21/08/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST – 10
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A
1. For a cubical block, error in measurement of
length of sides is ± 1% and error in measurement
of mass is ± 2%, then maximum possible error in
density is
(1) 1% (2) 5%
(1) 12 m/s
(3) 3% (4) 7%
(2) 13 m/s
2. A stone falls from a balloon that is descending at
(3) 5 m/s
a uniform rate of 12 m/s. The displacement of the
stone from the point of release after 10 s is (4) 10 m/s

(1) 490 m 4. A body of mass m1 exerts a force on another

body of mass m2. If the magnitude of acceleration
(2) 510 m of m2 is a2, then the magnitude of the
(3) 610 m acceleration of m1 is (considering only two bodies
in space)
(4) 725 m
m2a2
3. A man is crossing a river flowing with velocity of (1) Zero (2)
m1
5 m/s. He reaches a point directly across at
distance of 60 m in 5 s. His velocity in still water m1a2
(3) (4) a2
should be : m2

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

5. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by
applying a horizontal force of 5 N on the block. If
the coefficient of friction between the block and
the wall is 0.5, the magnitude of the frictional
force acting on the block is
(1) 2.5 N
(2) 0.98 N
(3) 4.9 N
(4) 0.49 N
6. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that
the position of the particle as function of time is
given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in metre and
t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4
seconds is
10. A rocket is fired from inside a deep mine, so as to
escape the earth’s gravitational field. The
minimum velocity to be imparted to the rocket is
(1) Exactly the same as the escape velocity of
fire from the earth’s surface
(2) A little more than the escape velocity of fire
from the earth’s surface
(3) A little less than the escape velocity of fire
from the earth’s surface
(4) Infinity
11. A planet moves around the sun. At a given point
P, it is closest from the sun at a distance d1 and
has a speed v1. At another point Q, when it is
farthest from the sun at a distance d2, its speed
will be

(1) 5.28 J (2) 4.50 J d12v1 d2v1

(1) (2)
(3) 4.90 J (4) 6.12 J d22 d1
7. A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s
d1v1 d22v1
collides with another body of mass 6 kg initially at (3) (4)
d2 d12
rest. If two bodies stick together after collision,
then the loss of kinetic energy of system is 12. Choose the wrong statement.
(1) Zero (2) 288 J (1) The bulk modulus for solids is much larger
than for liquids
(3) 172.8 J (4) 144 J
(2) Gases are least compressible
8. A uniform wire of length l is bent into the shape of
'V' as shown. The distance of its centre of mass (3) The incompressibility of the solids is due to
the tight coupling between neighbouring
from the vertex A is
atoms
(4) The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called
compressibility
13. A liquid rises to a height of 1.8 cm in a glass
capillary ‘A’. Another glass capillary ‘B’ having
diameter 90% of capillary ‘A’ is immersed in the
same liquid. The rise of liquid in capillary ‘B’ is
(1) 1.4 cm (2) 1.8 cm
l l 3 (3) 2.0 cm (4) 2.2 cm
(1) (2)
2 4 14. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal
velocity in air 1 m/s. The coefficient of viscosity of
l 3 l
(3) (4) air is 18 × 10–5 poise. The viscous force on it is
8 4
(1) 101.73 × 10–4 dyne (2) 101.73 × 10–5 dyne
9. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls
(3) 16.95 × 10–5 dyne (4) 16.95 × 10–4 dyne
without slipping down an inclined plane of length
L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of 15. A constant volume gas thermometer shows
mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom? pressure reading of 40 cm and 80 cm of mercury
at 0°C and 100°C respectively. When the
3 pressure reading is 50 cm of mercury, the
(1) 2gh (2) gh temperature is
4
(1) 25°C (2) 40°C
4
(3) gh (4) 4gh (3) 15° (4) 12.5°C
3

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16. Six identical metallic rods are joined together in a 21. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a
pattern as shown in the figure. Points A and D stationary object, emits a sound of frequency
are maintained at temperature 60°C and 240°C. 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object
The temperature of the junction B will be gets reflected back to the train as echo. The
frequency of the echo as detected by the driver
of the train is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)
(1) 3500 Hz (2) 4000 Hz
(3) 5000 Hz (4) 3000 Hz
22. Three charges are located at the vertices of an
equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. At the
(1) 120°C (2) 150°C
centre of the triangle
(3) 60°C (4) 80°C
17. A particle performs simple harmonic motion
about X = 0 with an amplitude A and time period
A
T. The speed of the particle at X = will be
2

πA 3 πA
(1) (2)
T T
(1) The field is zero but potential is non-zero
πA 3 3π2 A
(3) (4) (2) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
2T T
(3) Both field and potential are zero
18. A system is shown in the figure. The time period
for small oscillations of the two blocks will be (4) Both field and potential are non-zero
(springs are ideal) 23. Uniform electric field of magnitude 100 V/m in
space is directed parallel to the line y = 3 + x.
Find the potential difference between points A
(3,1) & B(1,3)
3m 3m (1) 100 V (2) 200 2 V
(1) 2π (2) 2π
k 2k
(3) 200 V (4) Zero
3m 3m 24. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel,
(3) 2π (4) 2π
4k 8k charged to a potential V and then separated and
19. The time taken by a particle performing SHM on then connected in series i.e. the positive plate of
a straight line to pass from point A to B where its one is connected to negative of the other while
velocities are same in 2 seconds. After another 2 open plates are kept open ended
seconds it returns to B. The time period of (1) The charges on the plates connected
oscillation is (in seconds) together finally become zero
(1) 2 (2) 4 (2) The charges on the free plates are enhanced
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) The energy stored in the system increases
20. Two sources produce sound waves of equal (4) The potential difference between the free
amplitudes and travelling along the same plates becomes 2 V
direction producing 18 beats in 3 seconds. If one 25. A 40 µF capacitor in a defibrillator is charged to
source has a frequency of 341 Hz, the frequency 3000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is
of the other source may be sent through the patient during a pulse of
(1) 329 or 353 Hz duration 2 ms. The power delivered to the patient
(2) 335 or 347 Hz is

(3) 338 or 344 Hz (1) 45 kW (2) 90 kW

(4) 332 or 350 Hz (3) 180 kW (4) 360 kW

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

26. Plane glass slab is kept between a model and a
plane mirror. The mirror is 50 cm away from the
model. The glass slab has a thickness of 15 cm
and refractive index of 1.5. At what distance
(in cm) from herself will the model see her
image?
(1) 40 (2) 50
30. A YDSE is performed with bi-chromatic light
(5500 Å and 6000 Å) for d = 2 mm and D = 1 m.
Distance of first complete maxima from the
central maxima on the screen, is
(1) 1.1 mm
(2) 2.2 mm

(3) 80 (4) 90 (3) 3.3 mm

27. If 'O' is a real object then find out the position
(co-ordinate) of image formed by the optical
system shown in the figure.
(4) 4.4 mm
31. Two sources of emf 6 V and internal resistance
3 Ω and 2 Ω are connected to an external
resistance R as shown. If potential difference
across terminal of battery A is zero, then value of
R is

(1) (+30 cm, +0.2 cm) (2) (+30 cm, –0.2 cm)
(3) (–30 cm, –0.2 cm) (4) (–30 cm, + 0.2 cm)
28. A light ray is incident perpendicularly on one face
of a 90° prism and is totally internally reflected at (1) 1 Ω (2) 2 Ω
the glass-air interface on other face. If the angle
(3) 3 Ω (4) 4 Ω
of reflection is 45°, we conclude that the
refractive index µ 32. In the arrangement shown, the magnitude of
each resistance is 2 Ω. The equivalent resistance
14
between O and A is given by Ω . Here x is
x

1
(1) µ < (2) µ > 2
2
(1) 22 (2) 13
1
(3) µ > (4) µ < 2 (3) 15 (4) 27
2
33. A very long solenoid is to be constructed by
29. Two closely located, monochromatic coherent
tightly wrapped wire with a magnetic field of
sources create a fixed interference pattern on a
0.168 T at its centre. The radius of solenoid is to
screen. The frequency of one of the sources is
be 0.01 m and the wire carries a current of 2 A. If
then decreased. What will happen to the
interference pattern as a result? the solenoid is 1.4 m long, what is the length of
wire needed in nearest integer (in m)?
(1) The pattern will completely disappear
(1) 4220
(2) The fringe spacing will increase
(2) 5842
(3) The fringes will shift up or down, but the
spacing will remain constant (3) 2550
(4) The fringe spacing will decrease (4) 5880

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-10 (Code-A)

34. A square wire loop of side a with a uniformly
distributed charge q rotates about its centroidal
axis (perpendicular to its plane) with angular
velocity ω. The magnetic moment of the square
wire loop is
37. For the series network shown in figure, find out
the average power delivered (in watt) by the
source in one cycle

qa2 ω
(1)
3

qa 2 ω
(2)
6

2 2 (1) 300 (2) 200

(3) qa ω
3 (3) 150 (4) Zero

qa2 ω 38. The wavelength of Kα X-rays for lead isotopes

(4) Pb208, Pb206, Pb204 are λ1, λ2 and λ3 respectively.
12
Then
35. In the L-C circuit shown in figure, the current is in
direction shown in the figure and charges on the (1) λ1 = λ2 = λ3 (2) λ3 = λ1 ⋅ λ 2
capacitor plates have sign shown in the figure. At
(3) λ1 < λ2 < λ3 (4) Both (1) & (2)
this time
39. Choose the incorrect statement(s)
(1) Dimensional formula of impedance is
[ML2T–3A–2]
(2) Quality factor of a circuit for an AC source is
unitless
(3) Phase difference between current and the
(1) i as well as Q are increasing source is independent of the frequency of the
(2) i as well as Q are decreasing source

(3) i is increasing but Q is decreasing (4) For an LC circuit in parallel the currents
through L and C are 180° out of phase with
(4) i is decreasing but Q is increasing each other
SECTION-B 40. The second ionization potential for He electron is
36. Three resistors, an inductor and a capacitor are (1) 13.6 eV
connected with a battery as shown in the figure.
(2) 27.2 eV
Current in R3 in the circuit
(3) 54.4 eV
(4) 100 eV
41. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of
active atoms is 8 × 104. Its half life period is 3
years. The number of atoms will remain 1 × 104
after interval
(1) 9 years (2) 8 years

(1) Just after closing the switch is zero (3) 6 years (4) 24 years
42. In an npn transistor the collector current is
(2) Long after closing the switch is zero
24 mA. If 80% of electrons reach collector its
E base current in mA is
(3) Just after closing the switch is
R3 (1) 36 (2) 26
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) 16 (4) 6

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

43. If the frequency of input alternating potential is n, 47. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in
then the ripple frequency of output potential of full the ratio 1: 2 acquired the same heights. If A is
wave rectifier will be thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, the
(1) 2n (2) n angle of projection of B will be
n n (1) 0° (2) 60°
(3) (4)
2 4 (3) 30° (4) 45°
44. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic 
48. A particle of mass m is moving with velocity v1 , it
wave of intensity I (watt/m2) on a non-reflecting
surface is [c is the velocity of light] is given an impulse such that the velocity

becomes v 2 . Then magnitude of impulse is
(1) Ic (2) Ic2
equal to
I I    
(3) (4) (1) m (v 2 − v1 ) (2) m (v1 − v 2 )
c c2
   
(3) m × (v 2 − v1 ) (4) 0.5 m (v 2 − v1 )
45. The binding energy of deuteron 12 H is 1.112 MeV
49. A car moves at a speed of 20 ms–1 on a banked
per nucleon and an α-particle 24 He has a binding
track and describes an arc of a circle of radius
energy of 7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the
40 3 m . The angle of banking is (g = 10 ms-2)
fusion reaction 12 H + 12H →24 He + Q , the energy Q
released is (1) 25° (2) 60°

(1) 1 MeV (2) 11.9 MeV (3) 45° (4) 30°

(3) 23.8 MeV (4) 931 MeV 50. Unit of power is

46. Which of the following can be zero, when a (1) Kilowatt hour
particle is in motion for some time? (2) Kilowatt/hour
(1) Distance (2) Displacement (3) Watt
(3) Speed (4) None of these (4) Erg

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Threshold frequency of a metal is 7 × 1014 s–1.
The kinetic energy of electron emitted when
51. Mass of NaOH required to form 500 ml, 0.2 M
radiation of frequency 8 × 1014 s–1 hits the metal
NaOH solution is
is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 1 g
(1) 6.6 × 10–14 J (2) 6.6 × 10–20 J
(2) 2 g (3) 1.5 × 10–21 J (4) 1.5 × 10–14 J
(3) 4 g 54. Maximum first ionisation enthalpy among the
(4) 8 g following is of
52. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (1) N (2) O
is correct? (3) C (4) Be
−1 55. Numbers of sigma and pi bonds in
(1) n = 4,  = –3, m = 0, s =
2 H2C = CH – CH = CH2 are respectively

+1 (1) 9σ and 3π (2) 3σ and 2π

(2) n = 3,  = 0, m = 2, s =
2 (3) 9σ and 2π (4) 3σ and 3π
1 56. Hybridisation of nitrogen in NH3 and NH+4 are
(3) n = 2,  = 1, m = –2, s =
2 respectively
+1 (1) sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp3
(4) n = 4,  = 3, m = –3, s =
2 (3) sp3 and sp3 (4) sp2 and sp2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-10 (Code-A)

57. O2+ has same bond order as of 64. For a hypothetical reaction 2A(g)  B(g) + 10J

(1) N2 (2) N2+ which of the following factor shift the equilibrium
in forward direction?
(3) CO (4) O2− (1) Decreasing pressure
58. Density of He gas at 8.21 atm pressure and (2) Increasing temperature
100 K temperature is
(3) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure
(1) 1 g/L (2) 2 g/L
(4) Removing B from the reaction
(3) 3 g/L (4) 4 g/L
65. If for a weak acid HA, Ka = 10–5 then value of pKb
59. van der Waals equation for 1 mol of real gas is −
for A (aq) is
 a2  (1) 5
(1)  P +  (V − b) =
RT
 V 
(2) 7
 a  (3) 9
(2)  P + 2  (V + b) =
RT
 V  (4) 11
 a  66. Oxidation of Cr in CrO5 is
(3)  P + 2  (V − b) =
RT
 V  (1) +3 (2) +5
 a2  (3) +6 (4) +10
(4)  P −  (V + b) =
RT
 V  67. Which of the following cannot form stable
superoxide?
60. Which of the following is true for an isolated
(1) Cs (2) Rb
system?
(3) K (4) Na
(1) Energy and matter exchange is possible
∆
(2) Matter can be exchanged but not energy 68. B2H6 + NH3 → A  →B
(3) Energy can be exchanged but not matter Product B in the above reaction is
(4) Neither energy nor matter can be exchanged (1) [BH2(NH3)2]+[BH4]–
61. If ∆Hf for C2H6, CO2 and H2O are –80, –400 and (2) B3N3H6
–250 kJ mol–1 then ∆HC for C2H6 is (in kJ mol–1) (3) BN
(1) – 570 (2) –1140 (4) B2H6 · 2NH3
(3) –1470 (4) –1550 69. Which among the following is an electrophile?
62. If for a process ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 then select the (1) H2O
correct statement (2) CH4
(1) Spontaneous at high temperature only (3) BF3
(2) Spontaneous at low temperature only (4) NH3
(3) Spontaneous at all temperature
(4) Non-spontaneous at all temperature 70. IUPAC name of is

63. For the reaction A(g) + 2B(g)  3C(g). The

concentration of A, B and C are 2M, 2M and 4M
respectively at equilibrium. The value of (1) 4-methyl-5-chloronitrobenzene
equilibrium constant KC is (2) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2-chloro-4-nitro-1-methylbenzene
(3) 8 (4) 16 (4) 4-nitro-2-chlorotoluene

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

71. CH3 − C ≡ C − CH3 + H2 Na

→ A (Major) 77. Ratio of time required for 99% and 90%
Liq NH 3
completion for a first order reaction is
Product A in the above reaction is
2 10
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (1) (2)
1 9

9 11
(3) (4)
(2) 1 10
78. Select the incorrect statement regarding
physisorption.
(1) Arises because of van der Waals forces
(3)
(2) Reversible in nature
(3) Specific in nature
+
(4) CH3 − C ≡ CNa (4) Depends on surface area of adsorbent
79. 4M (s) + 8CN–(aq) + 2H2O(aq) + O2(g) →
4[M(CN)2]–(aq) + 4OH–(aq)

72. In the above reaction, M can be

(1) Zn or Cu (2) Ag or Au
Product B is (3) Zr or Ti (4) Fe or Al
80. Heating ammonium nitrate gives
(1) NO2 (2) NH3
(1) (2)
(3) N2O (4) N2
81. Which among the following contain S–S linkage?
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O7
(3) (4)
(3) H2S2O8 (4) All of these
82. Which of the following fluoride does not exist?
73. Herbicide among the following is
(1) NaCIO3 (2) Na2CO3 (1) TiF4 (2) VF5

(3) NaCl (4) NaOH (3) CrF6 (4) MnF7

74. For which of the following unit cell, body diagonal 83. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
of unit cell is four times of radius of atoms?
(1) Ce3+ (2) Pm3+
(1) Simple cubic (2) Face centred cubic
(3) Gd3+ (4) Eu3+
(3) Body centred cubic (4) Hexagonal
84. Linkage isomerism is shown by
75. Vapour pressure of ideal solution of 10 mol A and
40 mol
= B is (PA 100
= torr, PB 300 torr) (1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)]

(1) 100 torr (2) 140 torr (2) [CoCl2(en)2]Cl

(3) 150 torr (4) 260 torr (3) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl

76. Select the correct expression. (4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl
    Cl /hν (i) CO
(1) Λm KCl + Λm NaCl = Λm KBr + Λm NaBr 85. CH4 
2 Mg
→ A  → B 
+ →C
2
1 eq. dry ether (ii)H3O
   
(2) Λm KCl − Λm KBr = Λm NaCl − Λm NaBr
Product C in the above reaction is
   
(3) Λm KCl − Λm NaCl = Λm KBr + Λm NaBr (1) CH3CH3 (2) CH3CH2OH
   
(4) Λm KCl + Λm NaCl = Λm KBr − Λm NaBr (3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COOH

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-10 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 90. Non-essential amino acid is

86. Which among the following ethers undergoes (1) Alanine (2) Valine
SN1 mechanism on reaction with HI?
(3) Leucine (4) Arginine
(1) CH3 — O — CH3
91. Which of the following bases in not present in
(2) DNA?
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine
(3) Cytosine (4) Uracil
(3)
92. Example of fibre among the following is
(1) Polystyrene (2) Polyvinyl
(3) Polyester (4) Polythene
(4)
93. Which of the following is not a tranquilizer?
(i) O3
87. CH3 − CH
= CH − CH3  →A
(ii) Zn/H2O (1) Equanil
(i) dilNaOH

+ → B (major) (2) Meprobamate
(ii)H / ∆

Product B in the given reaction is (3) Chlordiazepoxide

(1) CH3COCH3 (4) Chloramphenicol
(2) CH3COOCH3 94. Br2 on reaction with excess of F2 gives
(1) BrF (2) BrF3
(3) (3) BrF5 (4) BrF7
95. Incorrect statement regarding interstitial
(4) CH3 — CH = CH — CHO compounds is
88. Most basic compound among the following is (1) High melting point
(2) Very hard
(3) Highly reactive
(1) (2)
(4) Show metallic conductivity
96. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard’s
reagent followed by hydrolysis gives tertiary
alcohol?

(3) (4) (1) CO2

(2) HCHO
(3) CH3CHO
89. Which of the following amines can give (4) CH3COCH3
carbylamine test?
97. Chain length of silicone can be controlled by
(1)
adding
(1) (CH3)4Si (2) (CH3)3SiCl
(3) (CH3)2SiCl2 (4) CH3SiCl3
(2)
98. In which of the following, alternate tetrahedral
voids are filled?
(3) CH3 — NH — CH3 (1) NaCl (2) CsCl
(4) CH3 — NH — CH2 — CH3 (3) ZnS (4) Na2O

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

99. Which of the following pair represents functional

isomers? (4) and

(1) and CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO

100. Which of the following does not form hydrate?
(2) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 and
(1) LiCl
CH3 – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(2) KCl
(3) MgCl2
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 –OH and (4) CaCl2

BOTANY
SECTION-A 106. Bundle sheath cells of C4-plants
101. Which of the following statement is not correct (1) Are rich in PEPcase
w.r.t. means of transport? (2) Are rich in RuBisCO
(1) Movement by diffusion is passive (3) Are rich in PEPcase as well as PEP
(2) Diffusion is a slow process (4) Lack RuBisCO
(3) In symport both molecules move in opposite 107. Glycerol, a product of fat, enters the respiratory
directions pathway after being converted to
(4) Porins are present in outer membrane of (1) Fatty acid (2) Amino acid
plastids (3) PEP (4) PGAL
102. A plant cell will 108. How many ATP are produced when 4 molecules
of pyruvate are completely oxidised during
(1) Swell in hypertonic solution
aerobic respiration?
(2) Shrink in hypotonic solution
(1) 15 (2) 30
(3) Swell in hypotonic solution (3) 60 (4) 72
(4) Shrink in isotonic solution 109. Choose the correct match.
103. Ammonia is oxidised to nitrite during nitrification
(1) Tapetum – Functionally protective
process by the bacterium
layer
(1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrococcus
(2) Endothecium – Dehiscence of anther
(3) Thiobacillus (4) Frankia
(3) Pollen grain – Cannot be fossilised
104. Boron is required for uptake and utilization of
(1) Ca2+ (2) Zn2+ (4) Arrangement of – Inflorescence
leaves on stem
(3) Cl– (4) Fe3+
110. In a typical pollen-sac, how many microspore
105. Which of the following events supports ATP
tetrad will be formed from 24 microspore mother
synthesis through chemiosmosis?
cells?
(1) Lumen of thylakoid has low electrochemical
(1) 96 (2) 48
potential gradient as compared to stroma of
(3) 24 (4) 6
chloroplast
111. The epiblast is the structure visible in
(2) Lumen of thylakoid has high H+ level as
compared to stroma of chloroplast (1) A typical dicot embryo

(3) Energy is required to pump protons across a (2) Proembryo of pea

thylakoid membrane (3) Mature embryo of castor
(4) ATP → ADP + Pi, requires ATP synthase (4) L.S. of embryo of grass

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-10 (Code-A)

112. How many types of gametes will be formed in the 120. Select incorrect statement which is not related
garden pea plant having the genotype AaBbCc? to DNA stability
(1) 27 (2) 8 (1) Presence of thymine at the place of uracil
(3) 16 (4) 9 (2) Absence of 2′OH group in sugar molecule
113. When zygote develops into embryo, exhibits (3) Faster mutation rate
(1) Geometric growth (4) Preferred as genetic material
(2) Arithmetic growth 121. Read the following statements and select the
(3) No cell division rather show cell enlargement correct option

(4) Both (1) and (2) a. Non-living objects show extrinsic growth

114. The gaseous phytohormone performs the b. For plants growth and reproduction are
following functions, except mutually exclusive events.

(1) Acceleration of abscission c. The filamentous algae easily multiply by

fragmentation.
(2) Fruit ripening
d. The patient in coma has self consciousness.
(3) Delay in senescence
(1) Only a and b are correct
(4) Breaking of dormancy of seeds
(2) Only a and c are correct
115. The life span of tortoise varies from
(3) All are correct except d
(1) 50-90 years (2) 100-150 years
(4) Only b, c and d are correct
(3) 15-55 years (4) 1000-1500 years
122. Choose the correct match w.r.t. taxonomic
116. Choose the incorrect statement. category
(1) Gametes are haploid cells even in haploid
organisms (1) Solanum – Genus

(2) In bryophytes male gametes are called (2) Pardus – Class

antherozoids
(3) Felidae – Order
(3) There are 12 chromosomes in meiocyte of
housefly (4) Diptera – Family
(4) Inside the mature seed the zygote is the 123. Trypanosoma is a
progenitor of the next generation
(1) Ciliated protozoan
117. In case of incomplete dominance, the F1 hybrid
(2) Flagellated protozoan
(1) Resembles either of the two parents
(3) Sporozoan
(2) Is intermediate of the two parents
(4) Amoeboid protozoan
(3) Resembles both the parents
124. Which of the cell surface structures of the
(4) Follows Mendelian principles bacteria play a role in motility?
118. Morgan carried out several dihybrid cross in (1) Sex-pili (2) Pseudopodia
Drosophila by taking characters as body colour
(3) Fimbriae (4) Flagella
and eye colour to study genes that were
125. The single membranous cell organelle, which are
(1) Y-linked only (2) Autosomal
actively involved in protein synthesis and
(3) X-linked only (4) Both (1) and (3) secretion is
119. Result of two dihybrid crosses conducted by T.H. (1) RER (2) SER
Morgan on Drosophila melanogaster reveals that (3) Lysosome (4) Golgi complex
a proportion of parental gene combination was
126. The chromosomes clustering at poles and the
(1) Much higher than non-parental combination loss of identity as discrete elements, is the
(2) Lower than non-parental combination characteristic of
(3) Equal to non-parental combination (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(4) Showing high recombination (3) Telophase (4) Anaphase

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

127. The secondary succession leads the 134. The edible part of mango is
establishment of biotic community on all, except (1) Endocarp (2) Cotyledons
(1) Deforested area (3) Mesocarp (4) Pericarp
(2) Igneous rock 135. Identify the wrong statement in context of
(3) Abandoned farm land secondary xylem
(4) Flooded land (1) It is light in colour in sapwood
128. The mean annual precipitation of arctic and (2) It does not conduct water in heart wood
alpine tundra range from
(3) It is dark with high density in late wood
(1) 300-450 cm (2) 200-350 cm
(4) On the basis of origin it is of two types -
(3) 150-400 cm (4) 5-125 cm protoxylem and metaxylem
129. If in a lake there were 100 water lily plants in SECTION-B
year 2000 and 40 plants were increased in lake
136. Water-containing cavities are present within the
in year 2001. The birth rate is
vascular bundles of
(1) 4 offspring per water lily per year
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot root
(2) 0.4 offspring per water lily per year
(3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot stem
(3) 6 offspring per water lily per year
137. LAB play all beneficial roles, except
(4) 0.6 offspring per water lily per year
(1) Converting milk to curd
130. The evil quartet does not include
(2) Checking disease causing microbes in our
(1) Over-exploitation
stomach
(2) Alien species invasions
(3) Increasing vitamin B12 in curd
(3) Mass extinction
(4) Improves nutritional quality of curd by adding
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation vitamin D and E
131. Among the 34 biodiversity hotspots of the world, 138. Match the columns and choose correct option
how many cover India’s rich biodiversity regions?
Column-I Column-II
(1) 25 (2) 12
(Crop) (Variety)
(3) 22 (4) 3
132. Read the following statements and choose the a. Chilli (i) Pusa komal
correct option b. Cauliflower (ii) Pusa sadabahar
A. Inhalation of PM 2.5 cause irritation,
c. Cowpea (iii) Pusa gaurav
inflammations and damage to the lungs and
premature death. d. Brassica (iv) Pusa shubhra
B. A scrubber can remove gases like sulphur
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
dioxide, passing through a spray of lime.
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Both A and B are correct
139. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
came from the experiment of
(3) Only A is incorrect
(1) Hershey and Chase conducted on E. coli and
(4) Only B is incorrect virus
133. Prions differ from viroids in having
(2) Griffith on T2-bacteriophage
(1) RNA molecules with phospholipids
(3) Hershey and chase conducted on Qβ
(2) Protein molecules without nucleic acid bacteriophage
(3) DNA molecules without protein coat (4) Avery, McLeod and McCarty on S-strains of
(4) RNA of low molecular weight without protein E. coli

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140. Which one is the smallest angiosperm? 146. The endosperm is not present in mature seeds of
(1) Rafflesia (2) Wolffia (1) Orchids (2) Maize
(3) Sequoia (4) Cascuta (3) Wheat (4) Rice
141. The stalk of a typical flower is called 147. The vascular bundles of dorsiventral leaf are
(1) Peduncle (2) Thalamus (1) Radial and closed type
(3) Pedicel (4) Funicle (2) Conjoint and closed type
142. The male gamete as well as female gamete, both (3) Conjoint and open type
are non-motile in (4) Nearly similar in sizes, not dependent on the
(1) Polysiphonia (2) Volvox size of veins

(3) Ulothrix (4) Ectocarpus 148. The haplodiploid sex determination mechanism is
found in
143. Pteridophytes are used for all, except
(1) All birds
(1) Soil-binding
(2) All insects including Drosophila
(2) Medicinal purpose
(3) Grasshopper
(3) Trans-shipment of living materials
(4) Honey bee
(4) Ornamentals
149. Find odd one w.r.t. biofertilizers
144. Vexillary aestivation is the feature of
(1) Nostoc (2) Oscillatoria
(1) Solanaceae (3) Spirulina (4) Glomus
(2) Fabaceae 150. Which one of the following helps in sexual
(3) Liliaceae reproduction?
(4) Brassicaceae (1) Eye of potato
145. Find odd one w.r.t. alternate phyllotaxy (2) Rhizome of ginger
(1) Mustard (2) Guava (3) Ascospores in Penicillium
(3) Sunflower (4) China rose (4) Gemmae of Marchantia

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 154. Select the incorrect match.
151. Unipolar neurons are usually found in (1) Glucagon – Hyperglycemic hormone
(1) Retina of eye (2) Embryonic stage (2) Melatonin – Sleep-wake cycle
(3) Cerebral cortex (4) Spinal cord (3) Thyroxine – Emergency hormone
152. Morula formed during human embryonic (4) Aldosterone – Salt retaining hormone
development is made up of
155. While excavating fossils in a cave, a group of
(1) 16-32 cells (2) 8-16 cells palaeontologists found some preserved fossils.
(3) Around 100 cells (4) 2 cells After various tests and careful analysis, they
isolated a DNA sample from the fossil, which was
153. Who disapproved embryological support for
found to be a dsDNA helix in which one full turn
evolution proposed by Ernst Heckel?
of the helical strand involve 12 base pairs. What
(1) Darwin and Wallace would be the rise per base pair, if the pitch is
(2) Karl Ernst von Baer 45 Å?
(3) Oparin and Haldane (1) 34 nm (2) 3.7 nm
(4) Louis Pasteur (3) 3.7 Å (4) 3.4 Å

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

156. All of the given volume/capacities of air can be 162. During a yoga session, a man has been told to
estimated by using a spirometer except follow two steps. In step 1, after normal
expiration, he has to inhale forcible and hold his
(1) VC (2) FRC
breath for 30 seconds. In step 2, he has to
(3) ERV (4) IRV forcibly expire all the air inhaled. Which of the
157. Which technique has been used to develop the following options correctly states the average
new sheep breed named Hisardale? amount of air inhaled in step 1 and exhaled in
step 2 respectively?
(1) Cross-breeding (2) Out-crossing
(1) 2500- 3000 ml 1000-1100 ml
(3) Out-breeding (4) Natural mating
(2) 3000 – 3500 ml 3500 – 4500 ml
158. Read the statement and choose the option that
(3) 3000 – 3500 ml 1000 - 1100 ml
correctly fills the blank.
(4) 2500 - 3000 ml 4000 – 4600 ml
Among the stories of evolution of individual
species, the story of evolution of modern man 163. An antibody is made up of heavy and light
chains, which can be represented as
appears to be _______ evolution of human brain
and language. (1) H2L2 (2) H2L4

(1) Divergent (2) Convergent (3) H4L2 (4) H4L4

(3) Spontaneous (4) Parallel 164. Which of the following organisms exhibit
metagenesis in their life cycles?
159. Match column I with column II and choose the
(1) Ctenoplana (2) Obelia
correct option.
(3) Fasciola (4) Hippocampus
Column I Column II 165. Which of the following is not correct about
glucocorticoids?
Portuguese (i)
a. Chondrichthyes (1) They stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis
man-of-war
and proteolysis
b. Limulus (ii) Cyclostomata (2) Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid
(3) Cortisol is not involved in RBC production
c. Petromyzon (iii) Coelenterata
(4) Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions
d. Trygon (iv) Arthropoda and suppresses the immune response
166. If vasa deferens gets blocked, sperms will not
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) reach from
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Seminiferous tubules to rete testis
160. Which type of bonds are present in collagen? (2) Epididymis to ejaculatory duct
(1) Glycosidic bonds (3) Rete testis to vasa efferentia
(2) Peptide bonds (4) Vasa efferentia to epididymis
(3) Phosphodiester and peptide bonds 167. Rate of a physical or chemical process can be
best expressed as
(4) Glycosidic and peptide bonds
(1) δP/δt (2) δP-P/δt
161. Selectable marker is used to
(3) δP-δt/δt (4) δt/δP
(1) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien
organism 168. The average percentage of human beings having
Rh antigen on the surface of their RBCs is
(2) Select a suitable vector for transformation in
a specific crop (1) 80 percent (2) 20 percent
(3) 40 percent (4) 50 percent
(3) Help in eliminating the non-transformants,
permitting the growth of transformants 169. Select the odd one out w.r.t oestrous cycle.
(4) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation (1) Cows (2) Sheep
using restriction enzyme (3) Monkey (4) Rats

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170. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
correct option. (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Column I Column II 175. Consider the following statements and choose
the option that correctly fills the blank (A) and (B).
Physical (i) (i) A present in Annelids, help in
a. Interferons
barrier
osmoregulation and excretion.
Physiological (ii) (ii) Some Annelids have B , which is primarily
b. Natural killer cells
barrier
concerned with osmoregulation.
Cellular (iii) (1) (A) – Nephridia (B) – Malpighian tubules
c. Mucus coating
barriers
(2) (A) – Nephridia (B) – Protonephridia
Cytokine (iv) (3) (A) – Protonephridia (B) – Nephridia
d. Tears
barriers
(4) (A) – Nephridia (B) – Antennal glands
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 176. Complete the analogy
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) Primary spermatocyte : diploid (2n) :: Ootid :
171. Proteins encoded by which Bt genes controls ______
corn borer? (1) Haploid (n) (2) Diploid (2n)
(1) cryIAb (2) cryIAc (3) Haploid (2n) (4) Diploid (n)
(3) cryIIAb (4) cryIAc and cryIIAb 177. In order to avoid pregnancy by a female whose
172. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to menstrual cycle is of 29 days, the couple should
avoid coitus from
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to
aa. What will be the frequency of allele A? (1) Day 7 to 14 of the menstrual cycle
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.5 (2) Day 17 to 23 of the menstrual cycle
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.4 (3) Day 12 to 19 of the menstrual cycle
173. Complete the analogy (4) Day 19 to 26 of the menstrual cycle
LH : Androgens : spermatogenesis :: FSH : some 178. Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA
factors : _______ in the centre of palindrome. Such ends are called

(1) Spermiogenesis (1) Sticky ends (2) Flush ends

(2) Spermatocytogenesis (3) Cohesive ends (4) Staggered ends

(3) Spermiation 179. The amount of protein human alpha-lactalbumin,

present in the milk produced by first transgenic
(4) Mitosis of spermatogonia cow, Rosie is
174. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) 4.2 grams per litre (2) 2.4 grams per litre
correct option.
(3) 5 grams per litre (4) 0.4 grams per litre
Column I Column II 180. Among the following, which is not a component
of downstream processing?
a. Cuboidal (i) Fallopian tubes
(1) Preservation (2) Purification
epithelium
(3) Expression (4) Separation
b. Columnar (ii) Tubular part of
181. In females, secondary oocyte complete its
epithelium nephron
second meiotic division
c. Ciliated (iii) Walls of blood (1) After fertilisation
epithelium vessels (2) Before ovulation
d. Squamous (iv) Inner lining of (3) During fusion of sperm and ovum
epithelium stomach (4) During embryonic development

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CST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

182. Proboscis gland is the excretory organ of 189. In ECG, heart rate of an individual can be
(1) Asterias (2) Balanoglossus determined by counting

(3) Pheretima (4) Loligo (1) Total number of T waves

183. In the GI tract of human beings, crypts of (2) Total number of QRS complexes in a given
Lieberkuhn are formed by time period

(1) Muscularis (2) Mucosa (3) Total number of P waves

(3) Sub-mucosa (4) Serosa (4) PQ segment
184. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 190. Which ion is responsible for unmasking of active
sites on the F-actin for cross-bridge activity
(1) Gonorrhoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae
during muscle contraction?
(2) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum
(1) Calcium
(3) Genital Herpes - Human papilloma virus
(2) Iron
(4) Chlamydiasis - Chlamydia trachomatis
(3) Sodium
185. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. (4) Magnesium

Statement I : Myelinated nerve fibres are found
in spinal and cranial nerves.
Statement II : Unmyelinated nerve fibre are not
enclosed by Schwann cells.
191. Which of the following technique is preferred in
case of infertility due to very low sperm counts in
the ejaculate?
(1) Artificial insemination

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (2) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer

correct (3) Intra-uterine transfer
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
incorrect
192. Match column I with column II and choose the
(3) Both statements are correct correct option.
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Column I Column II
SECTION-B
186. A person with anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his a. DCT (i) Almost impermeable
plasma can donate blood to people with blood to electrolytes
groups
b. PCT (ii) Allows passage of
(1) Only A (2) Only AB and B small amounts of
(3) Only A and AB (4) A, B, O and AB urea
187. How many features given below in box are c. Descending limb of (iii) Conditional
present in cardiac tissue? loop of Henle reabsorption of Na+
Involuntary, Intercalated discs, Uninucleate, and water
Present in intestinal walls, Striations d. Collecting duct (iv) Globulin protein is
(1) Two (2) Three reabsorbed

(3) Five (4) Four (v) 70-80 per cent of

188. Complete the analogy electrolytes are
reabsorbed
Pyloric sphincter : Stomach :: Sphincter of Oddi :
(1) Common hepatic duct (1) a(ii), b(v), c(i), d(iii)
(2) Cystic duct (2) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Pancreatic duct (3) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Hepato-pancreatic duct (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-10 (Code-A)

193. The amount of CO2 transported by RBCs, in 197. Number of cervical vertebrae in humans are
dissolved state through plasma and as (1) Less than that of blue whale
bicarbonate is
(2) Same as that of a giraffe
(1) 20-25%, 70% and 7% respectively
(3) More than that of a horse
(2) 7%, 20-25% and 70% respectively
(4) Same as that of a Scoliodon
(3) 7%, 23% and 70% respectively
198. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. regulation
(4) 20-25%, 7% and 70% respectively
of cardiac activity.
194. Read the following statements about cockroach
(1) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase
and choose the option that correctly states them
the cardiac output
true (T) or false (F).
(2) Sympathetic neural signals can increase the
(A) On an average, females produce 9-10
strength of ventricular contraction
oothecae, each containing 22-26 eggs
(3) Parasympathetic neural signals can increase
(B) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times
the speed of conduction of action potential
to reach the adult form.
and thereby cardiac output
(C) The next to last nymphal stage has wing
(4) A special neural centre in medulla can
pads.
moderate cardiac function through ANS
(D) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown
199. Complete the analogy w.r.t. human embryonic
capsule, about 3/8" (8 mm) long.
development.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Embryo heart formation : At the end of first month
(1) T T T T :: First movements of the foetus :
(2) F T T T (1) End of second month
(3) F T T F
(2) End of second trimester
(4) T F T F
(3) End of 12 weeks
195. Which of the following is an autoimmune
(4) During fifth month
disorder?
200. In a given population of birds with three different
(1) Gout (2) Myasthenia gravis
types of beak : longer beak, smaller beak and
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Emphysema medium sized beak, only birds with longer beak
196. Which of the following hormone is not secreted are selected by nature. Which type of selection
by anterior pituitary? occur in the example given above?
(1) ACTH (2) TSH (1) Directional selection (2) Stabilising selection
(3) PTH (4) PRL (3) Disruptive selection (4) Balancing selection

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