Aiats 2020 (Oymcf) Test 02 Offline - Code A

15-09-2019 A
Entrance Exam - 2020
TEST No. 2
(XII Studying Students)
Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate

should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
marked correctly.
marked is allowed.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
To get quick video solution of this Test Paper, follow the steps below:
QR Code
1. Scan QR Code
2. Don't have QR reader? Download Aakash i-Tutor app from or and scan the QR Code.
Note: Quick video Solutions will be available from 16th September 2019 (2:00 PM Onwards)
(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Test No. 2
Moving charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic

Induction.
Surface Chemistry, p-block elements (Group-15 to 18), General Principles

and Processes of Isolation of Elements.
Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance;

Reproductive Health, Evolution.
Test - 2 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
Time : 3 Hrs MM: 720

TEST - 2
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A charged particle is moving in a transverse

uniform magnetic field then
(3) (4)
(1) Kinetic energy of the particle remains
constant
(2) Momentum of the particle changes 4. A circular loop, carrying a current i, is kept near a
long straight wire as shown in the figure. If a
(3) Both kinetic energy and momentum remains steady current i is flowing in the wire, the loop will
constant
(4) Both (1) and (2)
2. A current of 3 3 A is flowing in an equilateral

triangle of side 3 3 m, made of uniform wire.
The net magnetic field at the centroid of the
triangle is (1) Move away from the wire
(1) 1.8  T (2) Move towards the wire
(2) 1.5  T (3) Remain stationary
(4) Rotate about an axis normal to the wire

(3) 0.9  T
5. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle
(4) 3.6  T having charge 1  C, moving with velocity
3. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the i  2j   106 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of
variation of magnetic field intensity (B) with
perpendicular distance (r) from a thin long wire,  2j  T is
carrying a current (i)?
(1) 2 N in positive-z direction
(2) 4 N in positive-z direction

(1) (2) (3) 2 N in negative-z direction
(4) 4 N in negative-y direction
(Space for Rough Work)
1/22
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)
6. Two equal electric currents are flowing through 9. Magnetic field at the centre O due to given
two infinite long wires kept along x and y axis as structure is
shown in the figure. The equation of line on which
we can expect the resultant magnetic field to be
zero is
30i
(1) 
4a
0 i  3 
(2) 1  
2a  4 
(1) y = x (2) y = – x 0 i   
(3)   1 
4a  2 
(3) y = 2x (4) y = –2x
 
 3 0 i
7.  B.dl for the closed paths as
The value of  (4)
8 a

shown in the figure, from largest to smallest, is
10. A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola
2
y = 4x carries a current i = 1 A as shown in
figure. The wire is placed in a uniform magnetic

field B   2k T. The magnetic force on the wire
(in newton) will be
(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, b, c, a
(3) d, b, a, c (4) b, d, a, c
8. The ratio of voltage sensitivity to current (1) 8iˆ
sensitivity of a galvanometer of resistance R is
(2) 8 jˆ
1
(1) R (2)
R (3) 16 ˆj
2 1
(3) R (4)
R2 (4) 16 ˆj
2/22
11. A charged particle of charge q and mass m 13. The magnetic field induction at centre O of a loop
moving with velocity v0 along positive x axis as carrying current I, whose shape is shown in the
shown in the figure, enters in a uniform magnetic figure, is
field B0 directed along negative z direction. The
time spent by particle inside the magnetic field
will be
30I 30I
(1)  (2) 
8a 4a
 0I  0I
(3)  (4) 
4a 8a
2m m 14. A beam of mixture of alpha particles and protons

(1) (2) are accelerated through same potential
3qB0 3qB0
difference before entering into a transverse
m 3m uniform magnetic field of strength B as shown in
(3) (4) the figure. If radius of one circular arc r1 = 10 cm,
qB0 2qB0
then r2 is (r2 > r1)
12. A square loop ABCD of edge length  and
carrying a current i, is placed in x – y plane as
shown in the figure. There is a non-uniform
magnetic field in the region given by
  y
B  B0  1    kˆ  . The magnitude of net
 
magnetic force experienced by the loop is (corner
A of square is at origin)
(1) 15 2 cm (2) 25 2 cm
(3) 10 2 cm (4) 20 cm
15. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection 

of the coil is related to the electric current i by the
relation
(1) iB0 (2) iB0

2
(1) i  tan  (2) i  
(3) iB0(1 +) (4) 2iB0 (3) i  2 (4) i  
3/22
16. A disc of mass 2 kg and radius 10 cm carrying a 20. The magnetic field at the centre O of given
charge 4  C uniformly distributed over it, is rectangular frame made of uniform thin wire, is
rotating with angular speed 2 rad/s about an axis
passing through its centre and perpendicular to
its plane. The magnetic moment will be
2 2
(1) 20 nA m (2) 10 nA m
2 2
(3) 2 nA m (4) 40 nA m
0 i 0 i
17. A current carrying square loop of side a is placed (1) (2)
in a uniform magnetic field B0 in x – y plane as 2a 2a
shown in the figure. The loop carries a current of 20 i
2 A in clockwise sense. The torque acting on (3) (4) Zero
a
the loop is (all quantities are in SI units) 21. A point charge of magnitude 2 nC is moving
parallel to the x-axis with velocity
6
v  (2  10 i ) m/s along the line y = 2 m. The
magnetic field at the origin produced by this
charge when the charge is at the point (0, 2, 0) m
is
(1) 1010 ( k ) T (2) 1010 j T
(3) 108 k T (4) 109 ( k ) T
22. Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic
moment M are joined as shown in the figure. The
(1) B0a2  i  j  (2) B0a2  i  j 
magnetic moment of the combination is
(3) B0a2  i  j  (4) 2B0a2  i  j 

18. At what distance on the axis, from the centre of a
circular current carrying coil of radius a, the field
th
 1 
becomes   of the magnetic field at centre?
 27 
(1) 2a (2) 2 2a (1) 2M (2) 3M
(3) 3a (4) 3a M
(3) 3M (4)
19. If the magnetic field of a given length of thin wire 3
for single turn circular coil at its centre is B then 23. At a place Be is the earth‟s magnetic field and BH
its value for three circular turns coil for same wire is its horizontal component. If at that place  is
is the dip angle, then ratio of Be to BH is
(1) 3B (2) 9B (1) tan (2) sin
(3) 3B (4) 6B (3) cos (4) sec 
4/22
24. A diamagnetic material in a non-uniform magnetic 3 5

field (1) Nm (2) 2 5 N m
2
(1) Moves perpendicular to the field
(2) Moves from weaker to stronger parts of the 5 5
(3) 3 5 N m (4)Nm
field 2
(3) Moves from stronger to weaker part of the 29. A small bar magnet of magnetic moment
2
field 2.40 A m is placed on a horizontal table with its
north pole pointing towards geomagnetic north. If
(4) Does not move
the horizontal component of earth‟s magnetic
25. The magnitude of magnetic induction and field is 30 T, then the neutral point is at a
magnetising field intensity in a sample of
distance (from magnet) equal to
magnetic material are B and H respectively. The
(1) 0.2 m, South
magnetic susceptibility of the material is ( 0 is
(2) 0.2 m, magnetic East as well as magnetic
permeability of free space) West
B 0H (3) 0.2 m, North
(1) 1 (2) 1
H B (4) 0.2 m South-East
B B 30. Two short magnets of equal dipole moments M
(3) (4) 1 are placed as shown in the figure. The magnetic
0H 0H field at point P is
26. The true value of dip at a place is 37°. The dip
circle is turned through 60° from magnetic
meridian. The apparent value of angle of dip is
3
(1) 53° (2) tan1  
5
3 2
(3) tan1   (4) tan1  
2 3 0 2M 0 M
(1) (2)
27. A magnet is suspended in such a way that it 4 x03 4 x03
oscillates in the horizontal plane. It makes 30
oscillations per minute at a place where dip angle 0 2 2M 0 2 2M
(3) (4)
is 30° and 20 oscillations per minute at a place 2 x03 4 x03
where dip angle is 60°. The ratio of earth‟s total
31. If  and  are the apparent angles of dip in two
magnetic field at the two places, is
vertical planes at right angles to each other at a
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 3 3 : 4 place, where  is the true angle of dip, then
(3) 9 : 4 2 (4) 6 3 : 4 (1) cos2   cos2   cos2 
28. A bar magnet suspended in stable equilibrium in (2) cot 2   cot 2   cot 2 
a uniform magnetic field, requires 5 J of work
(3) cot 2   cot 2   cot 2 
to turn it through 53°. The torque needed to
maintain the needle in this new position will be (4) tan2   tan2   tan2 
5/22
32. A uniform magnetic field that exists in space is 34. The magnetic flux linked with a stationary loop of

given by B  (2i  4 j ) T. The magnetic flux resistance R varies with respect to time, during
2 the time interval t = 0 to t = T, as  = 2t (T – t).
through an area of 1 m lying in x – y plane will
be The amount of heat generated in the loop during
that time (inductance of coil is negligible) is
(1) 6 Wb
T3 2T 3
(2) 2 2 Wb (1) (2)
3R 3R
(3) 4 Wb 4T 3 2T 3
(3) (4)
(4) Zero 3R R
33. A rectangular loop ABCD having some resistance 35. The equivalent inductance of two inductors is
is pulled with constant velocity v out of a uniform 4.8 mH, when connected in parallel and 20 mH,
magnetic field directed into the plane of paper. At when connected in series. The value of
time t = 0, side BC of the loop is at edge of the inductance of the individual inductors are
magnetic field as shown in the figure. The (Neglect mutual inductance)
induced current (i) versus time (t) graph will be (1) 12 mH, 8 mH (2) 14 mH, 6 mH
(3) 10 mH, 10 mH (4) 15 mH, 5 mH
36. In the circuit shown in the figure, switch S is
closed at time t = 0. The charge that passes
through the battery in one time constant, is
(1) (2)
ER 2
(1)
eL
E 2L2
(2)
e 2R 2
EL
(3)
(3) (4) eR
EL
(4)
eR 2
6/22
37. The current (i) in a coil varies with time (t) as 38. The network shown in the figure is a part of a
shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the current
4 –1
(e) with time (t) would be i is 4 A and is increasing at a rate of 10 A s ,
then (VP – VQ) will be
(1) 56 V (2) 76 V
(3) – 56 V (4) 66 V
39. The flux linked through a coil of resistance 10 

varies with time according to the equation
(in Wb)  3t 2  8t  2. The magnitude of induced
current at time t = 0.5 s is
(1) 1 A (2) 0.25 A

(1)
(3) 0.5 A (4) 0.75 A
40. A rectangular coil is placed near a long wire

carrying a current i (in same plane) as shown in
the figure. The mutual inductance between them
will be
(2)
0ic  a 
(1) ln  
(3) 2  b 
0 a  b
(2) ln  1  
2  c
0a  c 
(3) ln  
2  b 
(4) 0c  b
(4) ln  1  
2  a
7/22
41. An L-shaped thin metal rod is moving with 43. Among the following materials, Curie temperature

velocity v   2i  4 j  m/s in transverse uniform
is minimum for

magnetic field of B0  4k T. The potential (1) Cobalt (2) Nickel
difference between point A and B (VA – VB) will
be (3) Iron (4) Ferric oxide
44. Two conductors PQ and RS are made to slide

on the rails with speeds 4 m/s and 5 m/s
respectively in a region of transverse uniform
magnetic field B = 1 T as shown in the figure. The
electric current in the 9  resistance is
(1) 56 V (2) 24 V
(3) 32 V (4) 8 V
(1) 40 mA (2) 45 mA
42. The current through an inductor of 2 H is
(3) 90 mA (4) 80 mA
given by i  3t sin(t ) A, where   1s1 . The
magnitude of induced emf across the inductor at 45. The magnetic field in a cylindrical region of radius
 3 cm, varies with time t (in s) as B = (40t) T. At a
t  s will be radial distance of 2 cm from the centre O, the
2 magnitude of induced electric field is
 3 
(1)   6 V
 2 
(2) 6 V
(1) 0.4 N/C
3
(3) V (2) 0.2 N/C
2
(3) 4.0 N/C
(4) 12 V (4) 2.0 N/C
8/22
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Physisorption is 52. Size of colloidal particles ranges from
(1) Specific in nature (1) 1 nm to 10 nm (2) 10 Å to 1000 Å
(2) Reversible in nature (3) 10 Å to 10000 Å (4) 1 nm to 100 nm

53. Correct order of flocculating value of electrolytes
(3) Unimolecular layer adsorption
KCl, K2SO4 and K3[Fe(CN)6] for coagulation of
(4) Always endothermic in nature positive Fe(OH)3 sol is
47. Chemisorption of gases on solid surface (1) KCl > K2SO4 > K3[Fe(CN)6]
increases with (2) KCl > K3[Fe(CN)6] > K2SO4
(1) Increase in surface area of adsorbent (3) K3[Fe(CN)6] > KCl > K2SO4
(2) Decrease in temperature (4) K3[Fe(CN)6] > K2SO4 > KCl
(3) Decrease in pressure 54. Select the incorrect statement among the
following
(4) All of these
(1) Emulsifier forms an interfacial film between
48. The gas which will be most readily adsorbed on suspended particles and the medium
activated charcoal surface among the following is
(2) Emulsions do not show Tyndall effect
(1) H2 (2) CO2
(3) The droplets in emulsions are often
(3) CH4 (4) NH3 negatively charged
49. Example of homogeneous catalysis is (4) Emulsions can be broken into constituent
liquids by freezing
VO
(1) 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 
2 5
 2SO3 (g) 55. Property of colloids, which is independent of
charge is
(2) C12H22O11(aq) + H2O(l) 
H2SO4

(1) Coagulation (2) Tyndall effect
C6H12O6(aq) + C6H12O6(aq)
(3) Electrophoresis (4) All of these
(3) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
Pt
56. Colloidal sol which is formed by double
decomposition method is
(4) Vegetable oils + H2(g) 
Ni
Vegetable ghee
(1) As2S3 sol (2) Sulphur sol
50. Positive sol is (3) Fe(OH)3 sol (4) Au sol
(1) Sb2S3 sol (2) Au sol 57. Incorrect match is
(3) Gelatin sol (4) TiO2 sol (1) Aerosol : Dust
51. Which is not a method of purification of colloids? (2) Gel : Jellies
(1) Dialysis (2) Ultrafiltration (3) Foam : Cell fluids
(3) Peptization (4) Electro-dialysis (4) Emulsion : Hair cream
9/22
58. An example of oxide ore is 67. Refining by liquation is based on

(1) Zincite (2) Copper glance (1) Difference in melting points of metal and
impurities
(3) Copper pyrites (4) Malachite
(2) Difference in boiling points of metal and
59. Reagent used in leaching of bauxite ore is impurities
(1) NaOH (2) AgNO3 (3) Difference in solubilities of metal and
(3) H2SO4 (4) HCl impurities in molten form
60. Ignition mixture used in Goldschmidt alumino (4) Difference in electrical conductivities of metal
thermite process contains and impurities
(1) Mg (2) BaO2 68. Reaction not involved in Serpeck‟s method of
concentration of bauxite ore is
(3) CaO (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Al2O3 . 2H2O + N2 + 3C  2AIN + 3CO
61. During smelting of iron in blast furnace, slag
formed is + 2H2O
(1) CaCl2 (2) CaSiO3 (2) AIN + 3H2O  Al(OH)3 + NH3


(3) MgCO3 (4) Mg(OH)2 (3) 2Al(OH)3   Al2O3  3H2O
62. Poling process is used for the refining of (4) Al2O3 + 2NaOH  2NaAlO2 + H2O
(1) Na (2) Cu 69. Select the incorrect statement among the
(3) Fe (4) Ag following
(1) Sulphur, silicon and phosphorus are oxidised
63. Zirconium is refined by
and passed into the slags during smelting of
(1) van Arkel method (2) Mond process iron
(3) Liquation (4) Distillation (2) In copper extraction, FeSiO3 is formed as
slag
64. In the metallurgy of native ores of silver and gold,
complex which is not formed, is (3) Germanium, gallium and indium are refined
– – by zone refining
(1) [Ag(CN)2] (2) [Au(CN)2]
3– 2– (4) Froth floatation process is generally used for
(3) [Ag(CN)4] (4) [Zn(CN)4] the concentration of oxide ores
65. Copper matte contains 70. Element having highest density at 298 K in the
(1) Cu2S and FeO (2) Cu2S and Cu2O following is
(3) Cu2S and FeS (4) Cu2O and SO2 (1) N (2) P
66. During preparation of wrought iron from cast iron (3) As (4) Bi
impurities are oxidised by 71. Most basic hydride among the following is
(1) CO2 (2) CO (1) NH3 (2) PH3
(3) MgO (4) Fe2O3 (3) AsH3 (4) SbH3
10/22
72. Reaction which forms NH3(g) as one of the 79. Correct order of boiling points in the following is
product, is (1) HI > HBr > HCl > HF

(1) NaN3  (2) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
(3) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
(2) NH4Cl  Ca  OH2 
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(3) NH4Cl  aq.  NaNO2 aq. 

 80. Which is not formed during the reaction of gold
with aqua regia?
(4) NH4 2 Cr2O7 

 (1) NO (2) AuCl2
73. The neutral oxide of nitrogen, which is (3) AuCl4 (4) H2O
paramagnetic in nature, is
81. Ionization energy of Xe is comparable with
(1) NO (2) N2O ionization energy of
(3) NO2 (4) N2O5 (1) O2 (2) F
74. Laboratory grade nitric acid contains nearly (3) N2 (4) I
(1) 68% HNO3 by mass 82. Incorrect reaction among the following is
(2) 96% HNO3 by mass (1) 2XeF2 + 2H2O  2Xe + 4HF + O2

(2) XeF6 + 2H2O  XeO2 + F2 + 4HF
(3) 98% HNO3 by mass
–
(3) XeF2 + PF5  [XeF] [PF6]
+
(4) 32% HNO3 by mass –
(4) XeF6 + NaF  Na [XeF7]
+
75. Pure phosphine is non-inflammable but becomes
inflammable due to presence of impurity 83. Number of P – H bond(s) present in phosphinic,
and phosphonic acids respectively are
(1) H2O (2) CH3OH
(1) 2, 1 (2) 2, 3
(3) P2H4 (4) PH4I
(3) 2, 0 (4) 2, 2
76. PCl5 on hydrolysis forms 84. The product which is not obtained on reaction of
(1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO2 AgNO3 with H3PO2 is
(3) H3PO4 (4) P2O5 (1) Metallic silver (2) Nitrous acid
77. Number of „S – S‟ bonds present in the crown (3) Phosphoric acid (4) Nitric acid
structure of rhombic sulphur is 85. Incorrect statement about phosphine gas is
(1) 6 (2) 8 (1) It is colourless gas with rotten fish smell
(3) 7 (4) 10 (2) It explodes in contact with HNO3, Cl2 and Br2
vapours
78. Oxoacids of sulphur which has peroxy linkage, is
(3) Its aqueous solution is stable in presence of
(1) H2S2O7 (2) H2S2O8 light
(3) H2S2O6 (4) H2S2O5 (4) It is used in smoke screens
11/22
86. The maximum and minimum number of halogen 89. Select the incorrect statement about „ClF3‟
atoms in interhalogen compounds respectively are
(1) It is a bent T-shaped molecule
(1) 7, 3 (2) 7, 2
(2) It is a colourless gas
(3) 8, 2 (4) 8, 4
(3) On hydrolysis, it produces HClO2
87. Which one of the following is least likely to exist?
(1) HOF (2) HClO4 (4) All Cl – F bond lengths are equal
(3) HIO3 (4) HBrO2 90. Correct order of properties of hydrides of
group-16 elements is
88. Incorrect statement about monoclinic sulphur is
(1) It is  -form of sulphur (1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te : Dissociation
constant
(2) It has less melting point than rhombic sulphur
(2) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S : Bond angle
(3) It is stable above 369 K and transforms into
rhombic sulphur below 369 K (3) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O : Melting point
(4) It is colourless and has needle shaped crystals (4) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S : Boiling point
[BIOLOGY]
91. Least or no variation of characters from parents 93. RNA acts as genetic material in
to offsprings occurs in a plant when
(1) Prokaryotes only
(1) Seeds are formed only through bud
pollination (2) All prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(2) Leaf buds are used for reproduction (3) Some viruses
(3) Selective hybridisation is done (4) All prokaryotes and viruses
(4) Only self pollination is occurring in that plant 94. Amongst the following, which one has least
number of nucleotides in its genome?
92. After self pollination, a terminal flower of a pea
plant produced wrinkled seeds. Which of the (1)  × 174 bacteriophage
following may be the genotypic condition of this (2) E. coli
plant for the flower position and shape of the
seed? (3) Human
(1) Homozygous or heterozygous for flower (4) Lambda phage
position and homozygous for seed shape 95. All of the following are the contrasting traits in
(2) Heterozygous for both flower position and pea studied by Mendel, except
seed shape
(1) Yellow and green seed colour
(3) Homozygous dominant for flower position
(2) Solitary and composite inflorescence
and heterozygous for seed shape
(4) Homozygous recessive for flower position (3) Violet and white flower colour
and heterozygous for seed shape (4) Inflated and constricted pod shape
12/22
96. The production of gametes, formation of zygotes, (3) Such traits do not follow any law of inheritance
F1 and F2 plants in a hybrid cross can be
(4) Heterozygous individuals show different
understood with the help of Punnett square. The
phenotype from parents
person who developed this method
101. Amongst the following, common nitrogenous
(1) Was a German mathematician
bases found in the genetic material of all viruses
(2) Is known as father of genetics are
(3) Was a British geneticist a. Uracil b. 5-methyl uracil
(4) Was an Austrian botanist
c. Adenine d. Cytosine
97. The double helix model for the structure of DNA
proposed by Watson and Crick was based on (1) b and d (2) a, b and c
(1) Visible light spectrum analysis (3) a and d (4) c and d

(2) Chromatography 102. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
(3) X-ray diffraction data salient features of the double-helix structure of
DNA
(4) Autoradiography
(1) It is made of two polynucleotide chains
98. In a nucleotide, a phosphate group is linked to
__(i)__ of a nucleoside through __(ii) __. (2) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) (3) Guanine is bonded with thymine by three
and (ii). H-bonds
(1) (i) OH of 3C (ii) Hydrogen bond (4) The two chains are coiled in a right-handed
fashion
(2) (i) OH of 5C (ii) Phosphoester
linkage 103. If there is a flow of information from RNA to DNA
then this process will be named as
(3) (i) 3 – C, (ii) Peptide bond
(1) Reverse transcription
(4) (i) OH of 5C (ii) Glycosidic linkage
(2) Translation
99. Two pea plants were crossed together. The
plants obtained in F1 generation by this cross (3) Replication
were both types, tall and dwarf. The genotypes of
(4) Transformation
parent plants may be represented as
104. In which of the following cases for a gene, the
(1) Tt × tt or Tt × Tt (2) TT × tt or TT × Tt
modified allele is said to be equivalent to the
(3) TT × tt or Tt × Tt (4) TT × Tt or Tt × tt unmodified allele?
100. There is no need of test cross to know the (i) If it produces a non-functional enzyme
genotypes for particular traits of individual when
these traits show incomplete dominance because (ii) If it produces less efficient enzyme
(1) In such type of traits, pair of alleles do not (iii) If this allele does not produce any enzyme
segregate (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) only
(2) There are no recessive alleles for these type
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
of traits
13/22
105. The ratio of total number of genotypes and (1) Radioactive protein capsule and non-
phenotypes for ABO blood types in human being is radioactive genetic material
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 4 : 1 (2) Radioactive protein capsule and radioactive
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 genetic material
106. A nucleosome is composed of (3) Non-radioactive protein capsule and

radioactive genetic material
(1) Positively charged DNA and negatively
charged histone octamer (4) Non-radioactive protein capsule and non-
radioactive genetic material
(2) A negatively charged H1 histone and
positively charged DNA molecule 111. During DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside
triphosphates serve dual purposes which are
(3) Negatively charged DNA and positively
charged histone octamer (1) Acting as template and as substrate
(4) Negatively charged lysines and positively (2) Acting as promoter and as adapter
charged arginine amino acids (3) Functioning as structural molecule and as
107. In the experiment conducted by Griffith, when a template
mixture of heat killed S-strain and live R-strain of (4) Acting as substrate and providing energy
Pneumococcus bacteria was injected into a
healthy mice, it developed pneumonia. This was 112. Which of the following properties in Drosophila
due to make it suitable as experimental material in
genetics?
(1) Reactivation of S-strain bacteria
a. It is an insect.
(2) Transformation of S-strain bacteria into R-
strain bacteria b. It can be bred throughout the year.
(3) Synthesis of polysaccharide coat around c. A single mating produces large number of
heat killed S-strain bacteria offsprings.
(4) Transformed R-strain bacteria d. It has smaller number of morphologically
108. When a single gene product produces more than similar chromosomes
one effect, this phenomenon is called e. It has many types of easily visible hereditary
(1) Multiple allelism (2) Pleiotropy variations.
(3) Polyploidy (4) Epistasis (1) a, b and d (2) a, b and c
109. Out of nine genotypes obtained in F2 generation in (3) c, d and e (4) b, c and e
Mendel‟s dihybrid cross, the number of genotypes 113. A pink flowered snapdragon plant is crossed with
that are true breeding line for both the characters is a red flowered snapdragon plant. Each individual
(1) 4 (2) 2 of F1 generation is then crossed with white
(3) 1 (4) 6 flowered snapdragon plant. What will be the
percentage of plants bearing white flowers in F2
110. A radioactive sulphur containing bacteriophage is generation?
allowed to attach to E. coli that contains radioactive
(1) 25% (2) 12.5%
phosphorus. The viruses produced in this bacteria
by this infection will have (3) 50% (4) 6.25%
14/22
114. The discontinuously synthesised fragments of (1) A  B (2) B  A

DNA are joined by the enzyme (3) C  D (4) D  C
(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA-dependent 119. The condition that results polyploidy is
DNA-polymerase (1) Segregation of chromosomes without DNA
(3) Phosphorylase (4) Topoisomerase replication
115. If E. coli completes the process of DNA (2) Unequal distribution of chromosomes during
replication within 38 minutes then the rate of cell division
polymerisation of DNA would be approximately (3) Failure in cell division after DNA replication
6
(1) 4.6 × 10 bp/second (4) Presence of more than one origins of
(2) 500 bp/second replication in DNA
120. For two characters, law of independent
(3) 230 bp/second
assortment will be correct if, the corresponding
(4) 2000 bp/second genes are
116. If mother and father are with blood group AB and (1) Present on non-homologous chromosomes
O respectively then what is the probability of their (2) Segregated only during crossing over
first child to be a girl with blood group A?
(3) Present on the same chromosome and are
1 1 completely linked
(1) (2)
2 4 (4) Do not segregate during gamete formation
1 1 121. In a transcription unit, the promoter is located
(3) (4)
8 6 towards
117. The human females with only one X chromosome (1) 5 end of the templates strand
in their cells (2) 5 end of the coding strand
(1) Have normal secondary sexual characters (3) 3 end of the non-template strand
(2) Are fertile but do not have normal secondary (4) 3 end of the sense strand
sexual characters 122. A hypothetical sequence of a transcription unit is
(3) Are sterile represented below
(4) Lack ovaries 3 C G G A T A T C C A A T-5 Template strand
118. Consider the following replication fork formed by 5 G C C T A T A G G T T A-3 Coding strand
unwinding of DNA molecule. If we switch the position of promoter with
terminator in the above given transcription unit
and transcription occurs then the sequence of
RNA transcribed will be
(1) 5-C G G A U A U C C A A U-3
(2) 5-G C C U A U A G G U U A-3
(3) 5-A U U G G A U A U C C G-3
Choose the option that indicates the direction in
which replication is continuous. (4) 5-U A A C C U A U A G G C-3
15/22
123. In Morgan‟s experiment which of the following 129. The terminal end of tRNA at which amino acid
combinations of traits in Drosophila represent(s) gets attached has the base sequence of
recombinant type?
(1) Paired – GGA (2) Unpaired – AAC
(i) White eye – Miniature wing
(3) Paired – AUU (4) Unpaired – CCA
(ii) Red eye – Brown body
130. Match the following columns and select the
(iii) Red eye – Miniature wing
correct option
(iv) White eye – Brown body
Column I Column II
(1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (iv) only
(Genes of lac operon) (Function)
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (ii) and (iii)
a. Operator gene (i) Interacts with
124. One of the example of polygenic inheritance is
(1) Size of starch grains in pea seeds repressor protein
(2) Pattern baldness b. Promoter gene (ii) Transcribes mRNA
(3) Human skin colour for polypeptide
(4) Synthesis of phenylalanine hydroxylase in synthesis
human beings c. Structural gene (iii) Provides
125. Select the incorrect statement from the following. attachment site for
(1) In most of the eukaryotes, the structural gene RNA polymerase
in monocistronic
d. Regulator gene (iv) Controls the activity
(2) Exons are the expressed sequence of genes
of operator gene
(3) Introns do not appear in processed RNA
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) A gene does not code for tRNA
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
126. In eukaryotes, rRNAs are transcribed by
(1) RNA polymerase I and III (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) RNA polymerase III only (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) RNA polymerase I and II 131. Consider the following pedigree chart.
(4) RNA polymerase I only
127. In which of the following insects, male progenies
do not receive any set of chromosomes from
their male parent?
(1) Grasshopper (2) Honey bee
(3) Drosophilla (4) Butterfly
128. Sex of the chicks is determined by What should be the symbols at the place of „?‟ so
(1) Their female parent that the pedigree may justify the inheritance of
(2) Both of their male and female parents genetic disorders like haemophilia?
(3) The temperature at which the egg is (1) (2)
incubated
(4) Their male parent (3) (4)
16/22
132. The chromosome compliments of egg and sperm 136. Match column I with column II and select the
whose union results Klinefelter‟s syndrome is correct option.
(1) (22 + XX) × (22 + Y) Column I Column II
a. Saheli (i) Suppresses
(2) (23 + X) × (22 + Y)
sperm motility
(3) (22 + X) × (22 + O)
and fertilising
(4) (23 + X) × (22 + X) capacity of
133. Select the incorrect match(es) from the following sperms
a. Minisatellites – 0.1 to 20 bp b. Condoms (ii) Non-steroidal
oral
b. SNPs – Due to single base
DNA differences contraceptive
c. Cu7 (iii) Terminal
c. Frederick Sanger – Developed method to
determine amino acid method of
sequence in proteins family planning
d. VNTR – Does not show d. Vasectomy (iv) Prevent the
polymorphism entry of
(1) a, b and c (2) a and d semen into female
(3) d only (4) b and c only reproductive tract
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
134. Which of the following is true for phenylketonuria
and Down‟s syndrome? (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
137. Though all persons are vulnerable to STIs but
(1) Both of them are autosomal recessive traits their incidences are reported to be very high
(2) Both are caused due to aneuploidy among persons of age group
(3) Mental retardation occurs in both (1) 25-35 years (2) 5-10 years
(3) 15-24 years (4) 40-50 years
(4) In both the cases, number of chromosomes
per cell remains the same, i.e. 46 138. Among the following contraceptives, which one
has minimum average failure rate?
135. How many of the following are sex linked
(1) Rhythm method (2) Oral contraceptives
disorders?
(3) Barrier methods (4) Coitus interruptus
Thalassemia, Sickle-cell anaemia, Haemophilia,
139. Which of the following is a correct match w.r.t.
Turner‟s syndrome, Colour blindness, Myotonic
STI listed and its corresponding causative agent?
dystrophy
(1) Syphilis – Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(1) Three
(2) Genital herpes – Human immunodeficiency
(2) Four virus
(3) Five (3) Gonorrhoea – Treponema pallidum
(4) Two (4) Chancroid – Haemophilus ducreyi
17/22
140. Which of the following ART involves direct 145. Select the correct option.
injection of sperm into the ovum?
(1) Amniocentesis is used to test for Down‟s
(1) IUI (2) GIFT syndrome, haemophilia and sickle cell
anemia
(3) ZIFT (4) ICSI
(2) A rapid increase in maternal mortality rate
141. According to 2011 census report, the population (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) are the
growth rate in India was ______ percent. reasons for population explosion
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. (3) “Saheli” was discovered at NDRI, Lucknow
(4) The “family planning” programmes were
(1) Less than 2 (2) More than 2
initiated in India in 1971
(3) More than 3 (4) More than 4 146. Choose the odd one w.r.t. cause of infertility in
142. Actively lactating mothers don‟t generally conceive, females.
hence lactational amenorrhea is considered a (1) Cryptorchidism
natural method of contraception. It occurs due to
(2) Fibroid uterus
(1) Hypersecretion of progesterone and estrogen (3) Blockage in oviduct
(2) Suppression of release of gonadotropins by (4) Defective vaginal growth
high level of prolactin
147. Which of the following are possible ill effects of
(3) Suppression of ciliary motility in oviducts using contraceptive devices?
(4) Retardation of sperm movement through a. Nausea
vagina b. Abdominal pain
143. Select the correct option w.r.t. the full form of c. Breakthrough bleeding
GIFT.
d. Regular menstrual bleeding
(1) Germ cell intra fallopian transfer e. Breast cancer
(2) Gamete inter fallopian transfer (1) a, b and c only (2) a and d
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (3) a, b, c and e (4) a, b, c, d and e
(4) Gamete inter fertilization transfer 148. If we consider GIFT and ZIFT, fertilization in
former and latter occur
144. Which of the following STI is completely curable if
(1) in vitro; in vivo (2) in vivo; in vitro
detected early and treated properly?
(3) in vivo; in vivo (4) in vitro; in vitro
(1) Genital herpes
149. Complete the analogy
(2) Syphilis
Anteater : Numbat :: Lemur : _______
(3) Hepatitis B (1) Spotted cuscus (2) Flying squirrel
(4) HIV infection (3) Bobcat (4) Tasmanian wolf
18/22
150. „Panspermia‟ is favourite idea for some astronomers 154. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in
in context of origin of life. According to this concept humans?
(1) Life was created by God (1) Ear pinnae (2) Caudal vertebrae
(2) Life originated from non-living material like (3) Auricular muscles (4) Nipples in male
mud and straw 155. How many of the following statements are
(3) Life came on earth as spores from some correct?
other planet a. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
(4) Life arose from some pre-existing life Cucurbita show homology.
151. Big Bang theory attempts to explain the origin of b. Pentadactyl plan in forelimbs of cheetah,
__(a)__, which occurred around __(b)__. man and whale exemplifies convergent
Select the option which fills the blanks correctly. evolution.
(1) a = Life; b = 20 billion years ago c. Archaeopteryx is a missing link between aves
and mammals.
(2) a = Earth; b = 4.5 billion years ago
d. Sweet potato and potato are examples of
(3) a = Universe; b = 20 billion years ago analogy.
(4) a = Life; b = 4.5 billion years ago (1) One (2) Two
152. Read the following statements carefully and (3) Three (4) Four
select the correct option w.r.t. true(T) and
false(F). 156. In Miller‟s initial electric discharge experiment,
after eighteen days significant amount of organic
a. The stellar distances are measured in light compounds began to appear. Which of the
years. following amino acids was not obtained?
b. According to the theory of special creation, (1) Glycine (2) Alanine
Earth is about 6000 years old.
(3) Aspartic acid (4) Lysine
c. Atmosphere on early earth was reducing in
nature. 157. Which of the following is the correct chronological
order of epochs from ancient to recent time?
d. Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of
spontaneous generation. (1) Palaeocene, Pliocene, Miocene
a b c d (2) Eocene, Oligocene, Palaeocene
(1) F T T T (3) Palaeocene, Eocene, Oligocene
(2) T F T T (4) Pleistocene, Holocene, Oligocene
(3) F F T T 158. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. period and its
important events.
(4) T F F F
(1) Ordovician – Age of invertebrates
153. Alfred Wallace came to similar conclusions like
Darwin when he was working in (2) Carboniferous – Age of amphibians
(1) Australia (2) Galapagos Islands (3) Devonian – Age of fishes
(3) Africa (4) Malay Archipelago (4) Cambrian – Age of reptiles
19/22
159. Which of the following is considered as the first 164. According to Darwin, which one is not true for
one toed horse? speciation?
(1) Hyracotherium (2) Pliohippus (1) Rapid multiplication
(3) Merychippus (4) Equus (2) Survival of fittest
(3) Struggle for existence and variations
160. For the MN blood group system, the frequencies
of M and N alleles are 0.6 and 0.4 respectively. (4) Random and directionless changes
The expected frequency of MN blood group 165. The accidental fluctuation in allele frequency in a
bearing organisms is likely to be small population is termed as
(1) 36% (2) 16% (1) Gene flow (2) Gene pool
(3) 24% (4) 48% (3) Sewall Wright effect (4) Gene migration
161. Read the following given statements and select 166. Which form of natural selection has operated on
the correct option. a population resulting in following figure?
Statement-A : Sugar glider and Bandicoot show
adaptive radiation.
Statement-B : The organisms in above
statement exhibit convergent evolution.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct
(1) Stabilising selection
(4) Statement B is correct
(2) Directional selection
162. Latimeria is considered as a connecting link (3) Disruptive selection
between
(4) Balancing selection
(1) Fishes and amphibians
167. In the Urey-Miller experiment all of the following
(2) Annelids and molluscs gases were taken in the closed flask except
(3) Cartilaginous fishes and bony fishes (1) SO2 (2) NH3
(4) Annelids and arthropods (3) H2 (4) CH4
168. Select the statement which is incorrect w.r.t.
163. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicate
Dryopithecus.
that
(1) They were hairy like gorillas.
(1) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors
(2) They were more ape like than
(2) Fishes were amphibians in the past Australopithecines
(3) Frogs have evolved from gilled ancestors (3) They were herbivores
(4) Frogs will have gills in the future generations (4) They buried their dead with flowers and tools
20/22
169. Which of the following is possibly the most widely 175. Read the following statements and choose the
accepted method of contraception in India? correct option.
(1) IUDs (2) Femidoms Statement-A : Tyrannosaurus was a flesh eating
dinosaur.
(3) Oral pills (4) Diaphragms
Statement-B : Brachiosaurus had big kite like
170. Hormone releasing IUD is plates on the back for its protection.
(1) LNG-20 (2) Centchroman (1) Both statements are correct
(3) Lippe‟s loop (4) Mifepristone (2) Both statements are incorrect
171. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cranial capacity. (3) Statement A is incorrect
(1) Homo erectus – 900 cc (4) Statement B is incorrect
(2) Homo habilis – 650-800 cc 176. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mutation
theory.
(3) Homo sapiens – 1400 cc
neanderthalensis (1) This theory was proposed by Hugo de Vries
(4) Homo sapiens – 1450 cc (2) Mutations are inheritable in nature
fossilis (3) They are slow and gradual changes that are
172. Lamarck‟s theory of organic evolution is mainly always induced by pollution
based on inheritance of (4) Mutations are the raw material of evolution
(1) Vestigial organs 177. Following are few plant forms
(2) Acquired characters (i) Chlorophytes (ii) Tracheophytes
(3) Mutant characters (iii) Rhynia (iv) Conifers
(4) Solely disused ancestral characters (v) Psilophyton
173. Select the incorrect statement. What was the sequence of these plant forms
through geological periods?
(1) Dinosaurs dominated Earth in Mesozoic era
(1) i  ii  iii  v  iv
(2) The first photosynthetic organisms on earth
were probably cyanobacteria (2) ii  i  iii  iv  v
(3) i  iii  ii  iv  v
(3) Coacervates as the model of protocells were
presented by Oparin (4) ii  iii  i  v  iv
(4) Most biologists believe that age of Earth is 178. In which mechanism of prereproductive isolation,
4.5 million years is the male of one animal species unable to
recognise the female of another species as a
174. The phrase “Survival of fittest” was first used by
potential mate?
(1) Charles Dawson (1) Behavioural isolation
(2) Herbert Spencer (2) Mechanical isolation
(3) Jean Lamarck (3) Hybrid inviability
(4) Alexander Oparin (4) Hybrid breakdown
21/22
179. Which of the following doesn’t support 180. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. natural
embryological evidences in light of evolution? selection.
(1) Similarity in early development of chordates (1) Industrial melanism
(2) Retrogressive metamorphosis in Herdmania (2) Evolution of wild mustard
(3) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny as seen (3) Herbicide resistance seen in present day
during development of heart in vertebrates weeds
(4) Restricted distribution of pouched mammals (4) Drug resistance in microbes due to
in Australia anthropogenic activities

22/22
A&B
Test No. 1
AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN
RI
AL L
ES
2020
National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

TEST - 1 (Code-A)
Test Date : 28/07/2019
ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (4) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (3) 47. (1) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (3) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (4) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (1)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (3)
25. (4) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (4)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (1)
35. (2) 71. (2) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (1) 180. (4)
1/16
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS –1
1 1 1 2C
Ceq     
1. Answer (1)  C C 2C  5
kq 5. Answer (1)
Hint : E 
r2 Hint : Apply Kirchhoff’s current law.
2 2
Sol. : r  3  4  5 m Sol. :  iin   iout
10 + 3 + i = 1 + 2 + 1 + 11
9  109  100  106
E  36 kN/C i = 2A
25
6. Answer (2)
2. Answer (3)
Hint : Electrostatics of a conductor.
Hint : Flux = E.A ; Net flux = 0
Sol. : Sol. : curved surface +plane faces = 0

curved – 5((52)) + 5 ((22)) = 0
curved = 5(25 – 4) = 105 N m2/C
7. Answer (1)
Hint : Conservation of energy
Sol. :
Surface charge density on A is uniform and on
B is non-uniform.
3. Answer (3) 2  k (3q 2 ) 6kq 2
 r  
Hint : Kirchhoff’s voltage law and current law. mv 2 mv 2
Sol. : 8. Answer (4)
Hint : If n identical capacitances are in series then
C
net capacitance 
n
C C C
Sol. : Cnet  C    ....
KVL : A  B 2 4 8
q
100 – 2(10) – 4(6) –
2
– 4 (6) = 0 C
Cnet   2C
1
 q = 64 C 1–
4. Answer (1) 2
Hint : Remove short circuited capacitors 9. Answer (1)
Hint : Infinite resistance ladder
Sol. : Removing short circuited capacitors, the
equivalent circuit is
Sol. :
2/16
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
Let effective resistance between A and B is x then

 4  12 
effective resistance between A and B will be 2x. Q   20 C  60 C
 4  12 
4  2x
2 x 15. Answer (1)
4  2x Hint : Kirchhoff’s laws.
 x2 – 4x – 4 = 0 Sol. : Before closing the switch
4  16  16
x  2  2 2    30 – 10 
i  A  5 A
2  4 
10. Answer (1) After closing switch
Hint : Use Gauss’s law
Sol. : If  is the volume charge density
x
E (x  R)
3 0
R 3
 (x  R)
3 0 x 2
Let potential at junction be V
11. Answer (3)
Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge 30 – V 10 – V 0 – V
   0 (KCL)
Sol. : The circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge 2 2 3
and therefore the current through the galvanometer V = 15 V
will always be zero.
15 – 10
12. Answer (2) Current from R1   2.5 A
2
l
Hint : T(simple pendulum)  2 5
g eff. Ratio   2 :1
2.5
Sol. : geff > g (as there is electrostatic repulsion) 16. Answer (1)
l Hint & Sol. : For a conductor in electrostatic condition,

 T  2 the net electric field due to induced charges and
g
charges outside the conductor is zero in a cavity.
13. Answer (3) 17. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol. : Balanced wheatstone bridge.
Hint : Use KVL
Sol. : Potential difference across R3 = 0
Sol. :
30 R 60  30
 R   45 
BC CA 40
14. Answer (4)
Hint : In series combination of capacitors charge
According to symmetry a and b are at same potential.
on each capacitor is equal to charge on equivalent
So current in R3 is zero.
capacitor
18. Answer (4)
Hint : Charge on an isolated capacitor remains
Sol. : constant and potential across a capacitor connected
to a given battery is constant.
Sol. : Let the dielectric constant be K.
Let e.m.f of the battery be E
3/16
Charge stored in capacitor Q = CE
1 Q2 1 (4)
Initial energy   CE 2
2 C 2
Q2
O1  O2  final energy 
2C
 C decreases as separation increases 21. Answer (1)
 energy increases Hint : Parallel combination of batteries and maximum
power transfer theorem.
1 1 
O3  O1  final energy  (KC )E2  K  C E2  Sol. : Equivalent battery circuit
2 2 
19. Answer (1)
Hint Potential due to spherical shell.
1 1
Sol. : V  k (Q )   
 rA rB 
40
kQ Maximum power transfer when R  
 3
2rA 22. Answer (3)
20. Answer (3) Hint : To find internal resistance using a potentiometer.
Hint : Potential across parallel resistors is same. l 

r  R  1  1
Potential across identical resistors in series is equally  l2 
divided.
Sol. : Potential across each bulb is Sol. :
(1)
 2.4 
2  10   1
 x 
(2) 2 2.4
1
10 x
x=2m
23. Answer (1)
Hint : Parallel circuit elements have same potential
difference.
Sol. : Potential difference across resistance arm
(3)
with ammeter is 32 V
32
Current is 4A
8
4/16
Hint : Force between the plates Q2E1 Hint : Circuit analysis

Sol. : Simplified circuit
Q1
Sol. : E1 
2 A0
Q1Q2 Q2
F 
2A0 4 A0
25. Answer (4)

Hint : Conduction of electrons in a conductor.
Sol. : The motion of electrons is random but in
presence of external electric field, they slowly drift
(R  R )(2 R ) 4 R 2
Rnet   R
opposite to E and cause a current. 2 R  (R  R ) 4 R
Hint : Time constant =  = Req C Hint : Bulb on which voltage is greater than the rated
Sol. : Finding Req. voltage would fuse.
Sol. : Since both bulbs are connected in parallel, the
voltage across every bulb will be 440 V. Thus, both
bulbs will fuse.
31. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. : Maximum power transfer theorem.
 = 8 RC Current through 5  resistor is maximum if R = 0.
27. Answer (2) In this case, the power through 5  resistor will be
Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge maximum.
Sol. : Simplified circuit diagram 32. Answer (3)
Hint : Circuit equation.
Sol. :
2 – i (1) = 0  i = 2 A
This is a balanced wheatstone bridge
8 8 24 28 10
Cnet     8 F i 2 2R 2
5 5 5 1 2  R R 3
Hint : Properties of a conductor in an electrostatic Hint : Colour code of carbon resistor
condition. Sol. : 54 M = 54 × 106 
Colour band : Green (5), Yellow (4), Blue (6)
Sol. : Positive charges move from higher to lower
potential while negative charges move from lower to 2.7
Tolerance limit   100  5%
higher potential. 54
Sharp points on a conductor have higher surface Colour band for tolerance limit : Gold
charge density. So, sequence : Green – Yellow – Blue – Gold
5/16
34. Answer (4)

2kqQR
u
Hint and Sol. : P  0 (K  1)E m(R 2 – d 2 )
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + T)
ER
Hint : V  Sol. : V = IR
Rr
As I is constant
E VR
Sol. : As R increases V  increases.
r  R2 = 2R1 = R1 (1 + (400))
1
R  2 = 1+ (400)
 Best answer : B  = 2.5 ×10–3 K–1
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + T)  i
Hint and Sol. : net 
1 n
Sol. : slope  tan() 
Resistance 1  2  3

As temperature is increased, resistance increases 3
and tan() decreases. 41. Answer (2)
37. Answer (2) Hint : In steady state a capacitor breaks the circuit
across it in direct currents.
Hint : E = k
Sol. : Both switches open
2  i4 = 0
Sol. : I   0.1 A
20 Both switches closed
Potential gradient
20 – 8
0.1 15  i 4  2A
k  1.5 V/m 42
1 42. Answer (1)
E = K
Hint :  dV    E  dr
1.2
   0.8 m
1.5 Sol. : dV  E  dr  ( yzi  zx j  xy k )  (dxi  dy j
38. Answer (1)
Hint : Conservation of angular momentum and energy.  dzk )
Sol. : Or, dV = – yzdx – zxdy – xydz
Or, dV = – d(xyz)
V
(1,1,1)
 dV  [ xyz]0,0,0  1  V  1V
0
43. Answer (1)

Hint : Parallel combination of resistors
Conservation of angular momentum about centre of R() R(2 – )
sphere. Sol. : R1  and R2  
A A
mud = mvx, (∵ x = R )
2
 R 
 mud  mvR  v 
ud
R1R2  A  ()(2 – )
R Rnet   
R1  R2 (2)(R )
Conservation of mechanical energy 
A
1 kqQ 1
mu 2   mv 2 R
2 R 2 
()(2 – )
2A
2 Maximum when  = 2 – 
1 kqQ 1  ud 
mu 2   m =
2 R 2  R 
6/16
44. Answer (3) Sol. : i = (1 – 0.4 + 2 × 0.4) = 1.4

Hint : At t = 0, capacitor is shortcircuited. Tf = 1.4 × 1.86 × 0.2
Sol. : Equivalent circuit at t = 0
= 0.52
Tf0  Tf  0.52
0 – Tf = 0.52
Tf = – 0.52°C
50. Answer (1)
2 1 1000  k
16 Hint : m (S cm mol ) 
i 2A C
 36 
6  1000  1.3  102
36 Sol. : m 
45. Answer (3) 0.1
m = 130 Scm2/mol
Sol. :
51. Answer (2)
7
Hint : MnO4  5e  Mn2
Sol. : Q = 0.5 × 5 × 96500 C
= 2.4 × 105 C
KVL in path AFEB : 52. Answer (3)
VA + 20 + 6 = VB Hint : For nth order reaction unit of rate constant is
(mol L–1)1–n s–1.
 VA VB = – 26 volt
Sol. : Rate constant for second order reaction will
CHEMISTRY be (mol L–1)1–2 s–1
46. Answer (2) = mol–1 L s–1
Hint : Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 74% 53. Answer (4)
Sol. : Percentage of vacant space is 26%. Hint : For first order reaction, unit of rate constant
is s–1.
47. Answer (1)
a
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r  3 a and kt  2.303log
ax
3 2.303 a
Sol. : r  a Sol. : t  log
4 k ax
2.303 100
3 t log
  360 2.303  10 3
100  70
4
= 155.9 pm 2.303
t [log10  log3]
48. Answer (3) 2.303  103
t = 0.52 ×103 s = 8.67 min
m
Hint : Mole fraction of urea (x)  54. Answer (2)
m  55.55
Hint : Order of a reaction can be zero as well as
4.45 fractional.
Sol. : x   0.07
4.45  55.55 55. Answer (4)
49. Answer (2) Hint : Silicon when doped with group 15 elements
then n-type semiconductor is formed.
Hint : Tf = iKfm and i = (1 –  + n)
7/16

Hint : Each Ba 2+ ion introduces one cation Hint : Strongest oxidising agent is one whose
vacancy. reduction potential is highest and strongest reducing
Sol. : Cation vacancy per mole of NaCl crystal agent is one whose oxidation potential is highest.
Sol. : Co3+(aq) + e–  Co2+(aq) E° = + 1.81 V
2  105 Cu(s)  Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
  6.0  1023 E° = – 0.34 V
100 64. Answer (2)
= 1.2 × 1017

57. Answer (3) Hint : Degree of dissociation () 

Hint : In FCC unit cell, for each atom there is one
octahedral void and two tetrahedral voids. 25
Sol. :    0.1
Sol. : For FCC unit cell, the number of atoms of 250
A=4 C2
Dissociation constant K 
1 1 1 
The number of atoms of B  8  4  5
2 4 1 (0.1)2
K   5.55  104
 Formula of compound = A4B5 20 0.9
Hint : Mass of H2SO4 in 250 ml of 2.0 M H2SO4 is k 2 Ea  T2  T1 
250 × 2 × 98 × 10–3 g = 49 g Hint : ln   
k1 R  T1T2 
Sol. : 98 g of H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution
 310  300 
Ea
100 Sol. : ln2   310  300 
49 g of H2SO4 will present in  49  50 g  R 
98
Ea = 9300 R ln2
Hint : Volume of liquid is temperature dependent.
1 dA 1 dB 1 dC
Hint : Rate of reaction   
W 2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
Sol. :   % is temperature independent
W d[C] 4 d[B]
Sol. : Rate of appearance of C  
60. Answer (4) dt 3 dt
Hint : For isotonic solution, 1 = 2 d[A]
 2
Sol. : = CRT dt
 C 67. Answer (3)
C1 = C2 Hint : Catalyst catalyses only spontaneous
reactions.
18 5  1000
 68. Answer (4)
180 100  M
Hint : G° = – nFE°cell
or, M = 50 × 10 = 500
Sol. : G° = – 2 × F × [E°R – E°L]
 Molar mass of the solute = 500 g mol–1
= – 2 × F × [– 0.25 + 2.36]
61. Answer (3)
= – 4.22 F joule
Hint : If reduction potentials are given then
E°cell = E°right – E°left 69. Answer (4)
Hint : Higher the charge and larger the size of ion
Sol. : Ni(s)  2Ag (aq.)  Ni2 (aq)  2Ag(s) higher will be molar conductivity.
E°cell = [0.80 – (– 0.25)]V = 1.05 V Sol. : Ion °/(S cm2 mol–1)
62. Answer (3) Na+ 50.1
Hint : The intermolecular attractive forces between K+ 73.5
A – A and B – B are weaker than those between Ca 2+ 119
A – B. Mg 2+ 106
8/16

Ea Hint : Order of the reaction is determined by
Hint : lnk    ln A slowest step.
RT
Ea Sol. : From equation (i)
Sol. : slope  
R
[C]2
71. Answer (2) K eq 
[A 2 ][B]2
Hint : Diamond crystal is FCC lattice where half of
the tetrahedral voids are occupied by carbon but [C]2 = Keq [A2] [B]2
octahedral voids are vacant.
From equation (ii)
72. Answer (2)
Rate = K [C]2
r  = K Keq [A2] [B]2
Hint :    ratio will give the coordination number.
 r  = K [A2] [B]2
 r  120  Overall order of reaction = 2 + 1 = 3
Sol. :  r   360  0.333
  77. Answer (2)
This lies between 0.225 – 0.414 so the co-ordination Hint : For zero order reaction t1/2 is proportional to
number is 4. the initial concentration t1/2  [A0].
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r  3 a 0.693
Hint : t1/2 
k
Sol. : 3 a  4r
0.693 0.693
4 Sol. : k    1 103 s1
a r t1/2 693
3
79. Answer (2)
In BCC unit cell, total number of atoms is 2 and the
Hint : 2H+(aq) + 2e  H2(g)
4
volume occupied by atoms is 2  r 3
3 0.059 pH
E  E  log  2 2
H /H2 H /H2 2
3 [H ]
3  4 
volume of cube, a   r
 3  0.059 1
Sol. : EH /H  0  log
2 2 (104 )2
4
2    r 3
3 3
 Packing fraction   0.059
 4 
3
8   8log10
r 2

 3 
= – 0.059 × 4
74. Answer (3) = – 0.236 volt
Hint : ptotal  x1p10  x2p02 80. Answer (2)
Hint : Number of equivalent of Ni2+ deposited
1.5 0.5
Sol. : ptotal   100   350
2 2 9.65  100  60

= (75 + 87.5) mm 96500
= 162.5 mm of Hg Sol. : Mass of Ni2+ deposited
75. Answer (3)
9.65  100  60 58.7
Hint : In positive deviation from Raoult’s law,  
96500 2
A – B interactions are weaker than those between A
– A or B – B interaction = 17.61 g
9/16

Hint : The solute which will produce least number of 0 0 0
Hint : m (CH3COOH)  m (CH3COOK)  m (HBr)
particles will have minimum depression of freezing
point hence highest freezing point 0
m (KBr)
82. Answer (4)
0
Hint : The magnitude of osmotic pressure is large Sol. : m (CH3COOH)  (114.4  427.7  151.6)
even for dilute solutions.
83. Answer (2) S cm2 mol1
= 390.5 S cm2 mol–1
P0  P n2
Hint : 0
 89. Answer (2)
P n1  n2
Hint : In Frenkel defect density does not change.
480  470 n2 90. Answer (3)
Sol. : 
480 n2  0.1 Hint : In ZnS structure, the co-ordination number of
both Zn2+ and S2– is 4.
1
or, n2 
470 BIOLOGY
Molar mass of solute = 470 × 0.2 = 94 g
91. Answer (3)
84. Answer (1)
Hint : Polycarpic plants flower repeatedly at
P intervals.
Hint : Mole fraction in vapour phase (y) 
Ptotal Sol. : Jackfruit is a polycarpic plant while marigold,
Sol. : ptotal = p1 + p2 wheat and radish are monocarpic plants.
92. Answer (3)
ptotal  p10 x1  p02 x2
Hint : Yeast is a unicellular fungus.
2 3 Sol. : Most of the unicellular organisms reproduce
ptotal  360   300 
5 5 by binary fission or budding. Yeast shows budding
= 144 + 180 Zoospores formation is common in algae and fungi.
= 324 mm of Hg 93. Answer (4)
Mole fraction of hexane in vapour phase Hint : Monoecious plants have both the sex organs
144 on the same plant.
(y)  = 0.44
324 Sol. : Cucurbit plants are monoecious. Papaya,
date palm and Marchantia are dioecious.
85. Answer (3)
94. Answer (3)
Hint : van’t Hoff factor for dissociation (i) = (1 – 
+ n) Hint : Seed plants show internal fertilisation.
Sol. : i = 1 – 0.8 + 5 × 0.8 Sol. : Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms
= 4.2 and angiosperms, they all show internal fertilisation
means fertilisation (syngamy) inside the body of
86. Answer (2)
organisms.
Hint : Electrolyte used in lead storage battery is
38% H2SO4. 95. Answer (3)
87. Answer (2) Hint : Only seed plants form the pollen grains.
Hint : G = – nFE Sol. : Seed plants are gymnosperms and
angiosperms and in both of these plant groups pollen
Sol. : Cell will work spontaneously if cell potential
grains are the carrier of the male gametes.
(E) is positive and G is –ve
10/16

Hint : Fertilised ovule is called seed. Ovary Hint : Generative cell of pollen grain is smaller than
contains ovules. vegetative cell.
Sol. : Ovules are present before fertilisation. Sol. : Generative cell is spindle shaped and floats
After fertilisation they become seeds. Pericarp is fruit in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
wall which is formed from ovary wall
post-fertilisation. Similarly endosperm is nutritive 104. Answer (3)
tissue formed after fertilisation. Hint : Embryo sac is a haploid structure.
97. Answer (3) Sol. : Nuclei of all cells of embryo sac are haploid
Hint : Heterogametes are morphologically dissimilar except secondary nucleus which is formed in central
gametes. cell just before fertilisation. Secondary nucleus is
diploid.
Sol. : Volvox produces heterogametes whereas
Rhizopus, Ulothrix and Cladophora produce 105. Answer (3)
isogametes.
Hint : Autogamy as well as geitonogamy are
98. Answer (4) prevented in dioecious plants.
Hint : China rose bears both the sex organs on the Sol. : Vallisneria is a dioecious plant. Castor,
same plant. maize and coconut are monoecious plants.
Sol. : China rose is monoecious plant and produces 106. Answer (3)
bisexual flowers.
Sol. : Perisperm is persistent nucellus in seeds of
99. Answer (4)
black pepper, beet etc. Tegmen is seed coat.
Hint : Lower plants require water for transferring
107. Answer (4)
male gametes to female gametes.
Sol. : Flowering plants (angiosperms) and Hint : Pericarp is fruit wall.
gymnosperms transfer their male gametes with the Sol. : Seeds have embryo, seed coat and may have
help of pollen tube. endosperm but not the pericarp. Pericarp is present
100. Answer (2) in the fruit.
Hint : Meiotically produced gametes are haploid. 108. Answer (2)

Sol. : Gamete = (n) Hint : Parthenocarpic fruits develop without
Plant = (2n) fertilisation.
101. Answer (3) Sol. : These fruits are seedless as they are
produced without fertilisation for example banana.
Hint : The innermost layer of anther wall surrounds
the sporogenous tissue. 109. Answer (4)
Sol. : Tapetum is the innermost layer which Hint : Apomictic seeds are produced without
provides nourishment to the developing microspores. fertilisation.
Epidermis – provides protection Sol. : Apomictic embryos are directly developed
Endothecium – helps in pollen dispersal from cells of nucellus or integuments hence they are
diploid. They are clones to each other but not to the
Middle layer – Provides protection and help in
zygotic embryos.
dispersal
110. Answer (3)
102. Answer (2)
Hint : The outer layer of sporoderm is exine. Hint : Wind pollinated flowers are called
anemophilous flowers.
Sol. : Exine is made up of sporopollenin which
helps in fossilisation. Sporopollenin is not degraded Sol. : Given characteristics are of the plant which
by any enzyme known till the date. shows anemophily.
11/16
111. Answer (3) 118. Answer (3)

Hint : Water hyacinth, water lily and Zostera are Hint : Wheat is an angiospermic plant which has
aquatic plants. triploid endosperm.
Sol. : Water hyacinth, Salvia and water lily are Sol. : Central cell after fertilisation called as PEC
insect pollinated but Zostera is water pollinated. (3n) and eventually forms the triploid endosperm.
112. Answer (3) 119. Answer (2)
Hint : In most of the flowering plants, the pollen Sol. : The portion of embryonal axis above the level
grains are shed at two celled stage. of attachment of scutellum is called epicotyl and
Sol. : If pollen grains are shed at two celled stage below the level of attachment is called hypocotyl.
then the generative cell divides and forms two male 120. Answer (3)
gametes after the pollination during the growth of the
pollen tube. Hint : Egg apparatus includes one egg cell and two
synergids.
113. Answer (3)
Sol. : Egg cell and synergids both are haploid.
Hint : 1 PMC produces 4 microspores by meiosis.
Hence the ploidy will be (n + n + n).
Sol. : 4 microspores mature into 4 pollens and
121. Answer (1)
produce 8 male gametes through mitosis.
114. Answer (2) Hint : Cleistogamy is a condition in which flowers
never open.
Hint : Anatropous ovule is the most common type
of ovule in angiosperms. Sol. : Cleistogamous flowers are self pollinated.
Hence, they ensure seed set. It cannot bring genetic
Sol. : It is inverted ovule and turns at 180° angle.
variation.
Most primitive type of ovule is orthotropous.
Members of leguminosae have campylotropous 122. Answer (3)
ovule. Sol. : Eyes in potato tuber are buds on nodes
115. Answer (2) which germinate to form plantlets.
Hint : Parenchymatous mass of ovule is nucellus. 123. Answer (2)
Sol. : Nucellus is diploid. Beet has persistent Hint : Bryophyllum has leaf buds.
nucellus called perisperm
Sol. : Bryophyllum reproduces vegetatively by
Megasporangium is ovule. leaves. It has buds at the margins of leaves.
116. Answer (2) Grasses – Runner
Hint : Entry of pollen tube into the ovule can be
Pineapple – Sucker
through chalaza, micropyle or through integuments.
Ananas – Bulbils
Sol. : Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac is
through micropylar end only. 124. Answer (3)
117. Answer (2) Hint : Eichhornia propagates vegetatively by sub
Hint : Double fertilisation is unique to angiosperms. aerial stem.
Sol. : It propagates by offset, found in standing
water and drains O2 from water.
Sol. : 125. Answer (2)

Hint : Sexual reproduction brings genetic variation.
Sol. : In sexual reproduction, offsprings identical
to the parents cannot be produced. Sexual
reproduction can be uniparental in bisexual plants as
in Pea.
12/16
126. Answer (3) 135. Answer (2)

Hint : Male sex organ of Chara is known as Hint : Coconut water provides nourishment to
antheridium or globule. developing embryo.
Sol. : Female sex organ of Chara is called Sol. : It is its endosperm (3n), formed as a result
oogonium or nucule. of triple fusion.
127. Answer (4) 136. Answer (4)
Hint : Vital link between two successive generations Hint : This process involves fusion of gametes.
is zygote. Sol. : Recombination during sexual reproduction leads
Sol. : Zygote is diploid and single celled. to variations.
128. Answer (3) 137. Answer (4)
Sol. : Algae do not have embryo. Embryogenesis Hint : This process enables an organism to leave
is absent in them. Zygote divides meiotically. behind more progeny of its kind.
129. Answer (3) Sol. : Fragmentation, sporulation and budding are not
observed in humans.
Hint : Peepal tree has a life span of 2500 years.
138. Answer (3)
Sol. : Banyan tree – 200-250 years
Hint : Identify a unicellular organism.
Parrot – 140 years
Sol. : A single celled organism can divide by
Fruit fly – 2-3 weeks
processes involving cell division eg : binary fission.
130. Answer (2)
139. Answer (2)
Hint : Unicellular organisms are considered
Hint : Its scientific name is Drosophila.
immortal.
Sol. : Life span of fruit fly is few weeks.
Sol. : Multicellular organisms have a fixed life span
after that they die. 140. Answer (3)
131. Answer (2) Hint : Which process ensures continuity of species?
Sol. : In Chrysanthemum, vegetative propagation Sol. : Reproduction enables the continuity of the
occurs by sucker. species
141. Answer (2)
132. Answer (4)
Hint : Gamete fusion occurs only in sexual
Hint : In cross pollination, genetically same type of
reproduction.
pollens cannot reach to the stigma.
Sol. : Sexual reproduction is more complex, slow and
Sol. : Autogamy, geitonogamy and cleistogamy are
elaborate and may be either uniparental or biparental.
genetically self pollination.
142. Answer (1)
Xenogamy is cross pollination.
Hint : Identify organism that can show internal budding.
133. Answer (3)
Sol. : Yeast and Hydra show external budding while
Sol. : Fragrance of flowers can attract the insects
Amoeba shows encystation and sporulation.
for pollination but it is not reward for them.
143. Answer (2)
134. Answer (3)
Hint : This process occurs in cervix.
Hint : Emasculation is removal of anther before its
maturity. Sol. : Decapacitation factors are removed after sperms
are deposited in female reproductive tract. Castration
Sol. : Unisexual flowers bear only one sex organ.
is removal of testes. Circumcision refers to removal
Emasculation is done in bisexual flower. of foreskin of penis.
13/16
144. Answer (1) 152. Answer (2)

Hint : FSH and LH are gonadotropins. Hint : They are a result of parthenogenesis.
Sol. : Amenorrhea is absence of menstrual cycle Sol. : Worker bees are sterile females while fertile
whose common reason can be fertilisation of ova. At female is queen bee.
menopause, gonadotropins increase due to absence 153. Answer (4)
of negative feedback.
Hint : Formation of zygote is seen in sexually
145. Answer (4) reproducing organisms.
Hint : It refers to helical arrangement. Sol. : Sexually reproducing organisms can undergo
Sol. : Mitochondria are arranged in a helical manner both internal and external fertilization.
in middle piece of sperm. 154. Answer (1)
146. Answer (4) Hint : Post fertilisation event observed at puberty.
Hint : This is a proteinaceous gonadotropin. Sol. : Pulses of GnRH trigger gametogenesis in males
at puberty.
Sol. : Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the
basis of Gravidex test performed to detect pregnancy. 155. Answer (3)
147. Answer (3) Hint : This structure is also responsible for providing
nourishment during embryonic stage in reptiles and
Hint : This hormone is secreted by placenta.
birds.
Sol. : Human placental lactogen i.e. hPL acts on
Sol. : Yolk sac is responsible for formation of blood in
mammary glands to facilitate the process of lactation.
first trimester during embryogenesis.
Cortisol, progesterone and estrogen are secreted in
non-pregnant females also. 156. Answer (1)
148. Answer (2) Hint : This hormone is released in pulsatile manner.
Hint : It is a glycoproteinaceous hormone Sol. : GnRH is released in pulses and promotes

release of FSH and LH. Amnion is derived from
Sol. : LH maintains corpus luteum. Relaxin is released extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic
from corpus luteum in pregnant females while estrogen mesoderm. Spermiation involves release of sperms
and progesterone are secreted from corpus luteum in from seminiferous tubules.
both pregnant and non-pregnant females.
157. Answer (1)
149. Answer (4)
Hint : Site of fertilisation.
Hint : Identify a non primate.
Sol. : Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of secondary
Sol. : Monkeys, apes such as chimpanzees and oocyte induces completion of meiotic division of the
gorilla and man exhibit menstrual cycle. secondary oocyte. Sperms are deposited in vagina
150. Answer (2) during copulation.
Hint : Meiocytes are diploid in nature while gametes 158. Answer (2)
are haploid. Hint : Formation of gametes is followed by union of
Sol. : Genetic constitution of sperm forming cells is gametes.
(44 + XY), sperms formed can have either (22 + X) or Sol. : The correct sequence of events is as follows
(22 + Y) as chromosome number. Gametogenesis  insemination  fertilisation 
151. Answer (4) implantation  gestation  parturition.
Hint : Animals that give birth to young ones. 159. Answer (3)
Sol. : Young one developing inside female reproductive Hint : It is a fluid filled cavity.
tract is safer. All land dwellers are not essentially Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of
viviparous. antrum.
14/16
160. Answer (3) 169. Answer (2)

Hint : This hormone is called pregnancy hormone. Hint : Vigorous contractions of the uterus at the end
Sol. : Progesterone is responsible for maintaining of pregnancy cause expulsion of foetus.
stability of endometrium. Decline in LH is responsible Sol. : Parturition is a complex neuroendocrine
for regression of corpus luteum. process. Ratio of estrogen to progesterone increases
161. Answer (3) during childbirth. Oxytocin is released from maternal
posterior pituitary.
Hint : ICSH from anterior pituitary targets Leydig cells.
170. Answer (2)
Sol. : Sertoli cells are called sustentacular cells as
they provide nourishment for developing sperms. Hint : These structures develop at the end of 24
weeks.
162. Answer (2)
Sol. : Placenta is well developed at the end of first
Hint : Secretion of these glands constitute
trimester. Heart beat can be heard after one month.
60-70% of seminal plasma.
171. Answer (4)
Sol. : Prostate gland is unpaired. Bulbourethral/
cowper’s gland secrete mucus. Hint : Umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries
and one umbilical vein.
163. Answer (3)
Sol. : No mixing of blood occurs at placenta.
Hint : Cells with 46 chromosomes.
172. Answer (3)
Sol. : Spermatid, first polar body and secondary
oocyte are haploid cells. Hint : These are non-identical twins.
164. Answer (3) Sol. : They are fraternal twins formed from two
separate fertilisation events.
Hint : Senescence is old age where degeneration of
body functions is generally seen. 173. Answer (4)
Sol. : Heterogametes in humans differ in size, motility Hint : Zona pellucida is intact in this embryonic stage.
and amount of cytoplasm. Sol. : Morula is 8-16 celled stage formed in fallopian
165. Answer (3) tube. Zygote is single celled structure.
174. Answer (2)
Hint : This is a unisexual animal.
Hint : Human egg is alecithal.
Sol. : Earthworm, leech and sponges are bisexual
animals. They undergo cross fertilisation. Sol. : Cleavage is complete and occurs from one pole
to another.
166. Answer (1)
Hint : Proestrous phase is comparable to proliferative 175. Answer (4)
phase of menstrual cycle. Hint : Structure rich in hydrolytic enzymes.
Sol. : Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is the major Sol. : Acrosome helps the sperm penetrate the
hormone of pro-estrous phase. Estrogen dominates secondary oocyte.
during estrous cycle.
176. Answer (3)
167. Answer (1)
Hint : Duration of this phase is fixed.
Hint : Gametogenesis is an in-vivo process.
Sol. : Luteal phase lasts for 14 days. Ovulation will
Sol. : Gametogenesis results in formation of gametes
occur on 20th day in this woman (34-14 = 20).
and occurs inside the body in all cases.
177. Answer (4)
168. Answer (3)
Hint : It is secretory antibody. Hint : This is called milk letdown hormone.
Sol. : Early milk called colostrum during lactation Sol. : Prolactin helps in formation of milk by mammary
phase is rich in IgA. alveoli.
15/16
178. Answer (1) Oogenesis sequence

Hint : Identify a part of womb.
Oogonia  primary oocyte  secondary oocyte +
Sol. : Cervix is part of uterus (womb) which is part of
first polar body  ootid.
internal reproductive structures.
179. Answer (4) 180. Answer (4)
Hint : These structures are the first formed haploid Hint : Primary oocyte completes first meiotic division
structures. in this stage.
Sol. : The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is
Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of
Spermatogonia  primary spermatocytes 
secondary spermatocytes  spermatids  antrum, theca externa and interna and secondary
spermatozoa. oocyte.

16/16
Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

TEST - 1 (Code-B)
Test Date : 28/07/2019
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (3) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (1)
6. (4) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (4) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (1)
29. (4) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (1)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (1) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (3)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)
1/16
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Or, dV = – d(xyz)
PHYSICS
V
1. Answer (3) (1,1,1)
∫ dV = −[ xyz]0,0,0 = −1 ⇒ V = −1V
Sol. : 0
5. Answer (2)
Hint : In steady state a capacitor breaks the circuit
across it in direct currents.
Sol. : Both switches open
⇒ i4Ω = 0
Both switches closed
KVL in path AFEB : 20 – 8
⇒ i 4Ω = =2A
VA + 20 + 6 = VB 4+2
⇒ VA VB = – 26 volt 6. Answer (4)
2. Answer (3) ∑ ρi
Hint and Sol. : ρnet =
Hint : At t = 0, capacitor is shortcircuited. n
Sol. : Equivalent circuit at t = 0 ρ1 + ρ2 + ρ3
=
3
7. Answer (1)
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + αΔT)
Sol. : V = IR
As I is constant
V∝R
⇒ R2 = 2R1 = R1 (1 + α(400))
⇒ 2 = 1+ α(400)
16 α = 2.5 ×10–3 K–1
i= =2A 8. Answer (1)
⎛ 3×6 ⎞
6+⎜ ⎟ Hint : Conservation of angular momentum and energy.
⎝3+6⎠
3. Answer (1) Sol. :
Hint : Parallel combination of resistors
ρR (θ) R(2π – θ)
Sol. : R1 = and R2 = ρ
A A
2
⎛ ρR ⎞
RR ⎜ ⎟ (θ)(2π – θ)
A ⎠
Rnet = 1 2 =⎝ Conservation of angular momentum about centre of
R1 + R2 (2π)(R )
ρ sphere.
A
mud = mvx, (∵ x = R )
ρR ud
= (θ)(2π – θ) ⇒ mud = mvR ⇒ v =
2πA R
Maximum when θ = 2π – θ Conservation of mechanical energy
θ=π
1 kqQ 1
4. Answer (1) mu 2 = + mv 2
2 R 2
Hint : ∫ dV = − ∫ E ⋅ dr
2
1 kqQ 1 ⎛ ud ⎞
Sol. : dV = −E ⋅ dr = −( yzi + zx j + xyk ) ⋅ (dxi + dy j mu 2 = + m⎜
2 R 2 ⎝ R ⎟⎠
+ dzk )
2kqQR
Or, dV = – yzdx – zxdy – xydz u=
m(R 2 – d 2 )
2/16
Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
Hint : E = k Hint and Sol. : Maximum power transfer theorem.
Current through 5 Ω resistor is maximum if R = 0.
2
Sol. : I = = 0.1 A In this case, the power through 5 Ω resistor will be
20
Potential gradient maximum.
16. Answer (1)
0.1× 15
k= = 1.5 V/m Hint : Bulb on which voltage is greater than the rated
1
E = K voltage would fuse.
Sol. : Since both bulbs are connected in parallel, the
1.2
⇒ = = 0.8 m voltage across every bulb will be 440 V. Thus, both
1.5 bulbs will fuse.
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + αΔT) Hint : Circuit analysis
1 Sol. : Simplified circuit
Sol. : slope = tan( θ) =
Resistance
As temperature is increased, resistance increases
and tan(θ) decreases.
11. Answer (2)
ER
Hint : V =
R+r
E
Sol. : As R increases V = increases.
r
1+ (R + R )(2 R ) 4 R 2
R Rnet = = =R
2 R + (R + R ) 4 R
∴ Best answer : B
Hint : Properties of a conductor in an electrostatic
Hint and Sol. : P = ε0 (K − 1)E condition.
13. Answer (1) Sol. : Positive charges move from higher to lower
Hint : Colour code of carbon resistor potential while negative charges move from lower to
Sol. : 54 MΩ = 54 × 106 Ω higher potential.
Colour band : Green (5), Yellow (4), Blue (6) Sharp points on a conductor have higher surface
2.7 charge density.
Tolerance limit = × 100 = 5% 19. Answer (2)
54
Colour band for tolerance limit : Gold Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge
So, sequence : Green – Yellow – Blue – Gold Sol. : Simplified circuit diagram
14. Answer (3)
Hint : Circuit equation.
Sol. :
2 – i (1) = 0 ⇒ i = 2 A
This is a balanced wheatstone bridge
2+8 10 8 8 24
i= =2⇒ =2⇒R =2Ω Cnet = + + = 8 μF
1+ 2 + R R+3 5 5 5
3/16

Hint : Time constant = τ = Req C Hint : Parallel combination of batteries and maximum
Sol. : Finding Req. power transfer theorem.
Sol. : Equivalent battery circuit
τ = 8 RC
21. Answer (4)
Hint : Conduction of electrons in a conductor.
40
Sol. : The motion of electrons is random but in Maximum power transfer when R = Ω
presence of external electric field, they slowly drift 3
26. Answer (3)
opposite to E and cause a current.
22. Answer (1) Hint : Potential across parallel resistors is same.
Potential across identical resistors in series is equally
Hint : Force between the plates Q2E1
divided.
Q1
Sol. : E1 = Sol. : Potential across each bulb is
2 Aε0
Q1Q2 Q2
F= =
2Aε0 4 Aε0 (1)
23. Answer (1)
Hint : Parallel circuit elements have same potential
difference.
Sol. : Potential difference across resistance arm
with ammeter is 32 V
32 (2)
Current is =4A
8
24. Answer (3)
Hint : To find internal resistance using a potentiometer.
⎛l ⎞
r = R ⎜ 1 − 1⎟
⎝ l2 ⎠
(3)
Sol. :
⎛ 2.4 ⎞ (4)
2 = 10 ⎜ − 1⎟
⎝ x ⎠
2 2.4
+1=
10 x
x=2m
4/16
27. Answer (1)

Hint Potential due to spherical shell.
⎧1 1⎫
Sol. : ΔV = k (Q ) ⎨ − ⎬
⎩ rA rB ⎭
kQ
=
2rA Let potential at junction be V
28. Answer (4) 30 – V 10 – V 0 – V
+ + = 0 (KCL)
Hint : Charge on an isolated capacitor remains 2 2 3
constant and potential across a capacitor connected V = 15 V
to a given battery is constant.
Sol. : Let the dielectric constant be K. 15 – 10
Current from R1 = = 2.5 A
2
Let e.m.f of the battery be E
Charge stored in capacitor Q = CE 5
Ratio = = 2 :1
1 Q2 1 2.5
Initial energy = = CE 2
2 C 2 32. Answer (4)
Q 2 Hint : In series combination of capacitors charge
O1 → O2 → final energy = on each capacitor is equal to charge on equivalent
2C
⇒ C decreases as separation increases capacitor
⇒ energy increases
1 Sol. :
⎛1 ⎞
O3 → O1 → final energy = (KC )E2 = K ⎜ C E2 ⎟
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
29. Answer (4)
Hint : Use KVL
⎛ 4 × 12 ⎞
Sol. : Potential difference across R3 = 0 Q=⎜ ⎟ × 20 μC = 60 μC
⎝ 4 + 12 ⎠
33. Answer (3)
Hint & Sol. : Balanced wheatstone bridge.
Sol. :
According to symmetry a and b are at same potential.

So current in R3 is zero.
30 R 60 × 30
30. Answer (1) = ⇒R= = 45 Ω
BC CA 40
Hint & Sol. : For a conductor in electrostatic condition,
the net electric field due to induced charges and 34. Answer (2)
charges outside the conductor is zero in a cavity.
31. Answer (1) l
Hint : T(simple pendulum) = 2π
Hint : Kirchhoff’s laws. g eff.
Sol. : Before closing the switch Sol. : geff > g (as there is electrostatic repulsion)
⎛ 30 – 10 ⎞
i =⎜ ⎟A = 5 A l
⎝ 4 ⎠ ∴ T < 2π
g
After closing switch
5/16
35. Answer (3) Sol. : φcurved surface + φplane faces = 0
Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge
φcurved – 5(π(52)) + 5 (π(22)) = 0
Sol. : The circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge
and therefore the current through the galvanometer φcurved = 5π(25 – 4) = 105π N m2/C
will always be zero.
Hint : Use Gauss’s law Hint : Apply Kirchhoff’s current law.
Sol. : If ρ is the volume charge density
ρx Sol. :
E= (x ≤ R)
3 ε0
10 + 3 + i = 1 + 2 + 1 + 11
ρR 3
= (x ≥ R) i = 2A
3ε 0 x 2
Hint : Infinite resistance ladder Hint : Remove short circuited capacitors
Sol. : Removing short circuited capacitors, the
Sol. : equivalent circuit is
Let effective resistance between A and B is x then

effective resistance between A′ and B′ will be 2x.
4 × 2x ⎛1 1 1⎞
–1
2C
2+ =x Ceq = ⎜ + + =
4 + 2x ⎝ C C 2C ⎟⎠ 5
⇒ x2 – 4x – 4 = 0
43. Answer (3)
4 + 16 + 16 ( Hint : Kirchhoff’s voltage law and current law.
x= = 2 + 2 2) Ω Sol. :
2
38. Answer (4)
Hint : If n identical capacitances are in series then
C
net capacitance =
n
C C C KVL : A → B
Sol. : Cnet = C + + + ....
2 4 8 q
100 – 2(10) – 4(6) – – 4 (6) = 0
C 2
Cnet = = 2C ⇒ q = 64 μC
1
1– 44. Answer (3)
2
39. Answer (1) Hint : Electrostatics of a conductor.
Hint : Conservation of energy Sol. :
k (q )(3q ) 1
Sol. : = mv 2
r 2
2 × k (3q 2 ) 6kq 2
⇒ r = =
mv 2 mv 2
40. Answer (2)
Surface charge density on A is uniform and on
Hint : Flux = E.A ; Net flux = 0 B is non-uniform.
6/16
kq P0 − P n2
Hint : E = Hint : =
r2 P 0
n1 + n2
2 2
Sol. : r = 3 + 4 = 5 m 480 − 470 n2
Sol. : =
480 n2 + 0.1
9 × 109 × 100 × 10−6
E= = 36 kN/C
25 1
or, n2 =
470
CHEMISTRY
Molar mass of solute = 470 × 0.2 = 94 g
46. Answer (3)
54. Answer (4)
Hint : In ZnS structure, the co-ordination number of
Hint : The magnitude of osmotic pressure is large
both Zn2+ and S2– is 4.
even for dilute solutions.
47. Answer (2)
55. Answer (3)
Hint : In Frenkel defect density does not change.
Hint : The solute which will produce least number of
48. Answer (4)
particles will have minimum depression of freezing
0 0 0 point hence highest freezing point
Hint : Λm (CH3COOH) = Λm (CH3COOK) + Λm (HBr)
0 56. Answer (2)
−Λm (KBr)
0
Hint : Number of equivalent of Ni2+ deposited
Sol. : Λm (CH3COOH) = (114.4 + 427.7 − 151.6)
9.65 × 100 × 60
2 −1 =
S cm mol 96500
= 390.5 S cm2 mol–1 Sol. : Mass of Ni2+ deposited
49. Answer (2) 9.65 × 100 × 60 58.7
= ×
Hint : ΔG = – nFE 96500 2
Sol. : Cell will work spontaneously if cell potential = 17.61 g
(E) is positive and ΔG is –ve 57. Answer (2)
50. Answer (2) Hint : 2H+(aq) + 2e → H2(g)
Hint : Electrolyte used in lead storage battery is pH
0.059
38% H2SO4. EH+ /H = E°H+ /H − log + 22
2 2 2 [H ]
51. Answer (3)
Hint : van’t Hoff factor for dissociation (i) = (1 – ∝ 0.059 1
Sol. : EH+ /H = 0 − log
+ n∝) 2 2 (10 −4 )2
Sol. : i = 1 – 0.8 + 5 × 0.8
0.059
= 4.2 =− × 8log10
2
52. Answer (1)
= – 0.059 × 4
P = – 0.236 volt
Hint : Mole fraction in vapour phase (y) =
Ptotal 58. Answer (2)
Sol. : ptotal = p1 + p2
0.693
ptotal = p10 x1 + p20 x 2 Hint : t1/2 =
k
2 3 0.693 0.693
p total = 360 × + 300 × Sol. : k = = = 1× 10−3 s−1
5 5 t1/2 693
= 144 + 180 59. Answer (2)
= 324 mm of Hg Hint : For zero order reaction t1/2 is proportional to
Mole fraction of hexane in vapour phase the initial concentration t1/2 ∝ [A0].
144 60. Answer (4)

(y) = = 0.44 Hint : Order of the reaction is determined by
324
slowest step.
7/16
Sol. : From equation (i) 65. Answer (2)
Hint : Diamond crystal is FCC lattice where half of
[C]2 the tetrahedral voids are occupied by carbon but
K eq =
[A 2 ][B]2 octahedral voids are vacant.
[C]2 = Keq [A2] [B]2 66. Answer (3)
From equation (ii) Ea
Hint : lnk = − + ln A
Rate = K [C]2 RT
= K Keq [A2] [B]2 Ea
Sol. : slope = −
= K′ [A2] [B]2 R
∴ Overall order of reaction = 2 + 1 = 3 67. Answer (4)
61. Answer (3) Hint : Higher the charge and larger the size of ion
Hint : In positive deviation from Raoult’s law, higher will be molar conductivity.
A – B interactions are weaker than those between A Sol. : Ion λ°/(S cm2 mol–1)
– A or B – B interaction
Na+ 50.1
62. Answer (3)
K+ 73.5
Hint : ptotal = x1p10 + x 2p02 Ca2+ 119
1.5 0.5 Mg2+ 106

Sol. : p total = × 100 + × 350
68. Answer (4)
2 2
= (75 + 87.5) mm Hint : ΔG° = – nFE°cell
= 162.5 mm of Hg Sol. : ΔG° = – 2 × F × [E°R – E°L]
63. Answer (3) = – 2 × F × [– 0.25 + 2.36]
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r = 3 a = – 4.22 F joule
69. Answer (3)
Sol. : 3 a = 4r
Hint : Catalyst catalyses only spontaneous
4 reactions.
a= r
3
70. Answer (2)
In BCC unit cell, total number of atoms is 2 and the
−1 dA −1 dB 1 dC
4 3 Hint : Rate of reaction = = =
volume occupied by atoms is 2 × πr 2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
3
d[C] 4 d[B]
3 Sol. : Rate of appearance of C = =−
⎛ 4 ⎞ 3 dt 3 dt
volume of cube, a = ⎜ r⎟
⎝ 3 ⎠
d[A]
⎛4⎞ = −2
2 × ⎜ ⎟ πr 3 dt
⎝3⎠ 3π
∴ Packing fraction = 3
= 71. Answer (1)
⎛ 4 ⎞ 8
⎜ r⎟ k 2 Ea ⎡ T2 − T1 ⎤
⎝ 3 ⎠ Hint : ln = ⎢ ⎥
k1 R ⎣ T1T2 ⎦
64. Answer (2)
⎛r ⎞ Ea ⎡ 310 − 300 ⎤
Hint : ⎜ + ⎟ ratio will give the coordination number. Sol. : ln2 =
R ⎢⎣ 310 × 300 ⎥⎦
⎝ r− ⎠
Ea = 9300 R ln2
⎛ r+ ⎞ 120
Sol. : ⎜ r ⎟ = 360 = 0.333 72. Answer (2)
⎝ −⎠
This lies between 0.225 – 0.414 so the co-ordination Λ
Hint : Degree of dissociation (α) =
number is 4. Λ∞
8/16
25 79. Answer (3)

Sol. : α = = 0.1
250 Hint : In FCC unit cell, for each atom there is one
2 octahedral void and two tetrahedral voids.
Cα
Dissociation constant K =
1− α Sol. : For FCC unit cell, the number of atoms of
A=4
1 (0.1)2
K= × = 5.55 × 10−4
20 0.9 1 1
The number of atoms of B = ×8 + × 4 = 5
73. Answer (3) 2 4
Hint : Strongest oxidising agent is one whose ∴ Formula of compound = A4B5
reduction potential is highest and strongest reducing
agent is one whose oxidation potential is highest. 80. Answer (2)
Sol. : Co3+(aq) + e– → Co2+(aq) E° = + 1.81 V Hint : Each Ba 2+ ion introduces one cation
vacancy.
Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e– E° = – 0.34 V
Sol. : Cation vacancy per mole of NaCl crystal
74. Answer (3)
Hint : The intermolecular attractive forces between 2 × 10−5
A – A and B – B are weaker than those between = × 6.0 × 1023
100
A – B.
= 1.2 × 1017
75. Answer (3)
Hint : If reduction potentials are given then 81. Answer (4)
E°cell = E°right – E°left Hint : Silicon when doped with group 15 elements
then n-type semiconductor is formed.
Sol. : Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (aq.) ⎯⎯→ Ni2 + (aq) + 2Ag(s) 82. Answer (2)
E°cell = [0.80 – (– 0.25)]V = 1.05 V Hint : Order of a reaction can be zero as well as
76. Answer (4) fractional.
Hint : For isotonic solution, π1 = π2 83. Answer (4)
Sol. : π = CRT Hint : For first order reaction, unit of rate constant
π∝C is s–1.
C1 = C2 a
and kt = 2.303log
18 5 × 1000 a−x
=
180 100 × M 2.303 a
Sol. : t = log
or, M = 50 × 10 = 500 k a−x
∴ Molar mass of the solute = 500 g mol–1 2.303 100
t= log
77. Answer (2) 2.303 × 10 −3 100 − 70
Hint : Volume of liquid is temperature dependent.
2.303
t= [log10 − log3]
⎛W⎞ 2.303 × 10 −3
Sol. : ⎜ ⎟ % is temperature independent
⎝W⎠ t = 0.52 ×103 s = 8.67 min
Hint : Mass of H2SO4 in 250 ml of 2.0 M H2SO4 is Hint : For nth order reaction unit of rate constant is
250 × 2 × 98 × 10–3 g = 49 g (mol L–1)1–n s–1.
Sol. : 98 g of H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution Sol. : Rate constant for second order reaction will
be (mol L–1)1–2 s–1
100
49 g of H2SO4 will present in × 49 = 50 g = mol–1 L s–1
98
9/16
85. Answer (2)

BIOLOGY
+7 91. Answer (2)
Hint : MnO−4 + 5e− → Mn2+
Hint : Coconut water provides nourishment to
Sol. : Q = 0.5 × 5 × 96500 C developing embryo.
= 2.4 × 105 C Sol. : It is its endosperm (3n), formed as a result
of triple fusion.
86. Answer (1)
92. Answer (3)
2 1000 × k
−1
Hint : Λm (S cm mol ) = Hint : Emasculation is removal of anther before its
C maturity.
1000 × 1.3 × 10−2 Sol. : Unisexual flowers bear only one sex organ.
Sol. : Λm =
0.1 Emasculation is done in bisexual flower.
Λm = 130 Scm2/mol 93. Answer (3)
87. Answer (2) Sol. : Fragrance of flowers can attract the insects
Hint : ΔTf = iKfm and i = (1 – α + nα) for pollination but it is not reward for them.
Sol. : i = (1 – 0.4 + 2 × 0.4) = 1.4 94. Answer (4)

Hint : In cross pollination, genetically same type of
ΔTf = 1.4 × 1.86 × 0.2
pollens cannot reach to the stigma.
= 0.52
Sol. : Autogamy, geitonogamy and cleistogamy are
Tf0 − Tf = 0.52 genetically self pollination.
Xenogamy is cross pollination.
0 – Tf = 0.52
95. Answer (2)
Tf = – 0.52°C
Sol. : In Chrysanthemum, vegetative propagation
88. Answer (3) occurs by sucker.
96. Answer (2)
m
Hint : Mole fraction of urea (x) =
m + 55.55 Hint : Unicellular organisms are considered
immortal.
4.45 Sol. : Multicellular organisms have a fixed life span
Sol. : x = = 0.07
4.45 + 55.55 after that they die.
Hint : Peepal tree has a life span of 2500 years.
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r = 3 a
Sol. : Banyan tree – 200-250 years
3 Parrot – 140 years
Sol. : r = a
4 Fruit fly – 2-3 weeks
98. Answer (3)
3
= × 360 Sol. : Algae do not have embryo. Embryogenesis
4
is absent in them. Zygote divides meiotically.
= 155.9 pm
99. Answer (4)
90. Answer (2)
Hint : Vital link between two successive generations
Hint : Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 74% is zygote.
Sol. : Percentage of vacant space is 26%. Sol. : Zygote is diploid and single celled.
10/16
100. Answer (3) 108. Answer (3)

Hint : Male sex organ of Chara is known as Hint : Wheat is an angiospermic plant which has
antheridium or globule. triploid endosperm.
Sol. : Female sex organ of Chara is called Sol. : Central cell after fertilisation called as PEC
oogonium or nucule. (3n) and eventually forms the triploid endosperm.
101. Answer (2) 109. Answer (2)
Hint : Sexual reproduction brings genetic variation. Hint : Double fertilisation is unique to angiosperms.
Sol. : In sexual reproduction, offsprings identical

to the parents cannot be produced. Sexual Sol. :
reproduction can be uniparental in bisexual plants as
in Pea.
102. Answer (3)
Hint : Eichhornia propagates vegetatively by sub
aerial stem.
Sol. : It propagates by offset, found in standing 110. Answer (2)
water and drains O2 from water.
Hint : Entry of pollen tube into the ovule can be
103. Answer (2) through chalaza, micropyle or through integuments.
Hint : Bryophyllum has leaf buds. Sol. : Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac is
Sol. : Bryophyllum reproduces vegetatively by through micropylar end only.
leaves. It has buds at the margins of leaves. 111. Answer (2)
Grasses – Runner Hint : Parenchymatous mass of ovule is nucellus.
Pineapple – Sucker Sol. : Nucellus is diploid. Beet has persistent
nucellus called perisperm
Ananas – Bulbils
Megasporangium is ovule.
104. Answer (3)
112. Answer (2)
Sol. : Eyes in potato tuber are buds on nodes
which germinate to form plantlets. Hint : Anatropous ovule is the most common type
of ovule in angiosperms.
105. Answer (1)
Sol. : It is inverted ovule and turns at 180° angle.
Hint : Cleistogamy is a condition in which flowers Most primitive type of ovule is orthotropous.
never open. Members of leguminosae have campylotropous
Sol. : Cleistogamous flowers are self pollinated. ovule.
Hence, they ensure seed set. It cannot bring genetic 113. Answer (3)
variation.
Hint : 1 PMC produces 4 microspores by meiosis.
106. Answer (3)
Sol. : 4 microspores mature into 4 pollens and
Hint : Egg apparatus includes one egg cell and two produce 8 male gametes through mitosis.
synergids.
114. Answer (3)
Sol. : Egg cell and synergids both are haploid.
Hint : In most of the flowering plants, the pollen
Hence the ploidy will be (n + n + n).
grains are shed at two celled stage.
107. Answer (2)
Sol. : If pollen grains are shed at two celled stage
Sol. : The portion of embryonal axis above the level then the generative cell divides and forms two male
of attachment of scutellum is called epicotyl and gametes after the pollination during the growth of the
below the level of attachment is called hypocotyl. pollen tube.
11/16
115. Answer (3) 123. Answer (2)

Hint : Water hyacinth, water lily and Zostera are Hint : Generative cell of pollen grain is smaller than
aquatic plants. vegetative cell.
Sol. : Water hyacinth, Salvia and water lily are Sol. : Generative cell is spindle shaped and floats
insect pollinated but Zostera is water pollinated. in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
116. Answer (3) 124. Answer (2)
Hint : Wind pollinated flowers are called Hint : The outer layer of sporoderm is exine.
anemophilous flowers.
Sol. : Exine is made up of sporopollenin which
Sol. : Given characteristics are of the plant which helps in fossilisation. Sporopollenin is not degraded
shows anemophily. by any enzyme known till the date.
117. Answer (4) 125. Answer (3)
Hint : Apomictic seeds are produced without Hint : The innermost layer of anther wall surrounds
fertilisation. the sporogenous tissue.
Sol. : Apomictic embryos are directly developed Sol. : Tapetum is the innermost layer which
from cells of nucellus or integuments hence they are provides nourishment to the developing microspores.
diploid. They are clones to each other but not to the
Epidermis – provides protection
zygotic embryos.
Endothecium – helps in pollen dispersal
118. Answer (2)
Middle layer – Provides protection and help in
Hint : Parthenocarpic fruits develop without
dispersal
fertilisation.
126. Answer (2)
Sol. : These fruits are seedless as they are
produced without fertilisation for example banana. Hint : Meiotically produced gametes are haploid.
119. Answer (4) Sol. : Gamete = (n)
Hint : Pericarp is fruit wall. Plant = (2n)
Sol. : Seeds have embryo, seed coat and may have 127. Answer (4)
endosperm but not the pericarp. Pericarp is present Hint : Lower plants require water for transferring
in the fruit. male gametes to female gametes.
120. Answer (3) Sol. : Flowering plants (angiosperms) and
Sol. : Perisperm is persistent nucellus in seeds of gymnosperms transfer their male gametes with the
black pepper, beet etc. Tegmen is seed coat. help of pollen tube.
121. Answer (3) 128. Answer (4)
Hint : Autogamy as well as geitonogamy are Hint : China rose bears both the sex organs on the
prevented in dioecious plants. same plant.
Sol. : Vallisneria is a dioecious plant. Castor, Sol. : China rose is monoecious plant and produces
maize and coconut are monoecious plants. bisexual flowers.
122. Answer (3) 129. Answer (3)
Hint : Embryo sac is a haploid structure. Hint : Heterogametes are morphologically dissimilar
gametes.
Sol. : Nuclei of all cells of embryo sac are haploid
except secondary nucleus which is formed in central Sol. : Volvox produces heterogametes whereas
cell just before fertilisation. Secondary nucleus is Rhizopus, Ulothrix and Cladophora produce
diploid. isogametes.
12/16
130. Answer (3) 137. Answer (4)

Hint : Fertilised ovule is called seed. Ovary Hint : These structures are the first formed haploid
contains ovules. structures.
Sol. : Ovules are present before fertilisation. Sol. : The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is
After fertilisation they become seeds. Pericarp is fruit
Spermatogonia → primary spermatocytes →
wall which is formed from ovary wall
secondary spermatocytes → spermatids →
post-fertilisation. Similarly endosperm is nutritive
spermatozoa.
tissue formed after fertilisation.
Oogenesis sequence
131. Answer (3)
Oogonia → primary oocyte → secondary oocyte +
Hint : Only seed plants form the pollen grains.
first polar body → ootid.
Sol. : Seed plants are gymnosperms and
138. Answer (1)
angiosperms and in both of these plant groups pollen
grains are the carrier of the male gametes. Hint : Identify a part of womb.
132. Answer (3) Sol. : Cervix is part of uterus (womb) which is part of
internal reproductive structures.
Hint : Seed plants show internal fertilisation.
139. Answer (4)
Sol. : Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms
and angiosperms, they all show internal fertilisation Hint : This is called milk letdown hormone.
means fertilisation (syngamy) inside the body of Sol. : Prolactin helps in formation of milk by mammary
organisms. alveoli.
133. Answer (4) 140. Answer (3)
Hint : Monoecious plants have both the sex organs Hint : Duration of this phase is fixed.
on the same plant.
Sol. : Luteal phase lasts for 14 days. Ovulation will
Sol. : Cucurbit plants are monoecious. Papaya, occur on 20th day in this woman (34-14 = 20).
date palm and Marchantia are dioecious.
141. Answer (4)
134. Answer (3)
Hint : Structure rich in hydrolytic enzymes.
Hint : Yeast is a unicellular fungus.
Sol. : Acrosome helps the sperm penetrate the
Sol. : Most of the unicellular organisms reproduce secondary oocyte.
by binary fission or budding. Yeast shows budding
142. Answer (2)
Zoospores formation is common in algae and fungi.
Hint : Human egg is alecithal.
135. Answer (3)
Sol. : Cleavage is complete and occurs from one pole
Hint : Polycarpic plants flower repeatedly at to another.
intervals.
143. Answer (4)
Sol. : Jackfruit is a polycarpic plant while marigold,
wheat and radish are monocarpic plants. Hint : Zona pellucida is intact in this embryonic stage.
136. Answer (4) Sol. : Morula is 8-16 celled stage formed in fallopian
tube. Zygote is single celled structure.
Hint : Primary oocyte completes first meiotic division
in this stage. 144. Answer (3)
Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of Hint : These are non-identical twins.
antrum, theca externa and interna and secondary Sol. : They are fraternal twins formed from two
oocyte. separate fertilisation events.
13/16
145. Answer (4) Sol. : Spermatid, first polar body and secondary
Hint : Umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries oocyte are haploid cells.
and one umbilical vein. 154. Answer (2)
Sol. : No mixing of blood occurs at placenta. Hint : Secretion of these glands constitute
146. Answer (2) 60-70% of seminal plasma.
Hint : These structures develop at the end of 24 Sol. : Prostate gland is unpaired. Bulbourethral/
weeks. cowper’s gland secrete mucus.
Sol. : Placenta is well developed at the end of first 155. Answer (3)
trimester. Heart beat can be heard after one month.
Hint : ICSH from anterior pituitary targets Leydig cells.
147. Answer (2)
Sol. : Sertoli cells are called sustentacular cells as
Hint : Vigorous contractions of the uterus at the end
they provide nourishment for developing sperms.
of pregnancy cause expulsion of foetus.
156. Answer (3)
Sol. : Parturition is a complex neuroendocrine
process. Ratio of estrogen to progesterone increases Hint : This hormone is called pregnancy hormone.
during childbirth. Oxytocin is released from maternal
Sol. : Progesterone is responsible for maintaining
posterior pituitary.
stability of endometrium. Decline in LH is responsible
148. Answer (3) for regression of corpus luteum.
Hint : It is secretory antibody. 157. Answer (3)
Sol. : Early milk called colostrum during lactation
Hint : It is a fluid filled cavity.
phase is rich in IgA.
Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of
149. Answer (1)
antrum.
Hint : Gametogenesis is an in-vivo process.
158. Answer (2)
Sol. : Gametogenesis results in formation of gametes
and occurs inside the body in all cases. Hint : Formation of gametes is followed by union of
gametes.
150. Answer (1)
Sol. : The correct sequence of events is as follows
Hint : Proestrous phase is comparable to proliferative
phase of menstrual cycle. Gametogenesis → insemination → fertilisation →
Sol. : Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is the major implantation → gestation → parturition.
hormone of pro-estrous phase. Estrogen dominates 159. Answer (1)
during estrous cycle.
Hint : Site of fertilisation.
151. Answer (3)
Sol. : Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of secondary
Hint : This is a unisexual animal.
oocyte induces completion of meiotic division of the
Sol. : Earthworm, leech and sponges are bisexual secondary oocyte. Sperms are deposited in vagina
animals. They undergo cross fertilisation. during copulation.
152. Answer (3) 160. Answer (1)
Hint : Senescence is old age where degeneration of Hint : This hormone is released in pulsatile manner.
body functions is generally seen.
Sol. : GnRH is released in pulses and promotes
Sol. : Heterogametes in humans differ in size, motility
release of FSH and LH. Amnion is derived from
and amount of cytoplasm.
extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic
153. Answer (3) mesoderm. Spermiation involves release of sperms
Hint : Cells with 46 chromosomes. from seminiferous tubules.
14/16
161. Answer (3) 169. Answer (3)

Hint : This structure is also responsible for providing Hint : This hormone is secreted by placenta.
nourishment during embryonic stage in reptiles and
Sol. : Human placental lactogen i.e. hPL acts on
birds.
mammary glands to facilitate the process of lactation.
Sol. : Yolk sac is responsible for formation of blood in Cortisol, progesterone and estrogen are secreted in
first trimester during embryogenesis. non-pregnant females also.
162. Answer (1) 170. Answer (4)
Hint : Post fertilisation event observed at puberty. Hint : This is a proteinaceous gonadotropin.
Sol. : Pulses of GnRH trigger gametogenesis in males Sol. : Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the
at puberty. basis of Gravidex test performed to detect pregnancy.
163. Answer (4) 171. Answer (4)
Hint : Formation of zygote is seen in sexually Hint : It refers to helical arrangement.
reproducing organisms.
Sol. : Mitochondria are arranged in a helical manner
Sol. : Sexually reproducing organisms can undergo in middle piece of sperm.
both internal and external fertilization.
172. Answer (1)
164. Answer (2)
Hint : FSH and LH are gonadotropins.
Hint : They are a result of parthenogenesis.
Sol. : Amenorrhea is absence of menstrual cycle
Sol. : Worker bees are sterile females while fertile whose common reason can be fertilisation of ova. At
female is queen bee. menopause, gonadotropins increase due to absence
165. Answer (4) of negative feedback.
Hint : Animals that give birth to young ones. 173. Answer (2)
Sol. : Young one developing inside female reproductive Hint : This process occurs in cervix.
tract is safer. All land dwellers are not essentially
Sol. : Decapacitation factors are removed after sperms
viviparous.
are deposited in female reproductive tract. Castration
166. Answer (2) is removal of testes. Circumcision refers to removal
Hint : Meiocytes are diploid in nature while gametes of foreskin of penis.
are haploid. 174. Answer (1)
Sol. : Genetic constitution of sperm forming cells is Hint : Identify organism that can show internal budding.
(44 + XY), sperms formed can have either (22 + X) or
Sol. : Yeast and Hydra show external budding while
(22 + Y) as chromosome number.
Amoeba shows encystation and sporulation.
167. Answer (4)
175. Answer (2)
Hint : Identify a non primate.
Hint : Gamete fusion occurs only in sexual
Sol. : Monkeys, apes such as chimpanzees and reproduction.
gorilla and man exhibit menstrual cycle.
Sol. : Sexual reproduction is more complex, slow and
168. Answer (2) elaborate and may be either uniparental or biparental.
Hint : It is a glycoproteinaceous hormone 176. Answer (3)
Sol. : LH maintains corpus luteum. Relaxin is released Hint : Which process ensures continuity of species?
from corpus luteum in pregnant females while estrogen
and progesterone are secreted from corpus luteum in Sol. : Reproduction enables the continuity of the
both pregnant and non-pregnant females. species
15/16
177. Answer (2) 179. Answer (4)

Hint : This process enables an organism to leave
Hint : Its scientific name is Drosophila.
behind more progeny of its kind.
Sol. : Life span of fruit fly is few weeks. Sol. : Fragmentation, sporulation and budding are not
observed in humans.
178. Answer (3)
180. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a unicellular organism.
Hint : This process involves fusion of gametes.
Sol. : A single celled organism can divide by Sol. : Recombination during sexual reproduction leads
processes involving cell division eg : binary fission. to variations.

16/16

Aiats 2020 (Oymcf) Test 02 Offline - Code A

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Aiats 2020 (Oymcf) Test 02 Offline - Code A

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

15-09-2019 A

Entrance Exam - 2020

Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Moving charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic

Surface Chemistry, p-block elements (Group-15 to 18), General Principles

Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance;

Time : 3 Hrs MM: 720

1. A charged particle is moving in a transverse

(4) Both (1) and (2)

2. A current of 3 3 A is flowing in an equilateral

(1) 1.8  T (2) Move towards the wire

(2) 1.5  T (3) Remain stationary

(4) Rotate about an axis normal to the wire

(2) 4 N in positive-z direction

(4) 4 N in negative-y direction

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

2m m 14. A beam of mixture of alpha particles and protons

15. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection 

(1) iB0 (2) iB0

(3) iB0(1 +) (4) 2iB0 (3) i  2 (4) i  

(Space for Rough Work)

(3) B0a2  i  j  (4) 2B0a2  i  j 

(Space for Rough Work)

24. A diamagnetic material in a non-uniform magnetic 3 5

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

39. The flux linked through a coil of resistance 10 

(1) 1 A (2) 0.25 A

40. A rectangular coil is placed near a long wire

(Space for Rough Work)

44. Two conductors PQ and RS are made to slide

(Space for Rough Work)

(2) Reversible in nature (3) 10 Å to 10000 Å (4) 1 nm to 100 nm

(Space for Rough Work)

58. An example of oxide ore is 67. Refining by liquation is based on

(1) CaCl2 (2) CaSiO3 (2) AIN + 3H2O  Al(OH)3 + NH3

(Space for Rough Work)

(3) NH4Cl  aq.  NaNO2 aq. 

(2) 96% HNO3 by mass (1) 2XeF2 + 2H2O  2Xe + 4HF + O2

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

(1) Visible light spectrum analysis (3) a and d (4) c and d

(Space for Rough Work)

106. A nucleosome is composed of (3) Non-radioactive protein capsule and

(Space for Rough Work)

114. The discontinuously synthesised fragments of (1) A  B (2) B  A

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

(Space for Rough Work)

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Sol. : Sol. : curved surface +plane faces = 0

curved = 5(25 – 4) = 105 N m2/C

Let effective resistance between A and B is x then

l Hint & Sol. : For a conductor in electrostatic condition,

Charge stored in capacitor Q = CE