E

Test No. 2

Answers & Hints

Medical Entrance Exam - 2022

 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

TEST - 2 (Code-E)
Test Date : 23/01/2022

ANSWERS
1. (4) 41. (4) 81. (2) 121. (2) 161. (2)
2. (4) 42. (1) 82. (4) 122. (4) 162. (3)
3. (2) 43. (3) 83. (1) 123. (3) 163. (3)
4. (1) 44. (2) 84. (1) 124. (4) 164. (4)
5. (4) 45. (1) 85. (2) 125. (1) 165. (1)
6. (2) 46. (3) 86. (3) 126. (1) 166. (2)
7. (1) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (4) 167. (4)
8. (1) 48. (1) 88. (2) 128. (3) 168. (4)
9. (2) 49. (4) 89. (4) 129. (3) 169. (2)
10. (3) 50. (3) 90. (2) 130. (3) 170. (1)
11. (1) 51. (4) 91. (3) 131. (4) 171. (4)
12. (2) 52. (3) 92. (4) 132. (2) 172. (3)
13. (3) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (4) 173. (2)
14. (2) 54. (2) 94. (3) 134. (1) 174. (3)
15. (1) 55. (1) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (4) 56. (3) 96. (1) 136. (4) 176. (3)
17. (1) 57. (4) 97. (2) 137. (1) 177. (4)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (1) 178. (3)
19. (3) 59. (2) 99. (1) 139. (3) 179. (3)
20. (2) 60. (4) 100. (2) 140. (3) 180. (1)
21. (1) 61. (1) 101. (3) 141. (1) 181. (4)
22. (3) 62. (1) 102. (4) 142. (4) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (4) 103. (2) 143. (2) 183. (2)
24. (4) 64. (3) 104. (4) 144. (2) 184. (3)
25. (1) 65. (4) 105. (4) 145. (3) 185. (3)
26. (2) 66. (4) 106. (4) 146. (3) 186. (4)
27. (3) 67. (1) 107. (1) 147. (3) 187. (4)
28. (2) 68. (1) 108. (3) 148. (1) 188. (2)
29. (2) 69. (3) 109. (3) 149. (1) 189. (2)
30. (4) 70. (4) 110. (2) 150. (3) 190. (1)
31. (2) 71. (3) 111. (1) 151. (2) 191. (2)
32. (1) 72. (4) 112. (1) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (2) 73. (3) 113. (2) 153. (4) 193. (1)
34. (1) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (3) 194. (3)
35. (3) 75. (1) 115. (4) 155. (2) 195. (4)
36. (1) 76. (3) 116. (1) 156. (4) 196. (3)
37. (3) 77. (4) 117. (1) 157. (2) 197. (3)
38. (2) 78. (3) 118. (1) 158. (1) 198. (1)
39. (1) 79. (4) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (4)
40. (2) 80. (1) 120. (2) 160. (1) 200. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A Sol.: Given IHollow cylinder  ISolid cylinder

1. Answer (4) 1
 MR12  MR22
Hint :   r  F 2
R1 1
Sol.: r  r1  r2  (2iˆ  3 jˆ  4kˆ )  (iˆ  ˆj  kˆ )  
R2 2
 (iˆ  2 jˆ  3kˆ ) m 5. Answer (4)

iˆ jˆ kˆ iˆ jˆ kˆ
 1 2 3 Hint : A  B  ax ay az
2 3 5 bx by bz

 iˆ(10  9)  jˆ(5  6)  kˆ(3  4) iˆ jˆ kˆ

 (iˆ  ˆj  kˆ ) Nm Sol.: A  B  2 3 1
6 9 3
2. Answer (4)
 iˆ(9  9)  jˆ(6  6)  kˆ(18  18)
Hint and Sol. : If Fext  0, then velocity of centre of
=0
mass will remain same
6. Answer (2)
Hence velocity of centre of mass = 0
m1a1  m2a2
3. Answer (2) Hint : Use Fnet  ma and acm 
m1  m2
Hint : L  r  p
 m  m2 
Sol.: ablock   1
 m  m 
Sol.: From the figure g
 1 2 

r = ON = 3cos45° (as the inclination of line y = x +

3 is 45°)
3
r 
2
3 20
| L |  mvr  2  4 2  ablock   2 m/s2
2 10

= 24 kg m2 s–1 6  ( 2) ˆj  4  2 jˆ
acm 
4. Answer (1) 10

Hint : Ihollow cylinder  MR2 4 ˆj

 m/s2
10
1
Isolid cylinder  MR 2 | acm |  0.4 m/s2
2
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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

7. Answer (1) 11. Answer (1)

Hint : I  mi ri
2
Hint :   r  F

3 3 Sol.:
Sol.: |  A |  60  0  50  2  60  2  20  0  40 4
2 2

= | 100  140 3 | 2m  l 2l
X cm  
3m 3
= 142.5 N m
2 2
 2l  l
8. Answer (1) MOI  m     2m  
3 3
dL
Hint :   
6 2 2 2
ml  ml
dt 9 3
dL d  2
4t  2t  7 
12. Answer (2)
Sol.:   
dt dt Hint :  = I
 = 8t + 2 Sol.: Just after cutting the string BQ, the rod PQ
tends to rotate about end P.
(t = 2 s) = 8 × 2 + 2
L mL2
= 18 N m Hence, torque () = mg   
2 3
9. Answer (2) 3g

d 2L
Hint :  
dt 13. Answer (3)
Sol.:  = 10t2 + 15 Hint : A  B  AB sin nˆ

d A  B  AB cos 
  20t  0
dt Sol.: Given | A  B |  A  B
(t = 1 s) = 20 rad/s2  ABsin= ABcos
10. Answer (3)  tan = 1

Hint : Use angular momentum conservation   = 45°

Sol.: I1 + I(–2) = 2I  | A  B |  A2  B2  2AB cos45

1  2  A2  B 2  2 AB

2 14. Answer (2)
Loss in kinetic energy is Hint and Sol. : If body is moving upwards then
displacement is opposite to gravitational force,
K = Ki – Kf
hence work done by gravity will be negative.
1 2 1 2 1 15. Answer (1)
 I   I   (2I )2
2 1 2 2 2
AB
Hint : | A | cos  
I 2 (1  2 )2 |B|
 (  22 )  I
2 1 4
Sol.: A  B  (iˆ  2 jˆ  5kˆ )  (iˆ  5 jˆ  7kˆ )
I
 [212  222  12  22  212 ] = 1 + 10 + 35 = 46
4
| B |  1  25  49  5 3
I
 (1  2 )2 46
4 | A | cos  
5 3
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

16. Answer (4) 22. Answer (3)

Hint : Use work-energy theorem Hint and Sol. : During collision, Fext = 0, hence
Sol.: If Wf is the work done by the air frictional linear momentum of system remains conserved but
force then, kinetic and potential energy of system may vary.
Wf + mgh = KEf 23. Answer (4)
1 dU
Wf   (0.1)  802  0.1  10  500 Hint : F  
2 dx
Wf = 320 J – 500 J dU
Sol.: F    (2x  1)
Wf = –180 J dx
17. Answer (1) 24. Answer (4)
Hint : W   F  dr Hint : P  F  v
1
Sol.: W  0 (10  4x )dx Sol.: P  (2iˆ  bjˆ  3kˆ )  (2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ )

 P = 4 – 3b – 3 = 1 – 3b
= [10 x  2 x ]0
2 1

 0 = 1 – 3b
= 10 + 2 = 12 J
1
18. Answer (4)  b
3
Hint and Sol. : 10 eV = 10 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
25. Answer (1)
= 1.6 × 10–18 J
Hint : Use law of conservation of mechanical
19. Answer (3)
energy and law of conservation of linear
1 2 momentum
Hint : U  Kx
2
Sol.: From the law of conservation of linear
1 2 momentum
U2 2 K 2 x K
Sol.:   2 mu + 0 = (M + m)v
U1 1 K1
K x2
2 1 M m
u v
2  m 
U2  (15)  10 J
3
20. Answer (2)
Hint : For perfect inelastic collision, Loss in KE
1  m1m2 
( K )    (u  u2 )
2
2  m1  m2  1

1  2 4 
Sol.: K     (4  0)
2 From the law of conservation of mechanical energy
2 24
1
2 32 0  (M  m)v 2  (m  M )gh
  16  J 2
3 3
L  L
21. Answer (1) v 2  2g   h 
2  2
Hint : W  F  d  Fd cos 
v  gL
Sol.: W = 20 × 10 × cos60°
M m
1 Hence, u    gL
 20  10   100 J  m 
2
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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

26. Answer (2) 29. Answer (2)

Hint and Sol. : Momentum is a vector quantity and Hint : Fnet  ma
rate of change of momentum is in the direction of
Sol.: Since v = constant
net force and it is also a vector quantity.
Therefore a  0
27. Answer (3)
 Fnet  0
Hint : Use F = 0 for translational equilibrium
T1 = 150 N, T2 = 100 N
Sol.: From Lami’s theorem 30. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. : Cyclist bends inward while taking
circular turn to generate the required centripetal
force. Here one component of normal reaction
provides the centripetal force and other component
balances the weight.
31. Answer (2)

T1 T2 Hint: At equilibrium Fnet = 0 so Mg = Kx

100
  Sol. :  At equilibrium position :
sin120 sin90 sin150

 3
100  
 sin120   2  Kx = mg  Fnet = 0  a = 0
T1  100  
 sin150   1
 
2
 Below equilibrium position
 100 3 N

28. Answer (2) Kx > mg  Fnet is upward

p
Hint : F 
dt So, acceleration a is upward
Above equilibrium position and initial
Sol.: Since pi  pjˆ and pf  piˆ

unstretched position

Kx < mg  Fnet is downward

So, acceleration a is downward

32. Answer (1)
dm
Hint : Thrust   u
dt
Sol.: |Thrust| = 10000 × 16
= 1.6 × 105 N
Hence change in momentum is
33. Answer (2)
p  pf  pi  piˆ  pjˆ Hint : Fnet  ma

Hence frictional force will act on toy car to change Sol.: Acceleration of stone = acceleration of train.
its momentum i.e., in south-east direction. Hence net force on stone = 5 × 2 = 10 N

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

34. Answer (1) dv

a(t )   8  36t
Hint : Impulse = change in momentum. dt
Sol.: From the position – time graph F(t) = ma(t) = 1(8 + 36t)
F(t = 2 s) = 80 N
pi = 0 and pf = 2(–5/4)
38. Answer (2)
|p| = 2.5 kgms–1
Hint and Sol. : Since block is not moving, hence
 Impulse = 2.5 kgms–1 or 2.5 Ns frictional force f = Fcos
35. Answer (3) 39. Answer (1)

Hint : Use F = 0 Hint : Fnet  ma

Sol.: FBD

Sol.:

F  Mg F
a  g
M M
From F.B.D.
N=F
M
 m  (l  x )
f = m0g l
N = m0g ( for minimum force, friction will be  T  mg  ma

maximum) M
 T  m(g  a)  (l  x )(g  a)
l
m0 g
F N  M  F 
  T  (l  x )  g   g 
l  M 
SECTION-B F (l  x )
 T 
36. Answer (1) l
40. Answer (2)
Hint : vopt  Rg tan  x
Hint : K  W  x 2 F  dx
1
Sol.: For no wear and tear on tyres, consider that
frictional force is not required. Sol.: K = W = area under F – x curve
2  10
i.e., vopt  Rg tan  K   10  1
2
 300  10  0.27 = 20 J
41. Answer (4)
 810
Hint : Use law of conservation of mechanical
 9 10 m/s energy
Sol.: KEP  PEP  KER  PER
37. Answer (3)
1
Hint : F = ma 0  mg (12)  mv 2  mg (7)
2
Sol.: x(t) = 5t + 4t2 + 6t3
 v 2  2  g (12  7)
dx
v (t )   5  8t  18t 2  v  10  10  10 m/s
dt

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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

42. Answer (1) 25

2  10 
Hint : Use law of conservation of linear 3
Sol.: v 
momentum. 2
1
3
Sol.: Since  = 30°, Hence  = 90° – 30° = 60°
20  25
  100
5
= 10 m/s
46. Answer (3)
Hint :  = I

Sol.:  
I
10
From momentum conservation along y-axis   0.1rad/s2
100
v A sin60  vB sin30
47. Answer (2)
1
d
vA 2 1 Hint :  
  dt
vB 3 3
2 Sol.:  = k–1
d
43. Answer (3)  k 1
dt
dU ( x )
Hint : F ( x )    t
dx   d   0 kdt
Sol.: At point C, slope of U(x) – x graph is positive.
( 2   2 )
Hence, force F is negative.   kt
2
44. Answer (2)
Hint : Use law of conservation of mechanical    (2kt  2 )
energy. 48. Answer (1)
Hint : Use   0  2
Sol.: 2 2

Sol.: After Kth round  = K ·2

2  02  2  (2K )

From the figure 2 v2

   rad/s2
mg 1 4K  4K r 2
0 ( 0.5)  mv 2  mg ( 1.5)
3 2 49. Answer (4)
 0.5  a1m1  a2m2
 2g  1.5  v
2
Hint : acm 
 3  m1  m2

80 Sol.: For 3 kg block, 3g – T = 3a …(1)

 v m/s
3 for 2 kg block, T – 0.5 (2g) = 2a …(2)
45. Answer (1) From eqn (1) and (2)
3g – g = 5a
2gh
Hint : v 
K2 2
1 a g  4 m/s2
R2 5

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

2  4iˆ  3( 4 jˆ) 50. Answer (3)

acm 
32 Hint : P       cos 

8iˆ  12 ˆj Sol. : P = 10 × 20 × cos0°

  1.6iˆ  2.4 ˆj  m/s2
5 = 200 W

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A 55. Answer (1)
PM
51. Answer (4) Hint : d 
RT
P
Hint : Rate of effusion  Sol. : Density of gas is maximum when
Molar mass
temperature is minimum and pressure is maximum.
Sol. : Ratio of moles of SO2 and CH4 56. Answer (3)
w w Hint : Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not
= :  1: 4
64 16 applicable for reacting mixtures of gases.
 Ratio of partial pressures of SO2 and CH4 = 1 : 4 Sol. : NH3 and HCl react together to form NH4Cl.
rSO PSO MCH 1 16 1  Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not
2
 2
 4
  
rCH PCH MSO 4 64 8 applicable for this mixture.
4 4 2
57. Answer (4)
52. Answer (3)
nRT
Hint : At high temperature, effect of interparticle Hint : P 
attraction becomes negligible. V
Sol. : At high temperature and low pressure wCO 220 g
2 Sol. : nCO  2
  5 mol
an 2 mCO 44 g
P  P and V  nb  V 2
V2
nRT 5  0.0821  300
 an2  P  = 15 atm.
Therefore,  P   (V  nb)  nRT becomes PV V 8.21
 V2  58. Answer (3)
= nRT
Vreal
So, real gas follows ideal gas equation at high Hint : Z= at same temperature and
temperature and low pressure. Videal
53. Answer (3) pressure.
Hint : NH3 molecules form hydrogen bonding. Sol. : Volume of 2 moles ideal gas at STP = 2 ×
Sol. : NH3 has strong interparticle attraction due to 22.4 L
intermolecular hydrogen bonding therefore, shows Volume of 2 moles real gas at STP = 11.2 L
maximum deviation from ideal behaviour.
Vreal 11.2 1
54. Answer (2) Z  
Videal 2  22.4 4
3RT
Hint : Urms  59. Answer (2)
M
Hint : London dispersion forces exist between non-

Urms 4T
Sol. :  2 polar molecules.
Urms T
Sol. : Instantaneous-induced dipole interaction or
 rms speed becomes two times of initial rms London dispersion forces exist between non-polar
speed when temperature is quadrupled. molecules like CCl4 and CH4.

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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

60. Answer (4) 66. Answer (4)

PV PV Hint : H = U + ngRT
Hint : 1 1  2 2
n1T1 n2T2
Sol. :  For the reaction, H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2HCl(g)
Sol. : PA = PB = P, VA = 1 L, VB = 2 L, TA = 273
ng = 2 – (1 + 1) = 0
+ 273 = 546 K.
TB = 546 + 273 = 819 K  H = U

P 1 P2 n 819 3 67. Answer (1)

  A  
nA 546 nB 819 nB 2  546 4 Hint : Heat evolved on combustion of 1 mole
substance is known as enthalpy of combustion.
61. Answer (1)
Sol. : 16 g methane on combustion gives 200 kJ
Hint : G = H – TS
energy so 0.8 g methane on combustion gives
Sol. : If H < 0 and S < 0 then process is only
200
spontaneous at low temperature because G will  0.8  10 kJ energy
16
be negative at low temperature only.
68. Answer (1)
62. Answer (1)
Hint : H = U + ngRT and G = H – TS
Hint : In free expansion, w = 0.
In an adiabatic process q = 0 Sol. : H = 2 × 1000 + (2 – 0) × 2 × 300 = 3200 cal

Sol. : U = q + w = 0 + 0 = 0 G = 3200 – 300 × 10 = 200 cal

63. Answer (4) = 0.2 kcal

Vf 69. Answer (3)

Hint : S = 2.303 nR log
Vi Hint : Intensive property does not depend on
quantity or size of matter.
10
Sol. : S = 2.303 × 10 × R log
100 Sol. : Heat depends on quantity of substance
therefore, is an extensive property.
= – 23.03 R
64. Answer (3) Temperature, density and refractive index do not
depend on the quantity of substance therefore, are
Hint : P4 is intensive properties.
70. Answer (4)

Sol. : 4P(g)  P4(g) rH = – x kJ mol–1 Hint : Most of the OH in the solution will be
P4(g)  4P(g) rH = x kJ mol–1 furnished by NaOH

x Sol. : Cu(OH)2  Cu2+ + 2OH

x  r H  6  BEPP  BEPP  kJ mol1
6
(i) — — 0.2 M
65. Answer (4)
(eq) — SM (S+0.2)M
Hint : q + w = U
 0.2 M
Sol. :  U + PV = H, Enthalpy is a state function
2
 q + w = U, change in internal energy is a Ksp = [Cu2+] [OH]
state function.
2.2 × 10–20 = (S) (0.2)2
 w and q are path functions.
S = 5.5 × 10–19 M

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

71. Answer (3) 76. Answer (3)

Hint : Aqueous solutions of salts of strong base
and weak acids are alkaline in nature.
Sol. : Aqueous solution of salt of NaOH with
H2CO3 i.e., NaHCO3 is basic in nature as H2CO3 is
weaker acid and NaOH is a stronger base, so
anionic hydrolysis will take place.
72. Answer (4)
Hint : Ca(OH)2 is a strong diacidic base
Sol. : [OH]  2[Ca(OH)2 ]  2  0.01  0.02 M
pOH = – log [OH] = – log (0.02) = 1.7
pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 1.7 = 12.3
73. Answer (3)
Hint : H3PO4, H3PO3 and H3PO2 contain 3, 2 and 1
acidic H-atoms respectively.
Sol. :  H2PO2 and HPO32 do not contain acidic
Hint : Lewis acid accepts lone pair of electrons
from Lewis bases.
Sol. : Due to incomplete octet, BF3 can accept lone
pair of electrons, hence is a Lewis acid.
77. Answer (4)
Hint : ln x = 2.303 logx
Sol. : At equilibrium
G° = – RT ln K = – 2.303 RT log K.
78. Answer (3)
Hint : Greater is the value of equilibrium constant,
greater is the extent of reaction.
Sol. : Since Keq = 2.7 × 10–19 <<< 10–3, equilibrium
contains mostly reactants.
79. Answer (4)
Hint : On reversing the reaction, value of
equilibrium constant gets inversed.

hydrogen, so cannot act as Bronsted Sol. : N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g); K = x

acid.
1
 H3PO4 cannot accept H+ so cannot act 2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g); K 
x
as Bronsted base.
1 3 1
 HPO24 can give and accept H+ NH3 (g) N2 (g)  H2 (g); K  
2 2 x
therefore, act as Bronsted acid and base
80. Answer (1)
both.
Hint : M1V1 + M2V2 = M3V3
74. Answer (2)
2  0.8  4  0.1  4  0.25
Hint : Mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong Sol. : [H ]Total 
244
base acts as acidic buffer.
= 0.3 M
Sol. : CH3COOH + NaOH  CH3COONa + H2O
pH = – log[H+]Total = – log(0.3) = 0.522
(i) mmol 100 × 0.1 50 × 0.1 – –
81. Answer (2)
= 10 =5
(f) mmol 5 0 5 –
Hint : On adding two equilibria, their equilibrium
constants will get multiplied.
 Mixture of 5 mmol CH3COOH and 5 mmol
Sol. : A + 2B  2C ; K1 …(i)
CH3COONa will act as an acidic buffer.
75. Answer (1) 2C  2D 2E; K 2  (K 2 )2 …(ii)
Hint : High pressure shifts the equilibrium towards 1
2E 2F  2B ; K3  …(iii)
lesser number of gaseous moles. (K3 )2
Sol. : According to Le Chatelier’s Principle.
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii)
High temperature favours endothermic equilibrium.
K1K 22
 Extent of forward reaction will be maximum A  2D 2F; K 
when the temperature is high and pressure is low. K32

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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

82. Answer (4) 88. Answer (2)

Hint : For conjugate acid base pair Hint : For the salt of weak acid and weak base
pKa + pKb = pKw 1
pH  7  (pKa  pKb )
2
Sol. : K a  104 , pK a   logK a   log104  4
1
Sol. : pH  7  (4  6)
pKb  14  pKa  14  4  10 2

83. Answer (1) = 7 + (–1) = 6

89. Answer (4)
Hint : In aqueous solution, Hydroxyl ion can be
Hint : Acidic strength of Hydrides increases down
hydrated, as HO  H  OH H3O2
the group.
Sol. : In aqueous solution, the hydronium ion is Sol. : Acidic strength increases as CH4 < NH3 <
further hydrated to give species like H2O < H2S
H5O2 , H7O3 and H9O4 . Similarly hydroxyl ion is 90. Answer (2)

hydrated to give several species like Hint : Oxidation number of C in benzene is –1

1 4
H3O2 , H5O3 and H7O4 etc. Sol. : C 6 H6  CO2
84. Answer (1)  Oxidation number of carbon changes from –1.
ng to +4.
Hint : KP  KC (RT)
91. Answer (3)
Sol. : For the reaction Hint : H2SO5 contains peroxy linkage.
H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g) x
Sol. :  N2 H2 : 2x  2( 1)  0  x  1
 ng = (2) – (1 + 1) = 0
 Oxidation number of N in N2H2 is –1.
 KP = KC  H2SO5 : 2(+1) + x + 3(–2) + 2(–1) = 0
85. Answer (2)  x = +6
pK w
Hint : pH  for pure water.
2

Sol. : pK w at tC   log K w   log1012  12

92. Answer (4)
pK w 12 Hint : Lesser is the reduction potential, greater is
pH   6
2 2 the reducing power.
Sol. : Since among the given metals, reduction
SECTION-B
potential of Ag is maximum and while of Al is
86. Answer (3) minimum, therefore Al has maximum while Ag has
minimum reducing powers.
Hint : Physical equilibrium are dynamic in nature.
93. Answer (3)
Sol. : Both the opposing processes occur at the
same rate during equilibrium.
Hint :
87. Answer (2)
kf Ea /RT
Hint : K eq  , k  Ae Sol. : Oxidation state of middle Br is +4
kb

Sol. : Equilibrium constant of a reaction is affected

only by change in temperature.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

94. Answer (3) 98. Answer (3)

Hint : In disproportionation reaction, same element Hint : Hg2Cl2 dissociates into Hg22  2Cl
is oxidised as well as reduced.
Sol. :  AgCl Ag  Cl

 PH3  H2PO2 ,
(S)
Sol. : In P4  OH both reduction (S)

and oxidation of P4 is taking place therefore it is a Ksp = [Ag+][Cl–] = (S)(S) = S2

disproportionation reaction.  Hg2Cl2 Hg22  2Cl
(2s)
(s)
95. Answer (2)
Ksp  [Hg22 ][Cl ]2  (S)(2S)2  4S3
Hint : 2MnO4  5C2O24  16H  2Mn2 + 10CO2
+ 8H2O  Al(OH)3 Al3  3OH
(S) 3S
Sol. : Ratio of coefficient of MnO4 : C2O24  2:5
Ksp  [Al3 ][OH ]3  (S)(3S)3  27S4
96. Answer (1)
 Ca3 (PO 4 )2 3Ca2  2PO34
1 3S 2S
Hint : At constant temperature P 
2 3
V Ksp  [Ca ] [PO34 ]2  (3S) (2S)2  108S5
3

Sol. : Since pressure of gas is inversely

99. Answer (1)
proportional to the volume of gas therefore
Hint : fH of graphite(s) and O2 (g) is zero in
 1
pressure is directly proportional to the   at standard states.
V
Sol. : C(graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
constant temperature.
Hrxn   f H(CO2 (g))  cH(Cgraphite )  x kJ / mol
97. Answer (2)
Hint : Concentration of Cl– increased from the 100. Answer (2)
dissociation of HCl. Hint : Discharge potential of H2O is less than that
Sol. : By passing HCl gas through saturated of SO24 .
solution of NaCl, high purity NaCl is obtained and Sol. : At Cathode : 2H  2e  H2 (g)
we can get rid of impurities like sodium and
magnesium sulphate. At Anode : 2H2O  O2  4H  4e

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 103. Answer (2)
Sol. : Linnaeus classified organisms on the basis
101. Answer (3)
of criteria such as cell wall, locomotion, mode of
Hint : Shield shaped cotyledon is known as
nutrition, response to external stimuli and
scutellum.
contractile vacuole.
Sol. : In monocot seed, the outer covering of
104. Answer (4)
endosperm separates the embryo by a
proteinaceous layer called aleurone layer. Hint : Six kingdom classification was proposed by
102. Answer (4) Carl Woese on the basis of sequence of 16S rRNA
genes.
Hint : Aristotle proposed first scientific
classification of organisms. Sol. : W.M. Stanley crystalised viruses for the first
Sol. : Aristotle classified animals into Anaima and time.
Enaima, on the basis of absence and presence of R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom
RBC. classification.
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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
105. Answer (4)
Hint : Diatoms are chief producers of ocean.
Sol. : Diatoms are autotrophs. A dinoflagellate
(Gonyaulax) causes red tide.
106. Answer (4)
Hint : Euglena has pigments identical to those
present in higher plants.
Sol. : In presence of sunlight, Euglena is
photosynthetic and when deprived of sunlight they
are heterotrophs.
107. Answer (1)
Hint : False septum in ovary is observed in the
Brassicaceae family.
Sol. : Mustard belongs to Brassicaceae family in
which unilocular ovary is present but it becomes
bilocular due to presence of false septum i.e.,
replum.
108. Answer (3)
Hint : Aggregate fruit develops from apocarpous
ovary.
Sol. : Simple fruit develops from syncarpous ovary
of the single flower with or without accessory parts.
Composite fruit develops from entire inflorescence.
109. Answer (3)
Hint : In lily, stem is reduced and disc shaped.
Sol. : In lily, bulb is formed.
110. Answer (2)
Hint : Axile placentation – China rose
Sol. : Basal placentation – Sunflower
Parietal placentation – Mustard
Free central placentation – Dianthus
111. Answer (1)
Hint : Oblique septa is found in potato family.
Sol. : Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers are
found in family Solanaceae. Flowers in this family
have bicarpellary ovary.
112. Answer (1)
Hint : Fungi growing on wood is known as epixylic.
Sol. : Fungi growing on cow dung are known as
coprophilous.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
113. Answer (2)
Hint : Members of Ascomycetes and
Deuteromycetes produce conidia.
Sol. : Alternaria being a member of
Deuteromycetes, asexually reproduces by conidia.
114. Answer (3)
Hint : Male and female sex organs are required for
reproduction and hence are essential whorls of
flower.
Sol. : Androecium and gynoecium are male and
female whorls respectively and calyx and corolla
are non-essential whorls of flower.
115. Answer (4)
Hint : Some members of Plantae can be partially
heterotrophic such as insectivorous plants.
Sol. : Bladderwort and Venus flytrap are examples
of insectivorous plants and Cuscuta is a parasitic
plant. Viruses are acellular.
116. Answer (1)
Hint : The sexual cycle of fungi involves
plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis.
Sol. : Plasmogamy involves fusion of protoplasm
of two motile or non-motile gametes.
117. Answer (1)
Hint : Multinucleate and aseptate mycelium is
known as coenocytic mycelium.
Sol. : Members of Phycomycetes have coenocytic
mycelium.
118. Answer (1)
Hint : In flowers of Liliaceae family, calyx and
corolla are not distinct.
Sol. : Indistinct calyx and corolla is called perianth.
119. Answer (3)
Hint : Deuteromycetes – Imperfect fungi
Sol. : Ascomycetes – Sac fungi
Basidiomycetes – Club fungi
Zygomycetes – Conjugation fungi
120. Answer (2)
Hint : Synthesis of food occurs in aerial green
parts of plants.
Sol. : Roots provide proper anchorage and it is a
site of synthesis of PGR not for starch.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
121. Answer (2)
Hint : Algal bloom is formed by some BGA.
Sol. : Some cyanobacteria or BGA often form
blooms in polluted water bodies.
122. Answer (4)
Hint : Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
Sol. : Slime moulds move along decaying twigs
and leaves engulfing organic material. They are
non-photosynthetic.
123. Answer (3)
Hint: The major component of most of the fungal
cell wall is a nitrogenous polysaccharide.
Sol. : The cell wall of most of the fungi is
composed of chitin (polymer of NAG) and
polysaccharides.
124. Answer (4)
Hint : Ascospores are meiospores.
Sol. : Ascospores are sexual spores. Rest all are
mitospores or asexual spores.
125. Answer (1)
Hint : In lichens, algal component is autotrophic
and fungal component is heterotrophic.
Sol. : Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi
provide shelter, absorb minerals, nutrients and
water for its partner.
126. Answer (1)
Hint : This agent is made up of proteins only so, it
is prion.
Sol. : Prions infect brain and nervous system. In
Fatal Familial Insomnia, thalamus of brain is
affected.
127. Answer (4)
Hint : Plasmodium is known as malarial parasite.
Sol. : Plasmodium belongs to sporozoan group of
Protozoans.
128. Answer (3)
Hint : Vexillary aestivation is characteristic feature
of Fabaceae family.
Sol. : Twisted – Cotton
Vexillary – Pea
Imbricate – Cassia
Valvate – Calotropis
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
129. Answer (3)
Hint : Region of elongation is present proximal to
region of meristematic activity.
Sol. : Cells of region of elongation undergo rapid
elongation and enlargement and are responsible
for growth of root in length.
130. Answer (3)
Hint : Rhizophora roots come out of the ground
vertically upward to get oxygen for respiration and
act as respiratory roots.
Sol. : These respiratory roots or pneumatophores
have lenticels called pneumathodes.
131. Answer (4)
Hint : Deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual
spores known as conidia.
Sol. : Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect
fungi because only asexual or vegetative phase of
these fungi is known.
132. Answer (2)
Hint : These bacteria are also found in marshy
areas.
Sol. : Methanogens are responsible for production
of methane from dung of ruminant.
133. Answer (4)
Hint : In monocots, roots originate from base of
stem.
Sol. : Fibrous roots originate from the base of the
stem. Lateral roots emerge from the pericycle.
134. Answer (1)
Hint : Members of Fabaceae family have ex-
albuminous seeds.
Sol. : Castor has endospermous seeds. Pea, bean
and gram have non-endospermous seeds.
135. Answer (2)
Sol. : Leaves are originated from the shoot apical
meristem and are arranged in acropetal manner
i.e., younger leaves at the apex and older leaves at
the base.
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

SECTION-B P – Perianth
% – Zygomorphic flower
136. Answer (4)
C – Corolla
Hint : Actinomorphic flowers show radial symmetry
which can be seen in the members of Solanaceae 144. Answer (2)
family. Hint : Meiosis occurs in zygote and results in
Sol. : Chilli being a member of Solanaceae haploid spores formation.
produce actinomorphic flowers. Canna has Sol. : The sexual cycle of fungi involves the
asymmetric flowers. following three sequential steps:
137. Answer (1)  Plasmogamy
Hint : In racemose inflorescence, flowers are  Karyogamy
borne in an acropetal manner.  Meiosis
Sol. : In racemose inflorescence, main axis grows 145. Answer (3)
indefinitely.
Hint : Members of Fabaceae family show cohesion
138. Answer (1) of stamens (diadelphous condition).
Hint : Ustilago and Puccinia belong to Sol. : Superior ovary, vexillary aestivation with
Basidiomycetes. large posterior petal, non-endospermic seeds and
Sol. : Alternaria, Trichoderma and Colletotrichum marginal placentations are characteristics of
belong to Deuteromycetes. Fabaceae family.
139. Answer (3) 146. Answer (3)
Sol. : In bacteriophage, double stranded DNA is Hint : Exogenous sexual spores are produced by
generally seen as genetic material. Basidiomycetes.
140. Answer (3) Sol. : Claviceps are Ascomycetes which produce
Hint : This infectious agent was discovered by T.O. sexual spores endogenously.
Diener. 147. Answer (3)
Sol. : Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by Hint : It is a prokaryotic organism.
viroid that are smaller than viruses and it lack Sol. : Mycoplasma completely lack cell wall. They
protein. They are free RNA particles. are smallest living cells known and can be
141. Answer (1) anaerobic. They are pathogenic to both plants and
Hint : In perigynous flower ovary is said to be half animals.
inferior. 148. Answer (1)
Sol. : Perigynous flower is found in plum, rose and Sol. : Coconut fruit is a drupe fruit.
peach. 149. Answer (1)
142. Answer (4) Hint : Papilionaceous corolla is observed in
Hint : Dikaryotic stage is observed in Ascomycetes Fabaceae family.
and Basidiomycetes. Sol. : After fertilisation, ovule develops into seeds
Sol. : Aspergillus is an Ascomycetes which have a and ovary matures into fruit.
condition called dikaryon and the phase is called 150. Answer (3)
dikaryophase.
Hint : Members of Fabaceae family show
143. Answer (2) racemose inflorescence.
Hint : G – Superior ovary Sol. : Soybean belongs to Fabaceae family hence
Sol. :  – Actinomorphic flower has racemose inflorescence.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A
151. Answer (2)
Hint : Most of the aquatic animals use gills.
Sol. : Amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals
respire through lungs (pulmonary respiration).
Frogs can respire through moist skin (cutaneous
respiration). Turtles can respire through their
cloaca (cloacal respiration), but most of the aquatic
arthropods and molluscs respire through gills
(branchial respiration).
152. Answer (3)
Hint : Not present in exchange part of respiratory
system.
Sol. : Incomplete cartilaginous rings are present in
trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi,
and initial bronchioles. They are not present in
terminal bronchioles and alveolar ducts.
153. Answer (4)
Hint : Tertiary bronchi divides into bronchioles.
Sol. : Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic
vertebra into right and left primary bronchi, which
further divides into secondary and tertiary bronchi.
Tertiary bronchi divides into bronchioles.
154. Answer (3)
Hint : Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a
forcible expiration is the residual volume.
Sol. : Expiratory capacity is the volume of air a
person can expire after a normal inspiration.
Expiratory reserve volume is the additional air a
person can expire by a forcible expiration.
155. Answer (2)
Hint : pO2 in oxygenated blood is higher than pO2
in tissues.
Sol. : pO2 in tissues – 40 mm Hg
pO2 in oxygenated blood – 95 mm Hg
pCO2 in deoxygenated blood – 45 mm Hg
pO2 in atmospheric air – 159 mm Hg
156. Answer (4)
Hint : Due to damage in alveolar walls, respiratory
surface is decreased.
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
Sol. : Asthma is difficulty in breathing causing
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. Silicosis is an occupational respiratory
disorder caused by inhalation of silica particles by
mining industry workers. Pleurisy is the
inflammation of pleural membrane.
157. Answer (2)
Hint : Myoglobin has more affinity for oxygen than
haemoglobin.
Sol. : The oxygen dissociation curve for
haemoglobin gives a sigmoid shape. As affinity of
myoglobin is more for O2 compared to that of
haemoglobin, oxygen is firmly attached to
myoglobin and do not dissociate easily.
158. Answer (1)
Hint : High pCO2 favours dissociation of oxygen
from oxyhaemoglobin.
Sol. : Factors which favour formation of
oxyhaemoglobin: high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+
concentration, lower temperature and low
concentration of 2,3 BPG (2,3-
Bisphosphoglycerate).
Factors which favour dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin: Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+
concentration, higher temperature and high
concentration of 2,3 BPG.
159. Answer (2)
Hint : Squamous epithelium
Sol. : Cuboidal epithelium – Cubical in shape,
found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of
nephrons.
Squamous epithelium – Found in the walls of blood
vessels and alveoli of lungs. Cells are flattened
with irregular boundaries.
Columnar epithelium – Found in the lining of
stomach and intestine. Cells are columnar having
basal nuclei.
Ciliated epithelium – Found in the inner surface of
bronchioles and fallopian tubes. Cilia are present
on the cell surface.
 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

160. Answer (1) 164. Answer (4)

Hint : 100 mL of oxygenated blood delivers 5 mL Hint : Normal haemoglobin level.
of O2 to tissues.
Sol. : The average life span of an RBC is
Sol. : 100 ml of deoxygenated blood can deliver 4 120 days, after which they are destroyed in the
ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
spleen (graveyard of RBCs). RBCs contain
Therefore, 2 L of deoxygenated blood will deliver haemoglobin, which helps in carrying oxygen. A
4  2000
 mL healthy individual has 12-16 g of haemoglobin in
100
every 100 mL of blood.
= 80 mL of CO2.
165. Answer (1)
161. Answer (2)
Hint : The percentage of water in plasma is more
Hint : Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the
than the percentage of proteins.
functions of respiratory rhythm centre.
Sol. : Respiratory rhythm centre is present in Sol. : Around 90-92 per cent of plasma is water
medulla region of hind brain. Neural signals from and proteins contribute around 6-8 per cent of it.
pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major
inspiration and thereby alter respiratory rate. proteins found in plasma.
Receptors in aortic arch and carotid artery
166. Answer (2)
recognise changes in CO2 and H+ concentration,
and role of O2 is insignificant in regulation of Hint : They form 2-3 per cent of total WBCs.
respiratory rhythm.
Sol. : Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic
162. Answer (3) cells, which destroy foreign microorganisms
Hint : Expiratory capacity (EC) is the total volume entering the body. Basophils secrete histamine,
of air, a person can expire after a normal
serotonin and heparin that are involved in
inspiration.
inflammatory reactions.
Sol. : Vital capacity (VC) – Maximum volume of air
a person can breathe in after a forced expiration; 167. Answer (4)
VC = ERV + TV + IRV. Hint : Individuals with blood group O are universal
Total lung capacity (TLC) – Total volume of air donors.
accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced
Sol. : A person with only anti-B antibodies has
inspiration; TLC = VC + RV.
antigen A on his RBCs and thus his/her blood
Residual volume (RV) – Volume of air remaining in
group is A. Such a person can receive blood from
the lungs even after a forcible expiration.
either individuals with blood group A or blood group
163. Answer (3)
O. If blood from a person with blood group AB is
Hint : More amount of O2 to the tissues will provide
transfused into such a person, the host antibodies
more energy.
will attack antigen B on the RBCs of donor causing
Sol. : When athletes practice at higher altitudes,
clumping (destruction of RBCs).
their body starts producing more number of RBCs
in response to the low pO2. These newly formed 168. Answer (4)
and increased number of RBCs will stay alive for Hint : Extracellular fluid
the next 120 days (approx). When they compete in
the actual competition, these increased RBCs Sol. : Plasma is a viscous fluid which constitutes
provide more oxygen to muscles, thus providing around 55 per cent of blood. Serum is plasma
more energy that enhance stamina and without clotting factors. The fluid present in the
performance. lymphatic system is called lymph.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

169. Answer (2) 173. Answer (2)

Hint : Creeping movement. Hint : Hepatic word is associated with liver.
Sol. : Single circulation: The heart pumps only Sol. : The hepatic portal vein is formed mainly by
deoxygenated blood, which is oxygenated by the joining of :
gills. It occur in fishes. a. Superior mesenteric vein – from small intestine
Incomplete double circulation: The left atrium and stomach.
receives oxygenated blood and right atrium gets
b. Inferior mesenteric vein – from large intestine
the deoxygenated blood, both get mixed up in
single ventricle which pumps out mixed blood. It c. Splenic vein – from spleen.
occur in amphibians and reptiles. d. Other small veins
Double circulation: The deoxygenated and The hepatic portal vein carries deoxygenated blood
oxygenated blood received by right and left atria from GI tract to the liver.
respectively pass on to the ventricles of same side.
174. Answer (3)
It occurs in birds and mammals.
Hint : Muscular layer
170. Answer (1)
Sol. : Artery and vein consist of three layers.
Hint : The fluid present in the lymphatic system is
called lymph. Tunica intima – Inner lining of squamous
endothelium.
Sol. : As blood passes through the capillaries in
tissues, some water along with many small water Tunica media – Middle layer of smooth muscles
soluble substances move out in to the spaces and elastic fibres; comparatively thinner in veins.
between cells, leaving the larger proteins and most Tunica externa – External layer of fibrous
of the formed elements in the blood vessels. This connective tissue with collagen fibres.
fluid is called tissue fluid, which has same mineral
175. Answer (2)
distribution as that in plasma.
Hint : It is equal to the average number of heart
171. Answer (4)
beats per minute.
Hint : Arteries carry blood away from heart.
Sol. : The SAN can generate maximum number of
Sol. : Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood
action potentials of 70-75/minute in comparison to
from lungs towards left atrium of heart.
any other nodal tissues.
Inferior vena cava carries deoxygenated blood
176. Answer (3)
from lower part of the body towards right atrium of
heart. Hint : It occurs due to conditions that affect blood
flow.
Dorsal aorta carries oxygenated blood from left
ventricle to the rest of body. Sol. : Coronary artery disease – It is also called
Superior vena cava carries deoxygenated blood atherosclerosis, caused by deposition of calcium,
from upper part of the body towards right atrium of fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues, which narrow
heart. the lumen of arteries.

172. Answer (3) Angina – Acute chest pain, when enough oxygen

Hint : Pumping organ of the body. does not reach heart muscles.

Sol. : Coronary artery arises from aorta and Cardiac arrest – When the heart stops beating.
branches off into smaller arteries, which supply Heart attack – When the heart muscle is suddenly
oxygenated blood to the heart. damaged due to inadequate blood supply.

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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

177. Answer (4) 182. Answer (3)

Hint : Protective layer of the heart. Hint : Pressure within ventricles decreases.
Sol. : Heart is mesodermal in origin, protected by Sol. : During ventricular diastole, the ventricular
double walled pericardium, enclosing the pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar
pericardial fluid. Interventricular septum divides valves, which prevent the backflow of blood into
ventricles.
right and left ventricles, whereas atrio-ventricular
septum divides atrium and ventricle of same side. 183. Answer (2)
178. Answer (3) Hint : Catecholamines increase heart rate.
Sol. : The special neural centre in medulla
Hint : Individuals with blood group O are universal
oblongata can moderate cardiac output through
donors.
ANS. Adrenal medullary hormones can increase
Sol. : Blood group Donor’s group the cardiac output.
184. Answer (3)
A A, O
Hint : The time taken by ventricular systole is more
B B, O than the time taken by atrial systole.
Sol. : One cardiac cycle takes about 0.8 seconds
AB A, B, AB, O
to complete.
O O

179. Answer (3)

Hint : Glycoproteins produced on exposure to Rh
antigen.
Sol. :  Erythroblastosis fetalis can be avoided
by administering anti-Rh antibodies to
the mother immediately after the delivery
of Rh + ve child.
 Anti-A and Anti-B are antibodies present
in plasma of person having blood group From the above figure we can calculate :
B and A repressively. Ventricular systole = 0.1 to 0.4 sec
180. Answer (1) = 0.3 seconds.
Hint : Neutrophils are the most abundant cells of Joint diastole = 0.4 to 0.8 sec = 0.4 seconds.
the total WBCs. 185. Answer (3)
Sol. : Neutrophils – 60-65 per cent Hint : T-wave represents ventricular
depolarisation.
Lymphocytes – 20-25 per cent
Sol. : PR interval denotes the time taken by action
Monocytes – 6-8 per cent
potential from sino-atrial node (SAN) to reach
Eosinophils – 2-3 per cent purkinje fibres. The end of T-waves marks the end
Basophils – 0.5-1 per cent of ventricular systole.
181. Answer (4) SECTION-B
Hint : Stroke volume is the volume of blood
186. Answer (4)
pumped by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle.
Hint : Aquatic arthropod
Sol. : Stroke volume = End diastolic volume – End
systolic volume Sol. : Excretory structures in organisms are:

= 140 – 60 = 80 mL Amphioxus and – Protonephridia or flame cells

Planaria
Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart beats per
Cockroach – Malpighian tubules
minute
Prawn – Antennal glands or green
= 80 × 95 = 7600 mL/min glands

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

187. Answer (4) 191. Answer (2)

Hint : Mammals excrete urea as their nitrogenous Hint : Compound present in sweat.
waste. Sol. : Sebaceous glands eliminate certain
Sol. : Terrestrial amphibians – Ureotelic substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
and mammals through sebum. This secretion provides a
protective oily covering for the skin. Sweat
Bony fishes – Ammonotelic produced by sweat glands also helps in removal of
Birds, reptiles, land – Uricotelic excessive NaCl, lactic acid, small amounts of urea
snails and insects etc.
192. Answer (3)
188. Answer (2)
Hint : Role of other organ in excretion.
Hint : Counter current mechanism
Sol. : Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy
Sol. : The proximity between the Henle’s loop of individual is approximately 125 mL/min or
juxtamedullary nephrons and vasa recta, as well as 180 L/day. Around 25-30 g of urea is excreted per
the counter current in them help in maintaining an day, whereas around 200 mL/min of CO2 is
increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary excreted by lungs.
interstitium which helps in an easy passage of 193. Answer (1)
water from the collecting tubule, thereby
Hint : Blood plasma osmolarity is around
concentrating the filtrate (urine). 300 mOsm/L.
189. Answer (2) Sol. : Renal fluid filtrate is isotonic to blood plasma
Hint : Small amounts of urea enters the thin in Bowman’s space and PCT.
segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop. Glomerular filtrate is hypertonic to blood plasma in
Sol. : Collecting duct allows the passage of small descending limb of Henle’s loop.
amount of urea into medullary interstitium to Glomerular filtrate becomes hypotonic to blood
maintain osmolarity, which is picked up by thin plasma in ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
segment of ascending limb of Henle’s loop. The 194. Answer (3)
counter current mechanism helps to maintain a Hint : Outer part of adrenal gland.
concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium. Sol. : Due to fall in glomerular blood flow/
190. Answer (1) glomerular blood pressure, JG cells get activated
Hint : Accumulation of urea in blood. and release renin which converts angiotensinogen
(in blood) into angiotensin I and further to
Sol. : Renal calculi – Stone or insoluble angiotensin II. Angiotensin II activates adrenal
masses of cortex to release aldosterone, which causes
crystallised salts reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts
within the kidney of the renal tubule, leading to an increase in blood
Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of pressure and GFR.
glomeruli of kidney 195. Answer (4)
Hint : Plasma constitutes around 55 per cent of
Gout – Accumulation of uric
blood.
acid in joints
Sol. : Renal plasma flow (RPF) is the amount of
Uremia – Increased
plasma flowing through the kidneys per minute. As
accumulation of urea
the kidneys receive 1200 mL of blood per minute,
in blood
out of which 55 percent is plasma i.e.,

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 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

55 198. Answer (1)

1200   660 mL of plasma flows through
100 Hint : Tissue factor + platelet factor
kidneys per minute. Thrombokinase
Therefore, RPF = 660 mL/minute.
Sol. :
Filtration fraction (FF) is the amount of plasma
filtered by glomerulus, out of the total plasma
received per minute.
GFR 125 mL/min
FF = = 0.18 or 18 percent.
RPF 660 mL/min

196. Answer (3)

Hint : Gaseous exchange is the function of
respiratory part.
199. Answer (4)
Sol. : Gaseous exchange is the function of
exchange part of respiratory system which includes Hint : Specialized cells in bone marrow
respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, atria and Sol. : Thrombocytes are also called platelets which
alveoli. Conducting part includes nasal chambers, are considered as cell fragments produced from
pharynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles (upto
special cells in red bone marrow called
terminal bronchioles)
megakaryocytes.
197. Answer (3)
200. Answer (4)
Hint : Earthworm performs cutaneous respiration
Hint : Collecting duct is not a part of nephron.
Sol. : 1. Periplaneta – Tracheal tubes
Sol. : Each nephron is divided into two parts :
2. Labeo – Gills glomerulus and renal tubule. Renal tubule starts

– Moist cuticle with Bowman’s capsule and differentiate into PCT,

3. Pheretima
loop of Henle and DCT. So, glomerulus and
4. Columba – Lungs collecting duct are not the parts of renal tubule.



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 NEET-UG 2021
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