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CODE-A4

North & North West Delhi | Lucknow Campuses

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES
(for NEET-2021)
Test - 1

Topics covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. If 86.45 is rounded off upto three significant figures 4. Choose the incorrect statement.
then it should be written as (1) Gravitational force is weakest force in nature
(1) 86.5 (2) 86.4 (2) Strong nuclear forces are charge independent
(3) 86.0 (4) 86.3 (3) Working of laser is based on population
2. If an object is released from rest from a height then inversion
ratio of distance travelled by it in (4) Weak nuclear forces are strongest force in
1st second, 2nd second and 3rd second of motion nature
will be
5. S.I. unit for the measurement of plane angle is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 12 : 22 : 32 (1) Degree
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) Minute
3. The scientific principle involved in radio and TV (3) Radian
broadcasting is
(4) Second
(1) Super conductivity
6. Order of magnitude of the distance of the sun from
(2) Bernoulli’s theorem the earth (in S.I. unit) is
(3) Propagation of electromagnetic waves (1) 11 (2) 5
(4) Digital logic (3) 3 (4) 19
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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4) Regular Medical-2021

7. The percentage error in the measurement of the 17. Which of the following is the most precise
radius of a disc is 2%. Maximum percentage error measurement?
in the surface area of the disc will be (1) 0.08 m (2) 0.124 m
(1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 0.8 m (4) 0.3256 m
(3) 4% (4) 6% 18. If force (F), work (W) and velocity (v) are taken as
A2 B 3 fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
8. If x = and the percentage error in the formula of time (T) is
C
measurement of A, B & C are 1%. 2% & 2% (1) [WFv] (2) [WF–1v–1]
respectively then maximum percentage errors in (3) [W–1Fv–2] (4) [WF2v–1]
the value of x would be 19. S.I. unit of drift speed is
(1) 9% (2) 6% (1) m s–1 (2) m s
(3) 7% (4) 14% (3) m s–1 –1 (4) s m–1
9. Number of insignificant zeroes in the value 20. Which of the following physical quantities is having
0.0023400 are
no unit?
(1) 3 (2) 5
(1) Strain (2) Plane angle
(3) 6 (4) 2
(3) Solid angle (4) All of these
10. Zero error is an instrument introduces
21. The least count of a stop watch is 0.1 s.
(1) Systematic error (2) Random error The time of 20 oscillations of the pendulum is
(3) Personal error (4) Least count error found to be 20 s. The percentage error in the time
11. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities period of the pendulum is
have same dimensional formula? (1) 0.5% (2) 1.25%
(1) Force and pressure (3) 0.25% (4) 2%
(2) Angular momentum and acceleration 22. 1 cm of the main scale of Vernier calliper is divided
(3) Work and torque into ten equal parts. If 10 divisions of the main
(4) Surface tension and kinetic energy scale coincide with 8 small division of the main
scale, then least count of the calliper is
12. Displacement x of a particle varies with time (t) as
x = αt2 – βt3 where α & β are constants. (1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.02 cm
α (3) 0.001 cm (4) 0.005 cm
Dimensional formula of , will be
β 23. If the distance covered by an object is zero, then
its displacement
(1) [M0L1T–3] (2) [M0L1T–2]
(1) Must be zero
(3) [M L T ]
1 2 –1 (4) [M0L0T1]
(2) May or may not be zero
13. Dimensional formula for coefficient of viscosity is
(3) Cannot be zero
(1) [ML–1T–2] (2) [ML–1T–1]
(4) Depends on the mass of object
(3) [ML–1T–3] (4) [M1L1T–4]
14. Which of the following has no dimensions? 24. A point object moves in a straight line so that its
position x at any instant t is given by
(1) Universal gas constant
x = t2 + 2. Acceleration of the object at t = 1 s is
(2) Gravitational constant
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) Boltzman constant
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
(4) Relative density
25. An object travels 40 m in 5 s and then another
15. In equation y = Acos2(ωt –kx), where t is time and 40 m in 10 s. Average speed of the object for
x is distance, dimensional formula of ω/k should be complete journey is
(1) [LT–1] (2) [L–1T] (1) 11.44 m/s (2) 5.33 m/s
(3) [L1T1] (4) [L0T0] (3) 7 m/s (4) 2.45 m/s
16. Dimensional formula for electrical resistance is 26. Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given
(1) [ML2 T–3 A–2] by x = 3t2 + 4t – 3 where x is in m. Instantaneous
(2) [M–1 L2 T3 A–2] velocity of the particle at t = 2 s is
(3) [M–1 L3 T3 A1] (1) 6 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(4) [M1 L–2 T–3 A2] (3) 17 m/s (4) 16 m/s

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4)

27. v–t graph of an object moving along a straight line 33. Acceleration of a particle varies with time t as
is as shown in the figure. a = 3t m/s2. If particle starts from rest, then velocity
of the particle at t = 2 s is
(1) 8 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(3) 3 m/s (4) 6 m/s
34. If radius of a sphere at any instant is increasing at
the rate of 1 cm/s, then rate of increase in surface
4
Acceleration of the object at t = 3 s is area of sphere when its radius is cm will be
π
1 1
(1) m/s2 (2) m/s2 (1) 16 cm2/s
3 2
(2) 32π cm2/s
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2
28. A toy car starts from origin moves along x-axis to (3) 16π cm2/s
the point (12, 0, 0) and then returns along the (4) 32 cm2/s
same line to the point (–18, 0, 0), then total 35. The velocity of an object moving in a straight line
distance travelled by the toy car will be
changes from 20 m/s to 144 km/h in 10 s. Average
(1) 30 unit (2) –6 unit
acceleration of the object in this time interval is
(3) 42 unit (4) 28 unit
(1) 12.4 m/s2
29.=If I ∫ sin(6 − 4 x )dx, then I is
(2) 16.4 m/s2
(1) –cos(6 – 4x).4 + c
(3) 2 m/s2
cos ( 6 − 4 x )
(2) +c (4) 10.2 m/s2
4
36. Which of the following speed-time (v–t) graph is
cos ( 6 − 4 x )
(3) +c practically not possible?
6
− cos ( 6 − 4 x )
(4) +c
6 (1) (2)
30. For which of the following position time graph, the
body is under non-zero acceleration?

(3) (4)
(1) (2)

37. Velocity–time graph of two objects moving in same

direction is given in the figure below, Ratio of
acceleration of object (2) to that of object (1) is

(3) (4)

31. Velocity v and position x of a body are related as

v2 = Kx, where K is a constant. Velocity of the body
after 1 s is (given that at t = 0, x = 0)
(1) K (2) K/2
(3) 2K (4) K (1) 1 (2) 16/9
32. An insect moves 5 m towards north and then (3) 9/16 (4) 4/5
7 m towards east. Total displacement of the insect 38. Two cars A and B are moving opposite to each
will be other with speed 20 m/s and 25 m/s respectively.
Magnitude of velocity of car A w.r.t. car B will be
(1) 24 m (2) 74 m
(1) 45 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m (4) 464 m (3) 5 m/s (4) 20 m/s

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4) Regular Medical-2021
39. Acceleration (a)-time (t) graph of a body moving 43. A particle starts moving with constant acceleration
along a straight line is as shown in the figure. The 3 m/s2. Distance travelled by the particle in 4th
change in velocity of body in first second of its journey is
10 seconds is (1) 24 m
(2) 37.5 m
(3) 10.5 m
(4) 15 m
44. A parrot is flying parallel to a railway track at speed
18 km/h. A train is also moving on the track
opposite to bird with speed 15 m/s.
(1) 56 m/s (2) 112 m/s If length of train is 200 m then time taken by the
(3) 28 m/s (4) Zero parrot to cross the train is
40. Slope of velocity-time graph of an object (1) 40 s
represents (2) 20 s
(1) Speed of the object (3) 25 s
(2) Change in velocity of the object (4) 10 s
(3) Acceleration of the object 45. The speed-time graph for a body moving along a
(4) Change in acceleration of the object straight line is shown in figure
41. Two objects are thrown with equal speed of
50 m/s one vertically upwards while other vertically
downwards from same point. Acceleration of these
two objects are respectively (g = 10 m/s2 & upward
direction taken as positive)
(1) –10 m/s2, 10 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2, –10 m/s2
(3) –10 m/s2, –10 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2, 10 m/s2
42. A body is thrown vertically upward such that it The average acceleration of the body may be
returns to the point of projection after 8 s.
(1) 2.5 m/s2
Maximum height reached by the body above point
(2) –2.5 m/s2
of projection will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 40 m (2) 80 m (3) Both (1) & (2)
(3) 160 m (4) 100 m (4) 5 m/s2

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is not a mixture? 49. How many significant figures are in 0.050 cm?
(1) Brass (2) Milk (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Mud (4) Water (3) 3 (4) 4
47. Correct scientific notation is 50. If mass of three wood blocks are 7.497, 6.29 and
(1) 0.000473 (2) 0.473 × 10–3 4.6 g, then the total combine mass of all the three
blocks in appropriate significant figures is
(3) 4.73 × 10–4 (4) 473 × 10–6
(1) 18.387 g (2) 18.39 g
48. If true value of a result is 4.75 m and experimental
values are 4.74 m and 4.76 m then these values (3) 18.4 g (4) 18 g
are 51. Law of conservation of mass is not applicable for
(1) Accurate only (1) Phase transformation
(2) Precise only (2) Combustion reaction
(3) Accurate and precise both (3) Neutralisation reaction
(4) Neither accurate nor precise (4) Nuclear fission

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4)

52. Natural sample and synthetic cupric carbonate 60. Mass of one NH3 molecule in gram is
both contains 51.35% of copper. This data is in (1) 17 (2) 17 NA
accordance with
17 NA
(1) Law of conservation of mass (3) (4)
NA 17
(2) Law of constant proportion
61. 1 ml of CH4 at NTP contains ______ molecules
(3) Law of multiple proportion
(4) Gay-Lussac’s law NA NA
(1) (2)
53. Law of multiple proportion is not applicable for the
22.4 22400
pair (3) NA × 22.4 (4) NA × 22400
(1) CO & CO2 (2) H2O & H2O2 62. If an enzyme contain 2.4 % of Mg, then number of
(3) CH4 & C2H6 (4) O2 & H2O magnesium atoms in 10 g enzyme is
54. At same temperature and pressure 3L of N2 and (1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 6.02 × 1022
2L of H2 will form (3) 6.02 × 1021 (4) 6.02 × 1020
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 63. % composition of carbon in CH3COOH is
1 4 (1) 20 % (2) 40 %
(1) L of NH3 (2) L of NH3
3 3 (3) 12 % (4) 24 %
3 2 64. Molecule having same molecular and empirical
(3) L of NH3 (4) L of NH3
2 3 formula is
55. Which of the following is not correct regarding (1) H2C2O4 (2) H2S2O8
Dalton’s atomic theory? (3) H3PO3 (4) CH3COOH
(1) Matter is made up of atoms. 65. A hydrocarbon contains 80 % carbon, its empirical
(2) Atoms of same elements possess same mass. formula is
(3) Atoms of different elements are different in all (1) C1H1 (2) C1H2
respects. (3) C1H3 (4) C1H4
(4) Atoms of different elements may combine in 66. Volume of CO2 at NTP formed by burning 16 g of
any ratio to form compounds. CH4 with 64 g of O2 is
1 (1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L
56. Mass of th part of C – 12 atom is
12
(3) 44.8 L (4) 5.6 L
(1) 1 g
67. For the reaction
(2) 6.022 × 10–23 g
A + 2B → 3C + D
(3) 1.66 × 10–24 g
If 10 moles of A, 15 moles of B are reacted, then
(4) 12 amu
(1) A is the limiting reagent
57. Element X has two isotopes A and B.
If % abundance of A and B are 50% each, then (2) 10 moles of D are formed
average atomic mass of element X is (3) 22.5 moles of C are formed
(At mass of A = 10 u and B = 20 u) (4) 10 moles of B are consumed
(1) 10 u (2) 15 u 68. 6 moles of BaCl2 reacted with 3 moles of H3PO4.
(3) 20 u (4) 30 u The number of mole of Ba3(PO4)2 formed is
58. Formula mass is applicable in the case of (1) 0.5 mol (2) 1 mol
(1) H2O (2) NaCl (3) 1.5 mol (4) 2 mol
(3) NH3 (4) CH4 69. Mass of CaCO3 required for the preparation of
59. 6.022 × 1023 atoms of oxygen are present in 11.2 L of CO2 at NTP is
(1) 1 mole of O (2) 1 mole of O2 (1) 50 g (2) 100 g
(3) 1 mole of O3 (4) All of these (3) 200 g (4) 25 g

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4) Regular Medical-2021
70. If 2 moles of NaOH is dissolved in 420 g of water, 77. The mole fraction of the solute in a 4.5 m aqueous
then the mass % of NaOH in the solution is (Na = solution is
23 u) 7 3
(1) (2)
(1) 4 % (2) 8 % 48 40
(3) 16 % (4) 32 % 6 4
(3) (4)
71. A gaseous mixture contains equal masses of O2 29 58
and SO2. The mole fraction of SO2 gas in the 78. 11.2 L of CO2 gas at STP contains as many
mixture is molecules as present in
1 1 (1) 300 g of C2H6 (2) 45 g of H2C2O4
(1) (2)
2 3 (3) 4.5 g of H2O (4) 98 g of H2SO4
2 1 79. One avogram is equal to
(3) (4)
3 4 1
(1) 10 NA (2)
72. 29.25 g NaCl is added in 500 g of H2O. The NA
molality of the solution formed is
(Molecular mass of NaCl = 58.5 u) 10
(3) NA amu (4)
NA
(1) 0.1 molal (2) 0.5 molal
80. The molarity of 4 % (w/v) NaOH solution is
(3) 1 molal (4) 2 molal
(1) 1 M (2) 2 M
73. 4.9 g of H2SO4 is present in 500 ml of solution. The
molarity of the solution is (Molecular mass of (3) 3 M (4) 4 M
H2SO4 = 98 u) 81. If vapour density of a gas is 25 then number of
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M molecules present in 100 g of gas is

(3) 0.4 M (4) 4.9 M (1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 1.2 × 1024
(3) 2.4 × 1024 (4) 3.01 × 1023
74. The molality of 14 % (w/w) aqueous solution of
KOH is (Molecular mass of KOH = 56 u) 82. 104° F is equal to

125 125 (1) 40 K (2) 40° C

(1) m (2) m
129 43 (3) 318 K (4) 318° C
83. A biomolecule contains 0.2 % Fe by mass.
72 165
(3) m (4) m The minimum molecular mass possible for the
69 76
biomolecule is (At. Mass of Fe = 56 u)
75. 200 ml, 0.2 M HCl is mixed 300 ml of H2O. The
(1) 14000 u (2) 28000 u
molarity of resultant solution is
(3) 5600 u (4) 2800 u
(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.08 M
84. By Burning 10 g of hydrogen with 90 g of oxygen,
(3) 0.1 M (4) 0.25 M
the mass of water formed is
76. Equivalent mass of H3PO4 in the following reaction (1) 40 g (2) 80 g
is
(3) 90 g (4) 100 g
2NaOH + H3PO4 → Na2HPO4 + 2H2O
85. Volume of 0.1 N H2SO4 required to react
(Molar mass of H3PO4 = M) completely with 5.6 g of CaO is
(1) M (1) 0.5 L (2) 0.2 L
M (3) 2 L (4) 5 L
(2)
2 86. From 26 g of C2H2, 3.011 × 1023 molecules are
M removed, then number of moles of C2H2 remaining
(3) is
3
(1) 0.1 mol (2) 0.5 mol
M
(4) (3) 0.25 mol (4) 0.75 mol
4

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4)

87. 60 ml, 0.4 M NaOH is mixed with 40 ml, 0.8 M 89. 11.2 L gas at STP weighs 10 g. The molecular
NaOH solution. The molarity of resultant mixture is mass of the gas is
(1) 0.2 M (2) 0.4 M (1) 20 mg (2) 20 u
(3) 0.56 M (4) 0.64 M
(3) 20 kg (4) 20 g
88. Which of the following has the maximum mass?
(1) 2 g molecule of CO2 90. A metal oxide contains 32% oxygen by mass. The
equivalent weight of metal is
(2) 44.8 L of O3 at NTP
(3) 6.02 × 1024 molecules of H2O (1) 17 (2) 34
(4) 2 moles of CH4 (3) 32 (4) 68

BOTANY

91. Uphill movement of materials 97. ‘Dictyosomes’ is the term used for
(1) Does not require energy (1) ER of plants
(2) Takes place from higher to lower (2) Golgi bodies of plants
concentration (3) Golgi bodies of mature sieve tubes
(3) Is called passive transport (4) ER of mature sieve tubes
(4) Can be exemplified by Na+/K+ pump in animal 98. Which of the following statements is incorrect
cells. w.r.t cytoskeleton?
92. The smallest cell (1) Helps in motility.
(1) Is a prokaryote (2) Maintains the shape of cell.
(2) Has mitochondria but no chloroplast (3) Is helpful in production of ATP.
(3) Lacks cell membrane (4) Provides mechanical support to the cell.
(4) Lacks genetic material 99. Microtubules
93. The infoldings of inner membrane of mitochondria (1) Occurs only in prokaryotic cells
are called (2) Are made up of tubulin proteins
(1) Matrix (2) Cisternae (3) Occur only in eukaryotic cells
(3) Cristae (4) Pili (4) Both (2) and (3)
94. Who was the first one to explain that cells divide 100. Select the incorrect match.
and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells? (1) Centriole - Non-membrane
(1) Schwann bound
(2) Robert Brown (2) Linear DNA - Plastids
(3) Rudolf Virchow (3) Thylakoid - Chloroplasts
(4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (4) Hydrolases - Lysosome
95. Ribosomes are composed of 101. Arrangement of microtubules in cilia or flagella is
(1) mRNA and proteins (2) r-RNA and t-RNA (1) 9 + 3 (2) 9 + 2
(3) m-RNA and r-RNA (4) r-RNA and proteins (3) 9 + 0 (4) 9 + 9

96. In castor, oil storing leucoplasts are called 102. Cell organelle with single membrane is

(1) Elaioplasts (2) Amyloplasts (1) Lysosome (2) Chloroplast

(3) Chromoplasts (4) Aleuroplasts (3) Centrosome (4) Ribosomes

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4) Regular Medical-2021
103. Presence of which of the following structures is 112. Which of the following is not true about SER?
common in animal and higher plant cells? (1) Helps in lipid synthesis
(1) Mitochondria (2) Is a part of endomembrane system
(2) Plastids (3) Helps in drug detoxification
(3) Centrioles (4) Involved in synthesis of proteins
(4) Large central vacuole 113. The term glycocalyx is used for
104. The site of light reaction is (1) A layer surrounding plant cell.
(1) Palade particles (2) Cell wall of bacteria.
(2) Cisternae of golgi (3) A layer surrounding bacterial cell wall.
(3) Stroma of chloroplast (4) Outermost layer of animal cell
(4) Thylakoids 114. 70 S ribosomes have all the following rRNA,
except
105. With the help of which of the following structures
cytoplasm of one cell is in contact with other? (1) 18 S rRNA (2) 16 S rRNA
(1) Plasmodesmata (2) Cell membrane (3) 23 S rRNA (4) 5 S rRNA
(3) Cell wall (4) Middle lamella 115. Total number of microtube subfibres present in a
centriole is
106. Which of the following pair of cell organelles is
considered as semi-autonomous? (1) 9 (2) 27
(1) Mitochondria and nucleus (3) 11 (4) 18
(2) Chloroplast and mitochondria 116. Select the wrong statement about chromatin
(3) Chloroplast and ribosomes (1) They are nucleoprotein fibres
(2) Named by Flemming
(4) Nucleus and chloroplast
(3) Composed of DNA and histone proteins
107. The plasma membrane consists mainly of
(4) Does not get stained with any dye
(1) Phospholipids embedded in protein bilayer.
117. Matrix of mitochondria does not contain
(2) Proteins embedded in phospholipids bilayer.
(1) Enzymes for TCA cycle
(3) Proteins and carbohydrates only.
(2) Few RNA molecules
(4) Sugar embedded in glycolipids.
(3) 80 S ribosomes
108. Major site of formation of glycoproteins and
glycolipids is (4) DNA molecule
118. Select the odd one out w.r.t functions of
(1) Vacuole (2) Golgi apparatus
mitochondria
(3) Plastids (4) Lysosomes
(1) Synthesis and storage of carbohydrates
109. Residual bodies
(2) Oxidation of proteins
(1) Are called phagosomes
(3) β oxidation of fats
(2) Are newly formed lysosomes
(4) Oxidation of carbohydrates
(3) Contain undigested materials 119. The centromere is present at the terminal end of
(4) Are formed by union of many primary the chromosome in
lysosomes. (1) Metacentric chromosome
110. Ribosomal RNAs are synthesised in (2) Acrocentric chromosome
(1) Lysosomes (2) Nucleolus (3) Telocentric chromosome
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Ribosomes (4) Sub-metacentric chromosome
111. Which of the following is correctly matched? 120. Diplotene bivalent chromosomes present in
(1) Plasmid - Genomic DNA primary oocyte nuclei of vertebrates are called
(2) Lysosome - Enzymes are optimally (1) Lampbrush chromosomes
active at the basic pH
(2) Polytene chromosomes
(3) Plant vacuole - Membrane bound
(3) Salivary gland chromosomes
(4) Animal cells - Only 80S type of
ribosomes are present (4) SAT chromosome

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4)

121. Peroxisomes are 130. Which of the following statements is not correct
(1) Absent in animal cells for glyoxysomes?
(2) Are believed to be animal lysosomes (1) These originate from ER.
(3) Have enzymes for peroxide metabolism (2) These are single membrane bound
(4) Are membraneless organelles.
122. Which of the following organisms are exception of (3) They contain enzymes of glyoxylate cycle in
cell theory? animals.
(1) All prokaryotes (4) There are abundant in germinating seeds.
(2) All viruses 131. Site of protein synthesis in animal cells is
(3) All animals (1) Cytoplasmic ribosomes only
(4) All plants (2) Mitochondria only
123. In human cells, how many SAT chromosomes are
(3) RER only
present?
(4) Ribosomes present in cytoplasm,
(1) 10 pairs (2) 5 chromosomes
mitochondria and RER.
(3) 30 chromosomes (4) 5 pairs
132. Which of the following is not the function of
124. The term heterophagosome is used for
mesosome in bacteria?
(1) Golgian vacoule
(1) DNA replication
(2) Digestive vacoule
(2) Cell division
(3) Residual bodies
(3) Cell membrane formation
(4) Autophagic vacuoles
125. Which of the following structure is absent in (4) Respiration
prokaryotes? 133. Select the incorrect match
(1) Flagella (2) Gas vacuoles (Organisms) (Major Component of
(3) Lysosomes (4) Ribosomes cell wall)
126. Many ribosomes may associate with a single (1) Bacteria - Peptidoglycan
m-RNA. Such strings of ribosomes are called (2) Algae - Cellulose
(1) Polysome (2) Nucleosome
(3) Higher plants - Glycogen
(3) Chromosome (4) Glyoxysome
(4) Fungi - Chitin
127. Prokaryotic cells are represented by all, except
134. Basis of gram staining of bacteria was
(1) BGA (2) PPLO
(1) Difference in composition of cell membrane of
(3) Protists (4) Bacteria
bacteria.
128. Carotenoids containing colored plastids are
(2) Unique DNA sequence.
(1) Chloroplasts
(3) Difference in cell wall composition of different
(2) Chromoplasts
bacteria.
(3) Aleuroplasts
(4) Presence and absence of plasmid.
(4) Amyloplasts
135. Select the odd one w.r.t number of membrane(s)
129. Which of the following organelles shows
present around the following organelles.
polymorphism?
(1) Nucleus (1) Mitochondria

(2) Plastids (2) Chloroplast

(3) Lysosomes (3) Nucleolus
(4) Mitochondria (4) Nucleus

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4) Regular Medical-2021

ZOOLOGY
136. Intercalated discs are characteristic features of 144. The connective tissue which is most widely
(1) All striated muscles distributed in animal body is
(2) Smooth muscles (1) Reticular tissue
(3) Biceps (2) Areolar tissue
(4) Cardiac muscles (3) Adipose tissue
137. Muscles fibres which taper at both ends are (4) Dense regular tissue
_______ in nature. 145. Strong, cord-like, inelastic structures that join
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly muscle to bone are
(1) Skeletal (1) Tendons
(2) Cylindrical (2) Ligaments
(3) Unbranched (3) Cartilage
(4) Multinucleated (4) Fascia
138. Sarcolemma is the plasma membrane of 146. Which of the following connective tissue cells
(1) Neurons (2) Muscle fibres produce antibodies?
(3) Epithelial cells (4) Chondrocytes (1) Fibroblasts (2) Macrophages
139. Choose the correct statement. (3) Mast cells (4) Plasma cells
(1) Skeletal muscles are closely attached to 147. Match the columns
bones. Column I Column II
(2) Stomach wall contains striated muscles. a. Dense regular (i) Lymph
(3) Smooth muscles are voluntary in nature. connective tissue
(4) Skeletal muscles are fusiform in appearance. b. Skeletal connective (ii) Ligament
140. Longest refractory period is a feature of muscle tissue
fibres located in
c. Fluid connective (iii) Bone
(1) Thighs
tissue
(2) Tongue
d. Loose connective (iv) Adipose tissue
(3) Heart
Tissue
(4) Gut wall
Choose the correct option
141. Select the correct feature of muscle fibres present
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
in heart.
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Many nuclei are present in a single cell
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Fusiform shape
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Involuntary in nature
148. Areolar tissue does not show presence of
(4) Completely unstriated appearance
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Mast cells
142. Structural syncytium is seen in muscles
(3) Macrophages (4) Chondrocytes
(1) Of heart
149. Tissue which is found abundantly in the blubber of
(2) Present in all of blood vessels
whales and elephants is
(3) Constituting intestinal wall
(1) Areolar tissue
(4) Associated with skeleton
(2) Adipose tissue
143. Which of the following is not true regarding
(3) Dense irregular tissue
smooth muscle fibres?
(4) Pigmented connective tissue
(1) Occur singly or in sheets
150. Heparin and histamine are released by
(2) Show faint striations
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Mast cells
(3) Found in wall of urinary bladder
(3) Osteocytes (4) Adipocytes
(4) Centrally placed nucleus

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4)

151. Haversian canals are present in compact part of (1) Squamous epithelium
mammalian (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(1) Long bones (2) Short bones (3) Columnar epithelium
(3) Visceral bones (4) Sesamoid bones (4) Compound squamous epithelium
152. Bone is surrounded by a tough sheath of 161. Fallopian tubes are lined by
connective tissue called
(1) Ciliated epithelium
(1) Perichondrium (2) Periosteum
(2) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
(3) Sarcolemma (4) Axolemma
(3) Squamous epithelium
153. Specialised connective tissue does not include
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium
(1) Bone (2) Cartilage
162. Select an avascular tissue containing both live and
(3) Blood (4) Adipose tissue dead cells
154. Bone forming cells are called (1) Areolar tissue
(1) Osteoblasts (2) Osteoclasts (2) Bone
(3) Chondrocytes (4) Histiocytes (3) Epithelial layer of skin
155. Site of production of blood cells is associated with (4) Adipose tissue
(1) Ligament (2) Bones 163. Read the statements A and B
(3) Tendon (4) Areolar tissue Statement A: Gap junctions facilitate the cells to
156. Fibres secreting cells of areolar tissue are called communicate with each other
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Macrophages Statement B: Desmosomes function as adhering
(3) Plasma cells (4) Mast cells junctions
157. All of the following are true for cartilage except Select the correct option.
that (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Its matrix is solid and pliable (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) It is dense irregular connective tissue (3) Both statements are correct
(3) Considered as skeletal connective tissue (4) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Its matrix is generally devoid of inorganic salts 164. Select the odd one w.r.t multicellular exocrine
158. Which of the following cells ingest cellular debris, glands
bacteria and foreign matter with the help of (1) Salivary glands
pseudopodia? (2) Pituitary glands
(1) Plasma cells (2) Chondrocytes (3) Sweat glands
(3) Osteoblasts (4) Macrophages (4) Sebaceous glands
159. Select the structure which is not internally lined by 165. Pseudostratified epithelium is found at all of the
squamous epithelium in man? following locations in human body except
(1) Blood vessels (1) Male urethra
(2) Alveoli of lungs (2) Trachea
(3) Hairpin bend in loop of Henle (3) Large bronchi
(4) Trachea (4) Wall of Bowman's capsule
160. Observe the figure given below, select the option 166. Choose the incorrect option
which correctly identifies the type of tissue
depicted. (1) Cuboidal epithelium – Thyroid follicles
(2) Columnar epithelium – Intestinal mucosa
(3) Keratinised epithelium – Moist lining of
pharynx
(4) Transitional epithelium – Lining of ureter
167. All of the following have ducts except
(1) Sudorific glands (2) Intestinal glands
(3) Oil glands (4) Adrenal glands

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG4_Code-A4) Regular Medical-2021
168. Function of microvilli of epithelial cells is to 174. Which type of muscles get easily fatigued?
(1) Protect the cell (1) Skeletal muscles
(2) Increase the surface area for absorption (2) Smooth muscles
(3) Move particles or mucus in a specific direction (3) Visceral muscles
(4) Engulf the foreign matter (4) Cardiac muscles
169. Simple epithelial tissue serves mainly all of the 175. Property shown by neurons is
functions given below except
(1) Excitability
(1) Filtration
(2) Elasticity
(2) Absorption
(3) Extensibility
(3) Protection
(4) Contractility
(4) Gaseous exchange
176. Short and branched processes arising from the
170. Which of the following does not show presence of cyton, which carry impulse towards the cell body
connective tissue fibres of collagen and elastin? are
(1) Bone (2) Blood (1) Perikaryon (2) Dendrites
(3) Cartilage (4) Tendon (3) Synapses (4) Nodes of Ranvier
171. _______ is also referred as pavement epithelium.
177. Myelin sheath in PNS is secreted by
Choose an option that fills the blank correctly
(1) Adipocytes (2) Schwann cells
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Macrophages (4) Oligodendrocytes
(2) Ciliated epithelium
178. Neurons which possess only axon but no
(3) Compound epithelium dendrons are said to be
(4) Cuboidal epithelium (1) Unipolar neurons
172. A delicate non-cellular layer over which the basal (2) Bipolar neurons
surface of epithelial tissue lies is
(3) Multipolar neurons
(1) Microvilli
(4) Pseudo-unipolar neurons
(2) Basement membrane
179. Select the incorrect w.r.t neuroglia.
(3) Tight junction
(1) Protect neurons
(4) Desmosome
(2) Support neurons
173. Which salts are present in maximum quantities in
matrix of bones? (3) Carry nerve impulse towards cyton
(1) Calcium phosphate & Calcium carbonate (4) Insulate adjacent neurons
(2) Magnesium phosphate & Calcium carbonate 180. Nissl's granules are large and irregular masses of
(3) Sodium phosphate & Calcium carbonate (1) Mitochondria (2) Ribosomes + RER
(4) Calcium carbonate & Magnesium phosphate (3) Centrioles (4) Vacuoles

  

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 29/11/2020 DLR-13, DLR-14, DLR-15,
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CODE-A4

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FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES
(for NEET-2021)

Test - 1

Answer Key

1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (1)

2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (4)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (3) 79. (2) 115. (2) 151. (1)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (2)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (4) 82. (2) 118. (1) 154. (1)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (2) 119. (3) 155. (2)
12. (4) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (1) 156. (1)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (3) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (4) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (1) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (1)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (3) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (3) 103. (1) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (4) 69. (1) 105. (1) 141. (3) 177. (2)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (4) 178. (1)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (2)

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