CODE-C

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 MOCK TEST for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Code-C

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered /unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
[SECTION-A] obtained in air to the third minima obtained in
1. Consider a series LR circuit with a switch as  4
water is   of water = 
shown in figure. If the switch S is closed down at  3
t = 0 then, the magnitude of change in flux
4 4
through the ideal inductor in one time constant of (1) (2)
3 5
the circuit is
3 8
(3) (4)
5 5

3. An unpolarised beam of light falls on a system of

four polaroids, which are arranged consecutively
in a line such that each polaroid is turned through
 e − 1  e − 1 the angle 45° with respect to the preceding one.
(1) 10   (2)  
 e   e  The percentage of incident intensity stopped by
 e  1 the system is
(3)   (4)
 e − 1 e
(1) 6.25 % (2) 93.75 %
2. In Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of
path difference corresponding to third maxima (3) 25 % (4) 73.25 %

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Mock Test (Code-C)

4. In a vertical spring mass system if stretching in

spring at equilibrium near earth surface is x0 then
the extension in spring at a height 1600 km from
earth surface is (radius of earth R = 6400 km)

5 5 x0
(1) x (2)
16 0 4

16 x0 x0
(3) (4)
25 4
5. A block of mass 5 kg is hanging over an ideal 2v 6v
(1) (2)
pulley through a string (ideal). The other end of 3l 11l
the string is pulled by a constant force F such that
the kinetic energy of the block increases by 5 J in 3v 4v
(3) (4)
1s. If the block is pulled from rest then (take 7l 3l
g = 10 m/s2)
9. A thin rod of length 3l and mass 3m is bent as
(1) Tension in the string is 50 N shown in figure. Then moment of inertia of the
(2) Work done by F is 5 J in 1s given structure about an axis passing through
point O and perpendicular to the plane containing
(3) Work done by gravity on block in 1s is –5J rod is
(4) Tension in the string is 57.07 N
6. Four particles A, B, C and D are situated at the
corners of a square of side d. They start moving
with same speed v along the sides of square in
same sense. Then their relative velocity of
d
approach after t = is
2v

v
(1) (2) 2v
2 ml 2
(1) (2) ml 2
3
v
(3) (4) 0
2 17 2 3 2
(3) ml (4) ml
7. A solid cylinder of radius R is kept at rest on a 12 2
smooth horizontal surface. A horizontal force is
applied to move the cylinder under pure rolling. 10. The potential energy function in one dimension is
Then height of force from horizontal surface is given as shown in figure. If total energy of the
particle is 5J. Then in the region from x1 to x2, the
R value of its kinetic energy will be
(1) R (2)
2

3R
(3) (4) 2R
2
8. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is hanging
vertically at one end as shown in figure. A bullet
m
of mass fired with velocity v strikes the rod in
2
(1) 8 J (2) 11 J
the middle and sticks to it then angular velocity of
rod about hing just after being hit is (3) 5 J (4) 0 J
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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

11. In the shown figure the maximum value of
horizontal force F for which both the blocks move
together without slipping between them is (take
g = 10 m/s2)
15. A solid cylindrical body floats along its length in
water with half of its height submerged. In the
same way if it floats with one fourth of height
submerged in an oil then the density of oil
(in g/cm3) is

1
(1) (2) 4
4
(1) 25 N (2) 30 N
1
(3) 2 (4)
(3) 35 N (4) 40 N 2
12. A rope can with stand the 120% weight of a 16. The accuracy in the measurement of length
monkey tries to climb up along this rope. The 50 cm of a simple pendulum is 1 mm. If time
maximum acceleration of monkey on the rope period of 2s is determined by measuring the time
such that the rope does not break is of 50 oscillations using a watch of resolution 0.2s.
(take g = 10 m/s2) The percentage error in the determined value of g
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2 is

(3) 2 m/s2 (4) 1.2 m/s2 (1) 0.2% (2) 0.3%

13. If the inverse square law of gravitation becomes
(3) 0.6% (4) 0.4%
an inverse cube law of gravitation, then the
following statements 17. Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by
(a) The planet will have an elliptical orbit y = 1.2cos(t + 2x). If this wave is incident on a
denser medium and reflected from it such that
(b) The planet may trace a circular orbit
1
amplitude of this reflected wave becomes of
(c) The path of projectile near the earth surface 3
is parabolic to a greater extent the incident wave then equation of the reflected
wave is
Then the incorrect statement(s) is/are

(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (1) y = 0.4sin(t + 2x)

(3) (b) and (c) only (4) All (2) y = – 0.4sin(t – 2x)
14. A uniform wire of length l and mass m is
(3) y = – 0.4cos(t + 2x)
suspended from the ceiling and a block of mass
m is suspended at the other end of wire. If A is
(4) y = – 0.4cos(t – 2x)
the area of cross section of the wire, then

(1) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire 18. A travelling wave pulse is given by
10
2 mg y= where symbols have their usual
is 2 + ( x − 3t )2
A
meanings; x, y are in meter and t is in second,
(2) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire
then
is zero

(3) Tensile stress in wire at the point attached to (1) The pulse is travelling along + ve y – axis

2 mg (2) The pulse is travelling along – ve y – axis

the ceiling is
A
(3) The amplitude of wave pulse is 10 m
(4) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire is
2 mg (4) The velocity of wave pulse is 3 m/s

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Mock Test (Code-C)

19. For a particle executing S.H.M with amplitude A, 23. If P is pressure, V is volume, K is Boltzmann
the position varies with time according to the constant and T is absolute temperature of gas,
following graph. The corresponding position PV
then the quantity gives
equation with time is given by KT
(1) Molecular mass of the gas
(2) Kinetic energy of the gas
(3) Number of molecules of the gas
(4) Number of moles of the gas
24. In the given figure if U1 and U2 be the change
in internal energy in processes A and B
(1) x = A sint respectively then
(2) x = A + B sint
(3) x = B + A cost
(4) x = B + A sint
20. A particle is executing S.H.M along x-axis
with origin as the mean position. If velocity v of (1) U1 + U2 = 0
the particle is related with position x as
(2) Net heat will be rejected by the system in
9v2 = 36 – x2 then time period of the oscillation
process A + B
will be
(3) Total work done by the system is positive in
(1) 3s (2) 3s the process A + B
(3) 6s (4) 6s (4) Both (1) and (2)
21. Equal mole of nitrogen and helium are mixed. 25. The temperature of a body falls from 52°C to
The ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to that 44°C in 4 minutes when placed in a surrounding
in nitrogen is of constant temperature 18°C. The time taken for
the temperature of the body to become 40°C is
5 15
(1) (2) (1) 5 min (2) 2.5 min
16 8
(3) 4 min (4) 2 min
2 7
(3) (4) 26. A hydraulic lift used to lift a stone of mass
5 5
1000 kg is as shown in figure. If A1 = 10 cm2 and
22. A gas is contained in a vessel of volume V0 at a A2 = 2m2 then the minimum force F required to lift
pressure P0. If the gas is to be pumped out by a the stone is (take g = 10 m/s2)
suction pump of stroke volume V then number of
moles of gas remained in the vessel after two
strokes is (where, R is gas constant, T is constant
temperature of gas)

P0V03 P0V02
(1) (2)
RT (V0 + V )2 RT (V0 + V )2
(1) 5 × 103 N (2) 5 × 104 N
P0V03 P0V02
(3) (4) (3) 5 N (4) 50 N
RT (V0 + V )3 RT (V0 + V )3
27. 125 identical and nearly spherical rain drops are
falling through atmosphere vertically with a
terminal speed of 2m/s. If these drops coalesce
to form a big drop, then terminal speed of the big
drop is

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

(1) 5 m/s (2) 50 m/s (1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (2) E4 > E3 > E2 > E1
(3) 25 m/s (4) 125 m/s (3) E4 > E3 = E2 > E1 (4) E4 > E3 = E1 > E2
28. The following graph shows the variation of 32. A part of the circuit is as shown in figure. The
maximum kinetic energy (Kmax) of the current in 2  branch is
photoelectrons emitted versus frequency (f) of
incident radiation in an experiment of
photoelectric effect. The stopping potential of the
surface for the incident light of wavelength
4133.33Å is nearly

(1) 1 A (2) 4 A
(3) 0.5 A (4) 0 A
33. In the following n–p–n transistor amplifier circuit
 = 100. The VCE and VBE of the transistor is

(1) 1.0 V (2) 0.5 V

(3) 3.0 V (4) 2.5 V
29. In a series LCR circuit with R = 10 , L = 1H and
C = 10.1 F connected across a variable
frequency 220 V ac supply then the resonant
frequency and the corresponding average power
transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle at
resonant frequency will be
(1) 50 Hz, 4840 W (2) 6Hz, 4800 W
(1) 3V, 0.1V (2) 0.1V, 3V
(3) 50 Hz, 2000 W (4) 60 Hz, 4000 W
(3) 1V, 3V (4) 1V, 0.1V
30. Two hollow concentric spheres have radii a and b
34. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and
(a < b) carrying charges +Q and –Q respectively.
plate separation d is filled with a dielectric of
The potential difference between their surfaces is
dielectric constant K = 2 and thickness d/3. The
5 V. Now the outer sphere is given a charge of
effective capacitance of the capacitor will be
–2Q then the potential difference between their
surfaces will now be A0 A0
(1) 6 (2) 3
(1) 10 V (2) 2.5 V d 2d
(3) 5 V (4) 20 V 6 A0 5 A0
(3) (4)
31. Electric potential (V) in a region varies with x co- 5 d 3 d
ordinate as shown in figure. If E1, E2, E3, and E4 35. A conducting triangular frame is placed in x – y
are magnitude of fields for the shown regions plane as shown in figure. If magnetic field B is
then varying w.r.t position x as B = 2x2 tesla, then emf.
Induced (in volts) in the loop is

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Mock Test (Code-C)

3 2 (1) 5 mA (2) 2.5 mA

(1) 3l 3 (2) l
2 10 5
2
(3) mA (4) mA
(3) 3l (4) Zero 3 3

[SECTION-B] 41. Consider a thin prism of angle 3° and refractive

36. Apparent dips in two planes normal to each other index 1.5. A horizontal incident ray on prism is
are 30° and 45° respectively. True dip at that shown in figure. If a plane mirror is vertically
place is placed close to the prism then total deviation
produced in the incident ray is
 1 
(1) tan−1 ( 2 ) (2) tan−1  
 2
 1
(3) tan−1 ( 2) (4) tan−1  
2
37. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number z is in an
(1) 178.5 (2) 177°
excited state of quantum number 2n. It can emit a
photon of maximum energy 204 eV. If it makes a (3) 180° (4) 180.5°
transition in quantum state n, a photon of energy 42. A telescope has an objective of focal length
40.8 eV is emitted the value of n will be 150 cm and magnifying power 30. The distance
(1) 1 (2) 2 between two lenses in normal adjustment will be
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 95 cm (2) 145 cm
38. A particle is moving along x-axis whose equation (3) 125 cm (4) 155 cm
−Kt
of motion is given by x =  + e , where ,  43. A cell is balanced on a length of 150 cm of a
and k are +ve constant,  > , t is time consider potentiometer wire. Now a resistance of 5 is
the following statements connected in parallel to the cell, then the balance
(I) x and v are positive for all time point is obtained at 100 cm. The value of internal
(II) x and a (acceleration) are positive for all time resistance of cell is
(1) Only I is correct (1) 2.5  (2) 20 
(2) Only II is correct (3) 10  (4) 25 
(3) Both I and II are correct
44. When a 20  resistor is connected in parallel with
(4) Neither I nor II is correct
a moving coil galvanometer then its deflection
39. A particle is projected at an angle 60° with reduces from 75 divisions to 25 division then the
horizontal with speed 10 m/s. The time after resistance of galvanometer is
1
which the speed of the particle remains times (1) 10  (2) 20 
3
(3) 40  (4) 60 
of its initial speed is
45. Three infinite wires are joined at O as shown in
2
(1) 5 3 s (2) s figure. If wire (1) carries a current i as shown in
3 figure then net magnetic field at point C will be
1
(3) s (4) 10 3 s
3
40. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and
plate separation d is charged by a current
of 5 mA. The displacement current through a
2A
plane surface of area parallel to the plates
3
and drawn symmetrically between the plates, is

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

o i o i (3) Of the viscous forces causing the speed of

(1) (2) satellite and hence height to gradually
2r 4r
decrease
o i
(3) (4) Zero (4) Of collision with other satellites
8r
48. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a
46. Two block of mass m and 2m connected with potential difference V from a cell and then
light spring are placed on the smooth horizontal disconnected from it. A charge +Q is now given
surface A force F is applied on block of mass m to it’s plate. The potential difference across the
are shown in the figure. If acceleration of block of capacitor is now
mass m is a then the acceleration of block of
mass 2m will be Q
(1) V (2) V +
C

Q Q
(3) V + (4) V − , If Q  CV
F F 2C C
(1) (2) 49. A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic. A hydrogen
2m 3m
molecule is
F − ma (1) Diamagnetic
(3) a (4)
2m (2) Paramagnetic

47. Satellites orbiting the earth have finite life and (3) Ferromagnetic
sometimes debris of satellite fall to the earth. (4) Depends on temperature
This is because 50. A coil of inductance 0.4 mH connected to a
(1) The solar cell and batteries in satellites run capacitor 400 pF. To what wavelength, is this
out circuit tuned?
(2) The laws of gravitation predict a trajectory (1) 733.6 m (2) 743.6 m
spiralling inwards (3) 753.6 m (4) 763.6 m

CHEMISTRY
[SECTION-A]
51. Maximum number of atoms is present in
(1) 0.1 mol NaOH (2) 0.2 mol C6H12O6 54.
(3) 0.3 mol Na2C2O4 (4) 0.1 mol H2O
52. Molarity of an aqueous solution containing 12 g Choose the incorrect option based on above
urea in 500 ml solution is reaction

(1) 0.2 M (2) 0.3 M (1) A is anilinium hydrogensulphate

(3) 0.6 M (4) 0.4 M (2) B is sulphanilic acid

(3) A has electron withdrawing group attached
53. Number of electrons in copper atom for which with ring
azimuthal quantum number (l) is 2, is
(4) C has –NO2 group attached with ring
(1) 6 55. The major organic product in the reaction
(2) 9 CH3 — OCH(Ph)2 + HI (1 eq) → (major) product,
is
(3) 10
(1) CH3I and (C6H5)2CHI
(4) 7
(2) CH3I and (C6H5)2CH(OH)
(3) CH3OH and (C6H5)2CHI
(4) CH3OH and (C6H5)2CH(OH)

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Mock Test (Code-C)

56. de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass of
6.62 × 10–22 kg moving with 1 m/s speed is
(Planck’s constant is 6.62 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.01 Å
65. C–O bond length in CO32− ion is
(1) Less than that of C–O bond length in CO2
(2) Less than that of C–O bond length in CO

(3) 0.2 Å (4) 0.02 Å (3) Equal to C–O bond length in CO2
57. Element of highest first negative electron gain (4) More than that of C–O bond length in CO
enthalpy is 66. In which of the following pair of molecules
(1) N (2) O London forces are the dominating intermolecular
(3) F (4) Cl forces of attraction?
58. Glucose on reaction with HNO3 forms (1) HCl and HCl (2) HCl and H2O
(1) Gluconic acid (2) Saccharic acid (3) N2 and N2 (4) NH3 and HCl
(3) n-hexane (4) Gluconaldehyde 67. Gas which can effuse out from a 8L container
59. Pair of compounds, which cannot be most rapidly under identical conditions of
distinguished by iodoform test is pressure and temperature is
(1) CH3OH and CH3CH2OH (1) He (2) CO2
(2) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2OH (3) N2 (4) O2
(3) CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3 68. If equal masses of three gases H2, He and Ne
(4) CH3COCH3 and PhCOCH2CH3 are mixed in a 6L container then fraction of
60. Incorrect statement about AlCl3 is pressure contributed by H2 is
(1) It is an electron deficient molecule. (Ne : 20 g mol–1)
(2) It achieves stability by forming a dimer
1 1
(3) It exists as [Al(H2O)6]3+ ion in its acidified (1) (2)
2 8
aqueous solution.
(4) The chloride bridge is a three-centre two 1 5
(3) (4)
electron bond. 4 8
61. Species having sp3d2 hybridization around
69. Reaction for which H is less than U at 27°C is
central atom is
– (1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(1) I3 (2) XeF2
(3) SF6 (4) XeO3 (2) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
62. Incorrect match of polymers among the following (3) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
is
(4) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g)
(1) Polyamides → Nylon 6, 6
70. If 1 mol of an ideal gas at 300K expanded
(2) Phenol formaldehyde → Bakelite reversibly from 1 atm pressure and 5L volume to
(3) Synthetic rubber → Buna-N 0.2 atm pressure and 25 L volume then work
(4) Biodegradable → Dacron done involved in the process is
63. Non-polar molecule among the following is (1) –200 Rln2 (2) –300 Rln2
(1) CH4 (2) CH3F (3) –300 Rln5 (4) –200 Rln5
(3) CH3Br (4) PF3Cl2 71. Select the process in which entropy change is
+ positive
64. During the conversion of N2 from N2, electron will
(1) Boiling of egg
be lost from
(1) 2px (2) 2pz (2) Streching of rubber band
* * (3) Formation of NH3(g) by using N2(g) and H2(g)
(3) 2 p x (4)  2 pz
(4) Freezing of molten aluminium

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

72. pH of aqueous solution 0.1N of NaOH is (4) Ba(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 <
(1) 1 (2) 10 Be(OH)2
80. Among the following which is most susceptible to
(3) 11 (4) 13
nucleophilic substitution reaction?
73. Select the pair of solution which cannot act as
buffer.
(1) NaOH(aq) and CH3COOH(aq)
(1) (2)
(2) CH3COONa(aq) and CH3COOH(aq)
(3) NH4Cl(aq) and NH4OH(aq)
(4) NH4NO3(aq) and HNO3(aq)
74. If solubility product of Zn(OH)2 is 4 × 10–15 then
concentration of [OH–] in saturated solution of
Zn(OH)2 will be (3) (4)
(1) 10–5 mol L–1 (2) 2 × 10–5 mol L–1
(3) 4 × 10–5 mol L–1 (4) 3 × 10–5 mol L–1
75. Standard electrode potential of following reaction 81. Which of the following is an example of
is antiseptic?
6Fe2+(aq) + Cr2O72–(aq) + 14H+(aq) → 6Fe3+ + (1) Tincture of iodine (2) Norethindrone
2Cr3+ + 7H2O (3) Chloramphenicol (4) Salvarsan

(E0
Fe3+ /Fe2+
= 0.77 V and E0Cr O 2− /Cr3+ = 1.33 V
2 7
) 82. Aromatic species is

(1) 0.26 V (2) 0.56 V

(1) (2)
(3) 1.22 V (4) 1.12 V
76. Electron precise hydride among the following is
(3) (4)
(1) CH4 (2) PH3
(3) NaH (4) B2H6 83. Alkanes of highest boiling point among the
77. Percentage strength of solution of 15 V H2O2 is following is
(1) 4.55 (2) 9.1 (1) Pentane (2) 2-methyl butane
(3) 2.75 (4) 2.05 (3) Butane (4) 2-methyl propane
78. Alkali metal of highest density among the 84. Which will give fastest electrophilic aromatic
following is substitution among the following?
(1) Na (2) Li
(3) K (4) Cs
79. Correct order of solubility of hydroxides of (1) (2)
alkaline earth metals is
(1) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 <
Ba(OH)2
(2) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 <
Sr(OH)2 (3) (4)
(3) Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 <
Be(OH)2

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Mock Test (Code-C)

85. Which of the following solvents is a carcinogen 94. Outer orbital complex is formed by
and was earlier used as solvent for dry cleaning?
(1) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− (2) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(1) H2O (2) Cl2C = CCl2
(3) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 (4) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
(3) Liquid CO2 (4) H2O2
95. Match the following
[SECTION-B] Column I Column II
86. Correct relation of edge length and atomic radius (i) EDTA a. Electroplating
of atom in bcc unit cell is with gold
(ii) DMG b. Black and white
(1) a = 2r (2) 3a = 4r
photography
(3) a = 2 2r (4) a = 2r (iii) [Au(CN)2]– c. Lead poisoning
87. The incorrect statement from the following is (iv) [Ag(S2O3)2]3– d. Detection of Ni2+
(1) O2, Cu2+, Fe3+ and Cr3+ are paramagnetic in (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
nature. (1) d b a c
(2) NaCl, KCl and CsCl show schottky defect (2) d c a b
(3) c b a d
(3) Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 68%
(4) c d a b
(4) Diamond and ZnS have similar lattices
96. Which among the following is/are representative
88. Number of moles of CO2(g) dissolved in 100 mol element(s)?
of water at 298 K is (1) Ba (2) Sc
(Pressure of CO2 = 0.5 bar, KH(CO2) = 1.6 × 103 (3) In (4) Both (1) and (3)
bar) 97. Which among the following is acidic in nature and
(1) 0.2 mol (2) 0.3 mol blue in colour?
(3) 0.02 mol (4) 0.03 mol (1) N2O5 (2) N2O4
89. The charge required to reduce 0.2 mol (3) N2O3 (4) N2O
nitrobenzene into aniline is 98. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) 0.6 F (2) 0.2 F (1) Higher the gold number, lower the protecting
power of colloid
(3) 1.2 F (4) 1.6 F
(2) Coagulating power and coagulation value is
90. Time required (in hr) to decompose a reactant inversely related
upto 93.75% in first order reaction is
(3) Gelatin is negatively charged sol
(t1/2 = 3 hr) (4) In milk, water is dispersed in liquid fat
(1) 9 (2) 6 99. Which among the following will react at fastest
(3) 12 (4) 15 rate with ZnCl2/HCl?
91. Select the positive colloid among the following
(1) Gold sol (2) Haemoglobin
(3) Congo red sols (4) Gelatin sol (1) (2)
92. Slag formed during the extraction of copper from
chalcopyrite is
(1) CaO (2) CaSiO3 (3) (4)
(3) Ca3(PO4)2 (4) FeSiO3
93. Actinoids element which shows maximum 100. The numbers of mole of phenylhydrazine needed
number of oxidation states is to form fructosazone when react with fructose is
(1) Pa (2) Pu (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Es (4) Md (3) 3 (4) 4

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

BOTANY
[SECTION-A] 106. Which of the given taxonomic aids provide the
index to the plant species found in particular area?
101. Plasma membrane is an absolute requirement
(1) Flora (2) Monograph
for living organisms, because it is/has
(3) Catalogue (4) Manual
(1) Responsible for the relationship of a cell
107. A protozoan which is endoparasite and does
with the outside world.
not have locomotory structure is
(2) Composed of lipids that are arranged in a
(1) Trypanosoma (2) Paramoecium
bilayer.
(3) Plasmodium (4) Amoeba
(3) Composed of protein.
108. ssDNA containing virus is
(4) Variable ratio of protein and lipid in different (1)  × 174 bacteriophage
cell types.
(2) Pox virus
102. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t plant cells. (3) Herpes virus
(1) Are generally smaller than animal cell (4) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(2) Have a rigid cell wall made up of cellulose 109. Select the correct match w.r.t ‘aestivation’ of
(3) Generally lack centrioles and centrosome petals.
(1) Valvate – Pea
(4) Contain plastid
(2) Twisted – Cassia
103. In eukaryotes, histone proteins are formed
(3) Imbricate – Cotton
during which phase of cell cycle?
(4) Vexillary – Bean flower
(1) G1 (2) S
110. In root tip, root hairs develop from
(3) G2 (4) M (1) Region of root cap
104. Match Column I with Column II w.r.t stages of (2) Region of elongation
prophase – I. (3) Region of meristematic activity
Column I Column II (4) Region of maturation
(A) Leptotene (i) Synapsis 111. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
(B) Zygotene (ii) Crossing over Endodermis.
(1) It is the innermost layer of cortex
(C) Pachytene (iii) Desynapsis
(2) In transverse section, the cells of
(D) Diplotene (iv) Condensation
endosperm appear barrel - shaped or oval
and coiling of
– shaped.
chromatin fibres
(3) The cells constituting endodermis are living
A B C D and may contain starch grains.
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) Are present in monocot stem
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
112. Select the correct statement w.r.t monocot leaf.
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Is dorsiventral
(2) Stomata is equal in number on lower and
105. Standardisation of scientific name for animals
upper epidermis
is done by
(3) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade
(1) ICNCP (2) ICZN
and spongy parenchyma
(3) ICBN (4) ICNB
(4) Bulliform cells can not be present

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

113. Which of the given plant groups is known as 121. Consider the given diagram and identify the
‘amphibians of the plant kingdom’? parts labelled as ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperms
114. Which of the given structure represent juvenile
phase in life cycle of moss?
(1) Leafy gametophyte (2) Oospore
(3) Protonema (4) Capsule
115. The water potential of pure water at standard (1) ‘A’ is a peripheral membrane protein
temperatures, which is not under any pressure complex.
is always (2) ‘A’ is the site for synthesis of ATP from
(1) Negative (2) Equal to  s ADP and inorganic phosphate.

(3) One (4) Zero (3) ‘B’ contains the enzyme which catalyses
conversion of succinic acid to form fumaric
116. For a flaccid cell,
acid during aerobic respiration.
(1) P = 0 (2) DPD = 0
(4) ‘B’ contains all enzymes required in citric
(3) OP – TP = 0 (4) DPD = TP acid cycle.

117. Select the most appropriate reason for curling 122. Which of the given intermediates of amphibolic
of root hairs during nodule formation. pathway is raw material for amino acid
synthesis?
(1) Attachment of bacterium to epidermal root
hair cell (1)  – ketoglutaric acid (2) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Release of Nod factors by Rhizobia (3) Succinyl CoA (4) Acetyl CoA
(3) Multiplication of bacteria 123. How many of the auxins given in the box are
(4) Production of infection thread natural?

118. Select the correct pairs of microorganisms IAA, IBA, NAA, 2, 4 - D, 2, 4, 5 - T

w.r.t free-living nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria?
(1) 3 (2) 2
(1) Anabaena and Nostoc
(3) 4 (4) 5
(2) Anabaena and Azotobacter
124. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
(3) Nostoc and Rhizobium
physiological effects of ethylene.
(4) Azotobacter and Rhizobium
(1) Increases the number of female flowers in
119. In which of the given plants, double fixation of cucumber
CO2 occurs?
(2) Accelerates abscission
(1) Rice (2) Potato
(3) Increases sensitivity of roots to gravity
(3) Sorghum (4) Wheat
(4) Breaks dormancy
120. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are
125. Which of the given is correct w.r.t increasing
required to fix 6 molecules of CO2 through
order of life – span of various organisms?
Calvin cycle?
(1) Fruit fly < Crow < Cow < Crocodile
(1) 6 ATP and 6 NADPH
(2) Butterfly < Cow < Parrot < Elephant
(2) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
(3) Rice plant < Banana tree < Rose < Banyan
(3) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(4) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH (4) Horse < Tortoise < Crocodile < Elephant

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

126. Syngamy occurs outside the body in 133. How many amino acid sequences will be
(1) Bryophytes present in a polypeptide chain when genetic
information flows from the following stretch of
(2) Pteridophytes
DNA?
(3) Gymnosperm 3 ATGCATGC ATGCATC 5 Template strand
(4) Most of the algae 5 TACGTACG TACGTAG 3 coding strand
127. Flowers have feathery stigma to easily trap the (1) 5 (2) 4
air borne pollen grains is the characteristic (3) 8 (4) 10
features of which of the given plant? 134. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t ‘bacterial
transcription’.
(1) Yucca (2) Hydrilla
(1) mRNA does not require any processing to
(3) Wheat (4) Zostera become active.
128. Which of the given layer of anther is ephemeral (2) Transcription and translation takes place in
same compartment as there is no
and degenerates at maturity? separation of cytosol and nucleus
(1) Endothecium (2) Middle layer (3) Translation begins only after the m-RNA is
(3) Exothecium (4) Tapetum fully transcribed
(4) Transcription and translation can be
129. In which genetic condition, each cell in the coupled in bacteria
affected person, has one sex chromosome only 135. Select the incorrect match.
i.e., ‘XO’ condition. (1) Wheat – Himgiri
(2) Cauliflower – Pusa sadabahar
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome (3) Brassica – Karan Rai
(2) Down’s syndrome (4) Cow pea – Pusa komal
(3) Turner’s syndrome [SECTION-B]
136. Which of the given enzymes is genetically
(4) Phenylketonuria engineered and used as ‘clot buster’?
130. If a colourblind male marries a female who is (1) Statin
heterozygous for normal colour vision, the (2) Cyclosporin - A
(3) Streptokinase
probability of their son being colourblind is
(4) Amylase
1 137. Given below is graphical representation of
(1) 0 (2) organismic response. Identify the correct
2
statement for A, B and C.
1 3
(3) (4)
4 4
131. The genotypes of a married couple for their
blood groups are IA IB and I° I°. Among the
blood types of their children, how many
(1) ‘A’ – Ensures constant body temperature,
different genotypes and phenotypes are
constant osmotic concentration, etc.
possible?
(2) ‘B’ – Maintains homeostasis by
(1) 2 genotypes and 2 phenotypes
physiological as well as behavioural
(2) 4 genotypes and 2 phenotypes means.
(3) 4 genotypes and 3 phenotypes (3) ‘C’ – Cannot maintain a constant internal
(4) 3 genotypes and 2 phenotypes environment
132. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, (4) ‘B’ – 99% animals
the RNA polymerase III transcribes. 138. Which of the given population interaction is
incorrect w.r.t mutualism?
(1) hn RNA
(1) Lichens
(2) r RNAs – 28S, 18S, 5.8S
(2) Mycorrhizae
(3) t RNA, ScRNA, SnRNA and 5 SrRNA
(3) Orchids and bees
(4) m - RNA
(4) Cuscuta on hedge plants
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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

139. The heterotrophs which convert plant matter 144. Which of the given national park / sanctuaries
into animal matter belongs to are known for protection of elephants?
(1) First order consumer (A) Kaziranga national park
(2) Primary carnivores
(B) Periyar sanctuary
(3) Tertiary consumer
(C) Simlipal sanctuary
(4) Top carnivores
140. Which of the given factors is/are most (D) Gir national park
important climatic factors that regulate (1) A and C (2) B and C
decomposition?
(3) A and D (4) B and D
(1) Chemical nature of detritus
145. Which of the given gas is mostly responsible for
(2) Moisture only
ozone depletion?
(3) Temperature only
(1) CFC (2) H2S
(4) Both moisture and temperature
141. Select the incorrect w.r.t gaseous cycle. (3) CO2 (4) SO2

(1) Biogeochemical is non-mineral 146. In pteridophytes, a multicellular well

(2) Exchange of nutrients occur in gaseous or differentiated dominant phase is developed
vapour form from

(3) Reservoir pool is earth’s crust or (1) Sporangia (2) Spore

lithosphere (3) Archegonia (4) Zygote
(4) Includes nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, 147. Which of the following has a continuous
hydrogen cycle connection with outer membrane of nucleus?
142. Select the correct option w.r.t given below (1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
model of phosphorus cycle. (2) Lysosome
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
148. NADP reductase is located on stroma side of
thylakoid membrane and accepts
(1) Electrons from PS II and protons from
stroma
(2) Electrons from PS II and protons from
thylakoid lumen
(3) Electrons from PS I and protons from
(1) ‘D’ is plants stroma
(2) ‘C’ is the process takes place through (4) Electrons and protons from stroma
decomposers 149. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins
(3) A = D and minerals or higher proteins and healthier
fat is known as
(4) Is a gaseous cycle
(1) Biomagnification (2) Biodiversity
143. The first national park established in India was
(3) Biofortification (4) Biopatency
(1) Corbett national park
150. Perisperm is residual persistent nucellus and
(2) Kanha national park present in
(3) Bandipur national park (1) Coconut (2) Black pepper
(4) Ranthambore national park (3) Maize (4) Wheat

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

ZOOLOGY
[SECTION-A] (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

151. Select the incorrect statement. (3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) Blood is a fluid connective tissue 155. All of the following are present in intestinal juice
(2) Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos except
are replaced by bones in adults (1) Nucleases (2) Sucrase
(3) The smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends (3) Maltase (4) Nucleotidase
and show striations
156. When bile pigments like bilirubin increase in
(4) Tight junctions help to stop substances from
blood it causes A . In this disorder B is
leaking across a tissue
affected.
152. Choose the correct match
Choose the correct option for filling the blanks A
(1) Compound epithelium – Single layer of
and B
cells
A B
(2) Adhering junctions – Cement
neighbouring cells (1) Indigestion Kidney
together
(2) Diarrhoea Liver
(3) Adipocytes – Secrete fibres
(3) Constipation Gall bladder
(4) Areolar tissue – Specialised
(4) Jaundice Liver
connective tissue
153. Read statements A and B and choose the 157. The maximum volume of air a person can
correct option breathe in after a forceful expiration can be
represented by
Statement-A : Proteinaceous enzymes exhibit
substrate specificity and require optimum (1) TV + IRV (2) VC + RV
temperature and pH for maximal activity. (3) TLC – RV (4) ERV + RV
Statement-B : Inorganic catalysts work efficiently 158. The incorrect statement w.r.t. emphysema is
at high temperatures and high pressures, while
most enzymes get damaged at certain high (1) One of the major causes is excessive
temperatures. cigarette smoking

(1) Statements A and B are correct (2) Walls of alveoli are damaged
(2) Statements A and B are incorrect (3) Lungs remain inflated
(3) Only statement A is correct (4) Exchange of gases increases across alveoli
(4) Only statement B is correct due to decrease in surface area

154. Match Column-I and Column-II w.r.t. proteins 159. Person with blood group ‘O’ is considered as
and their functions universal donor because he has

Column-I Column-II (1) Antigens-A, B on RBCs and no antibodies in

plasma
a. Trypsin (i) Glucose transport
(2) Antigen-A on RBCs and anti-B antibody in
b. GLUT-4 (ii) Hormone
plasma
c. Collagen (iii) Enzyme
(3) Antigen-B on RBCs and anti-A antibody in
d. Insulin (iv) Intercellular plasma
ground substance
(4) Neither A nor B antigen on RBCs.

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

160. Which of the given statements are correct?

(2) Pivot Ball and Sutures Hinge
a. In humans, the cardiac output is about 5040 socket
ml.
b. Semilunar valves close when ventricular (3) Pivot Gliding Fibrous Saddle
pressure rises during systole.
(4) Hinge Ball and Saddle Hinge
c. Deoxygenated blood is carried by pulmonary socket
vein.
165. Select an autoimmune disorder of muscular and
d. First heart sound is produced due to opening
skeletal system
of AV valves.
(1) Myasthenia Gravis
e. Veins have valves to prevent backflow of (2) Tetany
blood (3) Osteoporosis
(1) a, b and e (2) b, c and d (4) Muscular dystrophy
166. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
(3) a and e (4) c, d and e
option w.r.t. production of myelin sheath
161. All of the following will favour increase in blood PNS : Schwann cells :: CNS : _________
pressure except (1) Astrocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes
(1) Vasopressin (2) Angiotensin-II (3) Osteoclasts (4) Osteoblasts
(3) Renin (4) ANF 167. Fovea is present on A and contains only

162. Which one of the following statements in regard B cells. Here A and B are
to human excretory system is correct? A B
(1) The principal nitrogenous compound is (1) Retina Rods
synthesised in the liver but is eliminated by (2) Lens Cones
kidneys (3) Retina Cones
(4) Lens Rods
(2) Convoluted tubules are a part of renal
pyramid 168. Corpora quadrigemina which consists mainly of
(3) Podocytes in loop of Henle create minute four round swellings is located in dorsal portion of
spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood the

(4) When someone drinks a lot of water, ADH (1) Thalamus (2) Midbrain
release is increased (3) Pons (4) Medulla
163. The total bones in axial and appendicular
169. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. chemical nature
skeleton in an adult human are respectively
of hormones
(1) 80 and 26 (2) 206 and 80
(1) Peptide – Insulin
(3) 80 and 126 (4) 126 and 206
(2) Steroids – Estradiol
164. Choose the option which correctly states the
type of joint present between the following (3) Iodothyronine – Thyroid

a. Atlas and axis (4) Amino-acid derivative – Cortisol

b. Femur and acetabulum 170. Encystation when conditions are not favourable
c. Cranial bones is exhibited by

d. Phalanges (1) Hydra (2) Amoeba

(3) Sponges (4) Paramecium
a b c d
171. Oestrus cycle is not seen in
(1) Hinge Pivot Sutures Saddle (1) Cows (2) Sheep
(3) Apes (4) Deers

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

172. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human 178. Arrange the below given ancestors of man in
reproduction decreasing order of their cranial capacities.
(1) Capacitation occurs in female reproductive a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus
tract c. Neanderthal man d. Cro-magnon man
(2) In human females, meiosis-II is not Choose the correct option
completed until fertilisation
(1) d > c > b > a (2) c > d > b > a
(3) The interstitial cells of tests are secretory
(3) a > b > d > c (4) b > a > d > c
source of androgens
(4) GnRH acts on posterior pituitary and 179. According to Hugo de Vries mutation causes
stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH speciation, these mutations which he termed
173. Which of the following cells are found in ‘saltation’ are
seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to
(1) Multi-step small mutations
male gamete mother cells?
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Single-step large mutation
(2) Secondary spermatocytes (3) Multi-step large mutations
(3) Leydig cells
(4) Single-step small mutation
(4) Thecal cells
174. The hormone which remains at its lowest 180. Eye of the octopus and of mammals are
concentration during ovulation is (1) Homologous organs
(1) LH (2) FSH
(2) Analogous organs
(3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
175. A terminal method of birth control which involves (3) Indicative of common ancestry
surgery and whose reversibility is poor is
(4) Anatomically similar
(1) Implants
181. All of the following are secondary lymphoid
(2) Vasectomy
organs except
(3) CuT insertion
(4) Coitus interruptus (1) Peyer’s patches of small intestine

176. A sexually transmitted infection which is (2) Spleen

completely curable is detected early and treated
properly is (3) Bone marrow

(1) Chlamydiasis (4) Tonsils

(2) Hepatitis-B
182. Select the mismatch w.r.t. disease and
(3) Genital herpes
causative agent
(4) HIV infection
Disease Causative agent
177. Certain ART are given in the box below
(1) Filariasis – W. bancrofti
IVF, ZIFT, GIFT, AI, IUI, ICSI
(2) Malaria – Plasmodium
How many of them involve in-vitro fertilisation?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Ringworms – Ascaris
(3) Four (4) Five (4) Pneumonia – Haemophilus influenzae

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

183. Chemotherapy, radiotherapy and immunotherapy 190. If an alien DNA is linked successfully at Bam HI
are treatment modalities for site of pBR322 vector the recombinant plasmid
will lose resistance to
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) AIDS
(1) Tetracycline (2) Chloramphenicol
(3) Malignant tumor (4) Dengue fever
(3) Ampicillin (4) Kanamycin
184. Agent responsible for causing most serious form 191. A method of insertion of recombinant DNA in
of malaria which could be even fatal is plant cells which involves bombarding of cells
(1) Plasmodium vivax with high velocity micro-particles of gold or
(2) Plasmodium falciparum tungsten coated with DNA is known as
(3) Plasmodium ovale (1) Heat shock
(4) Plasmodium malariae (2) Gene gun
185. Improved breed of cattle and chickens (3) Micro-injection
respectively are (4) Insertional activation
(1) Leghorn and Hisardale
192. Select the incorrect statement
(2) Jersey and Leghorn
(1) Maximum number of existing transgenic
(3) Jersey and Hisardale animals are mice
(4) Mule and Leghorn (2) BAC and YAC are commonly used for human
[SECTION-B] genome sequencing

186. Odd one w.r.t marine edible fishes is (3) Golden rice is a transgenic food crop meant
for biosynthesis of vitamin ‘A’
(1) Hilsa (2) Sardines
(3) Rohu (4) Mackerel (4) Acidic pH of stomach triggers activation of
protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus
187. Each cycle of PCR has three temperature
thuringiensis in boll worm
dependent steps, the correct order of which is
193. A novel strategy of RNA interference is adopted
(1) Primer annealing → Denaturation →
for tobacco plants to control
Extension of primers (1) Meloidogyne incognita
(2) Denaturation → Extension of primers → (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
Primer annealing (3) Bollworms
(3) Denaturation → Primer annealing → (4) Corn borer
Extension of primers 194. Maturation of pro-insulin into insulin involves
removal of
(4) Extension of primers → Denaturation → (1) A peptide (2) B peptide
Primer annealing (3) Disulphide bridges (4) C peptide
188. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct 195. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
option w.r.t. cell wall degrading enzyme. to a 4-year-old girl with deficiency of
(1) Insulin
Plant cells : Cellulase :: Fungi : _________
(2) Adenosine deaminase
(1) Lysozyme (2) Chitinase (3) Alkaline phosphatase
(3) Methylase (4) Ligase (4) Polymerase
189. _______ is used to stain separated DNA 196. Saddle joint is present between
fragments after an agarose gel electrophoresis (1) Carpals and metacarpals of thumb
and visualise them in UV light.
(2) Atlas and Axis
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly
(3) Tooth and jaw bone
(1) Methylene blue (2) Chilled ethanol
(4) Phalanges
(3) Acetocarmine (4) Ethidium bromide

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Mock Test (Code-C) For NEET-2021

197. The given figure is a schematic of a linear double (b) Each organ in our body is made of one or
stranded DNA containing the indicated restriction more types of tissues
sites. Which of the following depicts the expected (c) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
result? substance
(d) Gap junctions allow rapid transfer of ions,
small molecules and sometimes big
molecules
(1) (2)
How many statement(s) are incorrect?
(1) Zero (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One
199. Choose the correct pair with respect to source
gland of given hormones .

(1) Oxytocin Corpus luteum

(3) (4)
(2) Insulin -cells of pancreas

(3) Cortisol Adrenal cortex

(4) Calcitonin Parathyroid gland

200. OPV (vaccine) is administered to children in India

198. Read the following statements for protection against
(a) Heart consist of all the four types of tissues (1) Diphtheria (2) Polio
i.e., epithelial, connective, muscular and
neural (3) Dengue (4) Rabies

❑ ❑ ❑

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