06/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Answers

1. (2) 41. (4) 81. (2) 121. (3) 161. (2)

2. (1) 42. (2) 82. (2) 122. (4) 162. (3)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (3) 163. (3)
4. (2) 44. (3) 84. (1) 124. (2) 164. (4)
5. (3) 45. (1) 85. (4) 125. (1) 165. (2)
6. (3) 46. (1) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (3) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (2) 167. (1)
8. (3) 48. (1) 88. (2) 128. (2) 168. (3)
9. (1) 49. (3) 89. (2) 129. (1) 169. (2)
10. (1) 50. (4) 90. (2) 130. (4) 170. (3)
11. (2) 51. (2) 91. (4) 131. (1) 171. (2)
12. (4) 52. (3) 92. (3) 132. (1) 172. (1)
13. (4) 53. (2) 93. (4) 133. (3) 173. (2)
14. (3) 54. (4) 94. (4) 134. (2) 174. (3)
15. (1) 55. (3) 95. (1) 135. (3) 175. (4)
16. (3) 56. (3) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (4) 57. (3) 97. (4) 137. (4) 177. (2)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (4) 178. (3)
19. (3) 59. (1) 99. (2) 139. (2) 179. (3)
20. (3) 60. (2) 100. (3) 140. (3) 180. (4)
21. (3) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (2) 181. (2)
22. (1) 62. (3) 102. (3) 142. (4) 182. (2)
23. (4) 63. (1) 103. (3) 143. (1) 183. (4)
24. (2) 64. (2) 104. (4) 144. (3) 184. (2)
25. (3) 65. (3) 105. (2) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (4) 66. (4) 106. (4) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (3) 67. (2) 107. (4) 147. (2) 187. (3)
28. (2) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (3)
29. (3) 69. (2) 109. (2) 149. (2) 189. (1)
30. (4) 70. (2) 110. (1) 150. (3) 190. (2)
31. (3) 71. (2) 111. (2) 151. (4) 191. (1)
32. (1) 72. (1) 112. (2) 152. (2) 192. (3)
33. (1) 73. (4) 113. (2) 153. (2) 193. (4)
34. (2) 74. (4) 114. (4) 154. (1) 194. (4)
35. (2) 75. (3) 115. (1) 155. (3) 195. (2)
36. (1) 76. (4) 116. (1) 156. (1) 196. (4)
37. (1) 77. (4) 117. (1) 157. (3) 197. (2)
38. (2) 78. (1) 118. (2) 158. (4) 198. (4)
39. (4) 79. (4) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (3)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (3) 160. (4) 200. (2)

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 06/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 5. Answer (3)

1. Answer (2)
t1 : t2 : t3  1: ( 2  1) : ( 3  2)
P a b 5 c
 100   100   100    100 6. Answer (3)
P a b 2 c
n1u1 = n2u2
1 d
   100 1(M) (20 m) (100 s)–2 = 100 (1 kg) (1 m) (1s)–2
2 d
2
5 1  1 m  1 
 1%  2%   3%   4%  12.5%  M  100 (1 kg)   
2 2  20 m  100 s 
2. Answer (1) 1
 100   (100)2 kg
At t = 1 s, both balls are in air. 20
arel = zero = 5 × 104 kg
vrel = urel + arelt = 20 m/s 7. Answer (3)
3. Answer (4) Ball will stop momentarily at t = 3.5 s.
Area of circle A = r 2 Distance travelled in 4th second will be
= 3.14 × 2.22 × 2.22 = 15.47516 m2 1
S  2  a(0.5)2
On rounding off to 3 significant digits = 15.5 m 2 2
4. Answer (2) 1
 S  2   10(0.5)2  2.5 m 
mG h Ca b c 2
[M L0 T0] = [M–1L3T–2]a [ML2T–1]b [LT–1]c 8. Answer (3)
–a + b = 1  = 120º
3a + 2b + c = 0
–2a – b – c = 0
On solving
1 1 1
a , b , c
2 2 2
2xsin = x
a2
Then 1    = 30°, thus angle between two vectors is
bc
120°

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

9. Answer (1) v(t = 0) = 6 + 12 = 18 m/s

v = 6t + 3t 2 v(t ) = 6 + 12 × 0 = 6 m/s
dx  14. Answer (3)
 6t  3t 2 
dt x2
Y  2x 
x 3
2
2
 dx   (6t  3t )dt ,
dy
0 0 At maximum height 0
dx
3
2
 (6t  3t )dt dy
 2
2x
0
0
v av   18 m/s dx 2
(3  0)
x=2
10. Answer (1)
 22 
From rules for arithmetic operation with significant Hmax   2  2    
figures.  2 

L = L1 + L 2 =4–2=2m
= 100 m + 0.2 m 15. Answer (1)

= 100.2 m
L  100 m upto appropriate significant number.
11. Answer (2)
Displacement current
d E 1 d E
i  i d  0 
dt 0c 2 dt 
ac  2r  12 m/s2
R d E 
V  iR 
0c 2 dt  ac  ac cos   iˆ   ac sin    jˆ 

 R d E 
 r 2 ˆ r 2 3 ˆ
ac   i j
Hence [Voltage] =  2  2 2
 0 c dt  
ac  6iˆ  6 3 jˆ
12. Answer (4)
Let total distance between city A and B is s 16. Answer (3)
Equation of trajectory,
3s
3s gx 2
t1  7  y  x tan  
v1 7v1 2u 2 cos2 
3s For equal trajectories for same angle of projection.
s
t2  7  4s g
v2 7v 2  constant
u2
s s
v avg   10 g
Now t1  t2 3s 4s  
 3 2
 5 2
7v1 7v 2
25  10
7v1v 2 or, g    27.77  27.8 m s2
v avg  9
4v1  3v 2
17. Answer (4)
13. Answer (4)
From the graph at t = 1 s, vi = 10 m/s
x  6  t  e2t  at t = 7 s, vf = 25 m/s
dx v f  v i 15
v  6  6   2  e 2t  6  12e 2t aaverage    2.5 m/s2
dt t 6

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

18. Answer (2) 28. Answer (2)

T = 5 second (Time of flight) 1  2
a 5
S(5) 25
t1 + t2 = T  2 
S th 1  9
t2 = T – T1 5 a 2  5  1
2
= 5 – 2 = 3 second
29. Answer (3)
19. Answer (3)
dx
u y2 v   5  12  t  2 
 dt
hmax 
2g dv
a  a  12 m/s2 (constant)
uy  initial vertical component of velocity. dt
vy = uy – g × t 30. Answer (4)
0 = uy – 10 × 1 When particle is at same height in a projectile,
uy = 10 m/s vertical component of velocity is equal and
opposite.
 hmax = 5 m.
vav = ucos
20. Answer (3)
31. Answer (3)
Upto time 6 second speed is decreasing to zero
and then increases to its maximum speed in 30 cos 60° = v cos 30°
opposite direction. Hence graph (3) represents the 30
v m/s or 10 3 m/s
required condition. 3
21. Answer (3) 32. Answer (1)
d  4 nh
v  g sin   10  sin53  10   8 m/s2 L
dt 5 2
22. Answer (1) [L] = [h]
v = 4t 33. Answer (1)
2 2 2
dv v 16t  M  L  T 
aT   4 m/s2 ; aR    32 m/s2 n2  n1  1  1  1 
dt R 2
 M2  L2  T2 
a  322  42  4 64  1  4 65  1 kg   1 m   1 s 
2
 10    
23. Answer (4)  10 kg   10 m   10 s 
Laser is based on light amplification by population  n2 = 10
inversion.
34. Answer (2)
24. Answer (2)
1
A = a2 = 1.052 = 1.1025 m2 Random error  (Where n is number of
n
Upto correct significant figure, A = 1.10 m2 observation)
25. Answer (3) e1 60 e e
  e2  1 
In 2.735 digit to rounded off is odd, so it is e2 10 6 6
increased by 1 and in 2.785 digit to be rounded off
35. Answer (2)
is even, so it is left unchanged.
26. Answer (4)  dv   adt
v 1
 Time   RC    L    LC     dv    6t
2
 4t  2  dt
R  5 0
27. Answer (3) 1
 v  5  2t 3  2t 2  2t 0
t 2t
30   15 
3 3  20 km/h  v–5=2+2+2
v av 
t  v = 11 m/s

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

SECTION - B tan 
 tan  
36. Answer (1) 2
a
Since u cos  
1
u   tan1  
2 2
43. Answer (2)
  = 60°
  
2 2 For non-uniform circular motion a  ac  at
u sin2 3u
 R    
g 2g ac  v and at  0, hence a is not perpendicular

37. Answer (1) to v .

[M L2 T–2] = Da Fb Vc  is perpendicular to plane of circular motion.
  
[M L2 T2] = [M L–3]a [T–1]b [L T–1]c r is opposite to ac , hence for v  0, a cannot be

 a = 1, b = –3, c = 5. perpendicular to r , Hence, both statements are
38. Answer (2) false.
44. Answer (3)

Relative speed of A w.r.t. B,

VAB = (18 + 36) = 54 km/h
Time taken by cars to meet
t = 54/54 = 1 h
v sin 
Now, displacement of bird is equal to displacement 
r
of car A, i.e.
4
SA = 18 × 1 = 18 km 10 
 5  8 rad/s
39. Answer (4) 5 5
Acceleration is same but direction of velocity  = 1.6 rad/s
becomes opposite on collision with ground. 45. Answer (1)
40. Answer (2)
2h 2  80
T = 10 s  ta = td = 5 s = (t (say) t  4s
g 10
1 2 1 vrel = 1 m/s
gt   10  52  125 m
2 2
S = vrel × t
41. Answer (4)
S=4m

vrain  12  22  5 km/h 46. Answer (1)

42. Answer (2) For given x-t graph, the v-t and a-t graphs are

y = ax – bx2
 tan  = a 47. Answer (2)
Hmax  When particle starts moving along y-axis,
tan  
R/2 x-component of velocity will be zero.

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

vx = ux + axt  Number of rotations

0 = 10 + (–2)t 
N 5
t=5s 2
48. Answer (1) 49. Answer (3)
f = i + t In uniform circular motion, magnitude of
 0 = 10 + (2) centripetal force, acting towards the centre is
constant but changes its direction as body moves.
  = –5 rad/s2
50. Answer (4)
1
Now,   i t  t 2 u 2 sin 2
2 R
g
1
   (10)2  ( 5)22 R range is maximum at 45°. Range increases if
2
angle is increased from 0° to 45°. Range
= 20 – 10
decreases if angle is increased from 45° to 90°.
= 10

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 57. Answer (3)
51. Answer (2) CH4  2O2  CO2  2H2O
Cathode rays travel from cathode to anode. 32 64
(i) 2 2 0 0
52. Answer (3) 16 32
(f ) 1 0 1 2
Atleast 1 Mg atom should be present in the
molecule.  O2 is limiting reagent
0.24 Mol of CO2 formed = 1
x  24
100 Volume of CO2 formed at STP = 22.4 L
2400 58. Answer (2)
x  10000 amu
0.24 18  103
Moles of H2O   103 mol
53. Answer (2) 18

Z = 103 is known or Lawrencium 1020

Moles of H2O removed 
54. Answer (4) 6.02  1023
CH4  2O2  CO2  2H2 O = 1.66 × 10–4 mol
Moles of H2O left = 8.3 × 10–4 mol
(i) y y 0 0
59. Answer (1)
y y
(f ) 0 – NO (Neutral)
2 2
Al2O3(Amphoteric)
y Na2O (Basic)
 z  y  2z
2 Cl2O7 (Acidic)
55. Answer (3) 60. Answer (2)
• Mass in amu is atomic mass 0.1 mol NaOH in 1 kg H2O
0.1 mol NaOH in 1000 + 0.1 × 40 g solution
5.312  10–23
Atomic mass  1000  0.1 40 ml
1.66  1024 0.1 mol NaOH in  solution
2
 32 u = 502 ml
56. Answer (3) = 0.502 L
0.1
In case of ionic solid, formula mass is preferred Molarity   0.2 M
over molecular mass. 0.502

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

61. Answer (4) 12

• % of C in HCHO   100  40%
18x 30
 100  60.2
24  71  18x 24
• % of C in H2C2O 4   100  26.7%
1800 x = 5719 + 1083.6 x 90
716.4 x = 5719 69. Answer (2)
x=8 35  75  37  25
62. Answer (3) Average atomic mass 
100
5.6 L gas weighs 16 g
= 35.5 u
16 70. Answer (2)
22.4 L gas weighs  22.4
5.6
 y y
= 64 g C xHy   x   O2  xCO2    H2 O
 4 2
 Gas should be SO2
nC nCO 1 8.8 / 44 1
63. Answer (1)  2
  
nH nH 2 5.4 / 18 2
Element O S Se Te 2O

Heg(kJ mol–1) –141 –200 –195 –190 1


3
64. Answer (2)
Equivalent mass of metal = 28 – 8  Hydrocarbon should be C2H6.
= 20 71. Answer (2)
Equivalent mass of metal carbonate = 20 + 30 • Possible values of m are from –l to +l
= 50 u • For l = 1, m = –2 is not possible
65. Answer (3) 72. Answer (1)
320 Energy of photon = h
nCH   20 mol
4 16 = 6.626 × 10–34 × 1016
300 = 6.626 × 10–18 J
nC   10 mol
2H6 30 Work function = 20 eV
nCH = 20 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
20 2
x CH  4
  = 3.2 × 10–18 J
4 nCH  nC 20  10 3
2H6
4
KE = h – 
66. Answer (4) = 6.626 × 10–18 – 3.2 × 10–18
32 = 3.42 × 10–18 J
No. of atoms in 32 g O   NA  2NA
16
73. Answer (4)
32 h
No. of atoms in 32 g O2   NA  2  2NA 
32 mV
32
No. of atoms in 32 g O3   NA  3  2NA 6.626  1034
48 
100  106  20
 All have same number of atoms.
= 3.3 × 10–31 m
67. Answer (2)
74. Answer (4)
In C3H8, molecular formula is in simplest whole
number ratio therefore molecular and empirical • Number of standing waves = orbit number
formula must be same. • Number of standing waves in 8th orbit = 8
68. Answer (3) 75. Answer (3)
12 Angular momentum  l(l  1) 
• % of C in CO2   100  27.3%
44
 2(2  1) 
12
• % of C in H2 CO3   100  19.3%
62  6

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

76. Answer (4)

According to Aufbau's rule lower energy subshell
filled first followed by higher energy subshell.
77. Answer (4)
• Quantum mechanical model is based on
Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
• Energy of electron in an orbital can not have
any value. In d5, there are 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 exchange ways
78. Answer (1) are possible therefore has maximum exchange
e/m of electron is maximum among the green energy.
options as the mass of electron is minimum. 87. Answer (2)
79. Answer (4) E
Fourth excited state means 5th shell E1 1 1
n(n  1)  
No. of spectral lines  E2 2 2
2
88. Answer (2)
5(5 – 1)
  10 h
2 • x·p 
4
80. Answer (2)
Cr has configuration [Ar]4s13d5 therefore it h
2p·p 
contains maximum number of unpaired electron 4
viz 6. h
81. Answer (2) p 2 
8
• Energy of an electron at infinite orbit is
h
assumed to be zero. v 2 
8 m 2
• Less energy means more stable is the orbit.
82. Answer (2) h
v 
No. of radial nodes = n – l – 1 8m2
=4–1–1=2 89. Answer (2)
No. of angular nodes = l = 1 For multielectron atom greater is the sum of n + l
83. Answer (2) of an orbital, greater is its energy. If sum of n + l
Shape of atomic orbital depends upon azimuthal are same then the orbital having greater value of
quantum number i.e. l. n has higher energy.
84. Answer (1) Energy order
Transition of electron from 3rd energy shell to 2nd 7s > 5d > 4f > 5p
energy shell corresponds to the first line of Balmer 90. Answer (2)
series. 27
85. Answer (4) • No. of moles of Al3+ ion   1 mol
27
n2  1 Al3+ ion contains 10 electrons
rn  a0
z
 1 mol Al3+ ion contains 10NA electron
a0  42 16 91. Answer (4)
  a
3 3 0 Correct order of ionisation enthalpy is
SECTION - B Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F
86. Answer (1) 92. Answer (3)
Element % %/At mass Ratio
C 82.75 82.75 6.9
 6.9 1
12 6.9
H 17.25 17.25 17.25 5
 17.25 
1 6.9 2
 Empirical formula: C2H5

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

93. Answer (4) 96. Answer (2)

M1V1  M2 V2 Basicity of H3PO3 = 2
M
V1  V2 M
Equivalent mass 
2
0.2  100  2  0.1 400 97. Answer (4)

100  400 [Kr]5s24d105p2 is tin(Sn)
= 0.16 M Which belongs to 5th period and 14th group.
98. Answer (2)
94. Answer (4) Gallium is also known as eka-aluminium.
99. Answer (2)
Covalency of Al in [AlCl (H2O)5]2+ is 6.
Li shows similar properties like Mg therefore, Li
95. Answer (1) and Mg show diagonal relation.
Metallic nature increases down the group and 100. Answer (3)
decreases along the period from left to right. General electronic configuration of f-block
 Order of metallic nature is elements is
K > Mg > Al > B (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2

BOTANY
SECTION - A 110. Answer (1)
101. Answer (2) Systematics term is derived from Latin word
In unicellular organisms, reproduction is systema first used by Linneaus. It is taxonomy
synonymous to growth. along with evolutionary relationship.
102. Answer (3) 111. Answer (2)
Scientific name is printed in italics. Specific epithet Phycobiont is the algal partner of lichens.
starts with a small letter. Mycobiont is the dominant partner of lichens.
103. Answer (3) 112. Answer (2)
Slime moulds are known as consumer- Non-motile spores (endogenous spores) are
decomposer protists. formed in Mucor and Rhizopus.
104. Answer (4) Non-motile exogenous spores (Conidia) are
Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia formed in Neurospora, Penicillium and
graminis. Aspergillus.
105. Answer (2) 113. Answer (2)
The number of similar characteristics goes on Live specimens are not kept in museum and
decreasing from species to kingdom. herbarium.
106. Answer (4) 114. Answer (4)
Only human beings show self-consciousness. In fragmentation, the parent body which is
filamentous, breaks into two or more fragments.
107. Answer (4)
115. Answer (1)
Breaking down of sugar into water and CO2 is a
catabolic process. Penicillium – Ascospores
108. Answer (2) Colletotrichum – Imperfect fungi
Recognising the characteristic of an organism is 116. Answer (1)
called identification. Species is the lowest and basic taxonomic
109. Answer (2) category.
Scientific names should be printed in italics and 117. Answer (1)
underlined when handwritten. It should be in Latin Polymoniales includes both Solanaceae and
language. Convolvulaceae.

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

118. Answer (2) 135. Answer (3)

aestivum is not present in the scientific name of Properties of tissues are not present in the
brinjal, potato or makoi. constituent cells but arise as a result of
119. Answer (3) interactions among the constituents cells.
Diptera is an order while Insecta and Mammalia SECTION - B
are classes. 136. Answer (3)
120. Answer (3) Herbarium is storehouse of collected plant
specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved
Family of mango is Anacardiaceae.
on sheets.
121. Answer (3)
137. Answer (4)
Keys are generally analytical in nature. Zoological parks are ex-situ conservation
122. Answer (4) strategies of animals where wild animals are kept.
Worker-bees are sterile. 138. Answer (4)
123. Answer (3) Virus specimens are not kept in museum.
Dicotyledonae is a class of angiosperms. 139. Answer (2)
124. Answer (2) Flora gives actual account of habitat and
distribution of plants of an area.
Lloyd Botanical Garden is in Darjeeling.
140. Answer (3)
125. Answer (1)
Each statement of a key is called a lead. A pair of
Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are nitrifying
lead is called a couplet.
bacteria. Rhizobium is a symbiotic N2-fixing
bacterium. 141. Answer (2)
126. Answer (3) Ascocarp of truffles and morels, and basidiocarp
in mushroom are edible.
Nostoc and other cyanobacteria lack flagella.
142. Answer (4)
127. Answer (2)
Flora provides information of plants of an area.
Mycoplasma are facultative anaerobes and they
cause disease in both animals and plants. 143. Answer (1)
A herbarium sheet provides date of the collection
128. Answer (2)
of specimen but not the time of collection.
Neurospora produces ascospores whereas
144. Answer (3)
bracket fungi produces basidiospores.
Protozoans lack cell wall and they were kept in
129. Answer (1)
Animalia in two kingdom classification.
Diatoms are chief producers of oceans. They are 145. Answer (4)
found both in fresh water and marine habitat.
Facultative aerobes can live in anaerobic as well
130. Answer (4) as aerobic conditions.
Dinoflagellates reproduce both sexually as well as 146. Answer (3)
asexually.
Main body of slime moulds lack cell wall which is
131. Answer (1) animal like feature.
Ascospores are the meiospores produced 147. Answer (2)
endogenously.
Methanogens are archaebacteria found in
132. Answer (1) marshes. They are chemoautotrophs.
CMV –  148. Answer (2)
 PSTD is caused by viroids. Rest all are viral
Pox virus –  dsDNA
T4  phage –  diseases.

149. Answer (2)
133. Answer (3)
Prions lack genetic material. They are infectious
Solanum, Petunia and Datura belong to the same and equal in size to viruses.
family Solanaceae. 150. Answer (3)
134. Answer (2) Agaricus produces basidiospores that are
Housefly belongs to order Diptera. exogenously produced. It has septate mycelia.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 163. Answer (3)
151. Answer (4) First phylum of animal kingdom to exhibit bilateral
Two types of cell division occur in all animals i.e., symmetry is platyhelminthes.
mitosis and meiosis. Animals are classified on the 164. Answer (4)
basis of levels of organisation, patterns of Scypha (Sycon) belongs to the phylum Porifera
digestive, circulatory and reproductive system, and possess high capacity of regeneration and
body symmetry etc. metamorphosis.
152. Answer (2) Bioluminescence is well-marked property of
Members of phylum Porifera are primitive ctenophores.
multicellular animals and have cellular level of 165. Answer (2)
organisation. Earthworm (Pheretima) is monoecious and has
153. Answer (2) direct development.
In structure (b), pseudocoelomate condition is 166. Answer (2)
being depicted in which the body cavity is present Water vascular system is a distinctive feature of
but it is not completely lined by mesoderm, echinoderms.
instead, the mesoderm is present as scattered 167. Answer (1)
pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm.
Bioluminescence is well-marked in ctenophores.
154. Answer (1) The ctenophores are commonly called comb-
Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil belonging to jellies or sea walnuts.
phylum Arthropoda. 168. Answer (3)
155. Answer (3) Hirudinaria belongs to phylum Annelida.
Coelenterates and ctenophores are diploblastic Malpighian tubules is an excretory organ found in
animals. arthropods.
156. Answer (1) 169. Answer (2)
Coelenterates, ctenophores and echinoderms Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure in
exhibit radial symmetry while sponges are mostly the collar region called stomochord, a structure
asymmetrical. similar to notochord.
157. Answer (3) 170. Answer (3)
In sponges, fertilisation is internal and Economically important insects include Apis
development is indirect having a larval stage (Honey bee), Bombyx (Silkworm) and Laccifer
which is morphologically distinct from the adult. (Lac insect)
158. Answer (4) 171. Answer (2)
Annelids possess organ-system level of In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with
organisation. flagellated cells called choanocytes.
172. Answer (1)
159. Answer (2)
Ancylostoma – Hookworm
Radula is a file-like rasping organ found in
molluscs and Asterias is an echinoderm. 173. Answer (2)
160. Answer (4) Silver fish – Arthropoda
Cuttlefish – Mollusca
Metagenesis refers to alternation of generation
between asexual and sexual phases of an Sea urchin – Echinodermata
organism. 174. Answer (3)
161. Answer (2) Devil fish and cuttlefish belong to phylum Mollusca
Annelids and chordates possess closed type of while Dogfish belongs to class Chondrichthyes.
circulatory system. 175. Answer (4)
162. Answer (3) Saw fish belongs to class Chondrichthyes in which
gill slits are separate and without operculum.
Nereis is an annelid while Periplaneta and Apis
are arthropods. These all are non-chordates in 176. Answer (2)
which heart is dorsal. Clarias – Osteichthyes

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
177. Answer (2)
Arthropods, annelids and molluscs possess
organ-system level of organisation.
178. Answer (3)
Ctenoid scales – Osteichthyes
Placoid scales – Scoliodon (Chondrichythes)
179. Answer (3)
Reptiles are oviparous and development is direct.
180. Answer (4)
Alligator is a reptile and development is direct.
181. Answer (2)
Corvus (crow) is a bird and an ovivaporus animal.
182. Answer (2)
Molluscs consists of a soft and spongy layer of
skin which forms a mantle over the visceral hump.
183. Answer (4)
Apteryx, Aptenodytes and Struthio are flightless
birds.
184. Answer (2)
Not all mammals have seven cervical vertebrae.
For eg:- Sloth.
185. Answer (1)
Salpa belongs to subphylum Urochordata, in
which notochord is present only in the tail of the
larva and disappears in the adult form.
SECTION - B
186. Answer (2)
187. Answer (3)
The members of sub-phylum Vertebrata possess
notochord during the embryonic period. The
notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony
vertebral column in the adult.
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Final Test Series for NEET-2022
188. Answer (3)
Super class Pisces is divided into two classes
namely chondrichthyes and osteichthyes.
Members of class Chondrichthyes do not possess
operculum.
189. Answer (1)
Organisms belonging to super class Pisces are
cold-blooded (poikilothermous) i.e., they lack the
capacity to regulate their body temperature.
190. Answer (2)
Apple Snail – Pila
Squid – Loligo
Devil fish – Octopus
191. Answer (1)
Echinoderms possess pentamerous radial
symmetry and mostly show external fertilisation.
192. Answer (3)
Brain coral – Diploblastic organism
Silver fish – Arthropoda
193. Answer (4)
Nereis is dioecious while earthworm and leeches
are monoecious.
194. Answer (4)
Not all bilaterally symmetrical animals are non-
chordates. Chordates are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic, coelomate with organ-system level of
organisation.
195. Answer (2)
Specialised excretory system is absent in
echinoderms.
Skin of aves is dry without glands except the oil
gland or preen gland or uropygial gland at the
base of the tail for lubrication of feathers.
196. Answer (4)
Sponges have cellular level of organisation. The
cells in their body do not form the tissues.
197. Answer (2)
Unique to echinoderms is the water vascular
system, a network of hydraulic canals branching
into extensions called tube feet that function in
locomotion and feeding.
198. Answer (4)
Tunicates do not possess brain box or cranium.
199. Answer (3)
Radula is a curved, ribbon-like structure present in
mouth of most molluscs but absent in members
such as Pinctada.
200. Answer (2)
Mollusca is the second largest phylum of animal
kingdom.