05/10/2020 OYM

Code-A

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iTutor Fortnightly Test Series

Test – 9

Physics : Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves.

Chemistry : Coordination Compounds.
Botany : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production: Introduction, Plant breeding – Definition,
Main steps of Green revolution, Plant breeding for disease resistance, Plant breeding for
resistance to insect pests, Improved food quality, Anti nutritional factors, Single cell protein,
Green manure, Energy crops, Petroleum plants, Tissue culture – Definition, Environmental
conditions, Types, Applications, Microbes in Human Welfare: Introduction, Microbes in
household products, Industrial products.
Zoology : Human Health & Disease III: Drugs and alcohol abuse-Opioids, Cannabinoids, Sedatives and
tranquilisers, Hallucinogens, Stimulants, Tobacco addiction. Adolescence, addiction &
dependence, effects of drugs & alcohol abuse, prevention & control, Strategies for
Enhancement in Food Production I: Animal Husbandry: Live stocks, animal Breeding,
inbreeding, outbreeding, out crossing, cross breeding, Interspecific hybridisation, MOET, artificial
insemination Dairy farm management, poultry farm management, indigenous & exotic breeds,
bacterial, viral & fungal diseases.

Instructions :
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material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
1. An alternating current of r.m.s. value 5 A is 2. A 200 V, 50 Hz AC is applied to a resistor. The
passed through a 10 Ω resistor. The maximum instantaneous voltage across the resistor may be
given by
potential difference across the resistor is nearly
(1) 200 sin (100πt) V
(1) 50 V 200
(2) sin (50πt ) V
(2) 70 V 2
(3) 38 V (3) 200 2 sin (100πt ) V

(4) 60 V (4) 200 2 sin (50πt ) V

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iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-9 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

3. An AC voltage of 30 V, 50 Hz passes through an C

ideal inductor of 1 henry. The average power (1) (2) 2C
2
dissipated per cycle in inductor is
C
(1) 0 W (2) 30 W (3) 4C (4)
4
30 10. In the circuit shown in figure. The reading of ideal
(3) 30 2 W (4) W
2 ammeter and voltmeter respectively will be
4. Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by
 π  π
V = 50 sin  100πt + = and i 2 sin  100 πt −  .
 6  6
Then
(1) Voltage leads current by 30°
(2) Voltage lags current by 30°
(3) Current leads voltage by 60°
(4) Voltage leads current by 60°
(1) 4 A, 400 2 V (2) 4 A, 400 V
5. An AC source is rated as 220 V, 50 Hz. The time
(3) 4 A, 200 V (4) 0.8 A, 80 V
taken by voltage to change from its peak value to
zero, is 11. If 8 Ω resistance and 6 Ω reactance are
connected in series in an AC circuit. Then the
1 1
(1) second (2) second impedance of the circuit is
50 100
(1) 14 Ω (2) 10 Ω
1 1
(3) second (4) second (3) 2 Ω (4) 10 2 Ω
150 200
6. The value of applied AC voltage V in the circuit 12. In a step up transformer, the turns ratio is 1 : 2.
shown in figure is A cell of e.m.f. 12 V is connected across the
primary coil of transformer. The output voltage
from secondary coil is
(1) 0 V (2) 24 V
(3) 12 V (4) 6 V
13. Sharpness of series LCR resonance AC circuit
can be increased by increasing
(1) Resistance
(1) 130 V (2) 70 V (2) Capacitance
(3) 50 V (4) 100 V (3) Inductance
7. The power factor of LCR series circuit at (4) Both resistance and capacitance
resonance is
14. If potential difference across the plates of
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 capacitor of capacitance 10 µF changes at the
(3) 0 (4) 0.707 rate of 105 V/s, then displacement current
between the plates of capacitor is
8. At higher frequency of ac, a capacitor offers
(1) 1 A (2) 10 A
(1) More reactance
(3) 5 A (4) 0 A
(2) Lesser reactance
15. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations
(3) Infinite reactance have the largest wavelength?
(4) Reactance does not depend on frequency (1) X-rays
9. In a LCR series circuit inductance is changed (2) Microwaves
from L to 2L. For the resonant frequency to
(3) γ-rays
remain unchanged, the capacitance should be
changed from C to (4) Ultraviolet radiations
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One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-9 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
16. Which of the following is an ambidentate ligand? 23. Which of the following complexes is
(1) CN– (2) H2O paramagnetic?
(3) Cl– (4) NH3 (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
17. In which of the following complexes, the (3) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (4) [Zn(NH3)4]2+
coordination number of the central metal/ion 24. According to spectrochemical series, the correct
is 4? order of ligand field strength is
(1) [Co(en)3]3+ (2) [NiCl2(H2O)4] (1) Cl– < F– < H2O < OH–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Ni(NH3)4]2+ (2) Cl– < H2O < F– < OH–
18. Homoleptic complex among the following is (3) Cl– < F– < OH– < H2O
(1) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (2) [PtCl2(NH3)2] (4) F– < Cl– < OH– < H2O
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ 25. The oxidation state of Cu in [Cu(NH3)4](NO3)2 is
19. The IUPAC name of [Co(CN)6]3– is (1) +2 (2) +1
(1) Cobalt(III) hexacyanide (3) 0 (4) +3
(2) Hexacyanidocobaltate(III) ion 26. Which of the following complex is not coloured?
(3) Hexacyanidocobalt(III) ion (1) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (2) Na3[Cu(CN)4]
(4) Hexacyanidocobaltate(II) ion (3) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
20. The optically active coordination complex ion 27. The number of ions produced by the complex
among the following is [Co(NH3)6]Cl2 in solution is
(1) Trans - [Co(en)2 Cl2]+ (1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Cis - [Co(en)2 Cl2]+ (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ 28. For the formation of high spin octahedral
complexes, which of the following conditions is
(4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
true?
21. In [Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4]2– species, the
hybridisation states of Ni atom/ion are (1) ∆0 > P, strong field ligand
respectively (2) ∆0 > P, weak field ligand
(1) dsp2, dsp2 (2) dsp2, sp3 (3) ∆0 < P, strong field ligand
(3) sp3, dsp2 (4) sp3, sp3 (4) ∆0 < P, weak field ligand
22. Which of the following will exhibit geometrical 29. Which is high spin complex?
isomerism? (1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(1) [Co(NH3)5Br] SO4 (3) [CoF6]3– (4) [Fe(CO)5]
(2) [Co(NH3)5 NO2] (NO3)2 30. Which of the following is a double salt?
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (1) Mohr’s salt (2) Potash alum
(4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (3) Carnallite (4) All of these

BOTANY
31. The entire collection of diverse alleles for all 32. Select the incorrectly matched pair
genes, of a given crop is called (1) norin-10 – Gene for dwarfing in wheat
(1) Selection of parents
(2) Jaya – Semi-dwarf variety of rice
(2) Germplasm collection
(3) Cross hybridisation (3) Dee-geo-woo-gen – Gene for dwarfing in rice
(4) Commercialisation of new cultivars (4) Kalyan sona – Semi-dwarf variety of millets

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iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-9 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

33. Saccharum officinarum (1) Only A is correct

(1) Is normally grown in North India (2) Only B is correct
(2) Has low sugar content (3) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Does not grow well at low temperature (4) Both A and B are correct
(4) Has thin stem 40. A prokaryotic micro-organism explored for
34. Which of the following is not a lysine-rich variety obtaining SCP is
of maize? (1) Yeast (2) Spirulina
(1) Protina (3) Mushroom (4) Fusarium
(2) Shakti 41. The capacity to generate whole plant from any
(3) Ratna cell/explant is called
(4) Rattan (1) Biofortification
35. How many of the following is/are vitamin A (2) Green revolution
enriched crops developed by IARI, New Delhi? (3) Totipotency
Carrot, Bathua, Spinach, Garden peas, Bitter (4) Somaclonal variation
gourd, Lablab, Pumpkin, French beans. 42. Development of pathogen (virus) free plants is
possible through
(1) One
(1) Haploid culture
(2) Three
(2) Embryo culture
(3) Two
(3) Meristem culture
(4) Four
(4) Pollen grain culture
36. All of the following plant diseases are caused by
fungi, except 43. Toddy is

(1) Brown rust of wheat (1) A traditional drink of some parts of South
India
(2) Black rot of crucifers
(2) Obtained by fermentation of soyabean
(3) Red rot of sugarcane
(3) Formed by the fermenting action of
(4) Late blight of potato
cyanobacteria
37. A mustard variety resistant to aphids is
(4) An alcoholic compound produced from fruit
(1) Pusa Shubhra juice
(2) Pusa Sawani 44. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of
(3) Pusa A-4 (1) Lactobacillus
(4) Pusa Gaurav (2) Yeast
38. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in mung bean (3) Propionibacterium
was developed by
(4) Penicillium
(1) Mutation breeding
45. Which of the following alcoholic beverages are
(2) Plant tissue culture produced by distillation of fermented broth?
(3) Conventional breeding (a) Wine
(4) Genetic engineering (b) Whisky
39. Read the following statements and select the (c) Brandy
correct option
(d) Rum
Statement A: A very few people are suffering from
(e) Beer
“hidden hunger” as their diet shows deficiencies of
proteins, vitamins and micronutrients. (1) Only (a) and (b)

Statement B: Atlas 66 is a rice variety with high (2) Only (a) and (d)
protein content which is used as a donor for (3) Only (b), (c) and (d)
improving cultivated rice. (4) Only (c), (d) and (e)

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One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-9 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
46. The period linking childhood and adulthood is 54. Nicotine effects on human body include all of the
called following except
(1) Infancy (2) Adolescence (1) Raised adrenaline
(3) Senescence (4) Geriatric (2) Raised blood pressure
47. Which disease can spread from the use of (3) Lowered heart rate
infected needles? (4) Increased heart rate
(1) Hepatitis B 55. Tobacco chewing is mostly associated with
(2) Arthritis increased risk of cancer of
(3) Liver cirrhosis (1) Brain (2) Skin
(4) Alzheimer’s disease (3) Mouth (4) Bones
48. Smack is 56. India and China’s contribution to world farm is
(1) Hashish (2) Heroin only

(3) Weed (4) Cyanide (1) 75% (2) 25%

49. Chemically heroin is (3) 35% (4) 45%

(1) Diacetylmorphine 57. Dairy farm management objectives include all of

the following except
(2) Diaminemorphine
(1) Maintaining quality of fodder
(3) Dichloromorphine
(2) Selecting breeds with high yielding potential
(4) Difluoromorphine
(3) Improving quantity of milk
50. Marijuana is obtained from which plant?
(4) Selection of breed prone to diseases
(1) Datura
58. ______ is necessary to evolve a pureline in an
(2) Papaver somniferum animal. Select the option which fills the blank
(3) Atropa belladonna correctly.
(4) Cannabis sativa (1) Out-breeding (2) Cross-breeding
51. Charas and ganja belong to which chemical (3) Out-crossing (4) In-breeding
group? 59. At what cell stage are fertilised eggs usually
(1) Stimulants (2) Cannabinoids transferred to surrogate mother in MOET?
(3) Antimicrobials (4) Alkaloids (1) 2-4 celled stage (2) 8-32 celled stage
52. Coke and crack are terms used for (3) 4-6 celled stage (4) 35-40 celled stage
(1) Hashish (2) Charas 60. Continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility and
(3) Cocaine (4) Ganja is called as
53. Drug which is a very effective sedative and (1) Inbreeding expression
painkiller in patients after surgery is (2) Inbreeding depression
(1) Morphine (2) Prednisolone (3) Inbreeding regulation
(3) Metformin (4) Adrenaline (4) Inbreeding transportation

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Edition: 2020-21