01/09/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST – 17
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 4. A ball is projected with an initial velocity
1. N m2/kg2 is the unit of
(1) Surface tension
=
v

( )
20i + 30 j m/s. The angle made by the

(2) Universal gravitational constant velocity vector of the ball with horizontal at t = 1 s
(3) Permittivity will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(4) Torque (1) 30º
a − t2 (2) 60º
2. The dimensions of ab in the equation P = ,
2
bx (3) 37º
where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,
(4) 45º
are
(1) [M2LT–3] (2) [M–1L–1T4] 5. A body takes time t to reach the bottom, when it
(3) [M–1L–1T6] (4) [M2LT–4] slides on a smooth inclined plane of angle of
3. A body starts moving from rest with uniform inclination 45º with the horizontal. If the plane is
acceleration. The velocity of a body after made rough, time taken now is 2t. The coefficient
t second is v. The displacement of the body in
of friction of the rough surface is
last two second will be (t is total time of journey)
 1  1 3 2
(1) 2v  1–  (2) v  1 +  (1) (2)
 t  t 4 3

 1  1 1 1
(3) 3v  1 −  (4) 3v  1 +  (3) (4)
 2t  2t 4 2
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CST-17 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

6. The momentum of a body in two perpendicular 12. The displacement of a particle executing S.H.M
direction at any time t are given by px = (2t2 + 4) N s is given by the equation y = acos(3ωt) +
and py = (3t2 + 6) N s. The force acting on the bsin(3ωt). The time period of oscillation of the
body at t = 0 will be particle will be
(1) 2 N (2) 7 N 2π 4π
(1) (2)
(3) 10 N (4) Zero ω 3ω
7. A ball is dropped from height H. After striking the 2π 3π
(3) (4)
ground nth time it rebounds to height h. Then 3ω 4ω
coefficient of restitution is 13. A mass M is whirled in a vertical plane in critical
1 1 condition by tying it at one end by a inextensible
h n H n wire of length l. When the mass is at its lowest
(1)   (2)  
H  h position, the tension produced in the wire is
1 1 (1) 3mg (2) mg
 H n  h n (3) 6mg (4) Zero
(3)  (4) 
 h   H  14. If P is the pressure inside a soap bubble and P0
   
is atmospheric pressure outside the bubble. If R
8. In a system of two identical particle, one of the
is diameter of the soap bubble, then surface
particle is at rest and the other has an
tension of the liquid will be
acceleration 4 m/s2. The centre of mass has an
acceleration ( P − P0 ) R ( P − P0 ) R
(1) (2)
4 2
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) Zero ( P − P0 ) R
(3) (4) (P – P0)R
9. The moment of inertia does not depend upon 8

(1) The angular velocity of the body 15. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas is carried from
state A to state B as shown in figure. If the initial
(2) The mass of the body temperature at A is T0, the temperature at point B
(3) The distribution of mass in the body will be
(4) The axis of rotation of the body
10. A uniform rod of length L is free to oscillate in
vertical plane about a horizontal axis passing
through its one end. The rod is released from the
horizontal position. When it is vertical, its angular
velocity is

2g
(1) gL (2)
3L
(1) 8T0 (2) 12T0
3g 3g
(3) (4) (3) 4T0 (4) 6T0
L 2L
16. According to Wein’s displacement law
11. For a geostationary satellites
(1) The time period depends on the mass of (1) λ mT =
Constant (2) λ mT 2 =
Constant
satellite 2
(3) λ m Constant
T = (4) λ mT 3 =
Constant
(2) The time period is equal to time period of the
17. Stationary waves of frequency 120 Hz are
rotation of the earth about its own axis
formed in a medium. If the velocity of the wave is
(3) The orbital radius is independent of the mass 360 m/s, then shortest distance between node
of earth and antinode will be
(4) The period is equal to time period of the (1) 0.5 m (2) 0.25 m
revolution of earth around the sun (3) 0.75 m (4) 1 m

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-17 (Code-A)

18. Two tuning forks having frequencies 450 Hz and 23. An equilateral triangular conducting loop of side L
448 Hz are tuned together. The time interval carries a current as shown in the figure. The
between successive instants of maximum magnetic field at the point O will be
intensity
1 1
(1) s (2) s
4 2
1
(3) 1 s (4) s
6
19. Two thin parallel infinite line charge having
charge densities 2λ and –λ are placed with a
separation of distance R in free space. The net
electric field exactly mid-way between the two
line charges is µ0 I µ0 3 3I
(1) (2)
3λ λ 2 3πL 4πL
(1) (2)
2πε0 R 2πε0 R
3µ0I
(3) (4) Zero
5λ 3λ 4πL
(3) (4)
2πε0 R πε0 R 24. A paramagnetic liquid taken in U-tube and
20. Figure shows four capacitors connected to a 8 V arranged so that one of the limbs is kept between
battery. What is the charge on the 3 µF pole pieces of a magnet. The liquid level in the
capacitor? limb
(1) Goes down slightly
(2) Remains same
(3) Rises up slightly
(4) First goes down and then rises
25. A coil has 500 turns and 200 cm2 as its area. The
plane of the coil is placed perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field of 4 × 10–5 T. The coil is
rotated through 180º in 0.1 s. The average emf
induced in the coil in mV is
(1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 12 µC (2) 6 µC
(3) 8 (4) 10
(3) 4 µC (4) 8 µC
26. An ideal transformer has 200 turns in the primary
21. On increasing the temperature of a conductor, its coil and carries 5 A current. If input power is
resistance increases because the 2 kW, the number of turns in the secondary coil
(1) Relaxation time increases to have 600 V output will be
(2) Electron density decreases (1) 200 (2) 400
(3) Relaxation time remains constant (3) 300 (4) 600
(4) Relaxation time decreases 27. The wave which cannot travel in vacuum are
22. The potential gradient along the length of a (1) x-rays (2) Infrasonic waves
uniform wire is 5 volt per metre. B and C are two (3) Radio waves (4) Ultraviolet ways
point at 40 cm, and 60 cm on a metre scale along 28. For what distance ray optics is a good
the wire. The potential difference between B and approximation when the aperture is 2 mm wide
C will be and wavelength is 200 nm?
(1) 2 V (2) 1 V (1) 40 m (2) 30 m
(3) 0.5 V (4) 5 V (3) 20 m (4) 50 m

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CST-17 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

29. The angle of minimum deviation produced by an SECTION-B

equilateral prism of refractive index 3 is 36. In the following logic circuit, output Y is
(1) 30º (2) 90º
(3) 45º (4) 60º
30. In a Young’s double slit experiment d = 1 mm
and D = 200 cm. It is found that 7th bright fringe is
(1) B (2) A
at a distance of 6.5 mm from 1st dark fringe of
fringe pattern. The wavelength of light used is (3) A + B (4) 1

(1) 4000 Å (2) 5200 Å 37. A triton contains

(3) 5000 Å (4) 2000 Å (1) 1 proton + 2 neutrons

31. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, (2) 1 proton + 1 neutron

the graph of KE of photoelectron emitted from the (3) 2 protons + 1 neutron
metal versus the frequency of incident radiation (4) 2 protons + 2 neutrons
is a straight line graph, whose slope
38. A radioactive substance has activity 2A0 at t = 0.
(1) Depends on intensity of the incident radiation After 3 second it has activity A0. The decay
(2) Depends on the nature of the metal and also constant of the sample is
on the intensity of incident radiation 1 −1 ln 2 −1
(1) s (2) s
(3) Is same for all metals and independent of 6 3
intensity of the incident radiation
1 1 −1
(4) Depends on the nature of metal (3) s−1 (4) s
3ln 2 3
32. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated
39. An erect image, two times the size of the object,
with an electron, accelerated through a potential
is obtained with a concave mirror of radius of
difference of 400 volts?
curvature 24 cm. The position of the object from
(1) 0.06 nm (2) 0.123 nm the mirror is
(3) 0.143 nm (4) 0.153 nm (1) 36 cm (2) 4 cm
33. Which energy state of doubly ionised lithium has (3) 6 cm (4) 12 cm
same energy as that of first excitation state of
40. Two lenses of glass (µ = 3/2) having power + 10 D
hydrogen? (Given: Z for lithium = 3)
each are placed in contact inside the water.
(1) 4 (2) 3
Focal length of combination in water is
(3) 2 (4) 6
(1) 25 cm (2) 40 cm
34. p-type semiconductor is obtained by doping
(3) 20 cm (4) Zero
(1) Arsenic with germanium
41. The time period of a charged particle undergoing
(2) Aluminium with germanium
a circular motion in uniform magnetic field is
(3) Antimony with germanium independent of
(4) Phosphorus with germanium (1) Charge of particle (2) Mass of particle
35. In common emitter (CE) amplifier having a (3) Magnetic field (4) Speed of particle
voltage gain G, the transistor used has
42. A source of emf 10 V is connected in a circuit of
transconductance 0.05 mho and current gain 25.
a series combination of a resistance 8 Ω and
If the above transistor is replaced with another
inductance 4 H. The ratio of current in the circuit
one with transconductance 0.03 mho and current
at t = 1 s and at t = ∞ is
gain 15, the voltage gain will be
3 2G e2 − 1
(1) G (2) (1) (2) e2 – 1
5 5 e2
3G G e −1
(3) (4) (3) 1 (4)
4 2 e

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-17 (Code-A)

43. For a cell, terminal potential difference is 2.8 V (1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 6 : 3 : 2

when circuit is open and reduce to 2.1 V when (3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 6 : 3 : 4
cell is connected to resistance of 4 Ω, then
47. How many gram of ice at –10ºC is needed to cool
determined the internal resistance of the cell
100 g of water from 25ºC to 10ºC?
10 4
(1) Ω (2) Ω (Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/gºC and latent heat
9 3
of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g)
5 5
(3) Ω (4) Ω (1) 6.3 g (2) 15.8 g
9 3
(3) 8.4 g (4) 12.2 g
44. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is
48. Water rises up to a height h in a capillary tube of
minimum about an axis perpendicular to the disc
plane and passing through certain diameter. This capillary tube is replaced
by a similar tube of one third diameter. Now
water rises to a height of
h
(1) (2) 9h
3
(3) 3h (4) h
  π
49. If angle between two vectors a and b is , then
6
 
angle between vectors 2a and –2b is
(1) B (2) C
π 2π
(3) D (4) A (1) (2)
3 3

45. ( )
−k 2 xyiˆ + x 2 j , acts on a particle
A force F =
(3)
π
(4)
5π
moving in x-y plane. Starting from origin, the 6 6
particle is taken along the positive x-axis to the 50. A particle is projected with velocity of 30 m/s, at
point (a, 0) and parallel to the y-axis to the point
3
(a, a). The total work done by the force is an angle of θ0 =tan−1   above the horizontal.
4
(1) –2ka4 (2) –ka3
After 1 second, the particle is moving at an angle
(3) –ka2 (4) –2ka2
θ with the horizontal, where tanθ is given by
46. If λ1, λ2, λ3 are wavelength of the waves produced
(1) 1 (2) 2
by fundamental, first overtone and second
overtone frequency respectively of an open 1 1
(3) (4)
organ pipe, then the ratio of λ1 : λ2 : λ3 2 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 53. Maximum number of electrons for which n + l = 3,

51. In order to prepare 500 mL of 0.2 M NaOH, the is
mass of NaOH required is (1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10
(1) 2 g (2) 4 g
54. Ratio of radius of 4th orbit of He+ ion to 2nd orbit of
(3) 8 g (4) 16 g H atom is
52. Volume of CO2 liberated at STP by burning 220 g (1) 1 : 1
of C3H8 in excess of oxygen is (2) 2 : 1
(1) 56 L (2) 112 L (3) 1 : 2
(3) 224 L (4) 336 L (4) 4 : 1

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CST-17 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

55. Minimum ionization enthalpy among the following 63. Which of the following condition favours the
is of forward reaction for the given below reaction?
(1) Be (2) B A(s) + 2B(g)  C(g), ∆H > 0
(3) C (4) N (1) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure
56. Consider the following statements. (2) Increase in temperature
a. Highest Mn fluoride is MnF4 (3) Increase in volume
b. Due to high third ionisation energy, +3 state (4) Addition of C(g)
of Mn is of little importance 64. Which of the following mixture can act as a
c. Cr2+ is oxidising and Mn3+ is reducing in buffer?
nature (1) CH3COOH + HCl (2) CH3COOH + NaCl
The correct statement(s) is/are. (3) NH4Cl + NaCl (4) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(1) a only (2) a and c only 65. Solubility of Cu(OH)2 in 0.1 M aqueous NaOH
(3) b and c only (4) a and b only solution is (Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = 2.2 × 10–20)
57. Number of nodal plane(s) in antibonding (1) 1.4×10–10 M (2) 2.2×10–19 M
molecular orbital of π2px is (3) 1.4×10–9 M (4) 2.2×10–18 M
(1) Zero (2) 1 66. Conjugate acid of HCO3– is
(3) 2 (4) 5
(1) CO32– (2) H2CO3
58. Minimum bond length among the following is of
(3) CO (4) CO2
(1) O+2 (2) O2–
67. Which oxidation number of carbon is not present
(3) O2– (4) O2 in propanal?
2
(1) +1 (2) –1
59. Interaction energy in London forces is inversely
(3) –2 (4) –3
proportional to the (r = distance between two
molecules) 68. Disproportionation of phosphorous cannot be
shown by
(1) r (2) r2
(1) P4 (2) H3PO3
(3) r3 (4) r6
(3) H3PO4 (4) H3PO2
60. A gaseous mixture of equal mass of CH4 and O2
69. During boiling, the soluble Mg(HCO3)2 is
is stored over water. If total pressure is 0.5 atm
converted into
then partial pressure of dry CH4 gas is
(aqueous tension = 0.2 atm) (1) Soluble MgCO3

(1) 0.1 atm (2) 0.2 atm (2) Soluble Mg(OH)2

(3) Soluble Mg2C3
(3) 0.3 atm (4) 0.4 atm
(4) Insoluble Mg(OH)2
61. 0.1 mol of ideal gas compressed reversibly
isothermally from 10 L to 1 L at 100 K. The work 70. Volume of O2 liberated at STP by 100 mL of 10 V
done in the process is H2O2 solution is
(1) 1 L (2) 2.24 L
(1) 230R (2) 23R
(3) 10 L (4) 22.4 L
(3) –23R (4) –230R
71. Least thermal stable among the following is
62. If enthalpy of combustion of C(s), H2(g) and
CH4(g) are –x, – y and –z kJ mol–1 then enthalpy (1) BeCO3
of formation of CH4(g) is (2) MgCO3
(1) x + y – z (2) z – x – y (3) CaCO3
(3) z – x – 2y (4) x + 2y – z (4) SrCO3

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-17 (Code-A)

72. Select the incorrect statement regarding solution 78. Red hot
CaC2 + H2O → A  → B 
3
CH COCl
→C
Fe tube Anhyd. AlCl
of alkali metals in liquid ammonia. 3

(1) Alkali metal in liquid ammonia gives deep Product C is

blue solution CH3 Cl
(2) The colour of solution is due to ammoniated
electrons (1) (2)
(3) Colour of solution is bronze if concentrated
COCH3 CHO
solution is taken
(4) Concentrated solution is highly paramagnetic
(3) (4)
in nature CH3
73. Select the incorrect statement about benzenedi- 79. Ozone and NO2 on reaction with unburnt
azonium chloride
hydrocarbon can give
(1) It is a colourless crystalline solid
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acrolein
(2) It is readily soluble in water
(3) PAN (4) All of these
(3) It is stable in cold condition
(4) It does not react with water on warming 80. In which of the following, 50% filling of tetrahedral
voids take place?
74. Which of the following is used to control the chain
length of silicones? (1) ZnS (2) NaCl
(1) (CH3)4Si (2) (CH3)3SiCl (3) CaF2 (4) Na2O
(3) (CH3)2SiCl2 (4) CH3SiCl3 81. Vapour pressure of ideal solution of 5 moles A
75. Isobutyl group among the following is and 10 moles B is
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – =(PA0 100
= torr, PB0 50 torr)
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH–
(1) 41.7 torr (2) 66.7 torr
|
CH3 (3) 75 torr (4) 83.3 torr
82. Ecell for the cell at 298 K is nearly
CH3 – CH – CH2 –
Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq) (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (aq)(1M)| Cu(s)
(3) |
CH3
(E°cell = 1.1 V )
(1) 1.13 V (2) 2.26 V
CH3 (3) 3.05 V (4) 3.9 V
|
(4) CH3 – C– 83 For the reaction xA + yB → C, on doubling the
| concentration of both A and B rate becomes 8
CH3 times while on doubling the concentration of A
only rate becomes 4 times. The overall order of
76. Which of the following alkene is most stable?
reaction is
(1) (2)
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
(3) (4)
84. Positively charged sol is
Cl2 (1 eqv) Mg (i) CO2
77. CH4 hv
→A 
Dry ether
→ B 
(ii)H3 O+
→C (1) TiO2 sol (2) Gold sol
Soda lime (3) Congo red sol (4) Cds sol

∆
→D
85. Liquation is used for
Product D in the above reaction is
(1) Zn (2) Hg
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH4
(3) Sn (4) Ni
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3CH3

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CST-17 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

SECTION-B 93. Select the incorrect statement regarding

COCH3
86 Maximum boiling point among the following is of
(1) NH3 (2) PH3
(3) AsH3 (4) SbH3
(1) Forms 2, 4-DNP derivative
87. S – S bond is not present in
(2) Does not reduce Tollens’s reagent
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O4
(3) Give yellow ppt with I2/NaOH
(3) H2S2O5 (4) H2S2O7 (4) Decolourise Baeyer’s reagent
88. Hydration enthalpy of Ni2+ ion is equal to the 94. Consider the following statements
hydration enthalpy of a. Molecularity of a reaction can be zero or non-
(1) Co2+ (2) Cu2+ integer.
(3) Zn2+ (4) Fe2+ b. For complex reaction, molecularity has no
meaning.
89. Select the incorrect option regarding Na3[CoF6]
c. For complex reaction, order is given by the
(1) Octahedral geometry
slowest step
(2) High spin complex
The correct statements are
(3) 4 unpaired electrons (1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(4) d2sp3 hybridisation (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
90. Rate of SN1 is maximum for 95. Which among the following gives fastest
hydrolysis in alkaline medium?
(1) (2)

Br Br
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

Br Br
91. Which of the following gives immediate turbidity
with HCl and Anhyd. ZnCl2?
(3) (4)
(1) (2) OH
OH

OH 96. Correct name according to IUPAC nomenclature

(3) OH (4) of element having atomic number 107 is
(1) Unnilseptium (2) Ununseptium
92. Which of the following ether cannot be
(3) Unseptium (4) Unnilquadium
synthesised by Williamson's method?
97. Which among the complex species has longest
(1) ‘C – O’ bond length?
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) [V(CO)6]–
(2) (3) [Mn(CO)6]+ (4) [Cr(CO)6]
98. Incorrect match of monomer of given polymer is
(3) (1) Orlon : Tetrafluoroethene
(2) Nylon 6 : Caprolactum
(3) Neoprene : 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene
(4)
(4) HDPE : Ethene

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-17 (Code-A)

99. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in which of the 100. Monosaccharides units present in maltose sugar
following high spin complexes? is
(1) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Glucose
(1) t12 g eg0 (2) t 22 g eg0 (2) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Fructose
(3) α-D-Glucose and α-D-Glucose
(3) t 32 g eg0 (4) t 32 g eg1
(4) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Galactose

BOTANY

SECTION-A 107. Match the following columns and select the

101. Which of the following statements is correct correct option w.r.t. various plants and their life
w.r.t. simple diffusion? span.

(1) The process of diffusion is faster than active Column-I Column-II

transport a. Rose (i) 90-120 days

(2) There is consumption of ATP b. Banyan tree (ii) 25 years

(3) Movement of molecules by diffusion is c. Banana (iii) 200-300 years

passive d. Rice (iv) 5-7 years
(4) It responses to protein inhibitors (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

102. The guard cells become turgid at the time of (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
opening of stomata due to 108. Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive
events in all of the following organisms, except
(1) Exosmosis
(1) Amoeba (2) Planaria
(2) Endosmosis
(3) Paramoecium (4) Bacterium
(3) Imbibition
109. How many mitotic divisions are required to
(4) Increased CO2 concentration in leaf
produce eight cells from one cell?
103. Nitrite is oxidised to nitrate during N2-cycle by (1) Two (2) Four
(1) Nitrococcus (2) Nitrosomonas (3) Three (4) Seven
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Nitrobacter 110. Select the incorrect statement.
104. In plants, which mineral element is required in (1) Carrots are biennials
more abundant quantities in meristematic (2) Vernalisation refers to promotion of flowering by
tissues, buds, leaves and root tips? a period of low temperature
(1) Potassium (2) Calcium (3) Impermeable and hard seed-coat is one of
(3) Sulphur (4) Boron the reason which promotes seed germination
105. Which of the following are proteinaceous (4) The leaves perceive photoperiodic stimulus
infectious particles? for flowering

(1) Prions (2) Viroids 111. The female gametophyte at mature stage in a
typical flowering plant is
(3) Lichens (4) Protozoa
(1) 2-celled (2) 7-celled
106. The ethylene is involved in
(3) 8-celled (4) 7-nucleated
(1) Phototropism and geotropism
112. How many nuclei are involved in triple-fusion for
(2) Nutrient mobilization the formation of primary endosperm nucleus?
(3) Seed development, maturation and dormancy (1) Three (2) Five
(4) Ripening of fruits (3) Seven (4) Eight

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CST-17 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

113. The 2000 years old viable seed of which plant 119. Which of the given is not amongst the broad
species was discovered at King Herod’s palace categories w.r.t. taxonomic hierarchy?
near the Dead Sea? (1) Genus (2) Species
(1) Opuntia (2) Polygonum (3) Tribe (4) Phylum
(3) Phoenix (4) Papaver 120. National Botanical Research Institute is situated
in
114. Choose the correct match w.r.t. cytoskeleton.
(1) Howrah (2) Lucknow
(1) Microtubules – Solid rod-like fibrils
(3) Delhi (4) Indore
(2) Microfilaments – Non-contractile protein 121. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(3) Microtubules – Actin and myosin
Column-I Column-II
(4) Intermediate – Scaffolds of chromatin
filaments a. Anabaena (i) Smallest living cell
known
115. During photosynthesis, photochemical reaction
b. Thiobacillus (ii) Photosynthetic
occurs in ' A ' and dark reaction occurs in
c. Lactobacillus (iii) Chemosynthetic
'B ' of chloroplast.
d. Mycoplasma (iv) Are employed in curd
Select the correct option for A and B. formation
(1) A – Grana
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
B – Stroma (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) A – Stroma 122. The cell walls of which protistan are embedded
B – Grana with silica and thus the walls are indestructible?
(3) A – Grana (1) Euglena (2) Diatoms
B – Thylakoid (3) Protozoa (4) Slime moulds
123. All of the given are true w.r.t. viruses, except
(4) A – Matrix
(1) They are non-cellular
B – Stroma lamellae
(2) Absence of respiration
116. Which one of the given pathways is common to
(3) They are truly “living”
all green plants?
(4) Nucleoprotein with either RNA or DNA
(1) C2 pathway (2) C3 pathway
124. The fusing gametes are non-motile and similar in
(3) C4 pathway (4) CAM pathway size, as in species of
117. Which of the given enzymes catalyses the (1) Ulothrix (2) Volvox
conversion of glucose to glucose-6- phosphate in (3) Eudorina (4) Spirogyra
EMP pathway?
125. The branch of taxonomy in which we study the
(1) Enolase structure, number and behaviour of chromosome
(2) Isomerase is called
(3) Phosphofructokinase (1) Chemotaxonomy (2) Cytotaxonomy

(4) Hexokinase (3) Numerical taxonomy (4) Modern taxonomy

126. The mature gametophyte of Funaria:
118. When pyruvic acid is converted into ethanol and
CO2: (1) Has upright main axis with spirally arranged
leaves
(1) NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+
(2) Has unicellular unbranched rhizoids
(2) NAD+ is oxidised to NADH + H+
(3) Has unicellular sex organs without jackets
(3) NADH + H+ is reduced to NAD+ (4) Shows vegetative reproduction by
(4) NADH + H+ is oxidised to NAD+ fragmentation and spore formation

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-17 (Code-A)

127. The life cycle pattern of Cycas and Ginkgo 135. Which of the given is an ex-situ conservation
species is/are strategy of biodiversity?
(1) Haplontic type (1) Wildlife safari park (2) Wildlife sanctuary
(2) Diplontic type (3) National park (4) Biosphere reserve
(3) Diplontic and haplontic type respectively SECTION-B
(4) Haplo-diplontic type 136. Select the correct statement.
128. Sepals and petals of potato family show (1) Methane contributes 60% to total global
warming
(1) Vexillary aestivation
(2) CO2 contributes 20% to total global warming
(2) Twisted aestivation
(3) Greenhouse gases absorb long wave (infrared)
(3) Valvate aestivation
radiation from the earth
(4) Imbricate aestivation
(4) During the last three decades, the temperature
129. The chloroplasts containing simple tissues of earth has increased by 6°C
showing thickening at the corners with cellulose, 137. With respect to ABO blood groups, how many
hemicellulose and pectin is genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, are
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma possible in the population of human being?
(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma (1) 4 and 6 (2) 6 and 4
130. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar (3) 3 and 4 (4) 4 and 8
content in maize, leads to resistance against 138. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(1) Aphids (2) Jassids proposed independently by
(3) Leaf beetle (4) Stem borers (1) Sutton and Boveri
131. Which of the given microorganisms produces (2) Mendel and Morgan
butyric acid? (3) A. R. Wallace and C. Correns
(1) Aspergillus (2) Clostridium (4) Henking and Tschermak
(3) Streptococcus (4) Acetobacter 139. β-thalassemia is controlled by
132. The kangaroo rat in North-American deserts is (1) A single gene HBA1 on chromosome 16 of
capable of meeting all its water requirement each parent
through its (2) A single gene HBB on chromosome 11 of
(1) Ability to dilute its urine each parent
(2) Ability of synthesize protein (3) Two genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome
(3) Internal fat oxidation 16 of each parent
(4) Thick layer of fat below their skin (4) Two genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome
11 of men only
133. Which of the following pairs of organisms is not
an example of commensalism? 140. How many types of gametes are formed by the
parent of AaBBCC genotype?
(1) The cattle egret and grazing cattle
(1) Two (2) Four
(2) Barnacles growing on the back of whale
(3) Eight (4) One
(3) Ophrys and bumble bees
141. Watson and Crick proposed a scheme for
(4) Orchids on a branch of mango replication of DNA, just after proposal of double
134. The pyramid of biomass is generally found to be helical model of DNA.
inverted in According to this model, DNA replication is
(1) Sea ecosystem (1) Conservative
(2) Grassland ecosystem (2) Semi-conservative
(3) Forest ecosystem (3) Dispersive
(4) Crop-land ecosystem (4) Random
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CST-17 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

142. Select the incorrect match w.r.t operon concept 146. The detritus food chain
in E. Coli. (1) Begins with heterotrophic organisms, mainly
(1) Lac z – Codes for β-galactosidase algae and fungi

(2) Lac y – Codes for permease (2) Begins with dead organic matter
(3) Is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic
(3) Structural – Lac z, lac y and lac a
ecosystem
genes
(4) Is not connected with the GFC at any level
(4) i gene – Codes for transacetylase
147. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in
143. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. features of
(1) Leptotene
human genome.
(1) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968) (2) Zygotene

(2) Chromosome Y has the fewest genes (231) (3) Pachytene

(3) The average gene consists of 300 bases (4) Diplotene

(4) There are many locations in human genome 148. How many generations of mitosis are required to
where single nucleotide polymorphism occurs produce 32 cells from one cell?
144. Euchromatin is said to be (1) 16 (2) 31
(1) Transcriptionally active and densely packed (3) 5 (4) 8
chromatin 149. Gibberellin is used for
(2) Transcriptionally active and loosely packed
(1) Increasing length of grape stalks
chromatin
(2) Thinning of fruits in cherry and walnut
(3) Transcriptionally inactive and densely packed
(3) Reduction of internodal length in sugarcane
(4) Transcriptionally inactive and stained darkly
stem
145. Which of the following statement is not correct
regarding triplet codons? (4) Closing of stomata under water-stress
conditions
(1) UGG is non-degenerate codon
150. Select the odd one w.r.t. mosses.
(2) UUU is universal codon
(1) Polytrichum (2) Psilotum
(3) AUG is initiator as well as terminator codon
(4) 61 codons code for amino acids (3) Funaria (4) Sphagnum

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 152. Reptiles are characterised by the presence of

151. How many of the given organisms exhibit (1) Mammary glands
incomplete digestive system? (2) Mammary glands and hairs on the skin
(a) Euspongia (3) Dry and cornified skin
(b) Fasciola (4) Wet and cornified skin
(c) Hydra 153. Complete the analogy.
(d) Ancylostoma Placoid scales : Scoliodon : : Cycloid scales :
(e) Hirudinaria _____
Choose the correct option. Choose the correct option.
(1) One (2) Two (1) Carcharodon (2) Trygon
(3) Four (4) Five (3) Pristis (4) Exocoetus

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154. Choose the incorrect match. 159. Select the incorrect statement among the
following given statements.
(1) Cartilage – Its intercellular material is solid,
non-pliable and do not resist (1) Catabolic pathways are degradation
compressions at all processes which lead to the release of
energy
(2) Bone – It has a hard and non-pliable
(2) Anabolic pathways are biosynthetic
ground substance, rich in calcium
processes which involve the consumption of
salts and collagen fibres
energy
(3) Blood – It is the main circulating fluid that
(3) Glucose is degraded to lactic acid in liver,
helps in the transport of various
energy is consumed
substances
(4) Most important form of energy currency in
(4) Areolar – It is present beneath the skin and living system is the bond energy in a
tissue serves as a support framework chemical called ATP
for epithelium
160. A condition in which the food is not properly
155. Match column I with column II. digested, leading to a feeling of fullness is termed

Column I Column II (1) Constipation (2) Indigestion

(3) Vomiting (4) Jaundice
a. Ciliated epithelium (i) Inner lining of
161. Complete the analogy.
pancreatic ducts
Glucose: Simple diffusion : : Fructose : ______
b. Compound (ii) Inner surface of
(1) Facilitated diffusion
epithelium fallopian tubes
(2) Secondary active transportation
c. Cuboidal epithelium (iii) Lining of stomach
(3) Osmosis
and intestine
(4) Primary active transportation
d. Columnar epithelium (iv) In tubular parts of
162. Select the incorrect match.
nephron in
kidney (1) Oxyntic cells – Secrete HCl
(2) Chief cells – Secrete pepsinogen
Choose the correct option.
(3) Mucous neck cells – Secrete mucus
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Goblet cells – Secrete chymotrypsinogen
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
163. Receptors associated with carotid body can
156. ______ in cockroach helps in grinding the food
recognize changes in
particles.
(1) CO2, and Na+ concentration
Fill in the blank with the suitable option.
(2) K+ and H+ concentration
(1) Hypopharynx
(3) CO2 and H+ concentration
(2) Proventriculus
(4) H+ concentration only
(3) Malpighian tubules
164. Select the correct match.
(4) Hepatic caeca
(1) TLC → RV + TV (2) VC →TV + ERV
157. Find the odd one out from the following.
(3) FRC → ERV + RV (4) IC → ERV + IRV
(1) Uridylic acid (2) Cytidylic acid
165. Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is favoured by
(3) Thymidine (4) Guanylic acid
(1) High pCO2
158. Which of the following fatty acids are
unsaturated? (2) Lesser H+ concentration
(1) Arachidonic acid (2) Palmitic acid (3) Low pO2
(3) Stearic acid (4) Myristic acid (4) High temperature

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CST-17 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

166. Select the correct match. (1) A – Thrombin

(1) Angina pectoris Acute chest pain appears B – Formed elements

when not enough oxygen C – Clotting factors VII
is reaching the heart (2) A – Blood platelet factor III
muscle
B – Formed elements
(2) Hypertension Blood pressure becomes C – Thrombin
lower than the normal
(3) A – Thrombokinase
blood pressure
B – Thrombin
(3) Heart failure When the heart stops C – Blood corpuscles
beating
(4) A – Clotting factor IX
(4) Cardiac arrest When the heart muscle is B – Thrombokinase
suddenly damaged due to
C – Thrombin
inadequate blood supply
169. Select the incorrect option.
167. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Bony fishes and aquatic amphibians are
(1) SAN is responsible for initiating and ammonotelic
maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of
(2) Many terrestrial amphibians and marine
the heart
fishes are ureotelic
(2) The nodal musculature has the ability to
(3) Reptiles, birds and insects are uricotelic
generate action potentials without any
external stimuli (4) Land snails, aquatic insects and reptiles are
uricotelic
(3) SAN can generate the maximum number of
action potentials, i.e., 40-60 min–1 170. Which of the following is indicative of diabetes
mellitus?
(4) The walls of the ventricles are much thicker
(1) Polyuria, haematuria and ketonuria
than walls of the atria
168. Carefully study the cascade process of blood (2) Glycosuria and ketonuria
coagulation (3) Uremia, polyuria, haematuria
(4) Polyphagia, polydipsia and oliguria
171. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Saddle joint – Between carpal and
metacarpal of thumb
(2) Fibrous joint – Do not allow any
movement; sutures
(3) Cartilaginous joint – Joint between the
adjacent vertebrate in
the vertebral column
(4) Synovial joint – Do not allow
considerable
movement; hinge joint
172. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca2+ in the
body fluid leads to

Choose the option which correctly labels A, B (1) Osteoporosis (2) Tetany
and C (3) Gout (4) Arthritis

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-17 (Code-A)

173. The 11th and 12th pair of ribs are 178. Select the incorrect match
(1) Connected dorsally to the sternum and (1) Insulin – Hypoglycemic hormone of human
ventrally to the vertebral column body
(2) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column (2) Glucagon – Hyperglycemic hormone of
and ventrally to the sternum human body
(3) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column (3) Epinephrine – Emergency hormone of human
and are not connected ventrally to the body
sternum
(4) Melanin – Regulates diurnal rhythm of human
(4) Connected dorsally to the sternum and are
body
not connected ventrally to the vertebral
column 179. Match column I with column II

174. Select the incorrect match. Column I Column II

(1) Brain : Divided into forebrain, midbrain and a. Testosterone (i) Amino acid
hindbrain derivative hormone
(2) Dura mater : Outer cranial meninx
b. Tetra- (ii) Protein hormone
(3) Pia mater: Middle cranial meninx
iodothyronine
(4) Hypothalamus: Centre which controls body
temperature, urge for eating and drinking c. Epinephrine (iii) Thyroxine hormone

175. Blind spot is the region where d. Glucagon (iv) Steroidal hormone
(1) Only rods are absent
Choose the correct option
(2) Only cones are absent
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Both rods and cones are absent
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Both rods and cones are present
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
176. Observe the given figure of a human ear.
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
180. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. MTP
(1) If the pregnancy has lasted more than
12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, one
registered medical practitioner must be of the
opinion, formed in good faith, that the
required ground exists
(2) MTP is to get rid of unwanted pregnancies
(3) MTPs are also essential in certain cases
Choose the option from the following that where continuation of the pregnancy could be
correctly states harmful or even fatal
(a) Part of ear, which lead inwards and extends (4) MTPs are considered relatively safe during
upto the ear drum. the first trimester
(b) Smallest ear ossicle. 181. Which of the following is not a natural method of
(1) a - Y, b - X (2) a - Z, b - Y contraception?

(3) a - Y, b - Z (4) a - W, b - Z (1) Vaults

177. Exopthalmic goitre is result of (2) Lactational amenorrhea
(1) Hypogonadism (2) Hyperthyroidism (3) Periodic abstinence
(3) Hypothyroidism (4) Hypergonadism (4) Coitus interruptus

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182. Choose the incorrect statement among the
following given statements
(1) The seminal plasma along with sperm
constitute semen
(2) The functions of male sex accessory ducts
and glands are maintained by androgens
(3) Secretions of epididymis, vas deferens,
seminal vesicles and prostate are essential
for maturation and motility of sperms
(4) Sperms are released from the accessory
ducts and are transported by seminiferous
tubules
183. Umbilical artery carries
(1) Oxygenated blood from foetus to mother
(2) Oxygenated blood from mother to foetus
(3) Deoxygenated blood from foetus to placenta
(4) Deoxygenated blood from placenta to foetus
184. Complete the analogy
Australian marsupial: Spotted cuscus : : Placental
mammal : _______
(1) Numbat
(2) Lemur
(3) Flying phalanger
(4) Tasmanian wolf
185. Branching descent and natural selection are the
two key concepts of
(1) Mutation theory
(2) Darwinian theory of evolution
(3) Lamarckism
(4) Modern synthetic theory of evolution
SECTION-B
186. MALT includes the lymphoid tissue, located
within the mucosa of
(1) Respiratory and digestive tracts only
(2) Digestive and urogenital tracts only
(3) Respiratory and urogenital tracts only
(4) Respiratory, digestive and urogenital tracts
187. Find the odd one out w.r.t. physiological barrier
of innate immunity
(1) Acid in stomach
(2) Saliva in mouth
(3) Mucous coating of respiratory tract
(4) Tears from eyes containing lysozyme
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021
188. Select the incorrect match
(1) Morphine : Extracted from the latex of poppy
plant, Papaver somniferum
(2) Cannabinoid : Obtained from inflorescences
of the plant, Cannabis sativa
(3) Cocaine : Obtained from Erythroxylum coca
(4) Hallucinogen: Obtained from Papaver
somniferum
189. Mule is a resultant of mating between
(1) Male horse and female donkey
(2) Female horse and male donkey
(3) Male horse and female horse
(4) Male donkey and female donkey
190. Find the odd one out w.r.t. the habitat of fish
(1) Sardine (2) Mackerel
(3) Pomfret (4) Rohu
191. ELISA works on the principle which state?
(1) Interaction between the epitope of an antigen
and the epitope of an antibody
(2) Interaction between the epitope of an antigen
and the paratope of an antibody
(3) Interaction between the paratope of an
antigen and the epitope of an antibody
(4) Interaction between the paratope of an
antigen and the paratope of an antibody
192. After processing _____ PCR cycles, 32 ds DNA
duplexes are obtained from a single ds DNA.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Five (4) Two
193. During batch fermentation, in which phase the
microbes in the fermenter are adapting to a new
environment when inoculated from external
source?
(1) Stationary phase (2) Log phase
(3) Lag phase (4) Decline phase
194. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. plasmid
pBR322
(1) Contains Bam HI restriction site in the region
of tetR gene
(2) Contains Pvu II restriction site in the region of
rop gene
(3) Contains Pst I restriction site in the region of
ampR gene
(4) Contains Pvu I restriction site in the region of
tetR gene
Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-17 (Code-A)

195. Emphysema can be treated with the help of 199. For the process of transformation to be carried,
the microparticles that are coated with the
(1) β-1 trypsin (2) α-1-antitrypsin
desired DNA, which are to be bombarded with
(3) α-lactalbumin (4) β-lactalbumin gene gun, are made up of
196. Myxine belongs to class (1) Gold or tungsten
(1) Cyclostomata (2) Amphibia (2) Gold or silver

(3) Aves (4) Reptilia (3) Silver or zinc

(4) Platinum or zinc
197. In amphibians, alimentary canal, urinary and
200. Read the following statements and select the
reproductive tracts open into a common chamber
incorrect statement(s).
called
a. Cellulase is used to degrade the cell wall of
(1) Trunk (2) Head plant.
(3) Cloaca (4) Operculum b. Chitinase is used to degrade the cell wall of
198. Inbreeding refers to the fungus.
c. Lysozyme is used to degrade the cell wall of
(1) Mating in more closely related individuals
animal.
within the same breed for 4-6 generations
d. Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after
(2) Mating between different breeds the addition of chilled ethanol.
(3) Mating between two different related species (1) Only a and b (2) Only c
(4) Mating between unrelated animals (3) Only c and d (4) Only b, c and d

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