24/08/2020 OYM

Code-A

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iTutor Fortnightly Test Series

Test – 7
Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism.
Chemistry : General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements: Leaching, Thermodynamic
aspects of Metallurgy (Ellingham diagram), Refining of metals, uses of Al, Cu, Zn and Fe,
p-Block Elements: (Group-15 to 17).
Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance: DNA Packaging in eukaryotes, The search for genetic material,
Transforming principle, Evidence from experiments with bacteriophage, Properties of genetic
material RNA world, Replication of DNA – The experimental proof, The machinery and enzymes.,
Transcription - Transcription unit, Types of RNAs, Process of Transcription in prokaryotes and
Eukaryotes.
Zoology : Human Health & Disease I: Health-Various types of diseases in humans-bacterial, viral etc.,
Fungal: Ringworms, Helminthic: ascariasis, elephantiasis, Protozoan: Life cycle of Plasmodium
vivax and Entamoeba histolytica, Types of Immunity–Innate and acquired, active & passive
Immunity, humoral mediated immunity.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
1. A thin wire in which current I is flowing in shaped 2. Electrical resistance of the upper half of the given
loop is R1 and that of the lower half of the loop is
as shown in the figure. The value of the
R1
magnetic field at the centre O of the circular R2. If = 1 , then the magnetic field at the
R2
portion will be
centre is equal to

µ0I µ0I µ0 I
(1) (2) (1) Zero (2)
4r 4πr 4R
µ0I µ0 µ0 I µ0 I
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2πr 2r 12 R 6R
(1)
iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-7 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

3. Which of the following is correct as per the 8. Correct equation for Ampere’s circuital law for the
Ampere’s circuital law? Amperian loop as shown in the figure (traversed
  q in the direction shown by arrow marks on it) can
(1) E ⋅ A = be written as
ε0
  q
∫ ⋅ d A =
in
(2) E
ε0

dV
(3) E = −
dx
 
(4) ∫ B ⋅ d l =µ0 Ienc  
4. The magnetic dipole moment of a current
(1) ∫ B ⋅ d l =
µ0 (I2 + I3 + I4 )
 
carrying circular loop depends on (2) ∫ B ⋅ d l =
µ0 (I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 )
(1) Number of turns (2) Area of the loop  
(3) Current in the loop (4) All of these
(3) ∫ B ⋅ dl =
µ0 (I3 + I4 − I2 )
 
5. A straight wire of length 4 m carries a current of (4) ∫ B ⋅ d l =µ0 (I2 − I3 − I4 )
20 A and this wire is placed in a uniform
1
magnetic field of 1.5 × 10–1 T making an angle of 9. A straight wire of mass kg and length 2 m
2
45° with magnetic field. The force acting on wire
carries a current of I ampere. If it is suspended in
due to field is
mid air where uniform magnetic field of 1 T exist
(1) 8 2 N (2) 6 N perpendicular to length of wire, then value of I will
be (g = 10 m/s2)
6
(3) 6 2 N (4) N (1) 5 A (2) 2.5 A
2
(3) 2 A (4) 0.5 A
6. The magnetic field at a point P on the axis of a
10. A galvanometer having resistance of 100 Ω gives
current carrying circular coil as shown in the
full-scale deflection with 10 mA current.
figure is
Resistance which should be connected in parallel
to convert it into an ammeter of range 10 A is
nearly
(1) 1 Ω (2) 10 Ω
(3) 0.01 Ω (4) 0.1 Ω
11. Two long straight thin parallel wires are arranged
in same plane as shown in the figure. Current in
µ0 I µ0 I each wire is shown in the figure. Magnetic force
(1) (2)
4π 8R 16R per unit length experienced by wire C is

µ0 I µ0 I
(3) (4)
2π 8R 6R
7. The magnetic field applied in a cyclotron is of
magnitude 0.7π T. Frequency of electric field that
should be applied between the dees in order to
accelerate protons, is
(1) 5.35 × 106 Hz (1) 10–3 N
(2) 3.35 × 107 Hz (2) 4.0 × 10–3 N
(3) 5.35 × 107 Hz (3) 3.5 × 10–3 N
(4) 3.35 × 106 Hz (4) 2.0 × 10–3 N
(2)
One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-7 (Code-A)

12. A solenoid having length 1.3 m and 2 cm in 14. Magnetic field at centre of a current carrying
diameter has 5 turns in each 1 cm of length. circular coil of radius R is 8 times the value of
A current of 10 A is flowing through it then magnetic field on its axis at a distance ‘x’ from
magnetic field at one end of solenoid on the axis the centre. The value of ‘x’ is
is R
(1) (2) 2R
(1) 2π × 10–3 T (2) π × 10–3 T 3
π
(3) 3π × 10–3 T (4) × 103 T 3R
2 (3) R 3 (4)
2
13. To obtain a magnetic field of 2π × 10–7 T at the
15. The correct expression of Lorentz force is
centre of a current carrying loop of diameter 1 m,  

the current flowing through the circular loop (1) q E + (v × B ) 
should be  
(1) 0.5 A (2) q ( B × v )
  
(2) 5 A (3) q E + ( B × v ) 
(3) 0.2 A 
(4) qE
(4) 2 A

CHEMISTRY
16. Compound used in leaching of Bauxite ore in 22. Minimum boiling point among the following is of
Baeyer’s process is (1) NH3 (2) SbH3
(1) H2SO4 (2) Al(OH)3
(3) AsH3 (4) PH3
(3) NaOH (4) AgNO3
23. Hydride of group-15, of highest reducing
17. In calcination process hydrated oxides ore are character is
converted into
(1) NH3 (2) BiH3
(1) Sulphides (2) Oxides
(3) SbH3 (4) PH3
(3) Carbonates (4) Sulphates
24. On hydrolysis of PCl5, final product formed is
18. Reaction involving self reduction is
(1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 (1) HPO2

(2) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 (2) H3PO4

(3) PH3
3
(3) PbS + O2 → PbO + SO2
2 (4) P2O3
(4) Na3AlF6 → 3NaF + AlF3 25. Reaction which does not form, dinitrogen as one
19. During extraction of Au from its native ore, of the product is
complex formed is (1) Mg3N2 + 3H2O →
– –
(1) [Au(CN)4] (2) [Au(CN)2] ∆
(2) NH4Cl + NaNO2  →
(3) [Au(CN)] (4) [Au(CN)3]2– ∆
(3) (NH4)2 Cr2O7  →
20. Liquation is used for the refining of
∆
(1) Iron (2) Zinc (4) 2NaN3  →
(3) Cadmium (4) Tin 26. Maximum bond dissociation enthalpy among the
21. Zone refining is not used for following is of
(1) Ni (2) Si (1) F2 (2) Cl2
(3) B (4) Ga (3) Br2 (4) I2
(3)
iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-7 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

27. Catalyst used in Ostwald’s process for formation 29. Reaction showing correct products is
of nitric acid is (1) PbS + O3 → PbSO4 + O2
(1) Ni
∆
(2) Cu (2) PCl5 → P + Cl2
(3) Pt/Rh gauge catalyst (3) P4 (white) + Cl2 (excess) → PCl3
(4) Fe/Mo
(4) CH3COOH + PCl3 → C2H5Cl + H3PO3
28. Number of unshared electron pairs present in
NO2 is 30. Number of P–OH bond(s) present in H3PO3 is

(1) 3 (2) 7 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 3 (4) Zero

BOTANY
31. Histones are 36. A structure in which DNA is wrapped around the
histone octamer is called
(1) Rich in nucleic acid
(1) Polysome (2) Centrosome
(2) Positively charged basic proteins
(3) Sphaerosome (4) Nucleosome
(3) Negatively charged DNA polymers 37. Which of the following statements is true w.r.t.
(4) Rich in purine bases transcription in eukaryotes?
32. In post-transcriptional events, splicing is a (1) Capping at 5′ end of primary transcript occurs
process in which when transcription is over
(2) Capping is essential to stop the transcription
(1) Exons are removed from primary transcript
(3) There is no division of labour in transcripting
(2) Introns are removed and exons are joined in enzymes
a defined order (4) Primary transcript has both unwanted and
(3) Adenylate residues are added at 3′ end of useful base sequences
hnRNA 38. Non-histone chromosomal proteins are required
for
(4) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at
(1) Uncoiling of chromosome to form chromatin
5′ end of mature mRNA
(2) The formation of helical structure of DNA
33. A typical nucleosome contains how many base
(3) Packaging of chromatin at higher level
pairs of DNA helix?
(4) Unwinding of DNA molecule into two strands
(1) 200 (2) 100 39. Monocistronic structural gene
(3) 400 (4) 300 (1) Has interrupted coding sequence
34. Which of the following features is/are true for (2) Are present in most of the prokaryotic
heterochromatin? organisms
(a) Loosely packed chromatin (3) Can synthesize more than one type of
polypeptides
(b) Transcriptionally active (4) Does not show split gene arrangement
(c) Darkly stained region 40. Griffith observed that when a mixture of heat-
(1) (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only killed S strain and live R strain bacteria were
injected into the mice, it died. It was due to
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Transformation of R strain by heat-killed
35. Heterogenous nuclear RNA is synthesised by S strain bacteria
(1) RNA polymerase III (2) Reactivation of S strain bacteria
(2) RNA polymerase II (3) Transformation of S strain into R strain
bacteria
(3) Both RNA polymerase I and II
(4) Inactivation of R strain bacteria in the
(4) RNA polymerase I presence of heat-killed S strain bacteria
(4)
One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-7 (Code-A)

41. The different type(s) of DNA-dependent RNA 43. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
polymerase (in number) required to transcribe all material came from the experiment of
types of RNAs in prokaryotes is (1) Frederick Griffith
(1) Four (2) Three (2) Oswald Avery
(3) Two (4) One (3) M. Meselson and F. Stahl
42. Match the following columns and select the (4) A. Hershey and M. Chase
correct option.
44. During DNA replication the molecules that act as
Column I Column II substrate and provide energy are
a. Prokaryotes (i) Have several (1) Topoisomerases
thousands origins (2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
of replication (3) DNA polymerases
b. Eukaryotes (ii) Unwind the double (4) Ribonucleases
helix of DNA 45. Template strand of a transcription unit has
c. Helicase (iii) Have single origin following base sequence:
of replication 3′ T A C A G A A T C 5′
d. DNA ligase (iv) Joins the Okazaki The base sequence in the mRNA transcribed by
fragments that fragment of DNA is

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (1) 5′ A U G U C U U A G 3′

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) 5′ U A C A G A A U C 3′

(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) 5′ U A G A C A A U G 3′
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) 5′ A U C U G U U A C 3′

ZOOLOGY
46. Mucus coating of the epithelial lining of the 50. Symptoms of common cold usually last for
respiratory tract, is an example of which barrier of (1) 20-23 days (2) 3-7 days
immunity? (3) 31-38 days (4) 10-15 days
(1) Cytokine (2) Cellular 51. A disease caused by a protozoan pathogen in
(3) Physiological (4) Physical humans is
47. In severe case of which disease, the lips and (1) Malaria (2) Ringworm
finger nails may turn grey to bluish in colour? (3) Ascariasis (4) Filariasis
(1) Typhoid (2) Malaria 52. Acid in the stomach is a type of _____ barrier of
innate immunity.
(3) Pneumonia (4) Common cold
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly
48. Which among following is the pathogen causing
(1) Physical (2) Physiological
typhoid?
(3) Cellular (4) Cytokine
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae
53. Chronic inflammation in the lymphatic vessels of
(2) Haemophilus influenzae
lower limbs is seen in people suffering from
(3) Salmonella typhi disease
(4) Rhino virus (1) Elephantiasis
49. Choose the odd one w.r.t. bacterial diseases. (2) Ringworm
(1) Common cold (2) Plague (3) Amoebic dysentery
(3) Diphtheria (4) Dysentery (4) Ascariasis

(5)
iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-7 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

54. Pathogen which does not cause ringworm 58. Which one is not a cellular barrier of innate
infection is immunity?
(1) Microsporum (2) Trichophyton (1) Saliva
(3) Epidermophyton (4) Roundworm (2) Neutrophils
55. Choose the air-borne disease from options given (3) Monocytes
below (4) Lymphocytes
(1) Pneumonia (2) Typhoid 59. Inborn immunity is also known as
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Ascariasis (1) Cell mediated immunity
56. Disease not transmitted through insect vectors is (2) Innate immunity
(1) Malaria (2) Dengue (3) Antibody mediated immunity
(3) Filariasis (4) Ringworm (4) Humoral immunity
57. Virus infected cells secrete which protein to 60. Acquired immunity is
protect non-infected cells from further viral
(1) Characterised by memory
infection?
(2) Non-specific type of defence
(1) Histamine (2) Heparin
(3) Present at the time of birth
(3) Interferon (4) Serotonin
(4) Comprised of only four types of barriers

  

(6)
Edition: 2020-21