07/09/2020 OYM

Code-A

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iTutor Fortnightly Test Series

Test – 8
Physics : Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic induction.
Chemistry : p-Block Elements: (Group-18), d & f-Block Elements
Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Genetic code - Salient features, t-RNA - The adapter molecule,
Translation. Regulation of gene expression, Operon concept Human genome project - Goals,
Methodologies, Salient features, Applications and Future challenges, DNA fingerprinting.
Zoology : Human Health & Disease II: Cell Mediated Immunity, vaccination and immunisation Allergies,
auto immunity, immune system of the body, lymphoid organs: primary and secondary, AIDS–
Causes, detection, symptoms and prevention, Cancer–Causes, detection, diagnosis and
treatment

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
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(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
1. Gauss’s Law in magnetism ensures that 4. Which of the following is incorrect about Lenz's
(1) Magnetic field is conservative law?
(2) Magnetic monopoles do not exist (1) It explains the physical significance of the
negative sign in Faraday’s law
(3) Magnetic field lines form close loops
(2) It is a consequence of conservation of energy
(4) Both (2) and (3)
2. Two maxwell is equal to (3) It tells about the transformation of mechanical
energy into electrical energy
1
(1) × 10−8 weber (2) 2 × 108 weber (4) Lenz’s law explain the force acting on current
2 carrying element.
(3) 2 × 10–8 weber (4) 108 weber 5. The magnetic flux linked with a coil in weber is
3. Soft iron is used in many parts of electrical given by the equation φ = 8t2 + 4t + 8. The
machines because it has magnitude of induced emf at t = 3 second will be
(1) Low hysteresis loss and high permeability (1) 28 volt
(2) Low hysteresis loss and low permeability (2) 20 volt
(3) High permeability and high hysteresis (3) 52 volt
(4) Low permeability and high hysteresis (4) 41 volt
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iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-8 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

6. The current passing through a choke coil of self 11. A magnetic flux of 8 × 10–4 weber is linked with
inductance 0.5 H is decreasing at the rate of each turn of coil having 400 turns when there is a
12 A/s. The emf developed across the coil is electric current of 2 A in it. Self inductance of the
(1) 0.6 V (2) 6 V coil is
(3) 10 V (4) 1.2 V (1) 80 mH (2) 160 mH
7. A coil of resistance 30 Ω and inductance 5 H is (3) 32 mH (4) 40 mH
connected to a battery of emf 60 V. The energy 12. Two circular coils have their centres at the same
stored in the coil in steady state is point. The mutual inductance between them will
(1) 50 J (2) 10 J be maximum when their axis are
(3) 100 J (4) 25 J (1) At 45° to each other
8. The network shown in figure is a part of the (2) At 60° to each other
circuit. At a certain instant, the current is I = 2 A
and it is increasing at the rate of 102 A/s. What is (3) Parallel to each other
potential difference between the points B and A (4) Perpendicular to each other
(VB – VA)? 13. A conducting rod OA of length 2l is rotated about
its end O with an angular velocity ω in a uniform
magnetic field B directed perpendicular to the
plane of rotation. The potential difference across
its two ends is
(1) 6.25 volt (2) 20.5 volt
(3) 7.5 volt (4) –7.5 volt 1
(1) Bωl 2
2
9. The graph between temperature (T) and
magnetic susceptibility (χ) for a paramagnetic 1
(2) Bωl 2
substance is 4
2
(3) Bωl 2
3
(1) (2) (4) 2Bωl2
14. Earth’s magnetic field at a place where angle of
dip is 30° and horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field is 0.5 G will be
1
(1) G (2) 3G
(3) (4) 3

3
(3) G (4) 2 G
2
10. A sample of cast iron exhibits a magnetic field of
0.8 T, when intensity of magnetising field (H) is 15. The magnetic field on the axis of a short
20 A/m. Magnetic permeability of the given magnetic dipole varies with distance r as rn. The
sample of iron (in SI unit) is value of n is
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.08 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0.04 (4) 0.06 (3) –3 (4) 3

CHEMISTRY
16. Shape of XeOF4 is 17. Which among the following has highest electron
gain enthalpy?
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal
(1) He
(2) Square pyramidal
(2) Ne
(3) See-saw (3) Ar
(4) Square planar (4) Xe
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One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-8 (Code-A)

18. The product which is not formed on complete 25. Which lanthanoid ion is smallest in size?
hydrolysis of XeF2, is (1) La3+ (2) Sm3+
(1) Xe (2) O2 (3) Ce3+ (4) Er3+
(3) O2F2 (4) HF 26. Incorrect statement about lanthanoids is
19. Which transition metal shows highest number of (1) Lanthanoids are silvery white soft metals
oxidation states? (2) Lanthanum carbides are formed when the
(1) V (2) Mn metals are heated with carbon
(3) Co (4) Cu (3) They liberate hydrogen from dilute acids
20. Basic oxide among the following is (4) They do not react with nitrogen
(1) V2O5 (2) CrO 27. The most alkaline hydroxide among the following
is
(3) Cr2O3 (4) CrO3
(1) La(OH)3 (2) Pr(OH)3
21. Which gas is used in filling balloons for
meteorological observations? (3) Gd(OH)3 (4) Er(OH)3
(1) He (2) Ne 28. The correct order of increasing oxidising power of
(3) Ar (4) Xe given species is
22. Which among the following has highest first (1) MnO−4 < Cr2O72– < VO2+
ionization enthalpy?
(2) MnO−4 < VO2+ < CrO72−
(1) V (2) Cr
(3) Mn (4) Fe (3) VO2+ < Cr2O72− < MnO4−
23. The species which is green in colour is (4) Cr2O72− < VO2+ < MnO−4
(1) MnO 24− (2) MnO −4 29. Negative hydration enthalpy is highest for

(3) CrO 24− (4) Cr2O72− (1) Cu2+ (2) Fe2+

(3) Mn2+ (4) V2+
24. Thiosulphate is oxidised by permanganate ion in
weakly alkaline medium to 30. Moles of Fe2+ oxidised by one mole of
dichromate in acidic medium is
(1) SO2 (2) SO 24−
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) SO32− (4) SO3 (3) 4 (4) 3

BOTANY
31. Genetic code is 34. Secondary structure of tRNA is like a/an
(1) Mostly non-degenerate (1) Inverted ‘L’ (2) Clover-leaf
(2) Non-universal (3) Random coil (4) Double helix
(3) Triplet 35. The order and sequence of amino acids in
polypeptide chain is defined by
(4) Overlapping
(1) Sequence of bases in mRNA
32. The initiation codon is
(2) Sequence of bases in tRNA
(1) AUG (2) UAA
(3) Sequence of bases in rRNA
(3) UAG (4) UGA (4) Sequence of bases in introns
33. How many tRNA is/are found in cells to 36. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. levels of
recognize the stop codons? regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) Replication level (2) Transcriptional level
(3) 1 (4) 0 (3) Processing level (4) Translation level
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iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-8 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

37. The function of beta-galactosidase is to 42. In DNA fingerprinting, blotting refers to

(1) Make bacterial cell permeable for lactose (1) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(2) Break the lactose into glucose and galactose (2) Separation of DNA fragments by
(3) Liberate energy from glucose electrophoresis
(4) Liberate energy from galactose (3) Transfer of DNA fragments to synthetic
38. Repressor protein of lac operon is synthesized by membranes
the gene (4) Amplification of DNA using PCR
(1) lac i 43. Micro-satellites and minisatellites normally
(2) lac z (1) Code for several proteins
(3) lac y (2) Do not code for any proteins
(4) lac a (3) Form a very small proportion of human
39. Choose the incorrect statement regarding HGP. genome
(1) Project was launched in 1990 (4) Show low degree of polymorphism
(2) Completed in 2003 44. The appropriate reason of polymorphism in DNA
(3) Estimated cost about nine billion US dollars is
(4) Sequence of chromosome-1 was completed (1) Mutation
only in May 2001 (2) Reverse transcription
40. The total locations where single base differences (3) Translation
occur in human genome are about
(4) Transcription
(1) 0.14 million (2) 1.4 million
45. VNTRs are
(3) 14 million (4) 140 million
(1) Minisatellites and range from 0.1 to 20 kb
41. The portion of human genome that codes for
proteins is (2) Microsatellites and range from 0.01 – 0.1 kb
(1) 10% (2) Less than 2% (3) Minisatellites and range from 1 – 6 bp
(3) 2–5% (4) More than 5% (4) Microsatellites and range from 0.1 – 20 kb

ZOOLOGY
46. The cells primarily responsible for mediating CMI 49. Vaccination is available for all of the following
are except
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Monocytes (1) Rabies (2) Tetanus
(3) T-lymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes (3) HIV (4) Polio
47. Recombinant DNA technology has been used for 50. Vaccines with inactivated or weakened
production of vaccine in yeast against pathogens also generate the formation of
(1) Ebola virus (1) Biconcave erythrocytes
(2) HIV (2) Memory B and T-cells
(3) Hepatitis B
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) Syphilis
(4) Biconvex erythrocytes
48. Transfer of preformed antibodies like anti-tetanus
51. Which of the following is not a characteristic
serum after a road traffic accident is an example
of feature of acquired immunity?

(1) Natural active immunity (1) Immunogenic memory

(2) Natural passive immunity (2) Non-specificity w.r.t antigen
(3) Artificial active immunity (3) Self-nonself recognition (discrimination)
(4) Artificial passive immunity (4) Diversity
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One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-8 (Code-A)

52. Property shown by malignant tumours is 57. All of the following are secondary lymphoid
(1) Metastasis (2) Metagenesis organs, except

(3) Benign nature (4) Metachrosis (1) Spleen (2) Tonsils

53. All of the following are used as antiallergic drugs (3) Thymus (4) Peyer's patches
except 58. Which of the following is an autoimmune
(1) Histamine (2) Anti-histamine disorder?

(3) Adrenalin (4) Cortisol (1) Hepatitis-B (2) Rheumatoid arthritis

54. The virus that causes AIDS attacks chiefly the (3) Filariasis (4) Malaria

(1) B-cells (2) Cytotoxic T-cells 59. An exaggerated response of the immune system
to certain antigens present in the environment is
(3) Helper T-cells (4) Basophils called
55. HIV infection can be transmitted by all except (1) Allergy
(1) Infected needles (2) Active immunisation
(2) Blood transfusion (3) Passive immunisation
(3) Hand shake (4) Vaccination
(4) Sexual contact 60. All of the following can cause DNA damage
56. HIV infection can be detected usually using leading to neoplastic transformation, except
(1) Eastern blot (2) ESR (1) X-rays (2) Gamma ray
(3) ELISA (4) Widal test (3) FM radio waves (4) UV rays

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Edition: 2020-21