apomictic embryo in mango
(2) Involved in food storage Choose the correct ones.
(3) Formed before fertilisation (1) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Formed from central cell (2) Only (b) and (c)
124. In mature seeds, endosperm is absent in (3) Only (a) and (c)
(1) Pea (2) Coconut (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Maize (4) Rice 132. Pollen grains can be stored in A for several
125. Scutellum represents years at a temperature of B .
(1) Single cotyledon of monocots Complete the above statement by choosing
correct option for A and B
(2) Embryonal axis
A B
(3) Triploid structure of seeds
(1) Liquid N2 – 96°C
(4) Endosperm of maize seed
126. In which of the given seeds, persistent nucellus is (2) Liquid CO2 –196° C
seen? (3) Liquid N2 –196°C
(1) Black pepper (2) Bean (4) Liquid CO2 –96°C
(3) Coconut (4) Gram 133. Nectar and fragrance is not required if the
127. Read the given statements flowers are
A. In apple, fruit develops from floral parts other (1) Cleistogamous
than ovary. (2) Entomophilous
B. Dehydration and dormancy are the features of (3) Anemophilous
seeds that form basis of agriculture.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Only A is incorrect
134. Double fertilization
(2) Only B is incorrect
(1) Is unique event of all green plants
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(2) Involves syngamy and triple fusion
(4) Both A and B are correct
(3) Is fusion of two male gametes with one egg
128. Seeds of which of the following plants are found
to be oldest viable seeds? (4) Involves fusion of two polar nuclei with one
egg
(1) Lupine (2) Orchid
135. Which of the given is a parthenocarpic fruit?
(3) Castor (4) Pinus
(1) Pear
129. Select the odd one for post fertilisational events
in plants. (2) Apple
(1) Ovary mature into fruit (3) Banana
(2) Ovule mature into seed (4) Mango

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-6 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
136. Read the following statements and choose the 143. Internal fertilization is not seen in
correct option (1) Birds (2) Reptiles
A. Life expectancy is based on average life (3) Frog (4) Mammals
span. 144. Choose the incorrect statement.
B. Maximum life span is the maximum time
(1) Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are
period upto which a population has survived
pre-fertilization events
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(2) Syngamy is fusion of male and female
(2) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect gametes
(3) Both statements are incorrect (3) Sexual reproduction is a complex and slower
(4) Both statements are correct process as compared to asexual
reproduction
137. Choose the odd one w.r.t. sexual mode of
reproduction. (4) At the end of meiosis-II, two diploid gametes
are formed
(1) Genitalia (2) Gonads
145. Endogenous budding is present in
(3) Gametes (4) Gemmules
(1) Spongilla (2) Hydra
138. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual
(3) Plasmodium (4) Planaria
reproduction
146. The second estrogen surge in a menstrual cycle
(1) Asexual reproduction occurs in only single is seen in
celled organisms.
(1) Luteal phase (2) Proliferative phase
(2) Asexual reproduction is also called
somatogenic reproduction. (3) Follicular phase (4) Menstruation phase
(3) The parent individual form identical 147. Choose the unpaired male reproductive gland.
individuals. (1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate gland
(4) New individuals develop without involving (3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Cowper’s gland
fusion of gametes.
148. Semen is forcefully expelled from the penis by
139. Select the mismatch w.r.t. life span in years the contractions of smooth muscles that line the
(1) Dog 20 – 30 urethra. This process is called
(1) Spermiation (2) Spermatogenesis
(2) Fruit fly 1–2 (3) Ejaculation (4) Insemination
(3) Tortoise 100 – 150 149. Choose the odd one w.r.t. structure of fallopian
tube.
(4) Crocodile 60 (1) Infundibulum (2) Ampulla
140. Complete the analogy w.r.t. chromosome (3) Isthmus (4) Cervix
numbers in meiocyte. 150. In human female, primary sex organ is
Human beings : 46 :: Housefly: _____. (1) Ovary (2) Fallopian tube
Choose the correct option. (3) Uterus (4) Vagina

(1) 12 (2) 42 151. Sustentacular cells are found in A and

(3) 8 (4) 24 provide B to germ cells. Choose the option

141. In which animal oestrous cycle does not occur? which fills the respective blanks.
(1) Humans (2) Deer A B
(3) Tigers (4) Sheep (1) Fallopian tube Estrogen
142. Select a bisexual animal. (2) Seminiferous tubules Nurishment
(1) Cockroach (2) Earthworm (3) Uterus Progesterone
(3) Frog (4) Human (4) Cervix Alkaline substance

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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

152. Choose the incorrect statement. 159. During menstrual cycle which layer of uterus
(1) Seminal plasma in ejaculate of human males undergoes cyclic changes?
is rich in fructose and calcium (1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium
(2) Cleavage in mammals is holoblastic and (3) Endometrium (4) Mesometrium
unequal 160. In below given figure, identify structures C, F and
(3) Fertilizin is produced from acrosome G.
(4) Grey crescent is the area just opposite to the
site of entry of sperm into ovum
153. During human embryonic development, by the
end of which week, most of the major organ
systems are formed?
(1) 2nd week (2) 4th week
(3) 8th week (4) 12th week
154. Select the mismatch w.r.t. a normal menstrual
cycle of 28 days.
(1) Follicular phase  5th to 13th day
(2) Proliferative phase  15th to 25th day Choose the correct option representing C, F and
(3) Ovulatory phase  14th day G respectively
(4) Menstrual phase  1st to 4th day (1) Ovum, Zygote, Blastocyst
155. Select the phase which is not a phase of ovarian (2) Ovum, Zygote, Morula
cycle. (3) Secondary oocyte, Zygote, Blastocyst
(1) Follicular phase (2) Ovulatory phase (4) Embryo, Morula, Blastocyst
(3) Menstrual phase (4) Luteal phase 161. In humans, fertilization normally takes place at
156. Choose the odd one w.r.t ploidy (1) Isthmic region (2) Ampullary region
(1) Spermatozoa (3) Infundibular region (4) Cervical region
(2) First polar body 162. How many testicular lobules are present in each
(3) Secondary oocyte testis of human?
(4) Primary spermatocyte (1) 250 (2) 25
157. The correct path of transport of sperm passing (3) 1-3 (4) 8-16
through male body is 163. Read the following statements w.r.t. humans and
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa choose the correct option regarding true (T) and
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens false (F) statements.
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra (a) The fully developed foetus and placenta
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vas induce mild uterine contractions called foetal
deferens→ Epididymis → Vasa efferentia ejection reflex.
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra (b) During parturition, a complex neuroendocrine
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas mechanism is induced by cortisol, estrogen
and oxytocin.
deferens → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra (c) During ovulation, only one ovum is released
per menstrual cycle.
(4) Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas
deferens → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia (d) The presence of X or Y chromosome in the
sperm determines the sex of embryo.
→ Urethra → Ejaculatory duct
a b c d
158. Hormones that are secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy include all of the following (1) T F T T
except. (2) T T T T
(1) hCG (2) Testosterone (3) F F T T
(3) hPL (4) Progesterone (4) F T F T

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-6 (Code-A)

164. Implantation is embedding of the _____ into the 168. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
endometrium of uterus. Choose the option that option.
fills the blank correctly. Tubectomy : Oviducts :: Vasectomy :____
(1) Zygote (1) Vasa efferentia
(2) Blastocyst (2) Vasa deferentia
(3) Morula (3) Epididymis

(4) Transient 4-celled stage (4) Seminal vesicles

165. In human female, the correct route of passage of
milk is
(1) Mammary tubule → Mammary duct →
Mammary alveoli → Mammary ampulla →
Lactiferous duct
(2) Mammary duct → Mammary tubule →
Mammary alveoli → Mammary ampulla →
Lactiferous duct.
(3) Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule →
Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla →
lactiferous duct.
(4) Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubule →
Mammary duct → Mammary alveoli →
Lactiferous duct.
166. Match column I and column II w.r.t. STI and their
causative agent.
Column I Column II
169. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t hormonal
oral pills.
(1) Inhibit motility and secretory activity of
fallopian tubes
(2) Change in cervical mucus impairing transport
of sperms
(3) Alteration in uterine myometrium to make it
unsuitable for implantation
(4) Inhibit ovulation
170. “Saheli” is a new oral contraceptive for females
and was developed by scientists at
(1) The European Federation of Biotechnology
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(3) International Union of Biochemistry
(4) Central Drug Research Institute
171. Choose the odd one w.r.t. barrier methods of
birth control.

(a) Syphilis (i) Herpes simplex (1) Spermicidal creams

(2) Diaphragms
virus
(3) Cervical caps
(b) Trichomoniasis (ii) Neisseria
(4) Vaults
gonorrhoeae 172. Select a hormone releasing IUD.
(c) Gonorrhoea (iii) Trichomonas (1) Multiload 375
vaginalis (2) LNG 20
(d) Genital Herpes (iv) Treponema (3) CuT
pallidum (4) Cu7
173. Government of India legalized medical
Choose the correct option.
termination of pregnancy in
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) 1951 (2) 1971
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) 2001 (4) 2011
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 174. Choose the incorrect match.
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) ICSI – Intracytoplasmic
167. Amniocentesis cannot be used to test for the sperm injection
presence of (2) GIFT – Gamete intra-
fallopian transfer
(1) Cleft palate
(3) IVF-ET – In vitro fertilization
(2) Down’s syndrome
and Embryo transfer
(3) Sickle-cell anemia (4) ZIFT – Zygote inter-fundus
(4) Haemophilia transfer

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Test-6 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

175. In test tube baby programme, embryo with upto 178. Probable reason of population explosion is rapid
eight blastomeres is transferred into decline in all of the following except
(1) Uterus (1) Number of people in reproducible age
(2) Fallopian tube (2) Maternal mortality rate
(3) Infant mortality rate
(3) Vagina
(4) Death rate
(4) Cervical canal
179. Choose the odd one w.r.t. natural contraceptive
176. Hormonal Intra Uterine Device does not methods.
suppress
(1) Coitus interruptus
(1) Spermatogenesis (2) Oral pills
(2) Implantation of blastocyst (3) Periodic abstinence
(3) Fertilizing capacity of sperm (4) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) Sperm motility 180. Combination of which of the following set of
177. Condoms are not hormones can be used by females as implants
under the skin for birth control?
(1) Easy to use
(1) Oxytocin and progestogen
(2) Barrier method of contraception (2) Relaxin and estrogen
(3) Reusable (3) Estrogen and oxytocin
(4) Available for females (4) Progestogens and estrogen

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