AIATS Medical - TYM-2022 - Test-01 - Code-C - (01-11-2020)

01-11-2020 C
MEDICAL
Entrance Exams - 2022
TEST No. 1
(XI Studying Students)
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Test No. 1
Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Some basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of atom
Cell: The Unit of life, Cell Cycle & Cell Division, Structural Organisation in
Animals-Animal tissues only, Biomolecules
Test-1 (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
MM : 720 TEST - 1 Time : 3 Hrs.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer: 4. Consider the following two statements
1. The initial and the final temperature of a copper (a) Dimensionless quantities are surely unit-less
sphere was measured by an observer to be (b) Unit-less quantities are dimensionless
(41.2 ± 0.1)°C and (31.0 ± 0.3)°C respectively. The The correct statement(s) is/are
change in the temperature of the sphere with proper
(1) Only (a)
error limits is
(2) Only (b)
(1) (–10.2 ± 0.4)°C
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(2) (73.2 ± 0.2)°C (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
(3) (9.2 ± 0.4)°C 5. A micrometer has 150 equal divisions on the circular
scale, and on one full rotation of circular scale main
(4) (13.1 ± 0.4)°C scale advances by 0.02 cm on the main scale. The
2. A certain physical quantity P can be calculated least count of the micrometer (in cm) is
ab 2 (1) 4 × 10–5
using the relation P = , where a, b and c
4 (2) 6.21 × 10–3
c5
(3) 1.33 × 10–4
are some physical quantities with 1%, 0.5% and
(4) 1.21 × 10–2
2.5% as maximum errors in their respective
measurements. The maximum percentage error in 6. The mediating particle for electromagnetic forces is
computation of P is (1) Electrons
(1) 1.5% (2) 3% (2) Photon
(3) Meson
(3) 2.1% (4) 4%
(4) Graviton
3. Among the given sets of physical quantities, the set 7. In a hypothetical system of units, the unit of mass is
which cannot correspond to a hypothetical set of equal to 10 kg, that of time is 0.25 s and that of
fundamental quantities is length is 1 km. The numerical value of 1 pascal
(1) Length, time, speed pressure in this new system of units will be
(2) Mass, speed, energy (1) 3

(2) 2.5
(3) Force, energy, length
(3) 6.25
(4) All of the above (4) 10
Space for Rough Work
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1/20
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-C)
8. The edge of a cube is measured using a Vernier 13. A particle moves along x-axis such that its velocity
calipers (8 divisions of the main scale are equal to (v) varies with time (t) as v = (4t – t2) m/s.
10 divisions of Vernier scale and 1 main scale The distance travelled by the particle from t = 0 to
division is 1 mm). The main scale division reading t = 6 s is
is 11 mm and third division of Vernier scale was
(1) 10.66 m (2) 21.33 m
found to be coinciding with the main scale. The
volume of the cube upto correct significant figures (3) 4.31 m (4) Zero
(in mm3) is 14. A stone starts falling freely under gravity. The time
(1) 1560.896 (2) 1561 taken by the stone to fall through the initial height h
is 4 s. The further time taken to fall through the next
(3) 15.6 × 102 (4) 1560.9
2h height will be closest to
9. If area (A), velocity (v) and density (ρ) are base
units, then the dimensional formula of force can (1) 3 s (2) 5 s
be represented as (3) 1 s (4) 6 s
(1) [ρAv2] (2) [ρAv3] 15. Two cars A and B start from a same point at same
instant of time and move in same direction. The
(3) [ρAv] (4) [ρA2v2]
variation of their respective velocities with time is
10. For a particle’s journey, the magnitude of average indicated in the graph as shown in the figure. The
velocity is 20 m/s. Which among the following time after their motion starts, when the cars cross
cannot be the value of average speed? each other is
(1) 24 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 31 m/s
11. A particle is projected vertically upwards from
ground with an initial speed of 57 m/s. If
acceleration due to gravity is taken to be equal to
10 m/s2, then the displacement of the particle in the
sixth second of its motion will be
(1) 2.9 m (2) 2 m
(3) 1.2 m (4) 4.2 m
12. When Rahul walks up a stationary escalator, then
he takes 20 s to reach the top. While when he
walks up a moving escalator, he takes 10 s to reach
the top. The time taken by him to reach the top when (1) 4 s
stand still on the moving escalator is (2) 8 s
(1) 40 s (2) 10 s (3) 5 s
(3) 20 s (4) 30 s (4) 10 s
2/20
16. A particle travel one-third of the total distance of the (3) Between B and C, the velocity is negative and
journey with speed 10 m/s, the next one third of the acceleration is negative
total distance with speed 20 m/s and the remaining (4) Between D and E, the velocity is negative and
distance with speed 40 m/s. The average speed of acceleration is positive
the particle for the journey is
20. A student performs an experiment and takes 50
(1) 35 m/s (2) 23.4 m/s observations. The systematic error in the
(3) 17.14 m/s (4) 14.6 m/s calculation is found to be e. If the student now takes
100 observations, the systematic error would be
17. A particle experience an acceleration a = (4e–3t)
m/s2 along positive x-axis, where t is time in s. If the (1) e
initial velocity of the particle is 2 m/s along positive (2) e/2
x-axis, the velocity of the particle when its
acceleration becomes zero is (3) e/4
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2 (4) 2e
10 21. If the dimensions of a physical quantity is given as

(3) 6 m/s2 (4) m/s2 a b c
M L T , then the physical quantity will be
3
18. A particle is projected upwards with a speed (1) Energy, if a =1, b = 2 and c = 2
2 m/s at time t = 0. The time at which the speed of (2) Force, if a = 2, b =1 and c = –2
the particle is half of the initial speed is
(3) Plane angle, if a = 1, b = 1 and c = 1
(1) 0.1 s (2) 0.3 s
(4) Impulse, if a =1, b = 1 and c = –1
(3) 0.2 s (4) Both (1) and (2)
22. Which of the following instrument is most precise?
19. A particle has a rectilinear motion and the figure
gives its displacement as a function of time. Which (1) A meter scale with smallest division equal to
of the following statements are true with respect to 0.1 cm
the motion? (2) Screw gauge with pitch = 0.1 mm and 100
divisions on circular scale
(3) Vernier calliper with a least count 0.01 mm
(4) All instruments have same precision
23. If 62.24 cm is divided by 2.0 s, the result upto
appropriate significant figures is
(1) 31.12 cm/s
(1) In motion between O to A, the velocity is (2) 31.1 cm/s
positive and acceleration is negative
(3) 31.2 cm/s
(2) Between A and B, the velocity and acceleration
are positive (4) 3.1 × 10 cm/s
3/20
24. Among the given options, which of the following is 29. Which of the following statement about significant
not a unit of length? figures is incorrect?
(1) Light year (1) All non-Zero digits are significant
(2) erg (2) The trailing zeroes in a number having a
(3) Gauss decimal point are not significant
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) All zeroes between two non-zero digits are
significant
25. Consider the following equation
(4) For a number less than one, zeroes on the left
P = A sin (Bt + Ct2) + x of the first non-zero digits are not significant
Here t is time and x is length. The dimensions of 30. Round off 2.645 to one decimal place
AB/C will be
(1) 2.6 (2) 2.7
(1) [M0LT1]
(3) 2.8 (4) 2.4
(2) [M0LT–2]
31. Which among the following relations can be
(3) [MLT–1] deduced from dimensional analysis? (Symbols
(4) [M0L2T–1] have their usual meaning)
26. The scientist who is credited for his work in
l
unification of electromagnetism and optics is (1) t = 2π
g
(1) Faraday
1 2
(2) Sir C.V. Raman (2) =
s ut + at
2
(3) Maxwell
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Abdus Salam
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
27. The percentage error in measurement of radius of a
sphere is 0.2% then the maximum percentage error 32. Thickness of a cylinder measured using a screw
in the measurement of its volume will be gauge of least count 0.01 cm is found to be equal to
0.80 cm. The percentage error in measurement is
(1) 0.6%
(1) 2.5% (2) 1.25%
(2) 0.1%
(3) 5% (4) 0.5%
(3) 0.4%
33. The scientific principle on which electron
(4) 0.2%
microscope is based, is
28. Resistances of two resistors is measured as
(20 ± 0.2) Ω and (40 ± 0.2) Ω. The maximum (1) Bernoulli’s Principle
absolute error in their series combination will be (2) Wave nature of matter
(1) 0.2 Ω (2) 0.4 Ω (3) Photoelectric Effect
(3) 0.1 Ω (4) 0.6 Ω (4) Superconductivity
4/20
34. A small stone is dropped from top of a long tower. 39. On observing a sign board about speed limit, a
The ratio of distance travelled by the particle driver applies brakes and reduces his speed from
between t = 5 s to t = 10 s and t = 15 s to t = 20 s is 100 m/s to 50 m/s though a distance of 50 m.
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 3 : 7 The uniform retardation provided by the brakes
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 5 : 7 (in m/s2) will be
35. Consider the motion of hours hand of a clock. The (1) 25
displacement of the hand will be zero in (2) 75
(1) One hour (2) One minute
(3) 50
(3) 12 Hours (4) 6 Hours
(4) 10
36. A car starts its journey from P and reaches
R through the path as shown in the figure. 40. Acceleration of a particle varies with time as
If a = 1 m, b = 6 m and r = 7 m. The ratio of distance a = 12t2 m/s2. If the particle starts its motion from
to the magnitude of displacement of the car will be rest, then its displacement in initial 2 seconds will be
(take π = 22/7) (1) 16 m
(2) 24 m
(3) 64 m
(4) 4 m
41. The velocity of a particle varies with time as per the
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 73 : 21 figure shown. The distance travelled by the particle
(3) 29 : 27 (4) 73 : 49 in 10 seconds is
37. A room has dimensions of 4 m × 3 m × 5 m. An
insect moves from one vertex to diagonally opposite
vertex on the cube. The magnitude of displacement
of the insect will be
(1) 2m (2) 5 2 m
(3) 34 m (4) 5 m
38. A drunkard moves on a straight road such that he
takes 7 steps forward and 2 steps backward in
each cycle. If the stride length of each step is
1 feet and the drunkard moves with a speed
2 feet/s in forward direction and 4 feet/s in backward (1) 25 m
direction, then the time after which the drunkard will
(2) 11 m
fall into a pit 11 feet further from his starting point is
(1) 6 s (2) 2.5 s (3) 29 m
(3) 7 s (4) 2 s (4) 21 m
5/20
42. Which of the following graphs are physically not 43. If v is the velocity of a particle moving in a straight
possible? (Symbols have their usual meanings) line and a is acceleration of the particle, then the
speed of the particle would be decreasing if
   
(1) a · v < 0 (2) a · v > 0
(1)  
(3) a · v = 0 (4) None of the above
44. The graph between maximum height attained and

the time of flight of a particle thrown vertically
upward with a variable speed will be
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola

(2)
(3) Ellipse (4) Hyperbola
45. The result of (2.01 × 4.06) cm2 + 1.6 cm2 upto

correct significant figures is
(1) 9.8 cm2

(3) (2) 9.76 cm2
(3) 9.7606 cm2
(4) All of the above (4) 10.0 cm2
[CHEMISTRY]
46. 50 g of calcium carbonate sample decomposes on 48. 56 g of N2 reacts 9 g of H2 in a closed vessel to form
heating to give calcium oxide and 20 g of carbon
NH3. Which reactant is left in excess and how
dioxide. The approximate % purity of calcium
much?
carbonate sample is
(1) 95% (2) 78% (1) N2,10 g (2) H2, 4 g
(3) 91% (4) 82% (3) N2,14 g (4) H2,3 g

47. A gaseous mixture contains H2 and N2 in the volume 49. When 134.4 L of H2 combines with 89.6 L of O2 at
ratio of 1 : 2 under STP conditions. Their molar ratio STP then the number of moles of H2O formed is
in the mixture is
(1) 3 mole
(1) 3 : 1
(2) 2 mole
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 6 mole
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 7 (4) 2.5 mole
6/20
50. Mass of NaOH that must be added to water to 56. The total number of valence electrons in 6 g of
prepare 500 mL of 2 M aqueous solution is CO32− is (NA is the Avogadro’s number)
(1) 30 g (2) 10 g
(1) 2.4 NA (2) 2.0 NA
(3) 20 g (4) 40 g
(3) 1.8 NA (4) 1.4 NA
51. Which has the minimum number of atoms among
the following? 57. A biomolecule contains 0.2% Fe by weight (atomic
mass of Fe = 56u). The minimum possible
(1) 32 g of O2 molecular weight of the biomolecule is
(2) 33.6 L of CO2 at STP (1) 2.8 × 104 u (2) 4.2 × 103 u
(3) 3 moles of H2 (3) 2.8 × 103 u (4) 1.8 × 104 u
(4) 2 mole of SO2 58. From 150 g of urea (NH2CONH2) when 3 × 1023
52. The number of significant figures in 0.06, 2.005 and molecules are removed then the remaining moles of
4.0 × 104 respectively are urea will be
(1) 1 mole (2) 2 mole
(1) 1, 4, 6 (2) 1, 4, 2
(3) 0.5 mole (4) 1.5 mole
(3) 2, 4, 2 (4) 3, 2, 2
59. If the equivalent weight of metal is 12, then the
53. Mole fraction of water in an aqueous solution of 10%
equivalent weight of its oxide will be
glucose is (Molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol)
(1) 16 (2) 28
(1) 0.99 (2) 0.90
(3) 20 (4) 24
(3) 0.89 (4) 0.79
60. An organic compound contains C = 40%, H = 6.67%
54. The volume of O2 gas required at STP to burn
and O = 53.33%. The empirical formula of
completely 29 g of butane (C4H10) gas is compound would be
(1) 74.2 L (2) 56 L (1) CH2O2 (2) CHO2
(3) 22.4 L (4) 72.8 L (3) CHO (4) CH2O
55. 9.8 g of H2SO4 is dissolved in enough water to
61. In the reaction,
make 500 mL of solution. The molarity of H+ and
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
SO24− ion in the solution respectively are (Assume
100% ionisation of H2SO4, molar mass of H2SO4 = When 2 moles of NH3 is allowed to react with
98 g mol–1) 3 moles of O2, then
(1) 0.4 M, 0.4 M (1) 1 mole of O2 is left excess

(2) 0.4 M, 0.2 M (2) O2 is the limiting reagent
(3) 0.2 M, 0.4 M (3) 3 moles of H2O is formed
(4) 0.04 M, 0.02 M (4) 4 moles of NO is formed
7/20
62. Maximum number of electrons in an atom that can 68. Which of the following electronic configuration is
have quantum number n = 4,  = 2 is correct for zinc? (Atomic number = 30)
(1) 2 (2) 6 (1) [Ar] 3d10 4p2
(3) 8 (4) 10 (2) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p1
63. The orbital angular momentum of electron in p (3) [Ar] 4s2 4p6
orbital is equal to
(4) [Ar] 4s2 3d10
(1)
6 (2)
2 69. The number of angular nodes in 2p and 3d orbitals
respectively are
(3) Zero (4)
3
(1) 0, 2 (2) 1, 2
64. Shape of an atomic orbital is determined by
(3) 2, 1 (4) 2, 2
(1) Principal quantum number
70. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic
(2) Azimuthal quantum number orbitals for H-atom is
(3) Magnetic orbital quantum number
(1) 4p > 4s > 3d > 3p > 3s
(4) Electron spin quantum number
(2) 4p = 4s > 3d > 3p = 3s
65. The possible correct set of four quantum numbers
(3) 4p > 3d > 4s > 3p > 3s
for the valence electron of sodium atom (Z = 11) is
(4) 4s = 4p > 3s = 3p = 3d
1
(1) 3, 2, 1, – 71. Which of the following has the maximum number of
2
unpaired electrons?
1
(2) 3, 1, 0, + (1) O (2) Mg
2
1 (3) P (4) F
(3) 3, 0, 0, +
2 72. If the frequency of a wave is 1.5 × 109 s–1, then its
1 wave number will be
(4) 4, 0, 0, +
2 (1) 5 × 102 m–1 (2) 5 cm–1
66. If the wavelengths λ1 and λ 2 of two radiations are (3) 5 m–1 (4) 5 × 10–3 m–1
2500 nm and 10000 nm respectively, then the 73. The number of waves in the fourth orbit of
correct relation between their energies E1 and E2 H atom is
will be (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) E1 = E2 (2) E1 = 4E2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) E1 = 2E2 (4) 4E1 = E2 74. The total number of atomic orbitals in third energy
67. Al3+ is isoelectronic with level of an atom is
(1) K+ (2) Ca2+ (1) 5 (2) 4
(3) Na+ (4) Ar (3) 8 (4) 9
8/20
75. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following 82. Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted
transitions will give rise to the most energetic when a light of frequency 1.1 × 1012 Hz is irradiated
photon? on a metal surface whose threshold frequency is
equal to 1.0 × 1011 Hz, is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)
(1) n = 4 to n = 2 (2) n = 5 to n = 4
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 6 to n = 5 (1) 6.6 × 10–25 J (2) 1.8 × 10–21 J
76. A ball has a mass of 10 g and speed of 20 m/s. If (3) 5.1 × 10–20 J (4) 6.6 × 10–22 J
the speed can be measured with the accuracy of 83. The number of photons of light having wavelength
1%, then the uncertainty in its position is 450 nm which can provide 100 J of energy is equal
(1) 2.6 × 10–32 m (2) 1.8 × 10–33 m to (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)
(3) 3.3 × 10–30 m (4) 2.6 × 10–35 m (1) 1.2 × 1020 (2) 2.3 × 1020
77. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is (3) 2.8 × 1018 (4) 2.3 × 1017
52.9 pm. The radius of the first excited state of He+ 84. Which of the following arrangement violates Hund’s
ion will be rule of maximum multiplicity?
(1) 132.25 pm (2) 211.6 pm (1) (2)
(3) 105.8 pm (4) 26.45 pm
78. In a sample of H atom, total number of spectral lines (3) (4)
obtained during transition of electron from 4th
excited state to ground state is
85. Bohr’s model failed to explain
(1) 5 (2) 4
I. Zeeman effect
(3) 10 (4) 6
II. Stark effect
79. The mass of photon having wavelength 0.1 nm is
III. Spectrum of atoms other than hydrogen
(1) 1.2 × 10–32 kg (2) 2.2 × 10–32 kg
(1) I only
(3) 2.2 × 10–29 kg (4) 2.2 × 10–35 kg
(2) II only
 charge 
80. The value of   is maximum for (3) I and II only
 mass 
(4) I, II and III
(1) α -particle (2) Electron
86. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is
(3) Proton (4) Neutron
not possible?
81. Which of the following pairs are isosters?
n  m s
(1) N2 and O2
(1) 4 3 –2 +½
(2) N2 and CO
(2) 5 2 –1 –½
(3) O2 and CO (3) 3 3 –2 +½
(4) CO and CO2 (4) 2 1 0 –½
9/20
87. Which of the following pair of orbitals will have 89. Select the incorrect statement among the following.
electron density along the axes? (1) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
(1) dxy , dz2 stability
(2) Each orbital can accommodate maximum two
(2) dx2 – y2 , p x electrons
(3) The energy of an electron in the orbital changes
(3) p x , dyz with time
(4) dxy , dx2 − y2 (4) Angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is
quantised
88. Minimum wavelength of emitted photon of Balmer 90. The crystalline salt Na2CO3.xH2O on heating loses
series for hydrogen atom is (RH is the Rydberg 63% of its mass and becomes anhydrous. The
constant) formula of the compound is
4 9 (1) Na2CO3.2H2O
(1) (2)
3RH 2RH (2) Na2CO3.10H2O
(3) Na2CO3.5H2O
4 9
(3) (4) (4) Na2CO3.8H2O
RH RH
[BIOLOGY]
91. Who first saw and described a living cell? 93. In cyanobacteria, membranous extensions into
cytoplasm which contain pigments are
(1) Robert Hook
(1) Mesosomes
(2) Robert Brown
(2) Chromatophores
(3) Rudolph Virchow
(3) Chromoplasts
(4) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(4) Chloroplasts
92. Select correct statement(s) w.r.t cell envelope of
bacteria. 94. How many given below features are true for a
prokaryotic cell?
(a) It is a tightly bound three layered structure.
(a) Genetic material is naked
(b) Glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called the
(b) Occurrence of plasmid as an extrachromosomal
capsule.
material
(c) All layers of it, act together as a single protective (c) m-RNA with ribosomes may form polysome
layer.
(d) Pili and fimbriae play role in motility
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (b) (3) 2 (4) 1
10/20
95. Which one is odd w.r.t endomembrane system? 99. Match the column I with column II.
(1) ER Column I Column II

(2) Lysosome (a) Fungal cell wall i. Calcium and
(3) Golgi complex magnesium pectate
(4) Peroxisome (b) Na+/K+ pump in ii. Polymer of N–
96. (a) Site of formation of glycoproteins and animal cells acetylglucosamine

glycolipids
(c) Middle lamella iii. Quasi-fluid nature
(b) Packaging of materials
(d) Plasma membrane iv. Uphill movement
(c) Cell secretion
(1) (a) – i, (b) – iv, (c) – ii, (d) – iii
(d) Formation of plasma membrane during
cytokinesis (2) (a) – ii, (b) – iv, (c) – i, (d) – iii
Above given features are related to (3) (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – iv, (d) – i
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) (a) – i, (b) – iii, (c) – ii, (d) – iv
(2) Lysosome 100. Which one is not common in between mitochondria

and chloroplast?
(3) Golgi complex
(1) Double membranous structure
(4) Ribosome
(2) Semi – autonomous
97. In prokaryotes mesosome helps in all given
processes, except (3) Storage of starch
(1) Cell wall formation (4) Presence of circular ds–DNA
(2) Respiration 101. During meiosis in a cell, splitting of centromere
occurs at
(3) Hide from host’s immune system
(4) DNA replication (1) Telophase I stage
98. Cell wall of plant cell consists of two regions – (2) Anaphase I stage
primary cell wall and secondary cell wall. Cells of (3) Telophase II stage
which plant tissue have only primary cell wall?
(4) Anaphase II stage
(1) Parenchyma tissue
102. The structure which is disc shaped and serves as
(2) Sclerenchyma tissue the sites of attachment of spindle fibres is
(3) Meristematic tissue (1) Metaphasic plate (2) Centromere
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Kinetochore (4) Telomere
11/20
103. Select incorrectly matched pair. (1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Both statements are correct
(1) Synthesis phase – Histone protein
of interphase synthesis (3) Only A is incorrect
(2) Gap 2 phase – Tubulin protein (4) Only B is incorrect

synthesis 107. What will be amount of DNA in products of
meiosis II, if amount of DNA in meiocyte was
(3) Pachytene – Synapsis of
homologous 40 pg at G1 phase?
chromosomes (1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg
begins
(3) 40 pg (4) 5 pg
(4) G0 phase – Quiescent stage 108. Read the given statements and identify them as
104. In oocyte of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for true (T) or false (F) then choose correct option.
months or years. It is called (a) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
nuclear and cell division but only single cycle of
(1) Dictyotene stage DNA replication.
(2) Diakinesis stage (b) Failure of cytokinesis after karyokinesis results
(3) Terminalisation stage polyploidy.
(4) Intermeiotic stage (c) Haploid cells never divide by mitosis.
105. In a cell diplotene stage is recognised by (a) (b) (c)
(a) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (1) F F T
(2) T F T
(b) Appearance of chiasmata
(3) T T F
(c) Formation of recombination nodule
(4) F T T
(d) Alignation of bivalents on equatorial plate
109.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
106. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
Statement A : The final stage of meiotic prophase
Above given figure represents
I is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
(1) Metaphase
Statement B : Meiosis results in reduction of
chromosome number, paradoxically it is helpful in (2) Transition to metaphase stage
conserving specific chromosome number across (3) Prophase
generations in sexually reproducing organisms. (4) Anaphase
12/20
110. In which stage of cell division homologous 115. Two ribosome subunits remain united with each
chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids other due to a specific concentration of
remain associated at their centromeres?
(1) Ca++ (2) Mn++
(1) Anaphase II (3) Mg++ (4) Fe++
(2) Anaphase of mitosis 116. Select correctly matched pair
(3) Anaphase I (1) Microtubule – Formation of furrow
(4) Telophase I during cell division
111. The mitotic poison colchicine inhibits formation of (2) Microfilament – Form cytoskeleton of
spindle fibres and stops cell division by arresting the cilia
cells in (3) Intermediate filament – Pseudopodia
formation
(1) Anaphase (2) Prophase
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase (4) Microtubule – Cell plate formation
117. A chromosome has centromere slightly away from
112. During G0 phase of cell cycle
the centre or nearer to one end of it, resulting into
(1) Cells remain metabolically inactive. one shorter arm and one longer arm, known as
(2) Cells do not proliferate unless they are called on (1) Telocentric (2) Sub-metacentric
to do so.
(3) Acrocentric (4) Metacentric
(3) Cells cannot divide even occasionally just to
118. Select the statement(s) which is/are true about
replace the cells lost due to injury.
nucleolus and choose option accordingly.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(a) It is a membrane bound structure
113. What is odd w.r.t direct cell division?
(b) It is site for active r-RNA synthesis
(1) It is the method of asexual cell division. (c) Cells which are actively involved in protein
synthesis have larger and more numerous
(2) It occurs in bacteria
nucleoli.
(3) Spindle formation takes place (1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (b) only
(4) Nuclear envelope remains intact (3) (b) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
114. For regulation of cell cycle major check point is 119. Which one is odd w.r.t telophase of mitosis?
transition of (1) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed
(1) G1 → S (2) Chromatids move towards opposite poles

(3) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
(2) G2 → M chromosome clusters.
(3) S → G1 (4) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
poles and their identity is lost as discrete
(4) M → G2 element.
13/20
120. Match the column I with column II and select the 125. Centrioles are found in almost all eukaryotic cells
correct option. except
Column I Column II (1) Animal cells
(Types of leucoplast) (Examples) (2) Fungal cells
(a) Elaioplast i. Potato (3) Algal cells
(b) Amyloplast ii. Maize (4) Higher plants cells
(c) Aleuroplast iii. Castor 126. Ribosomes were discovered by
(1) (a) – iii, (b) – i, (c) – ii (1) George Palade
(2) (a) – i, (b) – ii, (c) – iii
(2) Flemming
(3) (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – i
(3) Strausberger
(4) (a) – i, (b) – iii, (c) – ii
(4) Van Benedin
121. Which of the cell organelles is known as suicidal
bag of the cell? 127. Which is not true about chromatin?
(1) Vacuole (2) Lysosome (1) It is loose and indistinct network of

nucleoprotein fibres in interphase nucleus
(3) RER (4) Peroxisome
(2) It contain DNA and some basic proteins
122. In plant cells Golgi apparatus is called
(3) It cannot be stained with basic dyes
(1) Heterophagosome
(4) It also contain some non-histone proteins
(2) Diplosome
128. Which one of the chromosomes appear
(3) Sphaerosome
J-shaped during anaphase?
(4) Dictyosome
(1) Sub-metacentric chromosome
123. Eukaryotic flagella differs from prokaryotic flagella
(2) Telocentric chromosome
in having
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(1) Flagellin protein
(4) Metacentric chromosome
(2) 9 + 0 arrangement of microfilaments
129. Few chromosomes have non-staining secondary
(3) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
constriction at a constant location. The small
(4) Basal body consists of rings fragment beyond secondary constriction is called
124. Ribosome is a ribonucleoprotein particle. Large (1) Telomere
subunit of 80S ribosome consists of three types of
r-RNAs. Which one is odd among following? (2) Satellite
(1) 5.8S r-RNA (2) 5S r-RNA (3) NOR
(3) 18S r-RNA (4) 28S r-RNA (4) Both (1) and (3)
14/20
130. Double metaphasic plate is formed during 135. Gas vacuoles are found in
(1) Metaphase I (1) All eukaryotes (2) Cyanobacteria
(2) Metaphase II (3) Only in fungi (4) Only in plants
(3) Metaphase of mitosis 136. An epithelium consisting of single thin layer of
(4) Anaphase I flattened cells with irregular boundaries is
131. Synaptonemal complex dissolves during (1) Squamous epithelium
(1) Zygotene (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) Pachytene (3) Columnar epithelium
(3) Diplotene (4) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Leptotene 137. A group of similar cells along with intercellular
132. In mitochondria most of the enzymes for TCA cycle substances performing a specific function is best
are found in described as
(1) Inner membrane (1) Cells (2) Tissue
(2) Outer membrane (3) Organ (4) Organism
(3) Perimitochondrial space 138. A special feature of the epithelium of PCT in a
(4) Matrix nephron of human kidney is the presence of
133. Fungal cell wall is generally composed of (1) Cilia (2) Flagella
(1) Cellulose and pectin (3) Microvilli (4) Stratification
(2) Polysaccharides like galactans and mannans 139. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cell junctions.
(3) Chitin (1) They can serve as structural and functional
(4) Only cellulose links between adjacent cells
134. Read the following statements and select the (2) Tight junctions prevent leakage across a tissue
correct option. (3) Adhering junctions facilitate communication
Statement A : Cell wall protects cells from between cells
mechanical injury. (4) Gap junctions connect cytoplasm of adjoining
cells
Statement B : In human being, cell membrane of
RBC has approximately 40% protein and 52% 140. Choose the odd one w.r.t secretion of exocrine
lipids. glands.
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) Earwax

(2) Only statement B is correct (2) Milk
(3) Both statements are correct (3) Hormones
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) Digestive enzymes
15/20
141. All of the following are present in all connective 145. Match column I and column II w.r.t. types of
tissues without exception, except epithelium and their location.
(1) Nucleated cells Column I Column II
(2) Fibres (a) Walls of blood i. Compound
(3) Matrix vessels epithelium
(4) Proteins (b) Inner lining of ducts ii. Columnar
142. Loose connective tissues present beneath the skin of salivary glands epithelium
include
(c) Innermost lining of iii. Ciliated epithelium
(a) Areolar tissue (b) Muscular tissue stomach
(c) Adipose tissue (d) Neural tissue (d) Innermost lining of iv. Squamous
Choose the correct option. bronchioles epithelium
(1) (c) and (d) v. Cuboidal
(2) (a) and (b) epithelium
(3) (a) and (c) Choose the correct match
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) (a)-v (b)-ii (c)-iii (d)-i
143. Read the following statements.
(2) (a)-iv (b)-ii (c)-v (d)-iii
A : Tendon is an example of dense regular
(3) (a)-v (b)-iv (c)-i (d)-ii
connective tissue that connects bone to bone.
(4) (a)-iv (b)-i (c)-ii (d)-iii
B : Dense irregular connective tissue consists of
differently oriented collagen fibres. 146. The muscle fibres present in the wall of intestine
exhibit
Choose the correct option.
(1) Striations
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Branched appearance
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Fusiform shape
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Structural syncytium
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
147. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t bones of
144. Cartilage in foetus differs from bones in adults due humans during old age.
to the presence of
(1) They form structural framework of the body
(1) Lacunae
(2) All bones contain red bone marrow
(2) Collagen fibres
(3) Osteocytes are mature cells of bone
(3) Pliable matrix
(4) They support and protect soft tissues and
(4) Lamellae organs
16/20
148. Read the following statements. 154. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. chemical
A : Each myofibril is composed of parallelly composition of a living tissue.
arranged muscle fibres. (1) The acid soluble pool contains many organic
B : Each muscle is made up of one long cylindrical compounds
myofibril (2) All the carbon compounds obtained by grinding
Choose the correct option. living tissues with trichloroacetic acid are called
biomolecules
(1) Only A is incorrect
(3) The dry weight of a living tissue can be
(2) Only B is incorrect obtained by fully burning it
(3) Both A and B are incorrect (4) Elemental analysis gives the composition of
(4) Both A and B are correct living tissues in the form of hydrogen, oxygen,
carbon etc.
149. A type of cell not present in areolar tissue is
155. All α-amino acids contain, all of the following except
(1) Mast cell (2) Fibroblast
(1) Carboxyl group (2) α-Carbon
(3) Macrophage (4) Chondrocyte
(3) Hydrogen (4) Methyl group
150. Which of the following is not exclusive to neuron?
156. Select the odd one w.r.t. aromatic amino acids
(1) Dendrites (2) Axon
(1) Tyrosine (2) Valine
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Nissl’s granules
(3) Tryptophan (4) Phenylalanine
151. Compound epithelium covers
157. Study the given compound and select the correct
(1) Alveoli of lungs option.
(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(3) Inner surface of fallopian tubes
(4) Inner surface of intestine
152. The contractile tissue present in heart is composed
of cells that lack
(1) Cell junctions
(2) Cytoplasm (1) It is a component of RNA only
(3) Intercalated discs (2) It is a component of RNA and DNA
(4) Many peripheral nuclei (3) It is a nucleoside
153. Among the following cells, non excitable is a/an (4) It is a nucleotide
(1) Smooth muscle cell 158. Total number of carbon atoms present in
arachidonic acid and palmitic acid respectively are
(2) Neuron
(3) Skeletal muscle cell (1) 16 and 20 (2) 18 and 20
(4) Astrocyte (3) 20 and 16 (4) 22 and 16

17/20
159. Trihydroxypropane is predominantly a component 163. Which component among following makes up the
of least percentage of total cellular mass?
(1) Lipids (2) Nucleic acids (1) Water
(3) Proteins (4) Carbohydrates (2) Proteins
160. How many of the given statements are true for both (3) Ions
purines and pyrimidines? (4) Lipids
(a) Heterocylic aromatic compounds. 164. The most abundant protein in animal world is
(b) Dicyclic with one pentose and one hexose ring. (1) Albumin
(c) They can be synthesised in hepatocytes and
(2) Collagen
erythrocytes.
(3) RuBisCO
(d) They are present in genetic material of an
organism and can form energy rich (4) Elastin
compounds. 165. Complete the analogy.
(1) Three (2) Two
Homopolymer : Cellulose : : Heteropolymer :
(3) Four (4) One ______
161. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. structure
(1) Starch (2) Chitin
given below.
(3) Inulin (4) Insulin
166. The sugar found in polynucleotides can include all
except
(1) Ribose
(2) 2′ deoxyribose
(3) Monosaccharide pentose
(4) Monosaccharide hexose
167. A false statement w.r.t. polysaccharides is that
(1) It is a phospholipid
(1) They are considered as macromolecules just
(2) It is present in cell membrane like polypeptides
(3) It is amphipathic in nature (2) They can be structures containing different
(4) It is a simple fatty acid monosaccharides as building blocks
162. Select the mismatch w.r.t. secondary metabolites. (3) In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is
called the non reducing while the left is called
(1) Toxins – Abrin, ricin reducing end
(2) Drugs – Concanavalin A (4) Highly helical structures of some
(3) Polymeric substances – Rubber, cellulose polysaccharides like starch can hold I2
(4) Alkaloids – Morphine, codeine molecules
18/20
168. Catabolic pathways 172. In a nucleic acid, the bond between the phosphate
and hydroxyl group of sugar is
(1) Always consume energy
(2) Are degradation pathways (1) Peptide bond
(3) Are biosynthetic pathways (2) Ester bond
(4) Are exemplified by formation of cholesterol (3) Glycosidic bond
from acetic acid
(4) Hydrogen bond
169. Match column I and column II w.r.t. proteins and
their functions. 173. Read the following statements.
Column I Column II Statement A : Living state is a non equilibrium

steady state to be able to perform work.
(a) Trypsin i. Sensory reception
Statement B : Biomolecules are constantly being
(b) GLUT-4 ii. Enzyme
changed into other biomolecules which indicates
(c) Antibody iii. Glucose transport their turn over.
iv. Fight infectious
Choose the correct option.
agents
(1) Only statement A is correct
Choose the correct option
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) (a)-ii (b)-iii (c)-iv
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(2) (a)-ii (b)-iv (c)-i
(4) Both A and B are correct
(3) (a)-i (b)-iii (c)-iv
(4) (a)-iii (b)-i (c)-ii 174. Read the following w.r.t. Watson and Crick model of
B-DNA.
170. Essential amino acids
(a) The pitch of the helix is 34 Å
(1) Cannot be components of polypeptides
(2) Are synthesised by the body (b) At each step of ascent, the strand turns 60°
(3) They are called so because only they are (c) The rise per base pair is 3.4 nm
constituents of all the polypeptides
(d) There are two hydrogen bonds between A
(4) Have to be supplied in diet and T
171. The structure of protein that gives information about
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
the sequence of amino acids is called
(1) Primary structure (1) One
(2) Secondary structure (2) Two
(3) Tertiary structure (3) Three

(4) Quaternary structure (4) Four
19/20
175. The enzymes that carry out catalysis of a reaction 178. In the diagram given below, depicting the activation
by transfer of electrons are energy of the enzyme, ‘X’ represents.
(1) Hydrolases
(2) Lyases
(3) Oxidoreductases
(4) Isomerases
176. The protein portion of a holoenzyme is called
(1) Co-factor
(2) Apoenzyme (1) Substrate product complex

(2) Enzyme – substrate complex
(3) Prosthetic group
(3) Large amount of product formed
(4) Coenzyme (4) Large amount of enzyme formed
179. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzyme
177. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. action.
enzyme inhibition?
(1) Enzyme shows highest activity at optimum
temperature and pH
(1) A competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at the
same site as the substrate (2) Low temperature causes permanent
denaturation of enzymes
(2) Competitive inhibition can be overcome by (3) Enzymes bring down activation energy barrier
addition of higher amount of substrate
(4) Thermostable enzymes retain catalytic power
even at 80°C.
(3) The presence of non-competitive inhibitor
reduces the Vmax of the reaction 180. The prosthetic group of enzymes that catalyse the
breakdown of hydrogen peroxide is
(4) A competitive inhibitor reduces the apparent Km (1) Zn2+ (2) Haem
for a given substrate (3) Niacin (4) Mg2+
  
20/20
81791 in NEET-UG
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01-11-2020 C

Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line

Some basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of atom

MM : 720 TEST - 1 Time : 3 Hrs.

(2) Mass, speed, energy (1) 3

Space for Rough Work

(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2 (4) 2e

10 21. If the dimensions of a physical quantity is given as

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

44. The graph between maximum height attained and

(1) Straight line (2) Parabola

45. The result of (2.01 × 4.06) cm2 + 1.6 cm2 upto

(1) 9.8 cm2

(3) 9.7606 cm2

(4) All of the above (4) 10.0 cm2

(3) 91% (4) 82% (3) N2,14 g (4) H2,3 g

Space for Rough Work

(1) 0.4 M, 0.4 M (1) 1 mole of O2 is left excess

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1) ER Column I Column II

(4) Peroxisome (b) Na+/K+ pump in ii. Polymer of N–

96. (a) Site of formation of glycoproteins and animal cells acetylglucosamine

(2) Lysosome 100. Which one is not common in between mitochondria

Space for Rough Work

(2) Gap 2 phase – Tubulin protein (4) Only B is incorrect

(1) G1 → S (2) Chromatids move towards opposite poles

(1) Vacuole (2) Lysosome (1) It is loose and indistinct network of

(1) 5.8S r-RNA (2) 5S r-RNA (3) NOR

Space for Rough Work

(1) Only statement A is correct (1) Earwax

Space for Rough Work

(4) Astrocyte (3) 20 and 16 (4) 22 and 16

Space for Rough Work

Column I Column II Statement A : Living state is a non equilibrium

(2) Secondary structure (2) Two

(3) Tertiary structure (3) Three

Space for Rough Work

176. The protein portion of a holoenzyme is called

(2) Apoenzyme (1) Substrate product complex

Space for Rough Work

AIR AIR AIR

in PRMO in RMO in NTSE (Stage - I) in NTSE (Stage-II)

in KVPYAptitude Test in KVPY Fellowship Award in NSEs in INO

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