07/06/2022 CODE-B

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Topics covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity
in Properties
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification
Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

SECTION - A (1) (200 ± 3) (2) (66.7 ± 0.7)

1. Photoelectric equation was proposed by (3) (66.66 ± 0.66) (4) (300 ± 3)
(1) Einstein (2) Bohr 4. Which of the following is most precise
(3) Rutherford (4) Planck measurement?
2. If the error in measurement of radius of a sphere (1) 0.5 m (2) 0.05 m
is 1.5%, then error in the determination of surface (3) 0.005 m (4) 0.0005 m
area of the sphere will be
5. If force ‘F’, velocity ‘v’ and acceleration ‘’ are
(1) 1.5% (2) 2%
taken as fundamental quantities, then
(3) 3% (4) 4.5%
dimensional formula for time period of simple
3. Two resistances R1 = (100 ± 1)  and R2 = pendulum is
(200 ± 2)are connected in parallel. Then their
(1) [F0 v1 –1] (2) [F1 v1 1]
equivalent resistance with error is (upto
appropriate significant figure) (3) [F0 v–1 1] (4) [F0 v1 –2]

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

6. Rounding off the value 324.13821 upto four (1) 5 m/s (2) 2 3 m/s
significant digits is
(3) 3 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s
(1) 324.1 (2) 324.0
(3) 324.3 (4) 324.2 12. A boy riding a bicycle with a speed of 4 m/s
towards east direction, observes rain falling
7. The displacement y of an oscillating particle is
vertically downward. If he increases his speed to
given as y = A sin[Bx + Ct + D], where A, B, C
8 m/s, rain appears to meet him at 45° to the
and D are constants and x and t represent
vertical. The speed of rain with respect to ground
position and time respectively. Then select the is
correct option.
(1) 8 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(1) The dimension of AB is [L]
(3) 4 2 m/s (4) 2 m/s
C
(2) The dimension of is [T–1]
D 13. If velocity v of the particle varies with position x
DC as v = 3 + x, where is a constant, then
(3) The dimension of is [L2T–3] acceleration versus displacement graph will be
B
(4) A is a dimensionless quantity (1) Circle (2) Hyperbola
8. The vernier scale of a travelling microscope has (3) Parabola (4) Straight line
25 divisions which coincide with 24 main scale 14. Two particles are projected simultaneously in the
divisions. If each main scale division is 0.5 mm, same vertical plane from the same point, but with
then least count of this microscope is different speeds and at different angles to the
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.02 mm horizontal. The path of one particle with respect
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.01 mm to other (both are in air) is
9. A person takes T1 second to move up a certain (1) Straight line (2) Parabola
distance on the stationary escalator. While (3) Ellipse (4) Circle
moving up on a moving escalator, the person r r
15. Let v and a denote the velocity and acceleration
takes T2 second to cover same distance. The
respectively of a body in one dimensional motion.
time taken to cover the same distance if man just
Then correct option is
stands on the moving escalator is r r
(1) v must decrease when a  0
T12  T22 T2T1
(1) (2)
T2  T1 T2  T1 (2) Speed must increase when a is non-zero
r r
(3) Speed will decrease when v and a are anti
T2T1 T2  T1
(3) (4) parallel
T1  T2 2
10. An object is released at one bank into a river (4) All of these
flowing with speed 5 km/h towards east. Air is 16. Which is correct option for the system as shown
blowing with speed 5 km/h towards north. If width in figure?
of river is 200 m, then time taken by floating
object to reach the other bank is (Assume the
object moves both under the effect of river and
wind)
(1) 144 minute (2) 3.4 second
(1) v A  v B cos 
(3) 144 second (4) 14.4 second
11. A river is flowing due east with a speed 2 m/s. A (2) v A  v B sin 
swimmer on the south bank of river can swim in vB
still water at a speed of 4 m/s. Swimmer swims in (3) v A 
cos 
such a way that he reaches a directly opposite
vB
point on the north bank. The resultant speed of (4) v A 
sin 
the swimmer is

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-B)

17. An object is thrown at an angle of ‘’ with u2 u2

horizontal. If elevation angle of the object at its (1) H1  H2  (2) H1  H2 
g 2g
highest point as seen from the point of projection
 1 R2
is tan1   , then  is equal to (3) H1H2  (4) Both (2) & (3)
2 4
23. Two balls are simultaneously projected
(1) 30° (2) 45°
horizontally with speeds 4 m/s and 3 m/s
(3) 60° (4) 37° respectively in opposite direction from top of a
18. The length of second’s hand of a watch is 1 cm. tower of height 80 m. The distance between two
The change in velocity of its tip in 15 second (in balls when they hit the ground is (g = 10 m/s2)
cm/s) is (1) 16 m (2) 12 m
 (3) 28 m (4) 4 m
(1) Zero (2)
30 2 24. If A, B and C are physical quantities, having
different dimensions, which of the following
 2
(3) (4) combination can never be a meaningful quantity?
30 30 2
(1) (A – B)/C (2) AB – C
19. A boy can throw a stone upto a maximum height (3) AB/C (4) AB – C2
of 10 m. The maximum horizontal distance upto
25. A body is moving with speed (10.00 0.01) m/s.
which the boy can throw the same stone is
The distance covered in time (5.00  0.01) s is
(1) 20 2 m (2) 10 m
(1) (50.0  0.3%) m (2) (2.00  0.3%) m
(3) 10 2 m (4) 20 m (3) (20.0  0.3%) m (4) (50.0  2%) m
20. A bus starts from rest and moves along a 26. A person measures the length of a rod as 10 cm,
straight road with constant acceleration f until its 11 cm, 10 cm, 10 cm and 9 cm. The true value of
speed is v. The bus then continues with length of rod is
constant speed v. When the bus starts, a car is (1) 10 cm (2) 11 cm
at a distance b behind the bus and is moving (3) 9 cm (4) 10.8 cm
with constant speed u in same direction as that
27. If P = x y z–l, then the maximum relative error in
m n
of bus. Find the distance between the car and
P is given as
the bus at time t after the bus started.
x y z x y z
v (1)   (2)  
(Given 0  t  and u2 < 2fb). x y z x y z
f
x y z x y z
ft 2 ft 2 (3) m n l (4) m n l
(1) b  ut  (2)  ut x y z x y z
2 2
28. The order of magnitude of diameter of earth
ft 2 (1.28 × 107 m) is
(3) b  (4) b – ut
2 (1) 7 (2) 8
21. Co-ordinates of a particle changes according to (3) 6 (4) 9
the relations x = 4t2, y = 3t, z = 0. The magnitude 29. The number of significant figures in 0.02300 is
of velocity of particle at time t = 1 s is (all
(1) 2 (2) 3
quantities are in SI units)
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 73 m/s (2) 67 m/s 30. A vernier calliper has each main scale division
(3) 11 m/s (4) 3 m/s equal to 1 mm. 20 vernier scale divisions are
equal to 16 main scale divisions. The least count
22. Two balls are projected at different angles to
of this vernier calliper is
acquire same horizontal range R with same initial
speed u. If maximum height acquired by the balls (1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.2 mm
are H1 and H2 respectively, then (3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.04 mm

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

31. If the initial velocity of a particle is u and its SECTION - B

acceleration is given as a = At3, where A is 36. A policeman is moving with constant speed on a
constant and t is time, then its instantaneous straight road. When he is at distance 250 m
velocity v as a function of time is given as behind a car, the car starts accelerating from rest
At 4 and move with a constant acceleration 2 m/s 2.
(1) v = u + At4 (2) v  u 
4 The minimum speed of the policeman such that
he can catch the car is
At 3
(3) v = u + At3 (4) v  u 
3 (1) 10 m/s (2) 10 5 m/s

32. Two cars A and B are approaching each other (3) 10 10 m/s (4) 10 2 m/s
head-on with speeds 20 m/s and 10 m/s
37. A particle is projected at an angle 30° with
respectively. When their separation is X, then A
the horizontal with speed 20 m/s. How high will it
and B start braking at 4 m/s2 and 2 m/s2
respectively. Minimum value of X to avoid strike a wall 8 3 m away from point of
collision is projection? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 60 m (2) 75 m (1) 5 m (2) 4.8 m
(3) 80 m (4) 90 m (3) 2.4 m (4) 9.6 m
33. The position(x)-time(t) graph for a particle moving 38. A man can swim in still water with speed 5 m/s.
along x-axis is as shown in the graph. Average He wants to cross a 100 m wide river flowing with
speed of the particle between time t = 0 and speed 3 m/s. To reach the point directly opposite
t = 8 s is to his starting point, in which direction should he
try to swim?
(1) 37º with the river flow
(2) 153º with the river flow
(3) 90º with the river flow
(4) 127º with the river flow

(1) Zero (2) 8 m/s 39. A ball A is thrown up vertically with a speed u and
at same instant another ball B is released from a
(3) 3.75 m/s (4) 4.25 m/s
 2h 2u 
 t  height h. At time t  t  
  , speed of A
34. If P  P0

e  x   , where t is time and x is  g g 

 2  relative to B is
displacement. Then dimension of   is same
   (1) u
as (2) 2u
(1) Velocity (3) u – gt
(2) Acceleration
(4) u 2  gt
2
(3) (Displacement)
40. A particle is moving along a circular path of
(4) Time
5
35. A balloon carrying a stone is moving upward with radius 5 m with a constant speed of m/s . The
2
a constant speed 10 m/s. When balloon is at
average acceleration over a quarter circle is
height 75 m, the stone is dropped. The time taken
by the stone to reach the ground after release is 10 5 2
(1) m/s2 (2) m/s2
(g = 10 m/s2)  
(1) 4 s (2) 15 s 5 5
(3) m/s2 (4) m/s2
(3) 5 s (4) 6 s  2

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-B)

41. For a projectile projected from ground at an angle 46. Equation of trajectory for a ground to ground
2R x2
 with horizontal, gT 
2
where T is time of projectile is given as y  3 x  . The ratio of
3 20
flight, R is horizontal range of projectile, g is range and maximum height attained by the
acceleration due to gravity. The angle of
projectile is
projection () is
(1) 30° (1) 4 : 3
(2) 60°
(2) 4 3 : 1
(3) 45°
(4) 90° (3) 17 : 20 3
42. A fighter plane is flying horizontally at an altitude (4) 20 3 : 17
of 2000 m with speed 720 km/h. At a particular
47. A particle is thrown vertically upwards with
angle of sight (with respect to horizontal) when
target is seen, the pilot drops a bomb in order to 30 m/s. The ratio of distance travelled by the
attack the target. This angle is particle in three consecutive seconds after the
throw will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) tan–1(1/2)
(2) tan–1(1) (1) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) tan–1(1/4) (2) 1 : 3 : 5
–1 (3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) tan (2)
43. If a particle is moving along a straight line and its (4) 1 : 2 : 3
velocity varies with time, as v = 2t – t2, (v and t
are in SI units) then choose the incorrect option.
5 5
(1) Average velocity from t = 0 to s is m/s
2 12
(2) Acceleration is zero at t = 1 s 48.
In the given position-time graph, we can say
(3) Acceleration is 2 m/s2 at t = 0
that
(4) Average speed from t = 0 to t = 2 s is
(1) Speed of body is constant
5
m/s
12 (2) Body first slows down and then speeds up
44. Choose the incorrect statement from the (3) Body first speeds up and then slows down
following. (4) Speed of body is continuously decreasing
r r r r
(1) ( A  B) is equal to (B  A) 49. From a 40 m high tower, a ball is released from
(2) A vector multiplied by zero results into null top and simultaneously another ball is projected
vector vertically upwards with 40 m/s from ground. The
(3) A unit vector does not have any magnitude balls will collide after

(4) Displacement is a vector quantity (1) 2 s

45. When a ball is projected at some angle with the (2) 4 s
horizontal, it has range R and time of flight t1. If (3) 0.5 s
same ball is projected with same speed at an
(4) 1 s
angle  with the vertical, its time of flight is t2.
Then 50. The number of significant zeros in 0.0062030 is

2R 2R (1) 4
(1) t1  t2  (2) t1t2 
g g (2) 5
R R (3) 1
(3) t1  t2  (4) t1t2 
g g (4) 2

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 61. Incorrect statement for cathode ray discharge
51. Which of the following possess positive electron tube experiment is
gain enthalpy? (1) Cathode ray is negatively charged
(1) N (2) P (2) Nature of cathode rays depends upon the
(3) As (4) Na gas filled in discharge tube
52. The number of electrons in 0.2 mol of Al3+ ion is (3) Cathode rays when strike with heavy metal
(1) 0.2 × NA (2) 0.1 × NA produce X-rays which cannot be deflected by
electric and magnetic field
(3) NA (4) 2 × NA
(4) Gas will be conducting at low pressure only
53. The maximum amount of magnesium oxide
formed when 16 g of Mg is burnt with 16 g of O 2 62. If the mass percentage of glucose in the aqueous
in a closed vessel is solution is 36% then the molality of glucose in the
solution will be nearly
(1) 26.67 g (2) 40 g
(1) 2.1 m (2) 3.1 m
(3) 32 g (4) 24.67 g
(3) 4.5 m (4) 6.2 m
54. The maximum number of electrons that can be
63. Volume of one molecule of oxygen gas at S.T.P.
identified with the quantum number  = 2 for Fe3+
is
ion will be
(1) 3.7 × 10–20 mL (2) 2.5 × 10–21 mL
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 3.1 × 10–22 mL (4) 6.1 × 10–23 mL
(3) 5 (4) 6
64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
55 . The element with highest electron affinity, incorrect?
belongs to
(a) Emission spectra is always continuous
(1) Period 2, group 17 (2) Period 3, group 17 spectra
(3) Period 2, group 16 (4) Period 3, group 16 (b) Atomic spectra is also called line spectra
56. Total number of significant figures present in (c) Absorption spectra gives dark lines on the
‘Avogadro’s number’ i.e., NA = 6.022 × 1023 is bright continuous spectrum
(1) 3 (2) 1023 (d) Electromagnetic radiations propagate even in
(3) 4 (4) 2 the absence of medium
57. 280 mL of sulphur vapours weigh 3.2 g at NTP. (1) (b) & (c) only
The number of atoms present per molecule is (2) (c) & (d) only
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) (a) only
(3) 6 (4) 8 (4) (c) only
58. Maximum possible electron(s) in Mn, for which 65. Which of the following can be explained by
n + l + m = 5 is electromagnetic wave theory?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) Black body radiation (2) Photoelectric effect
(3) 3 (4) 10 (3) H-spectrum (4) Interference
59. Degeneracy of H-atom in 3rd excited state is 66. What is the average atomic mass of silicon, if it
(1) 16 (2) 10 occurs naturally in 3 isotopes Si28, Si29, Si30 with
(3) 12 (4) 9 the abundance of 92.2%, 4.7% and 3.1%
respectively?
60. Which can be found in liquid state at 35°C?
(1) 28.9 amu (2) 28.1 amu
(1) Ga (2) Cs
(3) 29.9 amu (4) 29.1 amu
(3) Hg (4) All of these

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-B)

67. A compound consist of 43.4% of Na, 11.32% of C 77. 44 g of an organic compound on complete
and rest is O. The empirical formula of the combustion gives 88 g of CO2 and 36 g of H2O.
compound would be The molecular formula of the compound may be
(1) Na2C2O5 (2) Na4C2O7 (1) C3H6O (2) C2H4O
(3) Na2CO3 (4) Na2C2O3 (3) C4H8 (4) C2H6O
68. How much water should be added to 300 ml of 78. Ratio of energy of electron of 1st orbit of
decinormal HCl solution to make it 0.01 N? hydrogen, 2nd orbit of Heion and 3rd orbit of Li2+
(1) 3000 ml (2) 2700 ml ion will be
(3) 300 ml (4) 270 ml (1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1 : 1
69. The number of mole(s) of Pb(NO3)2 that should (3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 3 : 2 : 1
be thermally decomposed completely, to oxidise
2 moles of Na to its oxide is N
79. 20 ml of 1 N HCl, 10 ml of H2SO4 and 30 ml of
2
2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
N
(1) 1 (2) 2 HNO3 are mixed together and volume made to
3
(3) 3 (4) 4 one litre. The normality of H in the resulting
70. The equivalent mass of K2SO4. Al2(SO4)3.12 H2O solution is
is (M = Molar mass of salt)
7 7
M M (1) N (2) N
(1) (2) 200 10
12 10
7
M M (3) 5 N (4) N
(3) (4) 100
8 5
80. IE1, IE2, IE3, IE4 and IE5 for an element are 6.9,
71. The potential energy of an electron in the H-atom 13.9, 33.5, 46.2 and 172 eV respectively. The
is –6.8 eV. In which excited state, the electron is element is most likely to be
present?
(1) Al (2) Ca
(1) First (2) Second
(3) Si (4) Mg
(3) Third (4) Fourth
81. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and
72. Number of Zn atoms present in 122 g of ZnO is
(Atomic wt. of Zn = 65) -particle is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
NA
(1) NA (2) (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 8
2
3 NA 82. 25 g of calcium carbonate contains
(3) (4) 2 NA
2 (1) 5 g of Ca (2) 10 g of Ca
73. Ratio of the radius of first orbit of Li2+ to the third (3) 15 g of Ca (4) 20 g of Ca
orbit of He+ ions will be 83. 0.44 g of gas occupies 224 ml at STP, its vapour
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 2 : 5 density is
(3) 3 : 8 (4) 2 : 27 (1) 44 (2) 4.4
74. If the mole fraction of urea in water is 0.15, then (3) 22 (4) 2.2
molality of urea in the solution will be 84. Orbital angular momentum of last electron in
(1) 3.4 m (2) 2.5 m outermost orbit of phosphorus is
(3) 7.5 m (4) 9.8 m
(1) 2 h (2) 2h
75. Total number of lines emitted in infrared region
when electron is de-excited from 5th excited state (3) 2 3 h (4) 6 h
to ground state in hydrogen atom is
85. 6.02 × 1022 atoms of A, 0.2 mole of B and
(1) 3 (2) 4
12.04 × 1022 atoms of C combine to make a
(3) 5 (4) 6 compound, the empirical formula of the
76. Most basic oxide among the following is compound is
(1) BeO (2) MgO (1) A2B2C (2) ABC2
(3) K2O (4) Rb2O (3) AB2C2 (4) A2BC

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

SECTION - B 94. A polymer consist of 8 atoms of sulphur per

86. Total number of node(s) in 4px orbital is molecule which is 2% by mass, The molar mass
of the polymer is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 25600 g mol–1
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2) 12800 g mol–1
87. Which of the following arrangements is not
(3) 2560 g mol–1
correct with the property indicated against it?
(4) 1280 g mol–1
(1) Rb > K > Na (Metallic radius) 95. The first ionization potential (kJ/mol) of Be and B
(2) F > Cl > Br (Electronegativity) respectively are
(3) F > Cl > Br (Negative electron gain enthalpy) (1) 899, 801 (2) 899, 899
(4) Rb > K > Na (Metallic nature) (3) 801, 801 (4) 801, 899

88. The pair of amphoteric oxides among the 96. The element having maximum tendency of
following is catenation belongs to
(1) Period 2 and Group 15
(1) H2O, SO3 (2) Na2O, ZnO
(2) Period 2 and Group 14
(3) ZnO, Al2O3 (4) Al2O3, SO3
(3) Period 3 and Group 15
89. The correct order of ionic size is
(4) Period 3 and Group 14
(1) K+ < S2– < Cl–
97. Electron de-excited from 4th level to 2nd level in
+ – 2–
(2) K < Cl < S He ion and emitted radiations have wavelength
2– – +
(3) S < Cl < K ‘’. Same wavelength will not be obtained when
– + 2–
(4) Cl < K < S electron is de-excited from
+ 2+ 3+
90. Correct order of Zeff for species Na , Mg , Al is (1) 2nd level to 1st level in H
(1) Na+ = Mg2+ = Al3+ (2) 6th level to 3rd level in Li2+
(2) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ (3) 8th level to 4th level in Be3+
(3) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ (4) 4th level to 1st level of H
(4) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ 98. Elements with similar atomic sizes and
resemblance in properties are
91. Quantum number which defines the orientation of
orbital present in a subshell is (1) Sn, Pb (2) Zr, Hf
(3) Ca, Sr (4) B, Al
(1) Principal quantum number (n)
99. Which of the following elements is most
(2) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
electronegative?
(3) Magnetic quantum number (m)
(1) O (2) N
(4) Spin quantum number (s)
(3) Cl (4) F
92. The molar concentration of H+ ion when 300 ml of
water is added in 0.1 M 200 ml of H2SO4 solution 100. Zinc and hydrochloric acid react according to
is equation
(1) 0.08 M (2) 0.1 M Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)  ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(3) 0.01 M (4) 0.8 M If 0.3 mole ‘Zn’ are added to hydrochloric acid
93. The element having maximum value for its 3rd containing 0.5 mole HCl, then maximum moles of
ionisation enthalpy is ‘H2’ produced is
(1) B (2) Be (1) 0.12 (2) 0.50
(3) Al (4) C (3) 0.30 (4) 0.25

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-B)

BOTANY
SECTION - A 107. Silica shells are found
101. Growth is a (i) of all living organisms and it is (1) In some marine amoeboid protozoans
regarded as (ii) property in them. (2) On the surface of ciliated protozoans

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (3) On the surface of Amoeba
(i) and (ii). (4) In some sporozoans
(1) (i)-Fundamental characteristic 108. Which kingdom includes multicellular organisms
(ii)-Extrinsic with heterotrophic mode of nutrition and non
cellulosic cell wall in Five kingdom classification
(2) (i)-Fundamental characteristic
system?
(ii)-Intrinsic
(1) Animalia (2) Fungi
(3) (i)-Defining property
(3) Monera (4) Protista
(ii)-Extrinsic
109. Carl Woese clustered six kingdoms into three
(4) (i)-Defining property domains. The prokaryotic organisms are kept in
(ii)-Intrinsic
(1) Single domain Bacteria
102. In binomial nomenclature system, binomial
(2) All three domains
epithet includes
(3) Two different domains
(1) Generic name, species epithet and author
(4) Domain Archaea only
citation
(2) Generic name and species epithet only 110. The fungi like feature of slime moulds is

(3) Common name, generic name and species (1) Absence of cell wall in main body
epithet (2) Formation of fruiting bodies
(4) Common name and generic name only (3) Presence of cell wall around spores
103. Which of the following statements is correct for (4) Dispersal of spores via air current
the organisms which are also called the ‘Jokers 111. Among kingdom, phylum, class, order and family
of plant kingdom’? how many taxonomic categories are common for
(1) They infect animals only Felis and Canis?
(2) They have cellulosic cell wall (1) Two (2) Three
(3) They have both RNA and DNA (3) Four (4) Five
(4) They are sensitive to penicillin 112. Which of the following is correct for
104. Late blight of potato is caused by dinoflagellates?

(1) Alternaria solani (a) Stiff hemicellulosic plates on the inner

surface of cell wall
(2) Ustilago
(b) Presence of flagella
(3) Puccinia
(c) Produce diatomite
(4) Phytophthora infestans
(d) Releases toxins
105. The genetic material in pox virus is
(e) Photosynthetic pigments are found
(1) dsDNA (2) ssDNA
(1) (b), (d) & (e)
(3) dsRNA (4) ssRNA
106. Which of the given is a unicellular fungus? (2) (a), (b) & (c)

(1) Puccinia (2) Saccharomyces (3) (d) & (e) only

(3) Agaricus (4) Penicillium (4) (a), (c) & (e)

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

113. Sapindales and Poales belong to 120. Which taxonomic aid is specific to animals only.
(1) Same class and division (1) Manual (2) Zoological Park
(2) Different classes and divisions (3) Museum (4) Herbarium
(3) Same class but different divisions 121. The archaebacteria which obtain energy for the
synthesis of organic food from the oxidation of
(4) Different classes but same division
sulphur to sulphuric acid under aerobic
114. How many of the following diseases are caused conditions are also
by viruses?
(1) Capable of tolerating high temperature
Mumps, Cucumber mosaic, Influenza, Scrapie (2) Present in the gut of several ruminant
disease, Cholera, Tetanus, Typhoid animals
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Found in extreme saline environment
(3) Five (4) Two (4) Responsible for the production of biogas
115. In unfavourable conditions, Plasmodium of slime 122. Euglenoids have
mould forms (1) Two flagella of same size
(1) Fruiting body (2) Wall-less spores (2) Lipid rich layer called pellicle
(3) Mycelium (4) Biflagellate spores (3) Pigments identical to those present in higher
plants
116. The feature of living being absent in mules is
(4) Only heterotrophic mode of nutrition even in
(1) Growth (2) Metabolism
the presence of sunlight
(3) Reproduction (4) Consciousness
123. Both Neurospora and Claviceps form
117. The taxonomic aid that provides information of
(1) Endogenous asexual and exogenous sexual
plants of a specific area by giving the actual
spores
account of habitat and distribution is
(2) Conidia as asexual and basidiospore as
(1) Key (2) Museum sexual spore
(3) Flora (4) Catalogue (3) Zoospore as asexual and ascospore as
118. Mark the wrongly matched pair. sexual spore
(1) Herbarium – Storehouse for (4) Exogenous asexual and endogenous sexual
conserved plants spores
124. Read the following statements and choose the
(2) Museum – Exhibition of both option which is true for them.
plants and animals
Statement-1 : All living organisms are linked to
(3) Botanical garden – Collection of plants one another by sharing the common genetic
material but to varying degrees.
(4) Manual – Provides
information for Statement-2 : A large population of a single
species on earth is referred to as biodiversity.
identification of
names of species (1) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
119. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. taxonomic
aid key. (3) Both the statements are correct

(1) Based on similarities and dissimilarities in (4) Both the statement are incorrect
organisms 125. Phylogeny is the study of ______ of organisms.
(2) There are separate taxonomic keys specific Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
for each taxonomic category (1) Embryonic development
(3) Keys are generally analytical in nature (2) Ecological information
(4) Each statement of a key is known as a (3) Nomenclature
couplet (4) Evolutionary history
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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-B)

126. Which of the following disease causing 132. Select the incorrect match from the following.
pathogens are not mentioned in any of the
(1) Morels – Edible ascocarps
kingdom of Whittaker’s five kingdom
classification system? (2) Neurospora crassa – Drosophila of plant
a. Prion kingdom
b. Viroid (3) Truffles – Club fungi
c. TMV
(4) Saccharomyces – Baker’s yeast
d. Puccinia cerevisiae
e. Trypanosoma
133. Select the odd ones w.r.t. seven obligate
(1) b, d & e only
categories of taxonomic hierarchy.
(2) a, b, c & e only
(1) Kingdom, Phylum, Division
(3) a, b & c only
(2) Tribe, Variety
(4) All a, b, c, d & e
(3) Species, Genus, Family
127. Which of the following plants is/are not partially
heterotrophic? (4) Order, Family, Genus

(1) Bladderwort 134. Detailed information about a particular taxon is

(2) Venus flytrap present in

(3) Both (1) and (2) (1) Manual (2) Catalogue

(4) Mustard (3) Monograph (4) Flora

128. Mark the incorrect feature w.r.t. members of 135. Match the following columns and select the
Phycomycetes. correct option.
(1) Asexual reproduction may occur by motile or Column I Column II
non-motile spores.
a. Cell wall (i) Dinoflagellates
(2) Zygospore is formed by fusion of two
gametes impregnated with
silica
(3) Mycelium septate and coenocytic
(4) Spores are endogenously produced b. Whirling whips (ii) Chrysophytes
129. Red dinoflagellate c. Mixotrophic nutrition (iii) Sporozoan
a. Is exemplified by Gonyaulax protozoa
b. Rapidly multiply to form red tide in sea d. Endoparasite (iv) Euglenoids
c. Are not found in marine habitat
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
Select the correct one(s).
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a and c (4) a only
130. Citrus canker disease is caused by a (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Fungal pathogen
(2) Prokaryotic pathogen SECTION - B
(3) Virus
136. Majority of bacteria are
(4) Prion
(1) Pathogens
131. Allium and Colchicum are the related genera of
family (2) Chemoautotroph

(1) Anacardiaceae (2) Solanaceae (3) Photoautotroph

(3) Liliaceae (4) Poaceae (4) Decomposers

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

137. Organisms involved in biogas production are How many of the given features is/are correct for
(1) Also found in hot springs a filamentous blue green alga, Nostoc?

(2) Archaebacteria (1) One (2) Two

(3) Heterotrophs (3) Three (4) Four

144. An infectious spore like-stage is present in the
(4) True bacteria
life cycle of a protozoan which causes
138. Pigments of ______ are identical to those
(1) Sleeping sickness
present in higher plants.
(2) Dysentry
(1) Diatoms (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Poliomyelitis
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids
139. White rust on mustard is caused by (4) Malaria

(1) Albugo 145. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. brinjal.

(2) Puccinia (1) Family – Solanaceae

(3) Ustilago (2) Class – Dicotyledonae

(4) Aspergillus (3) Genus – Solanum
140. Mark the disease caused by wrongly folded (4) Order – Sapindales
proteins 146. A new prokaryotic organism was discovered and
(1) Mad cow disease it is a chemosynthetic autotroph. For giving it a
(2) PSTD scientific name, one should follow the set of rules
given in
(3) Mosaic disease in tomato
(1) ICBN (2) ICVCN
(4) Ergot disease
(3) ICZN (4) ICNB
141. The kingdom system that did not distinguish
between the prokaryotes and eukaryotes as well 147. The process of categorising different organisms,
as unicellular and multicellular organisms was on the basis of some easily observable
given by characters is known as
(1) Copeland (1) Biosystematics
(2) Linnaeus (2) Taxonomy
(3) Carl Woese (3) Ontogeny
(4) Whittaker (4) Classification
142. Both diatoms and dinoflagellates are protists but 148. Select the odd one from the following.
differ in (1) familiaris (2) lupus
(1) Mode of nutrition (3) aureus (4) sapiens
(2) Cell wall composition 149. Under favourable conditions, the most common
(3) Body organisation method of reproduction in bacteria is
(4) Habitat as former is aquatic and later is (1) Binary fission
terrestrial (2) Endospore formation
143. Read the following features.
(3) Transformation
(a) Nitrogenase activity in vegetative cells under
(4) Conjugation
aerobic conditions
150. Kuru disease in humans is caused by
(b) Mucilaginous sheath covering
(1) A proteinaceous infectious particle
(c) Presence of carbon as well as nitrogen fixing
enzymes (2) A virus, containing ssRNA

(d) Presence of both pigment systems in (3) An infectious RNA particle

heterocyst (4) A virus, containing dsRNA

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-B)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 157. Find the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name and
common name.
151. Read the following characters:
(A) Shed their scales periodically (1) Bufo – Toad

(B) Sexes are separate (2) Pterophyllum – Angelfish

(C) External ear openings absent (3) Myxine – Hagfish
(D) Three chambered heart
(4) Calotes – Tree lizard
Given characters are correct for
158. The body is externally and internally divided into
(1) Salamandra (2) Naja
segments with a serial repetition of at least some
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Crocodilus
organs. This is known as
152. Match column I with column II and choose the
(1) Metamerism (2) Metagenesis
correct option.
(3) Metastasis (4) Metamorphosis
Column I Column II
159. Select the animal which is not economically
a. Hemichordata (i) Chaetopleura beneficial.

b. Echinodermata (ii) Balanoglossus (1) Locusta (2) Laccifer

(3) Pinctada (4) Bombyx
c. Mollusca (iii) Ophiura
160. Select the option which represents a set of
d. Aschelminthes (iv) Ancylostoma
animals in which both are poikilotherms.
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) Chelone and Rana (2) Rohu and Pavo
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) Corvus and Trygon (4) Bufo and Delphinus
153. Paired fins, operculum and scales are not found 161. Which of the following does not belong to group
in protostomes?
(1) Hippocampus (2) Exocoetus
(1) Mollusca (2) Hemichordata
(3) Petromyzon (4) Rohu
(3) Arthropoda (4) Annelida
154. Osphradium is a chemoreceptor found in the
162. Select the option representing a wrong match in
members of phylum
the given table.
(1) Echinodermata (2) Porifera
Animal Characteristic Taxon
(3) Mollusca (4) Arthropoda
(1) Macropus Mammary glands Mammalia
155. Which of the following cells is not present in
(2) Adamsia Polyp and medusa Coelenterata
Obelia?
stage in life cycle
(1) Choanocytes (2) Interstitial cells
(3) Anopheles Malpighian tubules Arthropoda
(3) Cnidoblasts (4) Sensory cells
(4) Prawn Gills Crustacea
156. Dicondylic skulls are found in (A) and
163. All of the following features about ctenophores
(B) . Select the option which fills the blanks
are correct but one is wrong. Select the wrong
correctly. one.
(1) A – Fishes, B – Reptiles (1) Diploblastic animals with biradial symmetry
(2) A – Amphibians, B – Mammals (2) Nematocysts are present in tentacles
(3) A – Reptiles, B – Birds (3) Well marked property of bioluminescence
(4) A – Amphibians, B – Birds
(4) Asexual reproduction is absent

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

164. Which of the following is a false statement w.r.t. 168. Which of the following animals is correctly
animal illustrated? matched with its characteristic feature and the
phylum to which it belongs?
Animal Characteristics Phylum

(1) Euspongia Extracellular Porifera

digestion

(2) Obelia Absence of Cnidaria

metagenesis

(3) Fasciola Hooks and suckers Platyhelminthes

are present

(4) Nereis Parapodia help in Annelida

swimming
(1) It is male Ascaris that belongs to phylum
169. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
Aschelminthes. correct option.
(2) It is triploblastic and mesoderm is present as
Column-I Column-II
scattered pouches in body cavity. (Animal) (Excretory
(3) It is a dioecious animal as sexes are cells/organ)
separate. Saccoglossus
a. (i) Flame cells
(4) Males are shorter than females and have
b. Asterias (ii) Proboscis gland
straight post anal tail.
c. Liver fluke (iii) Nephridia
165. Feature not associated with Hydra is
(1) Indirect development d. Pheretima (iv) Absent

(2) Extracellular and intracellular digestion (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

(3) Absence of alternation of generation (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(4) Presence of stinging cells
166. Read the two statements
Aschelminthes.
a. Members have a true body cavity.
b. Sexual dimorphism can be established based
on the presence of excretory pore.
Select the correct option.
(1) ‘a’ is correct but ‘b’ is incorrect
(2) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct.
(3) ‘a’ is incorrect but ‘b’ is correct.
(4) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are incorrect.
167. Presence of all of the following features is seen
in most of the echinoderm except
(1) Calcareous endoskeleton
(2) Specialized excretory system
(3) External fertilisation
(4) Complete digestive system
170. Each of the following cells are specialised to
perform a special function, except
regarding
(1) Cnidoblasts (2) Choanocytes
(3) Colloblasts (4) Interstitial cells
171. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. non-
chordates.
(1) Gut is always ventral to nerve cord
(2) CNS is solid and double
(3) Heart is dorsal (if present)
(4) Gill slits are absent
172. Some animals are given below in a box.
Pavo, Hyla, Clarias, Platypus, Chelone, Felis,
Macaca, Macropus, Testudo, Elephas, Columba,
Pteropus, Rattus, Equus
Choose the class from the given options whose
examples are maximum in number in the given
box.
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia
(3) Aves (4) Mammalia

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-B)

173. In amphibians, alimentary canal, urinary and 180. Among the following animals which of them
reproductive tract open into common chamber possesses higher regeneration capacity?
called (1) Pinctada (2) Locusta
(1) Ovisac (2) Brood pouch (3) Nereis (4) Planaria
(3) Cloaca (4) Scrotum 181. Which of the following is an incorrect match of
174. Select the odd one w.r.t. habitat. the animal and its locomotory structure?
(1) Pleurobrachia (2) Cucumaria (1) Asterias – Tube feet
(3) Spongilla (4) Exocoetus
(2) Nereis – Parapodia
175. “Alimentary canal is complete with a well with setae
developed muscular pharynx”. This is true for
(3) Pila – Ctenidia
(1) Gorgonia (2) Taenia
(4) Pleurobrachia – Comb plates
(3) Wuchereria (4) Planaria
176. File-like rasping organ for feeding in Pila is called 182. Both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood drain
into the same ventricle in heart of a
(1) Mantle (2) Statocyst
(1) Fish (2) Tree frog
(3) Parapodia (4) Radula
(3) Bat (4) Parrot
177. Which one of these is not a true fish?
183. Thecodont dentition and four chambered heart is
(1) Flying fish (2) Sawfish
found in
(3) Stingray (4) Silverfish
(1) Calotes (2) Psittacula
178. Match column I with column II and choose the
(3) Crocodilus (4) Bufo
correct option.
184. Identify an animal with eight external rows of
Column I Column II
comb plates.
a. Tetrapoda (i) Phylum (1) Euspongia (2) Ctenoplana
b. Agnatha (ii) Superclass (3) Gorgonia (4) Fasciola

c. Annelida (iii) Division 185. Study the statements given below.

A: In poriferans, fertilisation is internal and
d. Osteichthyes (iv) Class
development is indirect.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) B: In echinoderms, fertilisation is usually external
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) and development is indirect.
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (1) A is correct and B is incorrect
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) A is incorrect and B is correct
179. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. the animal (3) A and B, both are correct
shown below. (4) A and B, both are incorrect

SECTION - B

186. ______ have rudimentary structure in the collar

region called stomochord. Select the option
(1) Ectoparasites on some fishes which fills the blank correctly.
(2) Open circulatory system (1) Molluscs
(3) Cranium and vertebral column are (2) Echinodermates
cartilaginous (3) Annelids
(4) Bears 6-15 pairs of gill slits (4) Hemichordates

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Test-1 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

187. Select the mismatch. 193. Which of the following is not a matching set of a
class and its three examples?
(1) Doliolum – Retrogressive
metamorphosis (1) Mammalia – Dolphins,
Balaenoptera,
(2) Amphioxus – Excretion by
Panthera
protonephridia with
(2) Aves – Neophron, Psittacula,
solenocytes
Aptenodytes
(3) Salpa – Body is enclosed in
(3) Reptilia – Chelone, Columba,
leathery calcareous
Calotes
shell
(4) Osteichthyes – Pterophyllum, Betta,
(4) Petromyzon – Ammocoete larva Catla
188. Notochord is present in all, except 194. Out of the following set of characters, how many
(1) Larva of Ascidia are found in bony fishes?
(2) Adult Salpa Placoid scales, Homocercal tail fin, Swim
(3) Larva of Branchiostoma bladder, Claspers, Operculum
(4) Adult Amphioxus (1) Two (2) Three
189. Cells in a sponge responsible for gemmule (3) Four (4) Five
formation are 195. Which of the following is a flightless bird?
(1) Trophocytes (2) Archaeocytes (1) Struthio (2) Corvus
(3) Myocytes (4) Gland cells (3) Psittacula (4) Columba
190. All of the following statements are correct about 196. Select the odd one w.r.t. level of organisation.
Herdmania except (1) Annelida (2) Mollusca
(1) Notochord is present only in adult, absent in (3) Cnidaria (4) Aschelminthes
larva 197. Which of the following animal has diaphragm and
is viviparous?
(2) Marine animal with open circulatory system
(1) Magur (2) Platypus
(3) Excretory organ is neural gland
(3) Flying fish (4) Blue Whale
(4) Larva is motile and undergoes retrogressive
198. Which of the following animals does not exhibit
metamorphosis
radial symmetry?
191. Which of the following character is shared by all
(1) Coelenterates (2) Ctenophores
members of kingdom Animalia without any
(3) Adult echinoderms (4) Platyhelminthes
exception?
199. A true bee product is ______ and obtained from
(1) Similar level of organisation
______. Select the option which fill the blanks
(2) Multicellularity correctly.
(3) Presence of neural system (1) Honey, Apis respectively
(4) Locomotion (2) Bee wax, Laccifer respectively
192. Select the mismatch. (3) Bee wax, Apis respectively
(1) Anopheles – Haemocoel (4) Honey, Bombyx respectively
200. Select the odd one w.r.t. sensory organs of
(2) Loligo – Schizocoelomate
members of phylum Arthropoda.
(3) Saccoglossus – Enterocoelomate (1) Antennae (2) Compound eye
(4) Ancylostoma – Acoelomate (3) Statocyst (4) Amphids

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