AIATS Medical-2014 - Test-2 (Code-A) 101113 PDF

Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
Time : 3 Hrs. T EST – 2 MM : 720
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. An army man with his gun is falling with help of 3. A trolley filled with sand is moving on a horizontal
parachute. Due to some fault he gets detached road. If sand starts coming out of hole in the bottom
from the parachute. He is managing (opposing) of trolley then the speed of trolley (Assume no
downward acceleration by firing 100 bullets per friction of any kind between any two surfaces)
second at speed of 300 m/s. If the mass of each
bullet is 50 g, then what is weight of man with gun. v0
(Neglect air resistance, and g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 50 kg
(1) Will increase
(2) 125 kg
(2) Will decrease
(3) 150 kg
(3) Will remain constant
(4) 200 kg (4) First decreases then increases
2. A particle of mass m is sliding on a fixed frictionless 4. A block of 4 kg is kept on a rough horizontal
concave surface of radius a as shown in the surface. A force of 40 N is applied on the block as
diagram. The particle is released from rest from shown. If it slides on the surface, then the
point A (at height h << a) from rest, then the kinetic coefficient of friction between block and surface is
energy of body varies with  as
F
60°
4 kg

a 1
(1)  
3
h A 1
B (2)  
2
(1) mgh – mga (1 – cos) 1

(3)  
2
(2) mga – mgh (1 – cos)
(3) mga (1 – cos) 1
(4)  
(4) mgh(1 – cos) 3
Space for Rough Work
1/27
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 2 (Code A)
5. Select the correct statement regarding friction force 8. A block of mass m = 3 kg is initially at rest and
(1) Kinetic friction may be conservative or non- subjected to a force of 3 N as shown. There is an
conservative observer initially in rest and starts accelerating with
(2) Static friction may be conservative or non- 1 m/s2 in the direction of block. What is the net work
conservative done on the block in first second w.r.t. above
(3) Kinetic friction is self adjusting observer?
(4) Static friction is self adjusting
F=3N
6. A body takes t second to slide down on a smooth 3 kg
incline surface of angle of inclination . It takes 3t =0
time to slide down on similar rough surface having
coefficient of friction  = 0.4, then  is (1) 1.5 J (2) 1 J
(3) 0.5 J (4) Zero
1 ⎛ 9 ⎞ 1 ⎛ 20 ⎞
(1) tan ⎜ ⎟ (2) cos ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 20 ⎠ ⎝ 9 ⎠ 9. A body is kept in a potential energy field so that
force (due to field) on it varies with distance as
1 ⎛ 9 ⎞ 1 ⎛ 20 ⎞ shown in figure. Select correct statement
(3) cot ⎜ ⎟ (4) sin ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 20 ⎠ ⎝ 9 ⎠
7. A truck is moving up on an incline plane with F
constant velocity v0 as shown in figure. If efficiency Q
of truck engine is , then total energy spent by
engine in time t. Taking retarding force due to r
(0,0) P R
friction as mg cos
(1) Body is in stable equilibrium at Q

(2) Body is in stable equilibrium at P
v0 h
ug
Ro (3) Body is in unstable equilibrium at Q
 (4) Body is not in equilibrium at Q
A
10. There are two identical spherical balls A and B.
(1) (mg cos )v 0 t  Ball B is at rest and ball A is moving with speed u.
If ball A comes to rest after head-on collision with
 mg cos   v 0 t balls B and B starts moving, then the coefficient of
(2)
 restitution is
(3) mg (sin    cos )v 0 t  1 1

(1) (2)
3 2
mg (sin    cos )v 0 t
(4)
 (3) Zero (4) 1
2/27
11. A ball is dropped from 45 m height after first 14. The reading of massless spring balance in the
rebounce from the horizontal surface it attains given situation is (g = 10 m/s2)
height of 35 m. The coefficient of restitution is
2 2 7
(1) e  (2) e 
3 3
7 2
(3) e  (4) e 
3 3
12. A cage having a man is fitted with a giant wheel of 10 kg 20 kg

radius 60 m and wheel is rotating with some speed
so that when cage is at P man presses the floor of (1) 40 kg-wt
cage with a force F, when case is at Q man presses
the floor of cage with force F, then (M is mass of (2) 10 kg-wt
man) (3) 30 kg-wt
40
P (4) kg-wt
3
15. Two men A and B of masses 60 kg and 40 kg are
holding two ends of ideal string. Select correct
statement.
Q
mg
(1) F = 6F + mg (2) F = 8F +
2
(3) F = 5F + mg (4) F = F + 6mg B
13. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 6 kg are connected A
40 kg
with a massless spring as shown. When
acceleration of block 6 kg is 3 m/s2 rightward, the 60 kg
acceleration of 4 kg block at this instant is
2
a1 = 3 m/s
4 kg 6 kg F = 12 N (1) If man A moves down with some acceleration,
man B may be in rest
(1) 1.5 m/s2, towards right
(2) If man B moves up with some acceleration,
(2) 1.5 m/s2, towards left man A may be in rest
(3) 3.0 m/s2, towards right (3) Both men will always be in rest
(4) 3.0 m/s2, towards left (4) Both (1) & (2)
3/27
16. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough horizontal
R
surface. A force F = 5t acts on the block as shown. (1) F (2) 2RF
The total impulse imparted to the block in time 2
15 s is (3)  2RF (4) FR
10 kg F = 5t 20. The coefficient of friction between block and trolley

surface is . What should be the acceleration of the
 = 0.5
trolley along horizontal so that block does not side
(1) 562.50 Ns (2) 375 Ns on trolley?

(3) 62.5 Ns (4) 125 Ns
17. Strings and pulleys are ideal. The tension in the Trolley Block
string connecting 10 kg and 5 kg blocks, is
a
g g
(1) a  (2) a  necessarily
 
10 kg
g g
10 kg (3) a  necessarily (4) a 
T  
5 kg
21. A solid sphere A of mass m, radius R (having
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N smooth surface) is perfectly rolling with velocity v0
on a horizontal smooth surface. It collides elastically
(3) 30 N (4) 40 N with an other identical solid sphere B in rest head
18. Which of the following Newton’s laws of motion on. The kinetic energies of two spheres (A and B)
is/are not valid on non-inertial frame of reference? after collision, is
(1) First law (2) Second law Rest
v0
(3) Third law (4) All of these
A B
19. A force F acts on a particle moving on a circular
1 1
path in horizontal plane. The work done by the force (1) mv 02 , mv 02 respectively
in displacing particles from A to B if force F always 5 2
along the line parallel to AB.
1 1
B (2) mv 02 , mv 02 respectively
2 5
1 1
(3) mv 02 , mv 02 respectively
5 5
A
R
1 1
(4) mv 02 , mv 02 respectively
2 2
4/27
22. If linear momentum of a body is increased by 100% 26. Select correct statement regarding centre of mass
keeping mass constant, then percentage increase in (1) In uniform symmetrical body it coincides with
the kinetic energy of the body is geometrical centre
(1) 50% (2) It necessarily lies at centre of gravity
(2) 100% (3) In centre of mass frame momentum of system

is zero
(3) 200%
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) 300%
27. Select correct statement regarding work energy
23. When a ball collides with other, its momentum is theorem
conserved. This conservation of momentum can be (1) It is valid in inertial and non-inertial frame
understood better by (2) Total work done by all forces except pseudo
(1) Law of conservation of mechanical energy force in non-inertial frame is equal to change in
KE
(2) Newton’s third law only
(3) Work energy theorem is valid only if non-
(3) Newton’s first law only conservative force is not acting on the body
(4) Both by Newton’s second and third law (4) Both (2) & (3)
24. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a line 28. A car is moving on a banked circular road of radius
R and angle of banking . If velocity of car at turn
y  3 x  10 with speed 10 m/s. The magnitude of
is v  Rg tan  then
angular momentum of the particle about origin is
(1) No friction force is acting on wheels of car
(1) 50 kg m2 s–1
(2) Friction force acts on wheel along surface of
(2) 100 kg m2 s–1 road inward
(3) 150 kg m2 s–1 (3) Friction force acts on wheel along surface of
(4) 200 kg m2 s–1 road outward
25. A force F = 100 N is applied on block of mass (4) Friction force may acts inward/outward along
surface of road which depends on the weight of
10 kg as shown in the figure. The tension in string
the car
connecting 4 kg and 6 kg blocks is (string is
29. If external torque acting on a system is zero, then
massless)
which of the following is correct?
F = 100 N (1) Angular velocity of system remains constant
4 kg 6 kg 10 kg
(2) Angular acceleration of system remains
=0 constant
(3) Energy of the system remains constant
(1) 20 N (2) 50 N
(4) Angular momentum of the system remains
(3) 40 N (4) 60 N constant
5/27
30. Three particles of mass 2 kg each are moving as v (m/s) v (m/s)

shown in the figure. The velocity of centre of mass
at the given instant is
C (1) (2)
4 m/s
30° (0, 0) t (s) (0, 0) t (s)
v (m/s) v (m/s)
2 m/s
60°
A B
1 m/s
1⎡ ˆ 1⎡ ˆ (3) (4)
(1) i  2(1  3 ) ˆj ⎤ (2) i  2 3 ˆj ⎤
3⎣ ⎦ 3⎣ ⎦ (0, 0) t (s) (0, 0) t (s)
34. A particle is moving with constant velocity v0 on a
1⎡ ˆ 1⎡ ˆ
(3) i  3 ˆj ⎤ (4) i  2 3 ˆj ⎤ circular path of radius r in horizontal plane. The
3⎣ ⎦ 3⎣ ⎦
angular momentum of particle about a point
vertically above the centre (by height h) of the circle
31. Select correct statement regarding collision, when
is
two balls collides
(1) Constant in magnitude
(1) Momentum of the system of two balls is not
(2) Zero
conserved along line of impact
(3) Variable in magnitude
(2) Momentum of a ball is conserved along the line
of impact (4) Both variable in magnitude and direction
35. Centrifugal force belongs to
(3) Momentum of a ball is conserved along a line
perpendicular to line of impact (1) Electromagnetic force
(2) Gravitational force
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Strong nuclear force
32. A ball tied with inelastic string of length L is just
completing circular motion in vertical circle. The (4) It does not belong to any of four fundamental
magnitude of acceleration of the ball when string forces
becomes horizontal is 36. Select correct statement regarding parallel axes
theorem
(1) 3g (2) 3g (1) Both axes must be parallel, they may or may
not pass through CM
(3) 2 2 g (4) 10 g (2) Both axes must be perpendicular to each other
33. A body moving along x-axis from rest is under (3) Out of two parallel axes one must pass through
influence of a source which is supplying constant CM
power to body. The plot which best represents (4) Out of two parallel axes, momentum of inertia
variation of its speed with time is is more about an axis passing through CM
6/27
37. A force F is applied on the top of disc. If it rolls 41. A disc mounted on frictionless vertical axle is
without slipping then the acceleration of CM is rotating with angular velocity 0. A man on its
F circumference initially in rest starts moving with
constant velocity along a chord, then its angular
Disc
speed will change with time as
 
3F 4F
(1) a  (2) a 
2m 3m
0 0
2F 5F (1) (2)
(3) a  (4) a  t t
3m 3m (0, 0) (0, 0)
38. A body is rolling (pure) on horizontal surface; 60%

energy is translatory kinetic energy. The body is
 
(1) Solid sphere (2) Solid cylinder
(3) Ring (4) Hollow sphere 0 0
(3) (4)
39. Three identical discs of radius R and mass M are
kept in a plane as shown in the figure. The moment t t
(0, 0) (0, 0)
of inertia of the discs about YYaxis is
Y 42. Moment of inertia of a body depends on
(1) Mass of body
(2) Position of axis of rotation
(3) Distribution of mass with respect to axis of
rotation
Y
(4) All of these
5 11
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2 43. A force F  (2iˆ  4 jˆ) N acts at a point whose
3 4

position vector is r  (3iˆ  2 jˆ) m. The moment of
17 9
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2 force about origin is
3 5
40. A disc is rotating with constant angular speed (1) 16kˆ Nm

20 rad/s. Moment of inertia is 1.2 kg m2 and its
radius is 10 cm. A tangential force F when applied (2) 16( kˆ ) Nm
at its circumference it stops in 5 s. The force F is
(1) 36 N (2) 48 N (3) 8kˆ Nm
(3) 56 N (4) 64 N (4) 8kˆ Nm
7/27
44. A solid sphere is rolling up on a rough incline plane, 45. An uniform rod AB is kept between horizontal and
then the friction force on the sphere vertical smooth surface. If it is allowed to slide its
centre of mass will follow path
 4
(1) Is along incline plane upward 3 1

2
(2) Is along incline plane downward B
(3) Is zero (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) Normal to the plane (3) 3 (4) 4
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. In van der Waal’s equation for the real gas, the 49. Which one of the following set of gases will diffuse
expression for the net force of attraction amongst with same rate under similar conditions?
the gas molecules is given by
(1) NO, CO, O2
an2 an2 (2) NO2, CO2, SO2

(1) 2 (2) p  2
V V (3) CH4, O2, NO
(4) N2O, CO2, C3H8
an2 V2
(3) p  (4) 50. The root mean square speed of an unknown gas at
V2 an2
27°C is x cm/s. The temperature at which its rms
47. On heating a gas at constant temperature speed will be 3x cm/s, is
(1) Kinetic energy of the gas will increase (1) 2700 K (2) 270 K
(2) The number of gas molecules will increase (3) 2700°C (4) 900°C
(3) The kinetic energy of the gas molecules will 51. The volume of a gas at 0°C is 273 mL. The volume
decrease of the gas at 27°C and at same pressure would be
(4) The kinetic energy of the gas molecules will (1) 573 mL (2) 300 mL
remain constant
(3) 546 mL (4) 327 mL
48. If 16 g of CH4 and 4 g of H2 are mixed and kept
at 760 mm Hg pressure at 0°C, then volume 52. The ratio of root mean square speed, average
occupied by the mixture would be speed and most probable speed is
(1) 22.4 L (2) 44.8 L (1) 3 : 8 : 2 (2)  : 2 : 3
(3) 67.2 L (4) 33.6 L (3) 2 : 3 : 8 (4)  : 2 : 6
8/27
53. For H2O, 57. If the radius of oxygen molecule is 150 pm, then
TC = 647 K, what will be the percentage of empty space of the
gas at normal conditions of temperature and
PC = 218 atm, pressure?
VC = 0.057 L mol–1. (1) 90.71% (2) 99.96%
What is the value of ‘a’ for H2O? (3) 95.95% (4) 92.27%
(1) 2.12 L2 atm mol–2 (2) 0.019 L2 atm mol–2 58. An open vessel at 27°C is heated until 1/5 parts of
(3) 8.31 L2 atm mol–2 (4) 0.082 L2 atm mol–2 the air in it has been expelled. If the volume of the
54. The correct order for the van der Waal's constant container remains constant, what should be the
‘a’ for the given gases is temperature to which the vessel has been heated?
(1) O2 < N2 < Cl2 < CO2 (1) 375 K (2) 750 K
(2) O2 < CO2 < Cl2 < N2 (3) 546 K (4) 408 K
(3) O2 < N2 < CO2 < Cl2 59. Choose the correct statement(s)
(4) N2 < O2 < CO2 < Cl2 (1) Internal energy change is the heat absorbed or
evolved at constant volume
55. Consider the following statements
(2) In bomb calorimeter, H = U + VP
a. Kinetic energy of a molecule is zero at 0°C.
(3) Both temperature and pressure are intensive
b. A gas in a closed container will exert much properties
higher pressure due to gravity at the bottom
than at the top. (4) All are correct
c. Between collisions, the molecules move in 60. Consider the following chemical reaction taking
straight lines with constant velocities. place in a bomb calorimeter at 298 K
Choose the incorrect statement(s) 3

NH2CN(s)  O2 (g)  N2 (g)  CO2 (g)  H2O(l)
(1) a, b & c (2) a & b 2
(3) b & c (4) a & c What will be H for the reaction if U for the
56. Consider the following statement(s) reaction is –742.7 kJ mol–1?
a. A closed system cannot interact with its (1) –742.7 kJ mol–1 (2) –743.9 kJ mol–1
surroundings. (3) –740.0 kJ mol–1 (4) –741.5 kJ mol–1
b. Density is an intensive property. 61. In which of the following conditions, the reaction will
c. A system containing only one substance must be always spontaneous?
be homogeneous. (1) H < 0 and S < 0
Choose the correct statement(s) (2) H > 0 and S > 0
(1) a & b (2) Only b (3) H > 0 and S < 0
(3) b & c (4) a, b & c (4) H < 0 and S > 0
9/27
62. Consider the following mechanism for the formation (1) A B C D A
of NO2(g)
(2) C D
1 1 (3) B C
I: N2 (g)  O2 (g)  NO(g) ; H = 90 kJ mol–1
2 2 (4) D A B
1 66. In which of the following processes entropy

II : NO(g)  O2 (g)  NO2 (g) ; H=–74 kJ mol–1 decreases?
2
(1) CO2(g) Dry ice
Choose the correct statement(s)
(2) NaCl(s); 0 K NaCl(s); 115 K
(1) I is exothermic
(3) NaHCO3(s) Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O (g)
(2) Energy is absorbed in II
(3) NO(g) is less stable than NO2(g) (4) H2(g) 2H (g)
(4) Both (1) & (2) 67. What is the total entropy change
63. “If an adiabatically enclosed system is separated (Ssystem + Ssurroundings) for the following process
into two parts by a diathermic wall then the two 4 Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(s)?
parts will be in thermal equilibrium with each other”.
0
The statement is Given : Sreaction  –549.4 J/K 
(1) First law of thermodynamics
0
 Hreaction  –1648 kJ/mol
(2) Second law of thermodynamics
(3) Third law of thermodynamics (1) 5530 JK–1 mol–1
(4) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (2) 4980.6 JK–1 mol–1

64. The temperature at which liquid water will be in (3) 6079 JK–1 mol–1
equilibrium with water vapour. (4) 5907 JK–1 mol–1
Hvap = 40.73 kJ mol–1 and Svap = 0.109 kJ mol–1 K–1 68. Choose the correct relation for the solubility of an
(1) 373 K (2) 373.6 K ionic solid in water
(3) 383 K (4) 298 K
(1) Hsolution  Hlattice  Hhydration
0 0 0
65. Consider the following graph

P (2) Hsolution  Hlattice  Hhydration
0 0 0
B
C
(3) Hsolution  Hlattice  Hhydration
0 0 0
A D 1
V (4) H0solution  Hlattice
0

Hhydration
0
Network done is zero from point
10/27
69. Choose the correct relation on the basis of following 73. 23 g of N2O4(g) was placed in a 1 L container at
diagram 400 K and allowed to attain equilibrium
H = x

N2 O 4 (g)
2NO 2 (g) . The total pressure at
A B
equilibrium was found to be 11.6 bar, then what will
H = c
H = a be the partial pressure of NO2 at equilibrium?
(1) 9.15 bar (2) 4.98 bar
H = b (3) 6.6 bar (4) 8.3 bar

C D
74. The value of G° for the phosphorylation of glucose
(1) x = a + b + c (2) x + c = a – b in glycolysis is 13.8 kJ/mol. What would be the
value of KC at 298 K for the above process?
(3) x + a = b + c (4) x = a + b – c
(1) e–55.69 (2) e–5.569
70. For any pure substance at atmospheric pressure,
the temperature at which the solid and liquid (3) e–0.5569 (4) e–556.9
phases are at equilibrium is called the normal
(1) Boiling point of the substance 75. Fe3  (aq) SCN (aq)

2
[Fe(SCN)] (aq)
Yellow Colourless Deep red
(2) Freezing point of the substance
Consider the following statements
(3) Melting point of the substance
a. Addition of oxalic acid decreases the intensity
(4) Both (2) & (3) of red colour.
71. For the equilibrium, b. Addition of HgCl2 increases the intensity of the
red colour
2NOCl(g) 2NO(g)  Cl2 (g) , the value of the
equilibrium constant K C = 3.75×10 –5 mole L –1 . c. Addition of potassium thiocyanate decreases
at 27°C. What would be KP for the reaction at the the intensity of red colour.
same temperature?
Choose the correct statement(s)
(1) 3.3 × 10–1 (2) 5.3 × 10–2
(1) Only a (2) a & b
(3) 4.3 × 10–3 (4) 92.3 × 10–5
(3) b & c (4) a, b & c
72.

CO2 (g)  C(s)
2CO(g) . 76. Which of the following set contains only Lewis
acids?
If initially PCO  0.75 bar and pure graphite is taken
2
(1) H2O, NH3, OH–
at the equilibrium total pressure is 1 bar, then KP of
reaction is (2) AlCl3, Co3+, Mg2+
(1) 0.50 bar (2) 0.75 bar (3) OH–, BCl3, SH–
(3) 0.25 bar (4) 2 bar (4) Co3+, H2O, NH3
11/27
77. If KW for H2O at 90°C is 10–12 M2, then what would 83. Identify the disproportionation reaction:
be the dissociation constant of water at the same (1) H2O2 (aq) 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
temperature? [Assume dH2O  1 g/mL ]
(2) S8(s) + 12OH–(aq) 4S2–(aq) + 2S2O32–(aq)
(1) 10–14 (2) 1.8 × 10–16 (3) Cl2(g) + 2OH– ClO–(aq) + Cl–(aq) + H2O(l)
(3) 1.8 × 10–14 (4) 10–12 (4) All of these
78. Which of the following should have maximum pH 84. What is the oxidation state of central bromine atom
value? in Br3O8?
(1) 1 M HCl solution (2) Human blood (1) Zero (2) +1
(3) Milk of magnesia (4) Human saliva (3) +3 (4) +4
79. Which one of the following is the most basic? 85. What is the percentage purity of 10 g KMnO4 if it
reacts with 100 mL of 10 volume H2O2 solution?
(1) CH3 (2) NH2
(1) 70% (2) 28%
(3) OH (4) F (3) 56% (4) 42%
80. What is the expression of K P for the following 86. In the balanced chemical reaction,

N2 (g)  3H2 (g) ; if initially
equilibrium 2NH3 (g)
‘a’ mole of NH3 is present and at equilibrium ‘x’ IO3  pI  qH  rH2O  sI2
mole of it decomposed and total equilibrium p, q, r and s respectively correspond to
pressure is p?
(1) 5, 6, 4, 3 (2) 5, 6, 3, 3
2 4 2
27p x 9px (3) 4, 3, 5, 6 (4) 4, 5, 6, 4
(1) (2)
2
16(a  x) (a  x) 2 8(a  x)(a  x) 87. Consider the following statement(s)
a. Iron reacts with dilute H2SO4 to evolve H2(g)
3px 2 3p2 x 2 but Ag does not.
(3) (4)
4(a  x)2 8(a2  x 2 )2
b. Copper dissolves in dilute HNO 3 but not in
81. Which of the following reaction is an example of dilute HCl.
redox reaction? c. Amongst halogens fluorine is the best oxidant
(1) CH2 = CH2(g) + H2(g) H3C – CH3(g) because it is the most electronegative.
(2) NaOH (aq) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) Choose the correct statement(s)
(3) XeF6 (g) + 3H2O(l) XeO3 + 6 HF (1) a & b (2) b & c
(4) All of these (3) a & c (4) a, b & c
82. Maximum oxidation state which can be shown by 88. Which of the following element does not show
the elements of group 8 of the periodic table is disproportionation tendency?
(1) +4 (2) +6 (1) O2 (2) F2
(3) +8 (4) Zero (3) I2 (4) N2
12/27
89. Identify the incorrect statement 90. When 5 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH solution is mixed with
5 ml of 0.1 M NH 4 Cl solution, the pH of the
(1) Ag+ is stronger Lewis acid than Na+
5
resulting solution would be [K b(NH4OH)  10 ] :
(2) pH of pure water remains same at different
temperatures (1) 6.4
(3) AgCl is more soluble in water than in aqueous (2) 9.0
NaCl (3) 5.4
(4) CH3COO– is a weaker base than OH– (4) 8.4
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Given below are the diagrammatic representation of 93. Which of the following are colonial and filamentous
position of floral parts on thalamus, condition of ovary green algae respectively?
and example. Find the correctly matched combination? (1) Ulothrix and Volvox
Position of Condition Example (2) Chlamydomonas and Chara
floral parts of ovary
on thalamus (3) Volvox and Polysiphonia
(4) Volvox and Spirogyra
94. Identify the mismatched pair w.r.t. Algae
(1) G Cucumber Algae Pigment Reserve Class
food
(1) Ulothrix Chlorophyll Starch Chlorophyceae

a&c
(2) G– Brinjal (2) Dictyota Chlorophyll Mannitol Phaeophyceae

a&c
(3) Porphyra Chlorophyll Floridean Rhodophyceae

a&d starch
(3) G Plum (4) Gracilaria Chlorophyll Similar to Rhodophyceae

a&d amylopectin
and
glycogen in
structure
(4) G Rose
95. The algae used as food supplement by space
travellers are
92. Study of number of chromosomes for resolving
difficulties in classification is used in (1) Rich source of carrageen
(1) Chemotaxonomy (2) Unicellular forms rich in proteins
(2) Morphotaxonomy (3) Used to grow microbes and are also used in
preparations of ice-creams and jellies
(3) Cytotaxonomy
(4) Carry out half of the total carbon dioxide fixation
(4) Biochemical taxonomy on earth through chemosynthesis
13/27
96. Members of algal class that reproduce asexually by 99. Which of the following plant is used as packing
non-motile spores and sexually by non-motile material for trans-shipment of living material?
gametes, do not show
(1) Complex body organisation
(2) Complex post fertilization developments
(3) Source of a product used to grow microbes
(4) Vegetative cells with a cellulosic cell wall usually
covered by gelatinous coating of algin
97. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words and mark (1) (2)
the correct option :
(i) The plant body of bryophyte is more
differentiated than A .
(ii) Plant body is B in Marchantia.
(iii) The female sex-organ of bryophytes is C .

(1) A – Algae
B – Thalloid
C – Archegonium
(2) A – Pteridophyte
B – Leafy
(3) (4)
C – Oogonium
(3) A – Algae
B – Leafy
C – Antheridium
(4) A – Pteridophyte 100. The first terrestrial plants which possessed vascular
B – Dorsiventral tissues, show
C – Archegonium (1) External fertilization of gametes

98. Mark the mismatched pair w.r.t. bryophyte (2) Presence of true root, stem and leaves
(1) Leafy stage of moss – Multicellular and (3) Presence of parasitic sporophyte
branched rhizoids
(4) Found in dry, hot and shady places only
(2) Protonema of moss – Frequently filamentous
101. Which of the following pteridophyte bears
stage
microphyllous leaves and strobili?
(3) Gemmae – Multicellular, sexual
buds (1) Sphagnum (2) Dryopteris
(4) Capsule – Contains spore (3) Adiantum (4) Selaginella
14/27
102. Read the following features properly. 106. Mark the option which correctly identifies A, B, C
and D.
a. Free living
b. Mostly photosynthetic
c. Mostly parasitic A
d. Inconspicuous
e. Unicellular
B
How many of the given features are correct for
prothallus of pteridophytes?
(1) Three (2) Five C
(3) Four (4) Two
D
103. In pteridophytes, the need of water for fertilization
(1) A – Long shoot B – Dwarf shoot
results in
C – Cone D – Pinus
(1) Their primarily aquatic habitat
(2) A – Dwarf shoot B – Long shoot
(2) Their wide distribution
C – Seed D – Ginkgo
(3) Absence of vasculature
(3) A – Leaf B – Dwarf shoot
(4) Their limited and restricted distribution
C – Fruit D – Ginkgo
104. Identify the correctly matched pair:
(4) A – Dwarf shoot B – Long shoot
Class Example Feature C – Seed D – Cycas
(1) Psilopsida Lycopodium Seed habit 107. How many of the given pairs are correctly
(2) Sphenopsida Selaginella Strobilus matched?
(3) Lycopsida Psilotum Homosporous a. Sequoia – Direct pollination

b. Wolfia – Macroscopic plant
(4) Pteropsida Dryopteris Macrophylls
c. Pinus – Pinnate fan shaped leaves
105. The multicellular female gametophyte of
d. Cycas – Mycorrhiza
gymnosperms
e. Selaginella – Precursor to seed habit
(1) Is released from megasporangium after
attaining two celled stage f. Equisetum – Horsetails
(2) Always bears single archegonium (1) Five
(3) Arises from single functional megaspore in (2) Three

ovule (3) Two
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Four
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108. In flowering plants Identify the correctly matched pair w.r.t. given
statements and their examples.
(1) The embryo sac formation is preceded by
meiosis (1) A – Fucus B – Cycas
(2) The egg apparatus is single celled (2) A – Spirogyra B – Ulothrix
(3) Pollen grains are dispersed only by wind (3) A – Polysiphonia B – Dryopteris
(4) The reduced female gametophyte has 7-nuclei (4) A – Volvox B – Funaria
and 8-cells
112. Polysiphonia and Ectocarpus plants resemble in the
109. Among Wolfia, Fucus, Sequoia, Pinus, Polytrichum, presence of
Monstera, Rhizophora, Chara and Eucalyptus, how
(1) Haplontic life cycle
many higher plants exhibit diplontic life cycle?
(2) Chlorophyll a & d
(1) Seven (2) Eight
(3) Haplodiplontic life cycle
(3) Six (4) Five
(4) Polysulphate esters in cell wall
110. Which one is correct statement with regards to the
economic importance of algae? 113. In which of the following plant, primary root is short
lived and new roots originate from the base of the
a. Some 70 species of fresh water algae are used
stem?
as food.
(1) Wheat (2) Banyan tree
b. Asexual reproduction is by the production of
different types of spores, the most common (3) Mango (4) Rhizophora
being the zoospores. 114. The distal most region of root
c. They form the basis of food cycles of all aquatic (1) Is thimble-like and protects the tender apex of
animals. the root
d. Certain marine brown and red algae produce (2) Bears fine, delicate and thread like structures
large amounts of hydrocolloids which are used
commercially. (3) Is responsible for growth of root in length
(1) a, b & d (2) b, c & d (4) Has very small, thin walled actively dividing
cells with dense protoplasm
(3) c & d (4) All of these
115. The supporting roots coming out of lower nodes in
111. Read the following statements carefully: maize stem are
A. Sporophytic generation is represented by single (1) Pneumatophores
celled zygote.
(2) Prop roots
B. Dominant independent gametophyte alternates
with short lived multicellular parasitic (3) Climbing roots
sporophyte. (4) Stilt roots
16/27
116. Fill in the blanks and mark the correct option: 120. How many of the given plants have alternate
phyllotaxy?
(i) The stem is the A part of the axis bearing
branches, leaves, flowers and fruits. Calotropis, Mustard, China rose, Alstonia,
Guava, Sunflower, Nerium
(ii) B are the portions between two nodes.
(1) Three (2) Five
(iii) The underground stem of Zaminkand acts as
(3) Four (4) Six
an organ of C .
121. The silk cotton plant has
(1) A – Descending B – Nodes
(1) Pinnately compound leaf
(2) A – Ascending C – Perennation
(2) Palmately compound leaf
(3) B – Internodes C – Photosynthesis (3) Simple leaf with entire lamina
(4) A – Descending C – Storage (4) Simple leaf with incised lamina
117. The fleshy cylindrical stems which contain 122. Read the following statements:
chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis are
a. The main axis terminates into a flower in the
present in
inflorescence of Solanum.
(1) Rose (2) Opuntia b. Leaves can be modified to tendrils and spines
(3) Euphorbia (4) Citrus for protection and climbing respectively.
118. Mark the odd one w.r.t. stem tendrils (1) Both a & b are correct
(1) Pea (2) Cucumber (2) Only b is incorrect

(3) Both a & b are incorrect
(3) Grapevines (4) Watermelon
(4) Only a is incorrect
119. Mark the option with incorrect statements:
123. Which of the following pair of flowers show bilateral
A. Leaves – Originate from shoot apical symmetry?
meristem.
(1) Datura, Chilli
B. Veins – Provide rigidity to the leaf blade.
(2) Cassia, Canna
C. Pulvinus – Present in the leaves of most
(3) Asparagus, Gloriosa
monocots.
(4) Gulmohur, Bean
D. Venation – Arrangement of leaves on the
124. Read the following statements carefully and identify
stem or branch.
the set of correct statements w.r.t. artificial system
E. Phyllode – Australian Acacia. of classification
(1) A, B & C a. It is based on the evolutionary relationship
between various organisms.
(2) D & E
b. Uses only gross superficial morphological
(3) C & D
characters such as habit, colour, number and
(4) B, D & E shape of leaves.
17/27
c. Gives equal weightage to vegetative and sexual 128. Which of the following is a small pore on seed
characteristics. coat?
d. For flowering plants, it was given by G. (1) Testa (2) Tegmen
Bentham and J.D. Hooker.
(3) Hilum (4) Micropyle
(1) a & d (2) b & c
129. The dicot with endospermic seed is
(3) a & c (4) b & d
(1) Wheat (2) Orchid
125. The aestivation in petals of Lady’s finger and
Calotropis plants are respectively: (3) Bean (4) Castor
130. Match the Column I and II w.r.t. maize seed
Column I Column II
A. B. a. Scutellum (i) Proteinous endosperm
b. Aleurone layer (ii) Coleorhiza
c. Plumule (iii) Starchy endosperm
d. Radicle (iv) Shield shaped cotyledon
C. D.
(v) Coleoptile
(vi) Seed coat
(1) A & D (2) B & C
(3) D & A (4) D & B (1) a(iv), b(i), c(v), d(ii)
126. Which of the following features are related to (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)
China rose? (3) a(vi), b(i), c(v), d(ii)
Flower Androecium Gynoecium (4) a(vi), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)
(1) Asymmetric Staminode Parietal 131. Which of the following symbol is not related to the
placentation floral formula of family Brassicaceae?
(2) Unisexual Epipetalous Marginal
placentation (1) G(2) (2) A(9)+1
(3) Bisexual Monoadelphous Axile (3) K2+2 (4) C4
placentation
132. The flower with actinomorphic symmetry, five fused
(4) Trimerous Polyadelphous Free central
sepals, five united petals, epipetalous stamens,
placentation
swollen placenta with many ovules and
127. The fruit formed without fertilization of ovary is endospermic seeds is
(1) A true fruit (1) Trifolium

(2) Exemplified by banana (2) Brassica
(3) Known as drupe always (3) Nicotiana
(4) Can never be edible (4) Asparagus
18/27
133. Read the following vegetative features carefully and 136. The alimentary canal of cockroach is made up of
identify the family described below: the following parts. Arrange them in an order
A. Plants : Trees, shrubs or herbs. beginning from mouth.
B. Root : Presence of root nodules. Crop, Gizzard, Oesophagus, Mesenteron,
C. Stem : Erect or climber. Colon, Rectum, Ileum, Mouth
D. Leaves: Simple or pinnately compound, (1) Mouth  Crop  Oesophagus  Gizzard 
pulvinate leaf base, stipulate. Mesenteron Colon Ileum Rectum
(1) Fabaceae (2) Liliaceae (2) Mouth  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop 
(3) Solanaceae (4) Brassicaceae Mesenteron Ileum Colon Rectum
134. The floral formula of plant, which is the source of (3) Mouth  Oesophagus   Crop  Gizzard 
mitotic poison colchicine, is Ileum Mesenteron Colon Rectum
(4) Mouth  Oesophagus   Crop  Gizzard 
(1)  K(5) C(5) A5 G (2) (2) Br  K3 C3 A3 G(3)
Mesenteron Ileum Colon Rectum
(3)  K2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2) (4) Br  P3+3 A3+3 G (3)
137. Following is a diagram of reproductive system of
135. Given below are three floral diagrams. Identify the female cockroach with parts labelled as A, B, C and
correctly matched pairs. D. Select the option which is correct identification
of A, B, C and D with functions / characteristics /
location.
A.
A
D
B
C
B.
Options
(1) A – Ovary, present in the 2nd – 6th abdominal
segments. Each ovary is formed of a group
of ten ovarian tubules or ovarioles.
C. (2) B – A pair of spermatheca present in 4th – 6th
abdominal segments, and open into genital
chamber.
(1) A – Lupin ; B – Aloe (3) C – A pair of collaterial glands opening into
(2) B – Gloriosa ; C – Indigofera genital chamber; form the wall of ootheca
(3) A – Petunia ; B – Sunhemp made up of scleroprotein.
(4) A – Ashwagandha ; C – Chilli (4) D – Vagina, ovarioles open into it.
19/27
138. Following is a diagrammatic presentation of 141. Parts A, B, C and D of the areolar connective tissue
glandular epithelium marked as A and B. are shown in the diagram. Select the option which
Select the option which is correct identification of gives correct identification along with its functions/
A and B with functions / characteristics / location. characteristics
A A
A. B.
B B
(1) A – Unicellular gland, goblet cells present in the

skin of frog secreting mucous.
C
(2) B – Unicellular gland, goblet cells of the
(1) A – Macrophage, secrete maximum amount of
alimentary canal secreting mucous.
matrix / ground substance, help in
(3) A – Multicellular gland, secreting mucous. phagocytosis.
(4) B – Multicellular gland, consisting of cluster of
cells, e.g.: salivary glands (2) B – Collagen fibres, most abundant protein in
biosphere.
139. Which one of the following sets of items in the
options (1 – 4) are correctly categorised with one (3) C – Mast cells, their granules contain chemicals
exception in it? like histamine, heparin and serotonin.
Items Category Exception (4) D – Fibroblast, principal cells of this tissue and
(1) Uridine, Nucleosides Uridine secrete maximum amount of matrix.
Adenosine,
Guanosine 142. Nissl granules are present in
(2) Lysine, Glutamic Polar amino Lysine
(1) Blood
acid, Aspartic acid acids
(3) Inulin, Cellulose, Homo- Chitin (2) Sarcoplasm
Chitin polymer
(4) Thymidylic acid, Nucleotides Thymidylic (3) Glial cells / neuroglial cells
Cytidylic acid, acid
Adenylic acid (4) Cyton / soma
140. Among flavonoides, anthocyanin, chlorophyll, 143. A sarcomere of the striated muscle fibre consists of
lecithin, rubber, essential oils, antibiotics, scents,
curcumin, cellulose, concanavalin A, morphine, (1) A H-band and I-band
codeine and abrin, how many are secondary
(2) An A-band and I-band
metabolites?
(1) Fourteen (2) Twelve (3) An A-band and Half I-band on either side
(3) Ten (4) Eight (4) An A-band and a H-band
20/27
144. Read the statements given below about cardiac Choose the correct answer
muscle fibres represented in the given diagram.
(1) C & D (2) A & B
(3) C only (4) B & C
146. Choose the best answer for coenzymes NAD and
NADP
(1) They participate in the formation of nucleic
acids
(2) They act along with reducing enzymes and
participate in reduction reactions occurring in
the cell
(3) The essential chemical components of these
A. They lack the orderly arrangement of actin and coenzymes are vitamins like riboflavin
myosin filaments.
(4) The components of NAD are Nicotinamide-
B. They have less extensive sarcoplasmic
reticulum and thus contract more slowly than ribose-phosphate-phosphate-ribose-adenine. It
smooth muscle cells. acts as coenzyme of oxidizing enzymes
C. They are connected by intercalated discs, 147. False statement for a portion of glycogen depicted
through which action potentials spread to all below is
cells in the heart.
D. They contract only when stimulated by neurons.
E. They have resting potential more positive than
an action potential. B A
How many of the above statements are correct?
CH 2OH CH2 OH
O
(1) One O O O
OH OH
O O O OH
(2) Two O
OH OH
(3) Three O
CH 2
(4) Four O O O O
145. Where are the neurotransmitter receptors located?

(1) Its right end is called the reducing end and the
A. On nuclear membrane. left end is called the non-reducing end
B. At nodes of Ranvier. (2) At position A it has  1-4 glycosidic bond, and
C. On the post-synaptic membrane. at position B it has  1-6 glycosidic bond
D. On the membranes of synaptic vesicles. (3) It is a heteropolymer
E. In the myelin sheath. (4) It gives red violet colour with iodine
21/27
148. Match the following with reference to cockroach and 150. Given below is a table. Fill in the blanks A, B, C & D.
choose the correct option
Component Percentage of the
Column I Column II total cellular mass
a. Anal styles (i) Jointed filamentous Nucleic acid A
structures present in both Carbohydrates B
sexes
Protein C
b. Gonopore (ii) Opens into ejaculatory
Water D
duct through seminal
vesicles Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
c. Anal cerci (iii) Thread like structures, A B C D

absent in females (1) 10-15 2 5-7 70-90
d. Vas deferens (iv) Opening of ejaculatory
duct in male cockroach (2) 10-15 2 1 70-90
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (3) 5-7 3 10-15 70-90
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) 5-7 3 70-90 10-15
149. Following is the diagram showing the external
features of cockroach in which the wings are 151. Tick mark the statement which is not correct w.r.t.
marked as A and B. Select the option which is cockroach?
correct identification of A and B with functions / (1) In cockroach the grinding of the food particles
characteristics / location is performed by mandibles
(2) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of
A nitrogenous wastes in the form of urea
B (3) Hind gut of cockroach is differentiated into
ileum, colon and rectum
(4) Blood vessels open into spaces called
haemocoel
Options 152. The epithelium found in the inner walls of blood
vessels is A , also called endothelium and
(1) A – Forewings (prothoracic), which are used in
flight. the epithelium commonly found in the ducts of
glands is B .
(2) B – Hindwings (mesothoracic), thick and
Choose the option which correctly fills in the blanks
leathery.
A and B.
(3) A – Tegmina, arise from prothorax. (1) A – Cuboidal B – Squamous
(4) B – Hindwings, they are second pair of wings (2) A – Columnar B – Squamous
which arise from metathorax, are
(3) A – Squamous B – Pseudostratified
transparent, membranous and are used in
flight (4) A – Squamous B – Cuboidal
22/27
153. Among the following amino acids, which of the (1) It is maxilla, A is grinding region, B is incising
following is polar and basic amino acid? region
COOH COOH (2) It is mandible, A is grinding region, B is incising
region
A. H2N – C – H B. H2N – C – H
(3) It is labium, A is incising region, B is grinding
CH3 CH2OH region
COOH COOH (4) It is mandible, A is incising region, B is grinding
C. H2N – C – H D. H2N – C – H region
CH2 CH2 156. Trace the correct, of transport of sperms in male
cockroach
CH2 CH2
(1) Testis  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct 
CH2 COOH Anus
CH2 – NH2 (2) Testis  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct 
Gonopore
Choose the correct option
(3) Testis  Ejaculatory duct  Vas deferens 
(1) A & B (2) B only
Anus
(3) C only (4) D only
(4) Testis  Ejaculatory duct  Vas deferens 
154. Which of the following factor/factors do not affect Seminal vesicles
enzymatic activity?
157. Which of the following is correct identification of the
A. Temperature epithelium illustrated with function / characteristic?
B. pH
C. Enzyme concentration
D. Product concentration
E. Substrate concentration
F. Activation energy
Choose the correct option
(1) C only (2) C & D
(3) C, D & E (4) F only (1) It is ciliated cuboidal epithelium, found in the
155. The figure below illustrate one of the mouth parts ducts of the glands and tubular parts of the
of cockroach. Select the option which gives correct nephrons of kidneys
identification of the structure and the labelled parts (2) It is brush border cuboidal epithelium present in
A and B with function / characteristic PCT
(3) It is ciliated columnar epithelium, present in
bronchioles and fallopian tubes to move the
cells particles or mucus in a specific direction
(4) Brush border columnar epithelium, to increase
the surface area of small intestine
23/27
158. Given below is the primary structure of a portion of 161. Which of the following is not correct matching of
protein. Which of the following is correct the part of alimentary canal in earthworm, its
identification of amino acids A, B, C and D, with location and function?
function/characteristic?
Parts of Location Function
alimentary
OH canal
COOH
SH CH2
(1) Stomach 9-14 segments Calciferous gland
present neutralise
CH2OH CH2 CH2 CH2 humic acid
th
Produce amylolytic
–HN–CH–CO–NH–CH–CO–NH–CH–CO–NH–CH–CO– (2) Intestinal 26 segment
enzymes
caecae
A B C D
th th
(3) Typhlosole 26 -95 segments Increase the
(1) A – Serine amino acid, it is non-polar effective area of
absorption is
(2) B – Cysteine amino acid, it is non-polar intestine
(3) C – Tyrosine amino acid, it takes part in the (4) Gizzard 8-9 segments It helps is grinding
the soil particles and
formation of adrenaline hormone produces digestive
(4) D – Aspartic amino acid, it is polar enzymes
159. Trace the correct path of air during inspiration in 162. Which one of the following structural formulae of
cockroach two compounds is correctly identified along with its
(1) Prothoracic spiracle  Trachea  Tracheoles related function?
Tissues O
(2) Mesothoracic spiracle Tracheoles Trachea O CH2 O C R1
Tissues
A. R2 C O CH2 O
(3) Mesothoracic spiracle Trachea Tracheoles
Diffuses into body cells CH2 O P O CH2 CH2
(4) Metathoracic spiracle Tracheoles Trachea OH N CH
CH3 3
Tissues CH3
160. Given below are four statements w.r.t. female O Adenine
HO – CH2
cockroach
A. A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6 th B.
segment which opens into the genital chamber.
B. On average, females produce 9-10 ootheca.
OH OH
C. Each ootheca contains 14-16 eggs.
Options
D. Nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to
become adult. (1) A – Triglyceride, present in cell membranes
(2) B – Adenylic acid, present in RNA
How many of the above statements are correct?
(3) A – Phospholipid (Lecithin), found in cell
(1) One (2) Two
membrane
(3) Three (4) Four
(4) B – Adenosine present in DNA
24/27
163. Which of the following is a cofactor for the 167. Which type of neurons are found usually in the
proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase? embryonic stage?
(1) Calcium (2) Zinc (1) Multipolar (2) Bipolar
(3) Copper (4) Chloride ions (3) Pseudo unipolar (4) Unipolar
164. Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor for 168. Which of the following epithelium lines proximal
the substrate succinate, causing inhibition of the convoluted tubule?
enzyme succinic dehydrogenase?
(1) Ciliated cuboidal
(1) Cyanide (2) Malonate
(2) Cuboidal brush border epithelium
(3) Sulpha drugs (4) Dicumarol
(3) Columnar brush border epithelium
165. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. Rana
tigrina? (4) Flat cells
(1) Renal portal system – Special venous 169. All the following statements are correct w.r.t.
connection between reproductive system of earthworm, but one is
kidneys and lower wrong. Which one is wrong?
parts of the body
(1) There are two pairs of testis present in the 10th
(2) RBCs – Oval and nucleated and 11th segments
(3) Copulatory pads – On the first digit of (2) Two pairs of accessory glands present one pair
fore limbs each in 17th and 19th segments
(4) Lymph – Has proteins and (3) Vasa deferentia opens to the exterior by a pair
RBCs of male genital pores on the ventrolateral sides
166. Tick mark the incorrect statements of 18th segment
(1) M-line – The thick filaments in the A-band are (4) Four pairs of spermathecae are located on the
held together in the middle by this ventrolateral sides of 5-9th segments
fibrous membrane
170. The term feedback refers to
(2) H-zone – The central part of thick filament, not
(1) The effect of substrate on the rate of enzymatic
overlapped by thin filaments
reaction
(3) Z-line – Elastic fibre in the centre of each
(2) The effect of end product on the rate of
I-band
enzymatic reaction
(4) I-band – The edges of thin filaments on either
(3) The effect of enzyme concentration on its rate
sides of the thick filaments which
of reaction
partially overlap the free ends of the
thick filaments, leaving the central part (4) The effect of an external compound on the rate
of thick filaments called as I-band of enzymatic reaction
25/27
171. Proteases can act on a variety to proteins. The Km 174. Read the statements given below
value of the protease will A. Growth of long bones is bidirectional, occurs at
(1) Remain same for a variety of proteins epiphyseal ends / metaphyses.
B. Anabolic steroids containing testosterone
(2) Vary with the type of protein
hormone cause premature closure of growth
(3) Depend upon the concentration of the substrate centres, which results in stunted growth.
not affinity of enzyme Options
(4) Depend upon the concentration of enzyme but (1) Statement A is correct, but B is wrong
not its affinity for the substrate (2) Statement A is wrong, but B is correct
172. Insects can fly due to rapidly contracting flight (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
muscles because
(4) Both the statements A and B are wrong
(1) Haemolymph helps in transportation of oxygen 175. In the diagram illustrated below, which is the
(2) The exchange of gases occurs directly between correct identification of structures labelled as A, B,
the environment and tissues through tracheal C and D?
system A
(3) Tergosternal / abdominal muscles help in
inspiration and expiration B
(4) The respiratory pigment remains dissolved in

blood
173. Following are the parts of a portion alimentary canal
of cockroach. Identify the structures A and B
present at the junctions along with function / C
characteristic. D
A Mesenteron 
Gizzard  B Hindgut
(1) A – Anterior aorta, blood from the sinuses
Options enters the heart through aorta.
(1) A – Crop, a sac like structure used for strong (2) B – There are twelve pairs (24) alary muscles,
food. a pair present on each side of the heart,
attached between tergum and dorsal
(2) B – Hepatic caecae, 6-8 blind tubules
diaphragm
(3) A – Hepatic caecae, 6-8 in number, lined by (3) C – Chambers of the heart present along the
cuticle and secrete digestive enzymes mid-ventral line, there are thirteen funnel
(4) B – Malpighian tubules, 100-150 help in the shaped chambers
removal of excretory products from (4) D – Anal style, thread like structures arising
haemolymph from ninth sternum present only in males
26/27
176. Plasmodesmata are (1) A – Effect of substrate concentration on the
(1) Communicating junctions in plants velocity of enzyme catalysed reaction.
(2) Desmosomes B – Effect of competitive inhibitor on velocity of
(3) Tight junctions enzyme catalysed reaction.
(4) Adhering junctions (2) A – Effect of substrate concentration on the

velocity of enzyme catalysed reaction.
177. Which of the following statements are not true w.r.t.
reproductive system of frog? B – Effect of non-competitive inhibitor on the
a. In male frog the path of transport of sperms is reaction velocity.
Testis  Vasa efferentia  Bidder’s canal  (3) A – Velocity of enzyme catalysed reaction in
Urethra Cloaca. absence of inhibitor.
b. Bidder’s canal is a longitudinal canal in the
B – Velocity of enzyme catalysed reaction in
kidneys of male frog.
presence of allosteric inhibitor.
c. Ureters in male frog carry both sperms and
urine. (4) A – Velocity of reaction in presence of enzyme.
d. A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000 ova B – Velocity of reaction in absence of enzyme.
at a time. 179. Among thymidylic acid, uridine, ATP, NAD, FAD,
Options FMN, guanylic acid, AMP, thymidine, uridylic acid,
(1) a & b (2) b & c how many are nucleotides?
(3) a only (4) c only (1) Three (2) Two
178. In the graph given below, what is correct for curves (3) Eight (4) Six
A and B? 180. Which of the following connective tissue is found
A between the skin and muscles, it fills the space
Vmax
inside the organs, supports internal organs and
Reaction velocity (v0)
B helps in repair of tissues?

Vmax
(1) Adipose tissue
2
(2) Areolar tissue
0 (3) Dense connective tissue proper
0 [S]
Km (4) White fibrous connective tissue

27/27
Test - 1 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
T EST – 1
ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (1) 146. (4)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (1)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (3) 79. (4) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (1)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (4) 153. (4)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (1) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (1) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (2) 159. (2)
16. (3) 52. (1) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (1) 161. (4)
18. (3) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (3)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (4) 97. (2) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (3) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (2) 177. (1)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (4) 144. (3) 180. (3)
1/8
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 1 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 18. Answer (3)
2. Answer (4) dx
v  6t 2  24t  6
3. Answer (1) dt
12 ± 0.04 ± 0.3 = 12 ± 0.34
dv
a  12t  24  0
4. Answer (3) dt
One digit after decimal.  t=2s
5. Answer (3)  v = 24 – 48 + 6
Total two significant digits. = –18 m/s
1 + 2 + 1 = 4% v2  x
7. Answer (3) 102 x
2

Absolute error is added. 4 4
 x = 25
8. Answer (2)
20. Answer (2)
5% + 2% = 7%
v (m/s)
9. Answer (2)
40
 is dimensionless.
10. Answer (3)
t (s)
K = F xv yT z 0 10 30 35
 x =y=z=1 1 1
s  10  40  40  20   40  5
11. Answer (4) 2 2
12. Answer (2) = 200 + 800 + 100

= 1100 m
20  20  10  10
v  5 m/s 21. Answer (2)
12
13. Answer (4) g (T1  T2 )
v  gt 
2
vdv
a 22. Answer (2)
dx
14. Answer (4) 2(5 + 15) + 105 = 145 m
23. Answer (2)
15. Answer (2)
24. Answer (2)
16. Answer (3)
24  7  25
2 + 20 – 5 = 17 m/s  28 km/h
2
17. Answer (4)
25. Answer (4)
∵ 7x = 14 cm x + 3x + 5x = 1.8 m
 9x = 18 cm  8x = 1.6 m
2/8
t  t1t2  2.4 s u 2 sin 2

R
g
27. Answer (3)
v = 4 – 2t = 0 1
 sin 2  2 
600
 t=2s
1 x
x = 6 m at t = 0 s   
1200 60
x = 10 m at t = 2 s  x = 5 cm
x = 9 m at t = 3 s 34. Answer (3)
Distance = 5 m
60
T  3s
28. Answer (2) 20
dy gT 10  3
vy   4  6t  u   15 m/s
dt 2 2
 uy = 4 35. Answer (2)
and v x 
dx
4 R
 4cot   3
dt H
4
 tan   1 4
4  tan  
3
  = 45°
⎛4⎞
29. Answer (4)    tan1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝3⎠
Maximum horizontal distance is 2 × 10 = 20 m 36. Answer (3)
30. Answer (4)
3x 2
y  15 x  0
4
u 2 cos2 
D
2g 15  4
 x  20 m
⇒ u cos   2gD 3
37. Answer (2)
2u cos  8D
T  
g g 
5 m/s
5
31. Answer (2) 3

vdv
  Ax 2 4
dx
.5 = 5 sin
v 2  u2 Ax 3
  
3
 0.6 rad/s
2 3 
5
1/3
⎛ 3u 2 ⎞ 38. Answer (2)
x ⎜
 ⎜ 2 A ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠ 242 + 72 = 252
2u 2H 2  22  0.1 v 2 402
n  2 a   100 m/s2
gw 2 10  0.2  0.2 R 16
3/8
2 a  ac2  at2
  7.27  10 5 rad/s
86400
v4
41. Answer (4)   A2
R2
1500  2  0.15
v  R   7.5 m/s 45. Answer (4)
60
dx
42. Answer (4) y
dt
20 2
a  4 2 m/s2 dy
5 x
dt
43. Answer (3)
dy x
2 2  
vRM  6  5  2  6  5  cos60° dx y
 36  25  30 or, xdx = ydy
 31 or, x2 – y2 = constant
[ CHEMISTRY]
0.4% NaOH means 0.4 g NaOH in 100 ml solution.
2.2
nCO2   0.05
0.4 1000 44
N   0.1 N
40 100
2.24
47. Answer (4) nH2   0.1
22.4
Mass of metal = x g
nTotal = 0.1 + 0.05 = 0.15 mole
Mass of metal oxide = x + 0.5 x g 50. Answer (1)
Mass of oxygen = 1.5x – x = 0.5x g N = M × n-factor
x N 2
E  8  16 M  1 M
0.5x n-factor 2
22.4 L O2  1 mole
171 1000
m  1
342 1000  5.6 L O2  mole
1 4

2 52. Answer (1)
 0.5 m 24 g of C = 2 mol C
= 2 g atoms of C
171 1000 56 g Fe = 1 mol Fe
M   1.1
342 1171 = 1 g atom of Fe
171 1100
  5.4 g Al = 0.1 mol
342 1171
= 0.1 g atom of Al
 0.469 M
1.08 g Ag = 0.01 mol
 Molarity < Molality = 0.01 g atom of Ag
4/8
1 mol SO24 = 6 × 1023 ions X4+ : [Ar] 3d5

X : [Ar] 3d7 4s2
= 96 g
 Atomic number is 27
= 50 × 6 × 1023 e–
64. Answer (4)
96 g SO24  50 × 6 × 1023 e– h = h0 + K.E.
 0.96 g  50 × 6 × 1021e– K.E. = (h – h0)
= 300 × 1021 e– = (8.2 eV – 4.2 eV)
=3× 1023 e– = 4.0 eV
54. Answer (2) = 4.0 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
14  2 = 6.4 × 10–19 J
%N   100
60 65. Answer (3)
Fact
280
=  46.6 66. Answer (3)
6
55. Answer (4) h
x × mV =
CaCO3 + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 4
100 g CaCO3  44 g CO2 h
V 
4  4x  m
44
 60 g CaCO3   60  26.4 g
100
6.6  10 34  1000
=
56. Answer (2) 4  3.14  105  25
10.33 1 = 0.021 × 10–26

Number of moles of P  
31 3 = 2.1 × 1028 ms–1
35.5 67. Answer (1)

Number of moles of Cl  1 1
35.5 Z = 37 = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 5s

Simplest ratio P1Cl1 or P1Cl3 ve
3 68. Answer (1)
57. Answer (2) Fact
Fact 69. Answer (2)
58. Answer (4) Fact
Energy of orbital n + . 70. Answer (3)
59. Answer (2) Short period is second period hence electronic
Fact configuration of element is 2s22p1 and valency is 3.
Fact Fact
The probability of electron is zero at node. Fact
Fact Fact
5/8

1s2 = He (smallest noble gas)
H
1s22s2 = Be
H–C=C–C–CC–H
1s22s22p6 = Ne (noble gas)
H H H
1s22s22p3 = N
75. Answer (3) = 10 , =3
Fact 82. Answer (1)
76. Answer (4) O2+ (bond order = 2.5)
Diagonal relationship is shown by 83. Answer (4)
Li Be B
–
O
Mg, Al, Si
77. Answer (2) N
Abrupt jump in ionization energy IE3 and IE4 shows O O
that three valence electrons are present in element
(A). 84. Answer (2)
78. Answer (4) Fact
Highest covalent nature 85. Answer (3)
79. Answer (4) Fact
Shape of PCl3 F2 is 86. Answer (4)
+ –
F *2px :
Cl – +
87. Answer (1)

P Cl
PCl5 - Two different bond lengths are present.
Cl 88. Answer (4)
F
Total no. of bonds
Bond order 
80. Answer (1) Total no. of resonating st.
IF3 : 2bp : 3lp 89. Answer (4)
PCl3 : 3bp and 1 lp Fact
NCl3 : 3bp and 1 lp 90. Answer (2)
BCl3 : 3 bp Fact
[ BIOLOGY ]
Mango - Sapindales Protozoans are heterotrophs.
Monerans - Cellular body organisation Ascomycetes - Mycelium is septate.
Toadstool - Basidiomycetes Cell wall is absent in Mycoplasma.
Pellicle is a protein-rich layer. Red sea - By blue-green algae
6/8
Phycobiont - Green algae or BGA Albugo - Phycomycetes
100. Answer (2) Claviceps - Ascomycetes
101. Answer (3) 121. Answer (4)
Sap vacuoles - In eukaryotes 122. Answer (2)
102. Answer (2) 123. Answer (2)
Somotogamy - Fusion of vegetative or somatic cells Lucknow.
of different genotypes.
124. Answer (2)
103. Answer (3)
BGA - Non-motile
Anabaena - N2 fixer, autotroph.
125. Answer (1)
104. Answer (4)
126. Answer (2)
ssRNA virus
127. Answer (4)
105. Answer (2) 128. Answer (3)
Deuteromycetes - Conidia Kingdom protista.
106. Answer (2) 129. Answer (4)
107. Answer (4) 130. Answer (4)
Arthropoda is a phylum. Collection of living animals in zoological parks.
108. Answer (4) 131. Answer (4)
In non-living objects Plants - Kingdom
109. Answer (3) Monocots - Class
110. Answer (1) Maize - Species
Monera - Lactobacillus, Clostridium 132. Answer (3)
111. Answer (3) Viroid
Two-kingdom classification - Plantae, Animalia 133. Answer (4)
112. Answer (2) Non-motile spores, saprophytic protists
113. Answer (1) 134. Answer (2)
Brinjal - Dicotyledonae 135. Answer (3)
Wheat - Monocotyledone Cell wall and cell membrane
114. Answer (3) 136. Answer (2)
Aspergillus (Ascomycetes) All arthropods are not insects, only the member of
class Insecta are insects.
115. Answer (2)
137. Answer (3)
Albugo - Multicellular fungi.
Pseudocoelom is present in Aschelminthes.
116. Answer (4)
138. Answer (4)
Oospores (2n)
Birds have internal fertilization.
117. Answer (4)
139. Answer (2)
Bacillus subtilis - Obligate aerobe Post-anal tail present in chordates.
118. Answer (2) 140. Answer (3)
Pasteur - Term virus Bony fishes are edible fishes and are eaten usually
119. Answer (1) by human.
7/8
141. Answer (2) 161. Answer (4)
142. Answer (3) Given animal is Spongilla in which digestion is
intracellular.
Asterias – Starfish is not a parasitic animal but has
suckers. 162. Answer (3)
143. Answer (2) 163. Answer (3)
In Hydra, non-polar neurons are present. Radula present in mollusc. (Pila)
144. Answer (3) 164. Answer (4)
Octopus, silverfish, centipede, millipede, Hydra have 165. Answer (4)

direct development. In Balanoglossus, fertilization is external.
145. Answer (4) 166. Answer (1)
Parapodia helps in locomotion in aquatic annelids. Columba – Pigeon (bird) is homoiothermal.
146. Answer (4) 167. Answer (4)
Ascaris is a monogenetic parasite. 168. Answer (2)
147. Answer (3) Limulus – King crab - is a living fossil.
148. Answer (4) 169. Answer (3)

170. Answer (4)
Sweat glands are absent in birds.
Given cell is cnidoblast, characteristic cell of
149. Answer (1)
coelenterates.
Tuatara (Sphenodon) belongs to order
171. Answer (3)
Rhynchocephalia.
Gills are present in aquatic arthropods (crustaceans)
150. Answer (4) for respiration.
151. Answer (4) 172. Answer (2)
152. Answer (1) In vertebrates, heart is ventral.
153. Answer (4) 173. Answer (4)
Shell is absent in Octopus. Covered gills are the characteristic feature of bony
154. Answer (3) fishes.
Tubefeet are present in starfish. 174. Answer (3)

175. Answer (2)
155. Answer (2)
In fishes, two chambered heart is present.
Delphinus, Rattus, Pteropus all are mammals.
176. Answer (4)
156. Answer (4)
177. Answer (1)
157. Answer (2)
In whales, external ear pinna is absent.
A – Fasciola, B – Ascaris
178. Answer (2)
158. Answer (2)
179. Answer (4)
159. Answer (2)
In frog scales are absent.
X – Scales.
180. Answer (3)
160. Answer (2)
Ophiura is an echinoderm in which a well developed
Adamsia – Sea anemone (coelenterate) excretory system is absent.

8/8

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Test - 2 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST – 2 MM : 720

(1) mgh – mga (1 – cos) 1

(1) Body is in stable equilibrium at Q

(3) mg (sin    cos )v 0 t  1 1

12. A cage having a man is fitted with a giant wheel of 10 kg 20 kg

10 kg F = 5t 20. The coefficient of friction between block and trolley

(2) 100% (3) In centre of mass frame momentum of system

30. Three particles of mass 2 kg each are moving as v (m/s) v (m/s)

38. A body is rolling (pure) on horizontal surface; 60%

40. A disc is rotating with constant angular speed (1) 16kˆ Nm

(3) 56 N (4) 64 N (4) 8kˆ Nm

Space for Rough Work

(1) Is along incline plane upward 3 1

an2 an2 (2) NO2, CO2, SO2

Choose the incorrect statement(s) 3

1 66. In which of the following processes entropy

(4) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (2) 4980.6 JK–1 mol–1

65. Consider the following graph

H = b (3) 6.6 bar (4) 8.3 bar

(1) Ulothrix Chlorophyll Starch Chlorophyceae

(2) G– Brinjal (2) Dictyota Chlorophyll Mannitol Phaeophyceae

(3) Porphyra Chlorophyll Floridean Rhodophyceae

(3) G Plum (4) Gracilaria Chlorophyll Similar to Rhodophyceae

(1) Chemotaxonomy (2) Unicellular forms rich in proteins

(iii) The female sex-organ of bryophytes is C .

C – Archegonium (1) External fertilization of gametes

(3) Lycopsida Psilotum Homosporous a. Sequoia – Direct pollination

(3) Arises from single functional megaspore in (2) Three

(1) Pea (2) Cucumber (2) Only b is incorrect

(1) A true fruit (1) Trifolium

(1) A – Unicellular gland, goblet cells present in the

145. Where are the neurotransmitter receptors located?

Space for Rough Work

c. Anal cerci (iii) Thread like structures, A B C D

(4) The respiratory pigment remains dissolved in

(4) Adhering junctions (2) A – Effect of substrate concentration on the

B helps in repair of tissues?

Space for Rough Work

Hints to Selected Questions

12. Answer (2) = 200 + 800 + 100

t  t1t2  2.4 s u 2 sin 2

53. Answer (3) 63. Answer (2)

1 mol SO24 = 6 × 1023 ions X4+ : [Ar] 3d5

10.33 1 = 0.021 × 10–26

35.5 67. Answer (1)

74. Answer (1) 81. Answer (4)

78. Answer (4) Fact

Highest covalent nature 85. Answer (3)

79. Answer (4) Fact

Shape of PCl3 F2 is 86. Answer (4)

87. Answer (1)

144. Answer (3) 164. Answer (4)

Octopus, silverfish, centipede, millipede, Hydra have 165. Answer (4)

147. Answer (3) Limulus – King crab - is a living fossil.

148. Answer (4) 169. Answer (3)

Tubefeet are present in starfish. 174. Answer (3)

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