CODE-B

28/04/2020

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 MOCK TEST CODE-B Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 12

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

SECTION-A
1. Young’s modulus of material of a wire can be looks at the pin and its inverted image from a
determined in laboratory by using distance keeping his eye in line with PA. When
(1) Post-office box (2) Searle’s apparatus he shift his eye towards left, the image appears to
the left of the object pin. Then,
(3) Meter bridge (4) Bomb calorimeter
(1) x > 2 f (2) x = 2 f
2. Which of the following sets cannot enter into the
list of fundamental quantities in any system of (3) f < x < 2 f (4) x < f
units?
A3 B1/3
(1) length, time, velocity 4. If Z= and percentage error in the
C D3/2
(2) length, mass, velocity measurement of A, B, C and D are 1%, 3%, 2%
(3) mass, time, velocity and 4% respectively, then relative error in the
(4) length, time, mass calculation of Z will be

3. In an experiment to determine the focal length (f) (1) 10 × 10–1 (2) 12 × 10–3
of a concave mirror by the U–V method, a (3) 1.2 × 10–1 (4) 10–3
student placed the object pin A on the principal
axis at a distance x from the pole P. The student
(1)
Mock Test Code-B
5. A particle is projected from ground at an angle 
with the vertical such that its horizontal range R is
related to its time of flight T as R = 6 T2. If
g = 10 m/s2 then value of tan  is
For NEET-2021
the centre of its base. Electric flux linked with the
slant surface of the cone due to the charge is

3
(1) 3 (2)
4

6
(3) 4 (4)
5

6. The magnitude of uniform magnetic field in a

small region of Helmholtz coils is nearly (N is Q
(1) Zero (2)
number of turns in each coil) 20
0NI 0NI Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2R R 4 0 0
20 NI 0.72 0NI
(3) (4) 10. A point charge ‘Q’ is placed off centre inside a
R R
thin conducting shell of radius ‘R’ as shown in the
7. Equivalent capacitance between points A and B
 1 
as shown in the following circuit will be figure. K = 
 4  0 

Electric field at point ‘P’ in this situation will be

KQ KQ
(1) (2)
25R 2 9R 2
(1) C (2) 2C
(3) 3C (4) 4C KQ
(3) (4) Data insufficient
9R 2 + 25R 2
8. Two small blocks each of mass 2 kg are
connected by an inextensible string (light). Blocks 11. A long straight thin wire is placed along z-axis.
are placed over a fixed smooth wedge as shown Wire carry a current I along negative
in the figure and system is released from rest. z-direction. Magnetic field at any point ‘P’ having
Magnitude of acceleration of both the blocks will coordinates (3, 4, 0) is given by
be (g = 10 m/s2) 0I ˆ  0 I (3iˆ + 4 jˆ )
(1) (4i − 3 ˆj ) (2)
50 50

0I (3 jˆ − 4iˆ)  0 I (3iˆ − 4 jˆ )

(3) (4)
25 50 
12. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron
(ne) and hole (nh) concentration of 1.7 × 1015 m–3. On
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 doping with boron hole concentration nh
increases to 4.7 × 1021 m–3. The doped
3 semiconductor is of
(3) m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
2
(1) N-type with electron concentration
9. A charged particle ‘Q’ is placed outside a hollow 12
ne = 3.5 × 10 m –3

cone on the axis of a cone at a distance ‘x’ from

(2)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

(2) P-type with electron concentration 16. A uniform chain of length 4 m is kept on a table
8
ne = 6.14 × 10 m–3 such that 120 cm hangs freely from the edge of
(3) N-type with electron concentration the table. The total mass of chain is
ne = 8.2 × 109 m–3 8 kg. The work done in pulling the entire chain on
the table slowly is
(4) P-type with electron concentration
ne = 2.89 × 1030 m–3 (1) 9.6 J (2) 3.6 J

13. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. (3) 7.2 J (4) 14.4 J
Its maximum acceleration and maximum velocity 17. Current passed through the switch ‘S’ after
are ‘P’ and ‘Q’ respectively. Then time period of closing it in the circuit shown in the figure is
oscillation will be
2Q 2 Q
(1) (2)
P 2P

Q 2 2 2Q
(3) (4)
P2 P
14. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength  is
incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible
work function. If the photoelectrons emitted from (1) 1.77 A (2) 3.23 A
the surface have the de-Broglie wavelength 0 (3) 5.3 A (4) Zero
then  is equal to
18. The escape velocity from a planet is ve. A tunnel
2mc  2mc  2 is dug along the diameter of the planet. If a small
(1)  0 (2)   0
h  h  body of mass m is dropped in to this tunnel then
2
the kinetic energy of the body as pass through
h  2mc  the centre of the planet is
(3) 0 (4)   0
2mc  h 
1 1
15. A capacitor is made from two metallic squares
(1) mv e2 (2) mv e2
2 4
plates having side 1 m and at distance 8.85 mm
(3) mv e2 (4) Zero
apart. The plates are then lowered vertically in to
a medium of dielectric constant K = 11 at speed 19. Energy level A, B and C of a certain atom
of 1 mm/s. If neglecting resistance of connecting corresponds to increasing values of energy i.e.
wires, the current drawn from the battery during EA < EB < EC. If 1,  2 and 3 are wavelengths of
the process is radiations corresponding to transitions C to B,
( = 8.85 × 10–12 farad/m) B to A and C to A respectively, then which of the
following relation is correct?
1 2
(1)  3 =
1 +  2

(2) 1 +  2 = 3

(3) 3 = 12 +  22

1 1
(4)  3 = +
1  2

20. Two blocks A and B are connected with the help

of ideal strings and pulleys as shown in the
(1) 5 A (2) 5 nA
figure. If the system is released from rest and all
(3) 5 A (4) 5 mA

(3)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
surfaces are smooth then acceleration of block 25. The reading of the ammeter and voltmeters
‘B’ will be connected in the given circuit are respectively

(1) 2A, 110 V (2) 2A, 0 V

(3) 2A, 55 V (4) 1A, 0 V
4g g 26. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is
(1) (2)
3 3 P
expanded slowly according to the law =
3g 2g V
(3) (4) constant. If the temperature of the gas increased
2 3
from T0 to 2T0, then heat supplied to the gas in
21. Longest wavelength of balmer series of H–atom
this process is
is 6563 Å. Longest wavelength of Lyman series
then, will be 3
(1) 2RT0 (2) RT0
2
(1) 1215 Å (2) 2245 Å
RT0
(3) 6000 Å (4) 4560 Å (3) RT0 (4)
2
22. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive
27. The count rate observed from a radioactive
sample is 1010 disintegrations per second whose
source at t second was N0 and at 4t second it
mean life is 109 second. The mass of an atom of
this radioisotope is 10–25 kg. The mass of the N 11
was 0 . The count rate observed at t second
radioactive sample is 16 2
will be
(1) 1 mg (2) 5 mg
N0 N0
(3) 6 mg (4) 9 mg (1) (2)
48 32
23. In the following circuit, the current flowing through
the 1 k resistor will be N0 N0
(3) (4)
64 128
28. In YDSE using a monochromatic light of
wavelength , the path difference corresponding
to any point having half of the maximum intensity
(n is any integer)
(1) 15 mA (2) 10 mA
 
(1) (2n + 1) (2) (2n + 1)
(3) 20 mA (4) 5 mA 2 4
24. The network shown below is a part of a complete  
circuit. If a current of 5 A is flowing through it and (3) (2n + 1) (4) (2n + 1)
8 16
it is decreasing at a rate of
3
10 A/s, then magnitude of potential difference 29. A uniform cube of side length l and mass m rests
between the points P & Q will be on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F
is applied normal to one of the faces at a point
above the centre of the face as shown in the
figure. Minimum value of F for which the cube
begins to tilt about the edge is (Friction is
(1) 20 V (2) 15 V
sufficient to stop slipping)
(3) 10 V (4) 7 V

(4)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

y = (5 cm) sin {(2 cm–1) x – (100) s–1 t}

Acceleration of a particle at x = 8 cm and
t = 0.11 s will be
(1) 20  2 cm/s2 (2) 10  2 cm/s2
(3) 5  2 cm/s2 (4) Zero
5 2 34. Two bodies of mass m and M are revolving under
(1) mg (2) mg
3 3 the gravitational force of each other. If they are
moving in circular orbits of radii r and R
7 4
(3) mg (4) mg respectively, then which of the following option is
5 3 correct?
30. Three mole of an ideal gas is taken through the GMm GMm
process ABC as shown in the figure. The total (1) = m2 r (2) = m2R
r2 R2
work done by the gas is
GMm GMm
(3) = M 2 R (4) = m2 r
(R + r )2 rR
35. An organ pipe ‘X’ open at one end vibrating in its
first overtone is in resonance with another organ
pipe ‘Y’ open at both end vibrating in its third
overtone. These pipes have lengths l1 and l2
l
respectively, then 1 will be
l2

4 3
(1) 2 RT0 ln2 (2) 4 RT0 ln2 (1) (2)
3 8
(3) – 12 RT0 ln2 (4) – 4 RT0 ln2
1 5
31. A particle of mass 10 g is executing SHM (3) (4)
2 6
according to the equation y = 4 sin (4t + /3),
having time period T. Kinetic energy of the
particle at t = T/4, will be SECTION-B
(1) 9.6 unit (2) 0.48 unit 36. The potential energy of a particle having mass
(3) 1.92 unit (4) 0.96 unit 1 kg is given by U = (4x + 3y) Joule, where
32. A uniform ladder of mass m = 40 kg rests against x and y are in metre. If the particle was at rest at
a smooth vertical wall making an angle 30º with (16, 6) at time t = 0, then speed of the particle
horizontal. The lower end of ladder rests on a when it crosses x axis will be
1 (1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s
rough floor having  = . An electrician having
3 (3) 2.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
mass 80 kg attempt to climb the ladder to repair 37. Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1800 W/m2
house wiring. Fraction of length than can be falls on a completely absorbing spherical surface
encountered by the electrician before the ladder having radius R as shown in the figure
begins to slip, will be
1
(1) (2) 1
2
1 1 Force exerted by beam on the sphere is
(3) (4)
4 3 (1) 108 × 10–10 N (2) 54  × 10–10 N
33. The equation for a wave travelling in x-direction (3) 216 × 10–10 N (4) Zero
on a stretched string is given by

(5)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
38. Three waves of equal frequency having 43. A crane machine is used to lift cement slabs of
amplitudes 12, 4 and 8 unit meet at a point with weight w at Delhi metro site. Machine have to lift
 the slabs from rest and have to put them on the
successive phase difference of . Amplitude of
2 elevated platform at a height ‘h’. If the maximum
resulting wave will be tension that the cable of crane machine can
tolerate is nw (n > 1), then minimum time in which
(1) 24 unit (2) 12 2 unit
ascent can be done by the machine is (Tmin = 0)
(3) 4 2 unit (4) 20 unit 1/2 1/2

 2h   2 nh 
39. The rate of emission of heat by a black body at (1)   (2)  
 (n − 1)g   (n − 1)g 
temperature T is Q. Rate of emission of heat by
another body having emissivity half unit and 1/2

 2(n − 1)  2h
same surface area at temperature 3T, is (3)   (4)
 n hg  g
(1) 81 Q (2) 9 Q
44. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v
(3) 33.5 Q (4) 40.5 Q
making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The
40. A block of mass 2 kg is projected on a rough magnitude of the angular momentum of the
horizontal surface with momentum 30 kg m/s. If projectile about the point of projection when the
block stopped after moving a distance 8 m on the particle is at its maximum height h is
surface then coefficient of friction between the
mv 3
block and the surface is (1) (2) m 2gh3
4 2g
(1) 1.4 (2) 0.4
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.25 mv 3
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2)
2 2g
41. A hemisphere of radius R and of mass 4m is at
rest on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in 45. When two waves with same frequency and
the figure. A small particle of mass m is released constant phase difference interfere,
from rest at the top of the hemisphere. The (1) There is gain of energy
angular velocity of the particle relative to centre of
(2) There is a loss of energy
hemisphere at an angular displacement , when
(3) The energy is redistributed and distribution
velocity of hemisphere is v, would be
remains constant in time
(4) The energy is redistributed and distribution
changes with time
46. A ball rolls on the top of stair way with a
5v horizontal velocity 4 m/s. If the steps are x m high
(1) and y m wide if the ball hits the edge of the nth
R cos 
step. Then value of n will be
2v cos 
(2) 2x 2u
R (1) n=
3v sin 
gy
(3)
R xu 2
(2) n =
(4)
5v gy 2
R sin 
2xu 2
42. Magnetic susceptibility for paramagnetic (3) n=
gy 2
substances is in order of
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–8 x 2u
(4) n=
(3) 10–3 (4) 105 gy

(6)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

47. The variation of angular position  of a point on a 1 5

rotating rigid body, with time is shown. (1) (2)
4 4
25 81
(3) (4)
16 25
49. PQ = QR = l rod is rotating in a uniform
magnetic field as shown about point P. Potential
difference between Q and R is

(1) The body is rotating clockwise

(2) The body is rotating anticlockwise
(3) The body is in linear motion
(4) The body is at rest
48. Two waves in the same medium are represented B l 2
(1) (2) Zero
by y − t curves in the figure. Find the ratio of 2
their average intensities.
B l 2
(3) B l
2
(4)
4
50. Monochromatic light of wavelength 3000Å is
incident on a surface area 4 cm2. If intensity of
light is 150 m W/m2. The rate at which photons
strike the target is
(1) 3  10 s (2) 6  10 s
13 3

(3) 9  10 s (4) 12  10 s
13 3

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 54. Correct order of ionisation energies is

51. 4 mol of A reacted with 6 mol of B according to (1) Li > Be > B

the reaction 2A + 3B ⎯⎯→ 2C. The maximum (2) Be > Li > B
moles of C formed is (3) Be > B > Li
(1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol (4) B > Be > Li
(3) 4 mol (4) 10 mol 55. Select the incorrect statement
52. The wavenumber of radiation having wavelength (1) Dipole moment of NH3 is greater than NF3
5000 Å is
(2) BF3 is a non polar molecule
(1) 2 × 10–7cm–1
(3) 1D = 3.33564 × 1030 C·m
(2) 2 × 10–6 cm–1 (4) CO2 contains polar bonds
(3) 2 × 104 cm–1 56. Shape of SF4 is
(4) 2 × 106 cm–1 (1) See saw
53. Lowest energy among the following for a (2) Square planer
multielectron atom is
(3) Tetrahedral
(1) 5d (2) 4f
(4) Pyramidal
(3) 6p (4) 7s

(7)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
57. Equal weights of oxygen and methane are mixed 65. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution
in an empty vessel at 300 K. The fraction of total forms
pressure exerted by oxygen is
(1)  Al ( OH)4 − (2)  Al ( OH)6 3−
1 2
(1) (2) 3+
(4)  Al (H2O ) 
3+
3 3 (3)  Al (H2O ) 
 6  4
1 2
(3) (4) 66. Heterocylic aromatic compound among the
2 5
following is
58. 2 mol of an ideal gas compressed reversibly and
isothermally from 10 L to 1 L at 300 K. The work
done during the process is (1) (2)
(1) 1.47 Kcal (2) 2.76 Kcal
(3) 5.52 Kcal (4) 6.9 Kcal
(3) (4)
59. Path function among the following is
(1) w (2) U 67. Most stable carbocation among the following is

(3) H (4) G
(1) (2)
60. Homogenous equilibrium among the following
is/are
(1) (3) (4)

(2) 68. A and B are

(3)
(1) Same molecules (2) Chain isomers
(4) All of these
(3) Geometric isomers (4) Position isomers
61. pH of 0.01 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is
69. Growth of fish gets inhibited when the
(pKa = 4.74)
concentration of dissolved oxygen of water is
(1) 3.37 below
(2) 5.05 (1) 6 ppm (2) 10 ppm
(3) 6.7 (3) 17 ppm (4) 5 ppm
(4) 6.99 70. Antiferromagnetic substance is
62. Example of electron deficient hydride is (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4

(1) B2H6 (2) LaH2.87 (3) CrO2 (4) MgFe2O4

71. For ideal solution, which of the following is true?
(3) MgH2 (4) BeH2
(1) mixH = 0 (2) mix G < 0
63. Which among the following can form stable
superoxide? (3) mix S > 0 (4) All of these
(1) Ba (2) Ca 72. Mass of silver deposited at cathode by passage
(3) Na (4) K of 9.65 A current for 1000 sec is (Ag = 108 u)
64. Solvay process is used to prepare (1) 27 (2) 54
(1) NaHCO3 (2) Na2CO3 (3) 10.8 g (4) 216 g
(3) K2CO3 (4) Both (1) and (2)

(8)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

73. xI− + yMnO−4 + H2O ⎯⎯→I2 + MnO2 + zOH−

82. Mischmetall contains maximum percent of
The value of x, y and z for balanced equation
respectively are (1) Lanthonoid metal (2) Carbon
(3) Calcium (4) Aluminium
(1) 6, 5 and 4 (2) 5, 6 and 4
83. 1 mol of CoCl3·5NH3 on reaction with excess of
(3) 6, 2 and 8 (4) 5, 6 and 8
AgNO3 solution gives
74. For a first order reaction it takes 15 second for
(1) 1 mol AgCl (2) 2 mol AgCl
75% completion. The half life of the reaction is
(3) 3 mol AgCl (4) No AgCl
(1) 5 sec (2) 7.5 sec
84. Co (NH3 ) (NO2 )  can show
(3) 10 sec (4) 11.25 sec  3 3

75. For a chemical reaction rate constant is nearly (1) Geometrical isomerism
doubled with 10°C rise in temperature. If r is rate (2) Optical isomerism
of reaction at 25°C then rate of reaction at 55°C
(3) Structural isomerism
is
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) r (2) 2r
85. Which compound, undergoes fastest SN1 reaction
(3) 4r (4) 8r among the following?
76. Which of the following is/are true for
chemisorption?
(1) (2)
(1) Caused by chemical bond formation
(2) It is irreversible
(3) (4)
(3) Highly specific in nature
SECTION-B
(4) All of these
86. Which ether cannot be prepared by Williamson’s
77. In froth floatation process the froth stabiliser used
ether synthesis?
is
(1) Pine oil (2) Fatty acid
(1)
(3) Xanthates (4) Cresol
78. Mond process is used for refining of
(2) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH3
(1) Ti (2) Ni
(3)
(3) Ag (4) Zn
79. In Ostwald process which of the following is/are (4)
formed?
(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) HNO3 (4) All of these 87.
80. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives The product D is

(1) XeOF4 (2) XeO2F2

(3) XeO3 (4) Xe (1) (2)

81. Maximum magnetic moment is of

(1) Ti3+ (2) Cr2+
(3) (4)
(3) Mn2+ (4) Ni2+

(9)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

88. The product B is

95. , A is

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
89. Benzaldehyde on reaction with 50% aq. NaOH
solution forms 96. In H-atom spectrum electron jumps from 5th
excited state to 1st excited state then total
(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) Sodium benzoate number of spectral lines, number of lines in
(3) Phenol (4) Both (1) and (2) Lyman series and Paschen series respectively
90. Which amine does not form sulphonamides on are
reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent? (1) 10, 4, 3 (2) 15, 0, 4
(3) 15, 4, 5 (4) 10, 0, 3
97. 100 mL of 0.04 M NaOH is mixed with 400 mL of
(1) (2) CH3NH2
0.02 M HCl solution. The pH of the resultant
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) (CH3)3N solution becomes

91. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives (1) 4.6 (2) 2.1
(3) 8.4 (4) 12.4
(1) n–Hexane (2) Gluconic acid
98. What amount of silver is deposited at cathode if
(3) Fructose (4) Saccharic acid
current of 10 ampere is passed for 965 sec
92. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of through AgNO3 solution?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1 (1) 1.08 g (2) 10.8 g

(3) Vitamin B2 (4) Vitamin D (3) 108 g (4) 0.108 g

99. The shape of Wilkinson’s catalyst is
93. Copolymerisation of 1, 3– butadiene and
acrylonitrile in the presence of peroxide catalyst (1) Tetrahedral
gives (2) Square planar

(1) Buna–S (2) Buna–N (3) Octahedral

(4) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Bakelite (4) Novolac
100. In which of the following reaction C–C bond
94. Which among the following is an antifertility drug?
formation does not take place?
(1) Novestrol (2) Salvarsan (1) Gattermann–Koch reaction
(3) Tetracycyline (4) Luminal (2) Étard reaction
(3) Benzoin condensation
(4) Swarts reaction

BOTANY
101. Prokaryotic cells do not have a. Have ‘9+2’ organisation of microtubules
(1) Genetic material (2) Ribosomes b. Are surrounded by membrane
(3) Cell membrane (4) Nucleolus c. Help in locomotion
102. Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are similar to each d. Give cartwheel appearance with no
other as both microtubules in the centre.

(10)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

(1) Only a and b (2) Only c 109. Fungi differ from plants in
(3) Only a and d (4) Only a, b and c (1) Being multicellular (2) Having cell wall
103. Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in (3) Being heterotrophic (4) Being eukaryotic
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase 110. The correct floral formula for family fabaceae is
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase
(1)
104. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Prophase I – Condensation of chromatin (2)
material
(3)
(2) Metaphase I – Formation of double
metaphasic plate (4)
(3) Anaphase I – Splitting of centromere 111. Racemose inflorescence is characterised by
(4) Telophase I – Reappearance of nuclear presence of
membrane (1) Younger flowers towards the apex
105. The taxonomic category that belongs to wheat is (2) Limited growth of main axis
(1) Poaceae (2) Solanum (3) Basipetal order of flowers
(3) Sapindales (4) Anacardiaceae
(4) Terminal flower at main axis
106. Match the following columns and select the
112. Dicot stem and monocot stem cannot be
correct option
differentiated on the basis of presence of
Column I Column II
(1) Pith
a. Herbarium (i) Found in schools and
institutes (2) Endodermis
b. Botanical garden (ii) Analytical in nature (3) Endarch xylem
c. Museum (iii) Quick source of (4) Scattered vascular bundles
reference 113. Ground tissue does not include
d. Key (iv) Ex situ conservation (1) Mesophyll tissue (2) Cortex
strategy
(3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
a b c d
114. Select the mismatched option
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Marchantia – Monoecious
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Pinus – Monoecious
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) Chara – Multicellular sex organs
107. Viroids differ from viruses as the former
115. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Volvox is
(1) Have genetic material
respectively
(2) Have capsid
(1) Haplontic and haplodiplontic
(3) Are parasitic
(2) Diplontic and haplodiplontic
(4) Are devoid of protein coat (3) Haplodiplontic and haplontic
108. The sac fungi (4) Haplodiplontic and diplontic
(1) Have aseptate mycelium 116. In active absorption of water
(2) Produce exogenous asexual spores (1) A negative pressure is developed in xylem
(3) Produce exogenous sexual spores (2) OP and energy play the major role
(4) Include yeast, mushrooms and truffles (3) Rate of absorption is high
(4) Movement of water is apoplastic

(11)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

117. Water potential of a solution is 125. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Any positive value (2) Always equal to p correct option.

(3) Negative (4) Zero Statement-A : ABA inhibits gibberellin mediated

amylase formation during germination of cereal
118. ______ helps in opening and closing of stomata.
grains.
(1) N (2) K
Statement-B : Gibberellins can delay the
(3) P (4) Zn ripening of fruits.
119. N2 fixing microbes can fix nitrogen because (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) They all are obligate anaerobes (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) They all contain nitrogenase
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) They all are heterotrophic
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) They all are chemoautotrophs
126. Which of the following statements is not correct
120. In C4 pathway, the primary accepter of CO2 is w.r.t. life span?
(1) A 5C compound (1) It is a specific trait of each organism
(2) RuBP
(2) Crow has more life span than parrot
(3) First stable product of Hatch and Slake cycle
(3) Life span are not necessarily correlated with
(4) PEP size or complexity of organisms
121. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation (4) It is period from birth to the natural death
(1) There is production of ATP only 127. Asexual reproduction cannot involve
(2) External source of electron is required (1) Gamete formation (2) Spore formation
(3) The only reaction centre is P700
(3) Syngamy (4) Clone formation
(4) Only stroma lamellae are involved
128. Select the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level
122. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Antipodal cell
(1) R. Q of fats is less than unity
(2) Central cell with definitive nucleus
(2) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs in
(3) Egg cell
glycolysis
(3) Acetyl CoA is completely oxidised via Kreb’s (4) Synergid cell
cycle 129. Pollination by water is not seen in
(4) Proton gradient is required for (1) Hydrilla (2) Zostera
photophosphorylation in mitochondria
(3) Vallisneria (4) Water hyacinth
123. The site for lactic acid and alcohol fermentation is
130. In which of the following organisms, female is
(1) Inter membrane space of mitochondria responsible for determining the sex of the
(2) Cytoplasm progeny?

(3) Matrix of mitochondria (1) Humans (2) Grasshopper

(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria (3) Birds (4) Drosophila

124. Adenine derivative phytohormone 131. A man whose mother was colourblind marries a
normal woman who had colourblind father then
(1) Speed up the malting process
what percentage of their daughter would be
(2) Delays senescence colourblind?
(3) Is known as anti-transpirant (1) 25% (2) 75%
(4) Produce parthenocarpic fruits (3) 50% (4) 100%

(12)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

132. In pedigree analysis, what is the symbol used for 138. Cyclosporin A is a/an
sex unspecified? (1) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
(1) (2) (2) Clot buster
(3) Immunosuppressive agent
(3) (4) (4) Protease used for detergent formation
139. Read the following statements and select the
133. Match the given columns and choose the correct correct option.
option
Statement-A : Treatment of waste water is done
Column I Column II by heterotrophic microbes naturally present in
a. hnRNA (i) RNA pol I sewage
b. 5.8S rRNA (ii) RNA pol II Statement-B : Activated sludge contains flocs.
c. 5S rRNA (iii) RNA pol III (1) Only statement A is correct
a b c (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) 140. In an interaction between two specieses, one
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) species is harmed and other species remains
134. i gene of lac operon unaffected. This relationship can be indicated by

(1) Synthesizes  galactosidase (1) Commensalism (2) Amensalism

(2) Produces repressor which binds to RNA (3) Parasitism (4) Predation
polymerase 141. Exponential population growth curve equation is
(3) Is a constitutive gene represented by
(4) Cannot express itself in absence of lactose dN dN K −N
(1) = rN (2) = rN  
135. According to human genome project, the least dt dt  K 
number of genes are present on
dN  K  dN
(1) An autosome (3) = rN   (4) = dN
dt K +N dt
(2) A chromosome present only in females
142. The organisms which convert plant matter into
(3) An allosome animal matter are called
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Primary consumers
SECTION-B (2) Primary carnivores
136. Atlas 66
(3) 2nd order consumers
(1) Is a variety of wheat
(4) Primary producers
(2) Is fortified with fats
143. The rate of decomposition of detritus is faster
(3) Is produced for resistance against hill bunt when
(4) Was produced by mutational breeding (1) It contains lignin, chitin, tannins and cellulose
137. In order to obtain virus free plants from a
(2) There is reduced aeration
diseased plant through tissues culture, the best
method is (3) There is no moisture

(1) Protoplast culture (2) Anther culture (4) Temperature is more than 25°C

(3) Meristem culture (4) Pollen culture 144. Biodiversity increases from
(1) Equator to poles

(13)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

(2) Poles to equator b. Parietal placentation (ii) Marigold

(3) Low latitude to high latitude c. Marginal placentation (iii) Mustard
(4) Low altitude to high altitude d. Axile placentation (iv) Pea
145. Find the incorrect match (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Photochemical smog – PAN, O3 and NO2 (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) Bhopal gas disaster – Methyl isocyanate 148. The hormone which promotes bolting also
promotes
(3) Green muffler scheme – Noise pollution
(1) Abscission of older leaves and fruits
(4) Chipko movement – Pandurang Hegde
(2) Petiole elongation in deep water rice plants
146. Consider the following statements A and B (3) Flowering in mango
Statement A : Viruses are inert outside their (4) Yield of sugarcane crop
specific host cell and are obligate parasites. 149. All of the following are common for facilitated and
Statement B : TMV possesses non infectious active transport, except
RNA and could be crystallized. (1) Requires special membrane proteins
(1) Statement A is incorrect (2) Highly selective
(2) Statement B is incorrect (3) Uphill transport
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Respond to inhibitors
150. In situ conservation strategy is
(4) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Wild life safari parks (2) Botanical gardens
147. Match the columns w.r.t. types of placentation in
different plants (3) Zoological parks (4) Wild life sanctuaries

a. Basal placentation (i) Tomato

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzyme
151. Choose the correctly matched pair action
(1) Nose tip – Hyaline cartilage (1) Increasing the concentration of succinate
(2) Tendons – Areolar tissue reverses the inhibition of succinic
(3) Fallopian tube – Ciliated epithelium dehydrogenase by malonate
(4) Blood vessels – Transitional epithelium
(2) Enzymes are usually denatured at high
152. An exclusive feature of neurons is the presence
temperature except in some cases.
of
(1) Nucleus (2) Nissl’s granules (3) A non competitive inhibitor binds to the active
(3) Cell membrane (4) Cytoplasm site of enzyme thus blocking the binding of
153. Choose the incorrect statement. substrate
(1) Sucrose is a non reducing disaccharide (4) Formation of E–S complex is mandatory for
(2) Lecithin is a phosphorylated glyceride found all enzymatic reactions
in lung alveoli 156. Which of the following is least likely to occur in
(3) Only peptide bonds are involved in stabilizing case of parietal cell atrophy in a healthy human?
tertiary structure of proteins
(1) Megaloblastic anaemia
(4) Lipids are not polymeric compounds
154. An alcoholic amino acid is (2) Impaired protein digestion
(1) Glycine (2) Serine (3) Excessive acidity
(3) Alanine (4) Tryptophan (4) Iron deficiency anaemia

(14)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

157. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. absorption 162. Deposition of calcium, fats and cholesterol
of the following products leading to narrowing of lumen of coronary arteries
is termed
(1) Fructose is absorbed by facilitated transport
(1) Angina (2) Heart failure
(2) Glucose and glycine are absorbed by active
transport (3) Atherosclerosis (4) Hypertension

(3) Amino acids are always absorbed only by 163. Aldosterone secreted by A in response to B
simple diffusion blood pressure, cause C of D from E .
(4) Long chain fatty acids and glycerol cannot be Choose the option that fill the blank correctly.
absorbed directly into blood.
A B C D E
158. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t respiratory
volumes and capacities. (1) Adrenal High Secretion K+ PCT
medulla
(1) VC = IC + ERV (2) FRC = ERV + RV
(2) Pituitary Low Reabsorption K+ DCT
(3) TLC = IC + VC (4) EC = TV + ERV
gland
159. Inspiration occurs when
(3) Adrenal High Secretion Na+ PCT
(1) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases
cortex
(2) Volume of pulmonary cavity increases
(4) Adrenal Low Reabsorption Na+ DCT
(3) Pressure within pulmonary cavity increases cortex
(4) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
164. Excretion in prawns occurs through
relax
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Green glands
160. Match the column I and column II
(3) Nephridia (4) Kidneys
Column – I Column – II
165. The muscle fibres of muscles of thigh exhibit all
(a) Pulmonary (i) pO2 = 40 mm Hg the following except
artery (1) Striations
(b) Systemic artery (ii) pCO2 = 45 mm Hg (2) Syncytium

(c) Systemic vein (iii) pCO2 = 40 mm Hg (3) Spindle shape

(4) Voluntary nature
(d) Aorta (iv) pO2 = 95 mm Hg
166.
(v) pO2 = 104 mm Hg

Choose the correct option.

(1) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d(iv)
(2) a (i), b (v), c (iii), d(iv)
(3) a (ii), b (v), c (iii), d(iv)
(4) a (i), b (ii), c (iv), d(v)
161. Atrial depolarisation in an electrocardiograph is
represented by
(1) P wave (2) QRS complex
(3) S-T interval (4) T wave

(15)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. bone Column – I Column – II

marked ‘x’
(a) Bombyx (i) Aschelminthes
(1) It is unpaired
(2) It’s a cranial bone (b) Trichinella (ii) Cnidaria

(3) It’s a facial bone (c) Gorgonia (iii) Urochordata

(4) It is a part of axial skeleton (d) Ascidia (iv) Cephalochordata
167. The joint between carpals is (v) Arthropoda
(1) Pivot joint (2) Gliding joint
Choose the correct option
(3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
(1) a (ii), b (v), c (iv), d(i)
168. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human eye
(2) a (v), b (i), c (ii), d(iii)
(1) Suspensory ligaments attached to ciliary
(3) a (v), b (i), c (ii), d(iv)
body hold the lens in place
(4) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d(v)
(2) Photosensitive compound of human eye is
made up of retinal and opsin 173. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. general
characters.
(3) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin-A
(1) Reptilia – 3 chambered heart
(4) The anterior part of retina contains blind spot
which lack cones and has few rods (2) Mammalia – Hair on body

169. Choose the correct match w.r.t. receptors and (3) Osteichthyes – Cartilaginous endoskeleton
their stimulus (4) Amphibia – External fertilisation
(1) Nociceptors - Pain 174. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. parts of
(2) Proprioreceptors - Pressure reproductive system of male cockroach and their
functions
(3) Meissner’s corpuscles - Heat
(4) Gustatoreceptors - Olfaction (1) Seminal – Secrete outer layer
vesicles of spermatophore
170. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. hormones
(1) Protein hormones can cross the cell (2) Mushroom – Provide nutrition to
membrane easily and have intracellular gland sperms
receptors (3) Testes – Formation of
(2) Steroid hormones like estrogen regulate the sperms
gene expression or chromosome function
(4) Vas deferens – Transportation of
(3) Hormones are produced in large quantities sperms
and their secretion can not be controlled by
175. Periplaneta americana does not possess
feedback mechanisms
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(4) Two or more hormones produce same effect
in target cells to bring about antagonistic (2) Compound eyes
action (3) Enterocoelom
171. Amino acid tyrosine is the precursor of (4) Open circulatory system
(a) Thyroxine (b) Melanin 176. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. organism and
(c) Adrenaline (d) Melatonin its mode of reproduction
Choose the correct answer (1) Euglena - Gemmule formation

(1) a only (2) a, b and c (2) Paramoecium - Transverse binary

fission
(3) a, c and d (4) a and d
(3) Hydra - Budding
172. Match column I and column II w.r.t. animals and
their respective phyla (4) Amoeba - Simple binary fission

(16)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

177. Which of the following processes w.r.t human vertebrates evolution

sperm does not occur in male reproductive tract?
(3) Presence of tail in Vestigial organ
(1) Spermatocytogenesis human child
(2) Capacitation
(4) Hearts of bat, man Homology
(3) Spermiation and cheetah
(4) Spermiogenesis
184. Which of the following is least likely to make
178. The human male ejaculates about 'A' sperms changes in a Hardy Weinberg population at
during coitus, of which for normal fertility 'B' % equilibrium?

must have normal shape and size and at least (1) Genetic drift
'C' % of them must show vigorous motility. (2) Random mating
(3) Gene flow
Choose the option that correctly identifies A, B
and C. (4) Genetic recombination
185. Two mya, an ancestor of Homo sapiens sapiens
A B C
who ate only fruits and hunted with stone
(1) 200 – 300 million 70 30 weapons was
(2) 200 – 300 million 60 40 (1) Homo habilis
(3) 200 – 300 million 40 60 (2) Homo erectus
(4) 200 – 300 million 30 70 (3) Australopithecus
(4) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
179. A 28 year old woman whose menstrual cycle is of
44 days is trying to conceive. On roughly which SECTION-B
day of her cycle should she have sexual 186. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
intercourse for maximum chances of fertilisation? immunoglobulins
(1) 14th day (2) 24th day (1) IgA is present in colostrum
(3) 30th day (4) 40th day (2) IgM has ten antigen binding sites
180. A method of sterilization in which a part of (3) IgG is mainly responsible for primary immune
fallopian tube is cut or tied up is response
(1) Called vasectomy (4) Some immunoglobulins can cross placenta
(2) A barrier method of contraception and provide immunity to the foetus
(3) A method of inhibition of ovulation 187. Choose the correct feature w.r.t. the compound
(4) Highly effective for birth control shown below.
181. All the following are in vivo fertilisation techniques
except
(1) AI (2) IUI
(3) GIFT (4) ICSI
182. Industrial melanism is an example of
(1) Directional selection
(2) Balancing selection
(3) Stabilising selection
(4) Diversifying selection (1) One of its derivatives causes hallucinations if
183. Choose the incorrect match taken in large amounts
(2) Its receptors are not present in CNS
(1) Eyes of Octopus and Convergent
(3) Its acetylation results in the production of a
mammals evolution
white, crystalline compound
(2) Bones of forelimbs of Divergent (4) It acts as stimulant in lower doses

(17)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

188. Choose the odd one w.r.t. fresh water fishes 195. If a gene of interest is inserted within the coding
(1) Hilsa (2) Catla sequence of an enzyme -galactosidase, the
(3) Labeo (4) Cirrhina recombinants will
189. Match column I and column II w.r.t. diseases and (1) Appear blue in colour
their causative agent (2) Be sensitive to ampicillin
Column – I Column – II (3) Be resistant to tetracycline
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema (4) Appear white in colour
(b) Syphilis (ii) Anopheles 196. Choose the odd one w.r.t division
(c) Malaria (iii) Entamoeba Gnathostomata.
(d) Elephantiasis (iv) Plasmodium (1) Amphibia
(2) Osteichthyes
(v) Wuchereria
(3) Cyclostomata
Choose the correct option
(4) Chondrichthyes
(1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d(v) 197. Which of the following reagents would be useful
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d(iv) for visualizing DNA fragments that have been
(3) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d(v) separated by electrophoresis in an agarose gel?
(4) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d(v) (1) Diphenylamine (2) Trypan blue
190. Complete the analogy (3) Methyl orange (4) EtBr
198. Which of the following is an example of fish-like
Molecular glue : Ligase : : Molecular scissors :
reptile?
(1) Taq polymerase
(1) Ichthyosaurs (2) Ichthyophis
(2) Restriction endonuclease (3) Tuataras (4) Stegosaurs
(3) Plasmids 199. Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium lines
(4) Alkaline phosphatase (1) PCT (2) Afferent arteriole
191. Which of the following is not a step of process of (3) Efferent arteriole (4) Henle’s loop
PCR? 200. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
(1) Denaturation of DNA the sectional view of cochlea. Which of the
(2) Elution from agar plate following option correctly represents the label ‘A’
or ‘B’?
(3) Annealing of primer
(4) Extension using polymerase
192. The most appropriate vector used for cloning
genes into higher organisms is
(1) Bacteriophage (2) E. coli
(3) Retrovirus (4) pBR322
193. Golden rice has been developed to cure
(1) Scurvy (2) Night blindness
(3) Rickets (4) Beri beri
194. Tobacco plants have been made resistant to
(1) A-Scala tympani
nematode infection by a technique called
(2) A-Scala media
(1) RNAi (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) B-Basilar membrane
(3) PCR (4) Blotting (4) B-Tectorial membrane

❑ ❑ ❑

(18)