30/05/2018 TYWD

CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Maximum Marks : 360 Time : 1 Hour 30 Minutes

UNIT TEST
(TWO YEAR BATCHES FOR MEDICAL - 2020)
Test - 1

Topics covered :

Physics : Mathematical Tools, Physical World, Units and Measurements

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Biology : The Cell : The Unit of Life; Structural Organization in animals - Animal tissues

INSTRUCTIONS :

(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

PHYSICS

1. Choose the correct statement

(1) Nuclear force is conservative (2) Gravitational force is conservative
(3) Electrostatic force is non-conservative (4) All of these
2. Which of the following is strongest fundamental force ?
(1) Gravitational force (2) Electromagnetic force
(3) Weak nuclear force (4) Strong nuclear force
3. The solid angle subtended at the centre of hemisphere is
2
(1) 2 sr (2) 4 sr (3) sr (4)  sr
3
4. The viscous force F on a sphere of radius ‘a’ moving in a medium with velocity v is given by
F  6av

The dimension of  is
(1) [ML–3] (2) [MLT–2] (3) [MT–1] (4) [ML–1T–1]
5. If unit of time is taken as 10s, unit of mass 5kg and unit of length 20m, the unit of energy would be

1
(1) 20J (2) J (3) 16J (4) 4J
20
6. A wave propagating along x axis is represented by y = asin(At – Bx + C), where A,B and C are
 aBC 
constants. The dimensions of   are same as those of [y = displacement of the particle,
 A 
a = amplitude of the particle, t = time]
(1) length (2) mass (3) time (4) velocity
7. The period of vibration, T of the prongs of a tuning fork depends upon density (d) of the material,
young’s modulus (Y) and length of prongs l. The correct expression, taking K as dimensionless
constant is

d K Kld
(1) T  Kl (2) T  dY (3) T  (4) T  K Y
Y l Y l d

8. If speed of light (C), acceleration due to gravity (g), and pressure (P) are taken as fundamental units,
then dimensions of gravitational constant (G) are
(1) CgP–3 (2) C2g3P–2 (3) C0g2P–1 (4) C2g2P–2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

9. Which of the following measurement is most accurate ?

(1) 0.005 mm (2) 5.00 mm (3) 50.00 mm (4) 5.0 mm
10. Which of the following measurement is most precise ?
(1) 5.00 mm (2) 5.00 cm (3) 5.00 m (4) 5.00 km
11. The unit of percentage error is
(1) Same as that of physical quantity
(2) Different from that of physical quantity
(3) Percentage error is unit less
(4) Errors have got their own units which are different from that of physical quantity measured
12. The heat generated in a circuit is dependent upon the resistance, current and time for which the
current is flown. If the error in measuring the above are 1%, 2% and 1%, respectively, the maximum
error in calculating heat will be [Heat produced in the current is given by H=i2Rt]
(1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 6% (4) 1%
13. A vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calipers, the least count is
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.05 mm (3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.2 mm
14. The pitch of screw gauge having 50 divisions on its circular scale is 1 mm. When the two jaws of the
screw gauge are in contact with each other, the zero of the circular scale lies 6 divisions below the
line of graduation. When a wire is placed between the jaws, 3 linear scale divisions are clearly visible
while 31st division on the circular scale coincides with the reference line. The diameter of the wire
is
(1) 3.62 mm (2) 3.74 mm (3) 3.50 mm (4) None of these
15. The respective number of significant figure for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1×10–3 are
(1) 4, 4, 2 (2) 5, 1, 2 (3) 5, 1, 5 (4) 5, 5, 2
16. The numbers 2.745 and 2.735 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give
(1) 2.75 and 2.74 (2) 2.74 and 2.73 (3) 2.75 and 2.73 (4) 2.74 and 2.74
17. The square root of (99)
(1) 9.925 (2) 9.295 (3) 9.95 (4) 9.825
18. The speed (v) and time (t) for an object moving along straight line are related as t2– 2 2 vt + 50=0,
where v is in m/s and t is in second. Find the possible values of v
(1) v  5 m/s (2) v  25 m/s (3) v  10 m/s (4) v  15 m/s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

19. A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles spreading out radially at the speed
4
of 0.25 m/s. At the instant when the radius of the circular wave is m , how fast is the enclosed area

increasing?
4 2 2 2 1 2
(1) m /s (2) m /s (3) 2 m 2/s (4) m /s
  2

1 2
8
20. The value of  9x dx   cos xdx is
0 0

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

21. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the rate of change in y with x for the function
shown in figure ?
y

x
(i) It is positive in the interval shown
(ii) It is negative in the interval shown
(iii) It first increases, becomes maximum and then decreases
(iv) It first decreases, becomes minimum and then increases
(1) i, ii (2) i, iii (3) i, iv (4) ii, iv
22. The value of resistance is 10.845 and the value of current is 3.23A, the potential is 35.02935 volt.
Its value in significant number would be
(1) 3.55 volt (2) 35.0 volt (3) 35.029 volt (4) 35.030 volt
23. The slope of charge(q) versus time(t) graph (dq/dt) is equal to the instantaneous current(i) as
dq
i
dt
Charge is flowing through a wire which varies with time as shown in figure
q (c) 2
q=4t

t(s)
2
Find the value of current in wire at t = 2 sec

(1) 4A (2) 16A (3) 8A (4) 2A

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

CHEMISTRY

24. Calculate significant figure in 0.0060

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5

25. An element forms two oxides. In one oxide, 1g of oxide contains 0.5g of element and another 4g oxide
contains 0.8g of element. This observation is in accordance with
(1) Law of definite proportions (2) Law of multiple proportions
(3) Law of reciprocal proportions (4) Law of conservation of mass

26. Which of the following contains same number of gram atom as present in 16 g of oxygen?
(1) 28g nitrogen (2) 35.5g chlorine (3) 2g hydrogen (4) 71.0g chlorine

27. Specific heat of a metal is 1Jg–1 K–1. The metal is _______

(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) K

28. Which of the following is correct order for their mass ?

(a) 10g Fe (b) 2.24 L CO2 at NTP
(c) 0.2 mole NO2 gas (d) 3.01×1022 molecules of SO2
(1) a > c > b > d (2) c > d > a > b (3) a > d > c > b (4) b > a > c > d

29. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. If its vapour density is 30, its molecular formula is
(1) CH2O (2) C2H4O2 (3) C3H6O3 (4) CH3OH

30. The normality of 4% (w/v) NaOH is

(1) 0.1 (2) 1.0 (3) 0.05 (4) 0.01

31. For the reaction

2Fe(NO3)2 + 3Na2CO3  Fe2(CO3)3 + 6NaNO3

Find out % yield of the reaction when 2.5 mole Fe(NO3)3 reacts with 3.6 mole Na2CO3 to form 6.3
mole NaNO3
(1) 50% (2) 87.5% (3) 40.5% (4) 60.5%
32. Calculate volume of ammonia formed at NTP when 3g hydrogen reacts with 7g of nitrogen
(1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 mL (3) 22.4 L (4) 11.2 mL
33. Find out the ratio of percentage composition of carbon present in acetic acid (CH 3COOH) and
glucose (C 6H12O6)
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

34. How many moles of methane (CH 4) are required to produce 22g carbon dioxide after complete
combustion?
(1) 1 mole (2) 2 moles (3) 0.5 mole (4) 1.5 mole
35. A 2(N) solution is diluted to four times. Which of the following changes during dilution ?
(1) mass of solute (2) mili-equivalent or mili-mole of solute
(3) normality of solution (4) equivalent of solute

36. 20g of a monobasic acid (HA) furnishes 0.5 mole H in its aqueous solution. 1g equivalent of the
acid will be
(1) 40g (2) 20g (3) 100g (4) 10g
37. Calculate equivalent mass of sodium phosphate Na3PO4 (molecular mass is M)
M M M
(1) (2) (3) M (4)
6 3 2
38. 65g of Zn (GAM=65) displaces 2g of hydrogen from H2SO4. Find out the ratio of equivalent mass
of Zn and H2SO4 for this reaction.
(1) 65 : 98 (2) 65 : 49 (3) 32.5 : 98 (4) 1 :1
39. Consider following reaction
2Al(OH)3 + 3H2SO4  Al2(SO4)3 + 6H2O
Calculate equivalent mass of Al(OH)3 for this reaction (GAM of Al = 27g)
(1) 27 (2) 9 (3) 26 (4) 39
40. The mole fraction of a solute in its aqueous solution is 0.2. Calculate molality of the solution
(1) 10.1 (2) 13.9 (3) 15.6 (4) 20.3
41. 100 ml 1 M HCl is mixed with 100 ml 1 M H2SO4 and final volume of the solution is made upto 500
ml by adding water. What is normality of resulting solution ?
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.5
42. 600 ml mixture of O3 and O2 weigh 1g at NTP. Calculate volume of O2 in mixture.
(1) 200 ml (2) 300 ml (3) 400 ml (4) 100 ml
43. The normality of 0.3M phosphorous acid is (H3PO3)
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.3 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.9
44. An aqueous solution of 6.3g oxalic acid dihydrate (H2C2O4 . 2H2O) is made upto 250ml. The volume
of 0.1N NaOH required to completely neutralise 10ml of this solution is
(1) 20 ml (2) 40 ml (3) 10 ml (4) 4 ml
45. A 100 ml solution of 2(M) BaCl2 (aq) is mixed with 100ml of 1M H2SO4 (aq). The molar concentration
of Cl – ions in resulting solution will be
(1) 4M (2) 2M (3) 3M (4) 8M

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

BIOLOGY
46. Prokaryotic cell lacks
(1) Microtubules (2) Ribosome
(3) Mesosome (4) More than one option is correct
47. Which one does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas ?
(1) Ribosomes (2) Cell wall
(3) Chromosomal organisation (4) Cell membrane
48. Identify the mis-match with respect to plastid
(1) Chromoplast – Petals (2) Amyloplast – Potato tuber
(3) Chloroplast – Ripened fruit of banana (4) Aleuroplast – Maize seed
49. Match the column correctly
Column I Column II
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (i) Synthesis of steroids
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ii) Synthesis of glycoproteins
(C) Golgi body (iii) Involved in autodigestion
(D) Lysosome (iv) Provides precursors of enzymes for the formation of
lysosome
A B C D
(1) A = (ii) B = (iii) C = (iv) D = (i)
(2) A = (i) B = (ii) C = (iii) D = (iv)
(3) A = (iv) B = (i) C = (ii) D = (iii)
(4) A = (iii) B = (iv) C = (i) D = (ii)
50. If the centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremely short and one very long arm,
the chromosome is
(1) Telocentric (2) Acrocentric (3) Metacentric (4) Submetacentric

A
B
51. C DE

The figure given above shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its parts. Identify the labelled part
which contains most of the enzymes for TCA cycle
(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) E
52. Tonoplast is absent in
(1) Food vaccuole (2) Sap vacuole (3) Gas vacuole (4) Contractile vacuole
53. Which of the following microbodies are present in abundance in endosperm cells of oil seeds ?
(1) Peroxisome (2) Sphaerosome
(3) Glyoxysome (4) More than one option is correct
54. Identify X,Y and Z with respect to the following features
X = Cell eating process
Y = Polymorphic cell organelle
Z = Part of cell wall chiefly made up of calcium pectate
X Y Z
(1) Pinocytosis Mitochondria Primary cell wall
(2) Phagocytosis Lysosome Middle lamella
(3) Pinocytosis Golgi body Primary cell wall
(4) Exocytosis Lysosome Secondary cell wall
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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

55. The cell organelle with cart wheel like structure possessing 9+0 microtubular organisation is present
(1) Only in plant cells (2) Only in animal cells
(3) Both in higher plant and animal cells (4) In prokaryotes and some animal cells
56. Read the following statements and choose how many of them are correct ?
A) Microfilaments are responsible for pseudopodia formation
B) Chromoplasts are formed either from leucoplast or chloroplast
C) Nucleolus is considered as ribosome factory
D) Primary lysosome contain enzymes in active form
E) RER has major role in detoxification of toxic compounds
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
57. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
A) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory
B) Rudolf Virchow first explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells
C) Robert Hooke first saw and described a living cell
D) The most acceptable model of cell membrane was given by Singer and Nicolson
(1) Statements A, B and C are correct (2) All statements except C are correct
(3) Only statement D is correct (4) Statements B, C and D are correct
58. Endomembrane system includes
(1) All non membranous cell organelles
(2) All double membranous cell organelles
(3) Membranous cell organelles whose formation and functions are coordinated
(4) More than one option is correct
59. Which of the following is absent in gram positive bacteria ?
(1) Teichoic acid in cell wall (2) S and M ring in the basal body
(3) Lipopolysaccharide in the cell wall (4) All are absent
60. According to fluid mosaic model
(1) Plasma membrane has a uniform deposition of lipids and proteins
(2) Lipids have been compared to ice bergs floating in a sea of proteins
(3) Extrinsic and intrinsic proteins exist in plasma membrane
(4) Plasma membrane is static in nature
61. Which of the following organelles has a continuous connection with outer membrane of nucleus ?
(1) Lysosome (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Sphaerosome (4) Golgi apparatus
62. Cell theory is not applicable to
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (3) Algae (4) Virus
63. Secondary cell wall of plants is formed
(1) Inside the primary cell wall (2) Outside the primary cell wall
(3) Below middle lamellae (4) Inside the plasma membrane
64. The fluid nature of the membrane is important for
(1) Cell growth and cell division (2) Endocytosis
(3) Secretion (4) All of them

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

65. Ribophorin I and Ribophorin II are involved in the attachment between

(1) RER and small sub unit of 80S ribosome (2) RER and large sub unit of 80S ribosome
(3) RER and small sub unit of 70S ribosome (4) RER and large sub unit of 70S ribosome
66. Euchromatin region
(1) Gets dark stain during interphase (2) is genetically inactive
(3) is rich in loosely packed DNA (4) Both (1) and (2)
67. Which of the statement is correct with respect to the following diagram ?

(1) Densely stained reticular structure near the nucleus

(2) With similar type of convex ‘trans’ and concave ‘cis’ faces
(3) Ribosomes are attached with it
(4) More than one option is correct
68. Which of the following cells are multinucleate ?
(1) Sieve tube cells (2) Paramoecium
(3) Mammalian RBC (4) Lower groups of fungi
69. How many of the following are made of cuboidal epithelium ?
Ger minal Epithelium, Bowman's Capsule
Thyroid follicle, Ducts of glands, Intestinal epithelium
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
70. Match the columns and choose the correct option
Column A Column B
(A) Cowper’s gland (i) Branched alveolar
(B) Sebaceous gland (ii) Compound saccular
(C) Gastric gland (iii) Branched tubular
(D) Sublingual gland (iv) Compound tubulo-alveolar
(E) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (v) Simple tubular
A B C D E
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (v)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (v) (ii)
(3) (iv) (i) (v) (iii) (ii)
(4) (v) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
71. Which of the following prevents leakage of materials due to tightly packed plasma membranes?
(1) Zonula adherens (2) Tight junctions (3) Macula adherens (4) Gap junctions

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

72. Type of tissue which joins muscle to the overlying integument is

(1) Adipose tissue – Storing lipid droplet
(2) Areolar tissue – Secretes leptin
(3) Adipose tissue – Serves as support frame work for epithelium
(4) Areolar tissue – Most widely distributed connective tissue
73. How many of the given statements are false ?
(i) Collagen and elastin are present in dense connective tissue
(ii) Ligament has less elastin in comparison to collagen
(iii) Tendon is dense regular connective tissue
(iv) Dermis of skin is irregular dense connective tissue
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Three (4) One
74. Choose the correct matching
(1) Nasal septum – Yellow elastic cartilage (2) Eustachian tube – White fibrocartilage
(3) Ear pinna – Calcified cartilage (4) Costal cartilage – Hyaline cartilage
75. Match the following columns and choose the correct option
Column A Column B
(a) Cuboidal epithelium (i) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
(b) Ciliated columnar epithelium (ii) Lung alveoli
(c) Squamous epithelium (iii) Tubular part of nephron
(d) Compound epithelium (iv) Pharynx
(1) a = (iv) b = (ii) c = (iii) d = (i)
(2) a = (iii) b = (i) c = (ii) d = (iv)
(3) a = (iii) b = (i) c = (iv) d = (ii)
(4) a = (iv) b = (i) c = (iii) d = (ii)
76. Choose the correct statement
(1) Erythrocytes – Oval, nucleated, biconvex in vertebrates except mammals
(2) WBC – Smallest of all the formed elements
(3) RBC – Disc-like, nucleated and oval in mammals
(4) Platelets – Small and nucleated cells
77. Read the following statements
Statement A – Z-disc bisects I-band
Statement B – Actin filaments are attached on both sides of the Z-disc
Choose the correct option
(1) Statements A and B are correct
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Statements A and B are incorrect

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

78. Read following statements and identify them as True (T) or False (F) with respect to tissues
I) Neuroglia makes up more than 50% of the volume of neural tissue
II ) Communication junctions are found in between cardiac muscle cells
III ) Desmosomes help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue
IV) Connective tissues are the most abundant and widely distributed tissues in the body of complex
animals
I II III IV
(1) T F T T
(2) F T T F
(3) T T F T
(4) F F T T
79. Read the following statements
A. Dendrites carry impulse away from the cell body
B. Nissl’s granules are absent in axon
C. Axon carries messages away from cyton
D. Nissl’s granules are large, irregular masses of lysosomes
How many statements are correct ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
80. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Unipolar neurons are found in early embryos
(2) Bipolar neurons are found in olfactory epithelium
(3) Multipolar neurons are most common
(4) Pseudounipolar neuron is present in retina of eye
81. Pick the correct match
(1) Astrocyte : Forms blood brain barrier
(2) Oligodendrocyte : Forms myelin sheath in PNS
(3) Microglia : Ectodermal in origin
(4) Neurilemma : Discontinuous in nodes of Ranvier
82. Choose the false statements with respect to simple cuboidal epithelium
(1) It helps in absorption
(2) It helps in secretion
(3) It is present over basement membrane
(4) It is present in endothelium of blood vessels

83. B u cca l C a v ity, P h a ryn x, E so p h a g u s,

U rin a ry B la d d e r, P a n cre a s

How many of the above mentioned parts of body are lined by transitional epithelium ?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
84. Read the following statements
Statement A : New born mammals don’t shiver in spite of lower temperature outside
Statement B : Adipocyte filled with cytochrome is present in new born babies
Choose the correct option
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct (4) Both A and B are incorrect
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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWD)

85. Choose the correct matching

Column A Column B
(A) Hyaline cartilage (i) Intervertebral disc
(B) White fibrocartilage (ii) Nasal septum
(C) Yellow elastic cartilage (iii) Eustachian tube
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii (4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
86. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Cardiac muscle fibres are branched
(2) Cardiac myofibrils have dark and light bands
(3) Cardiac myocytes are uninucleated, without actin and myosin
(4) Intercalated discs are only seen in cardiac muscle
87. Read the statements (A–D) and choose which are True (T) and False (F)
(A) Pavement epithelium is found in alveoli
(B) Mucocyte or Goblet cell is unicellular gland
(C) Pancreas is the only heterocrine gland
(D) Adipose tissue is found around delicate organs for protection
A B C D
(1) T T F T
(2) T F F T
(3) T T T T
(4) T F F F
88. Read the following (A–D)
A. Ligaments are inelastic in nature.
B. Tendons are dense connective tissue joining two bones
C. Calcium phosphate is the most abundant calcium salt in bone
D. Matrix of cartilage resists compression
Choose the correct statements
(1) A only (2) A and B only (3) B, C and D only (4) C and D only
89. Select the correct option
(1) Boiling of collagen yields gelatin
(2) Mast cells produce histamine, serotonin, heparin
(3) Elastin fibre remains unaffected on boiling
(4) All are correct
90. Out of the following, which is primarily mesodermal in origin ?
(1) Astrocytes (2) Cardiac muscles (3) Iris muscles (4) Neurons

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