09-10-2022 Code-A

Corporate Office:Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone:011-47623456

MM: 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST - 04 Time: 3 Hrs 20 Mins.

(KMD01-04, KNMD01 & KRMD01)

Topics covered:
Physics : Work, Energy and Power
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plants
Zoology : Digestion and Absorption, Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
(viii) Use of Calculator is not allowed.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer: –1
(1) t (2) t
SECTION - A 2 0
(3) t (4) t
1. A force of constant magnitude acts on a particle
4. A man pushes a wall and fail to displace it. He
such that its always perpendicular to the velocity
does
of particle moving in a plane then
(1) Its velocity is constant (1) Negative work
(2) Its acceleration is constant (2) Positive work but not maximum
(3) Its kinetic energy is constant (3) No work at all
(4) Its linear momentum is constant (4) Maximum work
2. Two particles of masses m and 4m are moving 5. The SI unit of energy is
with same kinetic energy, then ratio of magnitude
(1) watt (2) horsepower
of linear momentum is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 (3) kilowatt hour (4) joule
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 6. The natural length of massless spring is x (spring
constant = k), it is slowly stretched by applying
3. If force acting on a body, initially at rest, is an external force. The work done to stretch the
constant then its kinetic energy is proportional to spring from length 3x to 4x is

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023
2 2
(1) 1.5kx (2) 2.5kx
2 2
(3) 4kx (4) kx
7. Kinetic energy of a particle varies as function of
time (t) as k = Asin (2Bt). Maximum instantaneous
power delivered by the net force acting on the 3m 2m
(1) v 0 (2) v 0
particle is k 3k
(1) 2AB (2) AB m m
(3) v 0 (4) v 0
A 2A 3k k
(3) (4)
B B 13. A particle is moving on a straight line path, its
kinetic energy-time graph is as shown in figure,
8. The displacement x of a body of mass 1 kg on
then corresponding force-time graph is
horizontal smooth surface as a function of time t
t
is given by x  . The workdone in the first
3
second is
(1) 4 J (2) 2 J
(3) 1 J (4) Zero
(1) (2)
9. The force acting on a particle varies with
displacement x as F = kxthen work done by the
force in displacing particle from (0, 0) to (x, 0)
will be proportional to
2/3 2 (3) (4)
(1) x (2) x
3
(3) x (4) x
10. 1 Joule is equal to 14. The area of acceleration-displacement curve of a
body gives
7 5
(1) 10 erg (2) 10 erg
(1) Impulse
3
(3) 10 erg (4) 10 erg (2) Change in kinetic energy per unit mass

11. The work done by a force F  2i  2 j to displace (3) Total change in energy
a particle around the path OABCO as shown in (4) Impulse per unit mass
figure is
15. If kinetic energy of particle is doubled, then
change in its momentum will be
(1) ( 2  1)P (2) 2P

(3) 2 2 P (4) ( 2  1)P

16. A ball is dropped from height 20 m, if coefficient

of restitution is 0.5, then height attained after
one bounce will be
2a 3 3 (1) 10 m (2) 5 m
(1) (2) a
3
(3) 1.25 m (4) 2.5 m
4a 3
(3) Zero (4) 17. A block of mass 2 kg is initially at rest on a
3 horizontal frictionless surface. Ahorizontal force

12. A body of mass m is moving with speed v 0 , F  (9  x 2 )iˆ N act on it when the block is at
toward a wall attached with a massless spring of x = 0. The maximum kinetic energy of the block
spring constant k as shown in the figure. The between x = 0 andx=3 m is
maximum compression in spring will be (1) 6 J (2) 10 J
(3) 20 J (4) 18 J

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A)

18. In any collision, choose the correct options. h1  h2 h1  h2

(1) (2)
(1) Momentum of each colliding body is h1 h1
conserved
h1  h2 h1  h2
(2) Momentum of system consisting of both (3) (4)
bodies is not conserved h2 h2

(3) Kinetic energy during collision is not 24. In the given figure, a body of mass 2 kg slides
conserved from point A from rest, then it stops at point
B, then work done by the friction will be
(4) Physical contact is must for collision
19. A light and a heavy body have same momentum.
Which one has a less kinetic energy?
(1) The light body
(2) Both have equal kinetic energy
(3) The heavy body
(4) Data is insufficient (1) –200 J (2) –100 J
20. In the given system, the work done by gravity on (3) 50 J (4) –50 J
mass of 12 kg just before hitting the ground
2
will be [g = 10 m/s ] 25. The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg and
momentum 2 N s is
(1) 1 J (2) 2 J
1 1
(3) J (4) J
2 4
26. 1 eV is equal to
(1) 1.6  1019 J (2) 1019 J

(1) 240 J (2) 120 J (3) 3.6  106 J (4) 746 J

(3) 20 J (4) 80 J 27. A small body of m is attached to a light rod of
length L, which can be rotated about its clamped
21. In the given potential energy and position curve,
upper end. Then minimum velocity that should
the unstable equilibrium is at
be given to the body at lowest position, so that it
completes vertical circle is

(1) 5gL (2) 4gL

(3) 3 gL (4) gL
28. Sophia whose mass is 52 kg experienced a net
(1) A (2) B force of 1800 N at the bottom of a roller coaster
loop during her school’s physics field trip to the
(3) C (4) D
local amusement park. Sophia’s acceleration at
22. A ball moving with velocity of 9 m/s collides head this location is nearly.
on with another similar stationary ball. After the (1) 20 m/s
2
(2) 25 m/s
2
collision both the balls moves with same 2 2
velocity. After the collision their speed will be (3) 30 m/s (4) 35 m/s

(1) 2.25 m/s (2) 9 m/s 29. A body of mass m, starting from rest undergoes
uniform acceleration. If speed acquired in time t
(3) 2 m/s (4) 4.5 m/s is v, then average power delivered to the
23. A ball falls on the ground from a height h1 and particle
rebounds to a height h2. Then, the fractional loss mv 2 mv 2
in its kinetic energy during the collision with the (1) (2)
ground is t2 2t

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

mv 2 (1) Zero (2) mgvt sin   cos 

(3) (4) mv 2t
2t 2 (3) mgvt sin2  (4) mgvt cos2 
30. A ball of mass m hits a floor with a speed 35. A position dependent force F is acting on a
v making an angle of incidence  , if coefficient particle of mass 1 kg and its force-position curve
of restitution is e, then angle of reflection  is is as shown in the figure. If speed at x = 0 is
zero then speed of particle at x = 5 m is

1  tan  
(1) tan (tan  ) (2) tan1 
 e 
(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s
1
(3) tan (e tan  ) (4) e tan1( )
(3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s
31. Two blocks A and B of mass 4 kg and 6 kg
respectively lie on a smooth horizontal surface
–1 SECTION - B
as shown. ‘A’ moves at 10 m s and collides
with ‘B’ and they both move sticking together 36. Two bodies A and B of same mass is moving in
with a common velocity. opposite direction on same line with speeds v0
v0
The energy lost in process is and respectively. If they collide elastically,
3
then speed of body A after collision is
v0
(1) v 0 (2)
3
(1) 120 J (2) 200 J v0 2v 0
(3) (4)
(3) 80 J (4) 160 J 9 3

32. Spring A has spring constant twice that of B. 37. A body of mass m1 moving towards another
When A and B are stretched by applying equal body of mass m2 at rest collides elastically
force, then find energy stored in B, if the energy head-on, then transfer of energy from projectile
stored in A is E. to target will be maximum, when
E E (1) m1  m2 (2) m1  m2
(1) (2)
8 4
(3) m1  m2 (4) m1  2m2
(3) E (4) 2E
38. A uniform rod of mass m and length 2 is kept
33. A body of mass m is projected at angle  with
the ground. When it is at the maximum height, vertical with the lower end clamped. It is slightly
then instantaneous power by gravitational force pushed to let it fall down under gravity. Find its
will be angular speed when rod is passing through its
mgu cot  lowest position.
(1) Zero (2)
2 g g
(1) 3 (2)
mgu tan  mgu  3
(3) (4)
2 2 2 3g 6g
(3) (4)
34. A small block of mass m is kept on a rough  
inclined surface of inclination . The block
does not slide on the surface. The work done 39. The average work done by a human heart while
by friction on block in time t will be it beats once is 0.6 joule. The power used by the
heart if it beats 72 times in a minute

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A)

(1) 0.72 W (2) 0.6 W (1) 1 J (2) 4 J

(3) 0.5 W (4) 0.4 W 16
(3) J (4) Can’t be determined
3
40. The force acting on a body moving along x-axis
varies with the position of the particle as shown 47. A block is pushed along the rough incline of 37°
in the figure. –1
with a speed of 4 m s as shown. If the
coefficient of friction of incline is 0.4 then the
speed of block on reaching the bottom of incline
–2
is[use, g = 10 ms ]

The body is in stable equilibrium at

(1) x = x1 (2) x = x2

(3) Both x1 and x2 (4) x = x3

  
41. Two vectors A and B are given as A  i  2 j (1) 6 2 m s1 (2) 2 22 m s1
  
and B  2kˆ . The scalar product of A and B is (3) 10 m s
–1
(4) 12 m s
–1

(1) 6 (2) 2 48. Potential energy (U) of a particle varies with

position (x) as shown below.
(3) 4 (4) Zero
42. Two bodies of equal masses undergo oblique
collision. If collision is perfectly elastic then
angle between their velocities after collision is
(initially one body is at rest)
(1) 180° (2) 90°
(3) 45° (4) 60°
Work done by the conservative force is
43. A ball (m = 1 kg) is dropped from height 20 m. If (1) 120 J (2) 240 J
coefficient of a restitution in 0.9, the impulse
imparted to the ground (by the ball) is (3) – 240 J (4) 0 J
(1) 38 N s (2) 40 N s 49. A body of mass 100 g moving in a vertical circle
–1
of radius 50 cm has a speed of 10 m s at its
(3) 57 N s (4) 81 N s
lowest point. The tension at the highest point is
44. A particle is performing circular motion with
(1) 15 N (2) 27 N
decreasing speed. If force on particle is F and
velocity at instant is v, then (3) 38 N (4) 9 N
   
(1) F  v  0 (2) F  v  0 50. In the experiment of measuring speed of a bullet
    using ballistic pendulum, a bullet of mass 200 g
(3) F  v  0 (4) F  v  0 when fired towards a hanging wooden block of
45. Coefficient of restitution for perfectly inelastic mass 1 kg such that the bullet gets embedded
collision is into it and the system rises by 2 m. The muzzle
speed of bullet is about
(1) e = 1 (2) e = 0
–1 –1
(1) 38 m s (2) 6.25 m s
(3) 0 <e< 1 (4) e = 0.5
–1 –1
(3) 84 m s (4) 60.25 m s
46. The work done by a non-conservative force (in N)
F  5 y 2 iˆ along a path y = x2 in a plane from
(0, 0) m to (1, 1) m is

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. Bond formed due to complete transfer of electron (1) Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of
is two half-filled atomic orbitals containing
(1) Covalent bond electrons with same spin

(2) Co-ordinate bond (2) Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of

two half-filled atomic orbitals containing
(3) Hydrogen bond electrons in opposite spin
(4) Ionic bond (3) Covalent bond is formed by complete overlap
52. The formal charge on central atom in molecule of two fully filled atomic orbitals
is (4) Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of
(1) –1 (2) 0 two vacant atomic orbitals
(3) +1 (4) +0.5 59. The incorrect statement regarding  bond is
53. Compound with maximum value of lattice energy (1) It is formed due to overlap of atomic orbitals
is along internuclear axis
(1) CsCl (2) NaCl
(2) It is a type of covalent bond
(3) LiCl (4) KCl
(3) It is weaker than  -bond
54. Covalent character of an ionic compound is more
when (4) It can be formed by hybrid orbital

(i) Charge on cation is more. 60. Which of these overlaps leads to formation of a
 -bond? (If y-axis is considered to be
(ii) Size of anion is more. internuclear axis)
(iii) Charge on the anion is less. (1) pz  pz (2) py  pz
(iv) Size of cation is smaller.
Choose the correct statements. (3) pz  d x2  y2 (4) px  py
(1) (i) and (ii) only 61. Dipole-dipole interaction is present in
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (1) H2O and Cl2 (2) H2O and HCl
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (3) Cl2and F2 (4) He, N2
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
62. Choose the incorrect statement among the
55. Which of these molecules does not obey octet following.
rule? (1) Ionic bond is formed due to electrostatic force
(1) PCl3 (2) ICl of attraction
(3) CO2 (4) BBr3 (2) KCN contains both ionic and covalent bond
56. Hydrogen bond is absent in (3) NH4 contains dative bond
(1) H2O (2) NH3
(4) AgBr has more ionic nature than NaBr
(3) HCl (4) HF
63. Which of the following species does not show
57. Which of the following is an example of odd hybridisation?
electron species?
(1) Graphite (2) I3
(1) NO2 (2) SO2
(3) Diamond (4) H2
(3) N2 (4) CO
64. Hybridisation can be predicted by
58. Which of these statements is correct according
to valence bond theory? (1) Calculation of number of  bonds + number
of lp of electrons that participate in
delocalisation

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A)

(2) Calculation of number of  bonds + number 73. The bond order and magnetic nature of diatomic
of lp that do not participate in delocalisation molecule B2 are respectively
(1) 1 and paramagnetic
(3) Calculation of number of  bonds + number
(2) 1.5and diamagnetic
of lp that participate in delocalisation
(3) 1.5and paramagnetic
(4) Calculation of number of  bonds + number
(4) 1 and diamagnetic
of lp that do not participate in delocalisation
74. The number of diamagnetic species among the
65. The hybridisation of N in HNO3 is following is
2 3
(1) sp (2) sp H2, N2, C2, F2
3
(3) sp (4) sp d (1) 4 (2) 1
2
66. Number of atoms present in sp hybrid state in (3) 3 (4) 2
the molecule CH3  C  C  CH  CH  CN
75. Which of the following overlapping will result into
(1) 3 (2) 2 strongest bond formation?
(3) 6 (4) 5 (1) 2s – 2s axial (2) 2p – 2p axial
67. Increasing order of bond angle in the following (3) 2p – 2p lateral (4) 2s – 2p axial
species is
76. The ratio of to bond in given molecule is
NH3 H2O BCl3
I II III

(1) II < I < III (2) I < II < III

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) III < II < I (4) I < III < II
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
68. The incorrect statement about SO32 and ClO3 is
77. Among the following molecules, molecule having
(1) Both are isoelectronic highest bond energy is
(2) Both are isostructural (1) H2 (2) O2
(3) Both have equal number of pi bonds (3) N2 (4) F2

(4) Both the species contains different number of 78. For a molecule XeF2, the correct statement is
3
lone pairs (1) Xe issp d hybridised
69. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (2) It is bent shaped

(1) SO24 is tetrahedral (3) net 0

(4) Contains 2 lone pair of electronon Xe atom
(2) XeF4 is see-saw in shape
79. The correct order of bond length corresponding
(3) SF4 is a non-planar molecule to the given hybridisation of carbon atoms is
3
(4) N in NH3 is sp hybridised
(1) sp  sp  sp3  sp3  sp2  sp2
70. Which of the following compound is polar?
(2) sp2  sp2  sp3  sp3  sp  sp
(1) CCl4 (2) CO2
(3) NH3 (4) BF3 (3) sp  sp  sp2  sp2  sp3  sp3
71. Molecule with strongest hydrogen bond is (4) sp3  sp3  sp2  sp2  sp  sp
(1) H2O (2) HF
80. The number of 109°28 bond angles in CCl4 are
(3) NH3 (4) H2O2
(1) Four (2) Six
72. Which of the following ions is not likely to exist? (3) Three (4) Eight
(1) He 2 (2) H2 81. Which of the following molecule has zero dipole
moment?
(3) H22 (4) O 2

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

(3) 3 (4) 4
89. Compound easily soluble in water is
(1) (2) (1) CCl4 (2) C6H6
(3) C2H5OH (4) C4H10
90. Lowest unoccupied molecular orbital for F2
molecule is,
(3) (4) (1) * 2px (2) * 2pz
(3)  2px (4)  2pz

82. In which of the following species bond length is 91. Which of the following possess intramolecular
less than expected? H-bonding?

(1) NH3 (2)

(3) CCl4 (4) BF3
(1) (2)
83. Match the molecules listed in column A with the
dipole moment values listed in column B.
Column A Column B

a. HCl (i) 0.38 D (3) (4)

b. HBr (ii) 1.07 D

92. Choose the incorrect statements.
c. HI (iii) 1.78 D (1) NH3 contains intermolecular H-bond
d. HF (iv) 0.79 D (2) NH3 contains intramolecular H-bond
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Boiling point of p-nitrophenol is more than
o-nitrophenol
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) Due to intermolecular H-bonding ice
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
becomes less dense than H2O
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
93. In AsCl5 molecule, the hybrid orbitals used by the
84. The bond order in carbonate ion is As atom for bonding are
(1) 1.0 (2) 1.33 (1) d x2  y2 , d z2 , s, px , py
(3) 1.5 (4) 2.0
(2) d xy , s, px , py , pz
85. The shape of ICl3 molecule is
(1) Pyramidal (2) T-shape (3) s, px , py , pz , d z2
(3) Trigonal planar (4) Tetrahedral
(4) d x2  y2 , s, px , py , pz
SECTION - B
86. The state of hybridisation of Pt in [PtCl4]
2–
is 94. Which of the following is a planar molecule?
2 3 (1) CH4 (2) BF3
(1) sp (2) sp
2 3 (3) BrF5 (4) XeF6
(3) dsp (4) sp d
95. Which among the following molecule does not
87. Which of the following does not contain all bonds
have all the bond angle same?
of same bond length?
(1) BCl3 (2) BeCl2
(1) SF6 (2) PCl5
(3) NH3 (4) PCl5
(3) CH4 (4) SO3
96 Molecule having both polar and non-polar bonds
–
88. Total number of resonating structures for ClO4 is
ion will be
(1) NH3 (2) H2O2
(1) 5 (2) 2

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A)

(3) H2SO4 (4) SO2Cl2 99. Among the following compounds, compound
97. Number of  bonds and lone pair of electrons in having maximum ionic character is

NO2 ion respectively are (1) LiCl (2) LiI

(3) LiBr (4) LiF
(1) 2 and 6 (2) 3 and 6
100. The species having its last electron filled in
(3) 3 and 5 (4) 4 and 8
bonding molecular orbital is
+
98. Bond order of NO is
(1) O2 (2) O 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 3.5 (3) N2 (4) N2

BOTANY
SECTION - A 107. Which of the following aestivation is seen in
101. Select the incorrect w.r.t. main functions of lady’s finger flower?
roots. (1) Valvate (2) Vexillary
(1) Synthesis of plant food (3) Twisted (4) Imbricate
(2) Absorption of water and minerals from soil 108. Select the incorrect match.
(3) Provide anchorage to plant parts (1) Epiphyllous – Lily
(4) Storage of reserve food material
(2) Epipetalous – Brinjal
102. The cells of region of meristematic activity of
roots are (3) Diadelphous – Pea
(1) Very large (4) Polyadelphous – China rose
(2) Thick-walled
109. Syncarpous gynoecium is/are found in
(3) With dense protoplasm
(a) Mustard
(4) Sclerenchymatous
(b) Tomato
103. Root hairs
(c) Lotus
(1) Arise from the cells of region of elongation
(d) Rose
(2) Are fine, thread-like structure
(1) Only (c)
(3) Provide mechanical support to plant
(2) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Are thimble – like structure arise from root
cap (3) Only (c) and (d)
104. Pneumatophores roots help in (4) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(1) Getting oxygen for respiration 110. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. placentation
(2) Storage of food (1) Marginal – Pea
(3) Photosynthesis (2) Axile – Primrose
(4) Providing mechanical support (3) Basal – Sunflower
105. Epigynous flowers are found in (4) Free central – Dianthus
(1) Rose 111. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. fruit
(2) Brinjal (1) Mesocarp is the middle layer of fleshy
pericarp
(3) Ray floret of sunflower
(2) Fruit developed from ovary is called true fruit
(4) Petunia
(3) Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit
106. Margin of petals overlaps each other but not in a
particular direction in (4) Grape is false fruit
(1) Gulmohur (2) Pea 112. In which of the following placentation types, the
ovary is one chambered but becomes two
(3) Calotropis (4) Cotton chambered due to the formation of a false
septum?

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

(1) Free central (2) Marginal (4) F F F

(3) Parietal (4) Axile 120. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
113. Read the following statements and select the node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of
incorrect one. roots is found in
(1) Mango and coconut are drupe (1) Eichhornia (2) Chrysanthemum
(2) Mango develops from bicarpellary inferior (3) Jasmine (4) Mint
ovary 121. Opposite phyllotaxy is observed in
(3) Ovules after fertilisation develop into seeds (1) China rose (2) Guava plant
(4) Large shield shaped cotyledons in monocot is (3) Mustard (4) Alstonia
known as scutellum 122. Palmately compound leaf are found in
114. Which of the following plant shows parietal (1) Neem (2) China rose
placentation?
(3) Mustard (4) Silk cotton
(1) Lemon (2) Argemone
123. In racemose inflorescence
(3) Sunflower (4) Tomato
(1) Flowers are borne in basipetal order
115. Endospermous seed is found in
(2) Main axis continues to grow
(1) Gram (2) Bean
(3) Growth of main axis is limited
(3) Castor (4) Pea
(4) Younger flower are present at the base and
116. Sheath that encloses plumule in monocotyledons older flowers are present towards the apex
is called
124. Asymmetric flower is found in
(1) Coleorhiza (2) Coleoptile
(1) Cassia (2) Bean
(3) Aleurone layer (4) Scutellum
(3) Chilli (4) Canna
117. Which of the following characters is not related
to family solanaceae? 125. Rhizome of ginger is a stem which can be
(1) It is a large family, commonly called as the differentiated from root as it
‘potato family’ (1) Grows parallel to ground
(2) Corolla is papilionaceous
(2) Stores food
(3) Seeds are many and endospermous
(4) Gynoecium is bilocular with swollen placenta (3) Lacks chlorophyll
with many ovules (4) Has nodes and internodes
118. Select the correct match. 126. In which of the given aestivations, the margins of
(1) Banyan tree – Stilt roots sepals or petal present in a whorl lie close to
each other but do not overlap?
(2) Sugarcane – Prop roots
(1) Vexillary (2) Valvate
(3) Turnip – Is fibrous root
(3) Imbricate (4) Twisted
(4) Rhizophora – Pneumatophores
127. Pneumatophores help in
119. Read the following statements and mark true (T)
(1) Respiration
or false (F)for them.
A. Thorns in Citrusare modification of axillary (2) Transpiration
bud of stem. (3) Storage of food
B. Tendrils for climbing in peas are modification
of stem. (4) Providing mechanical strength
C. Fleshy cylindrical modified stem in Opuntia 128. If gynoecium is situated in the centre and other
help in photosynthesis. parts of flower are located on the rim of
A B C thalamus, almost at the same level as the ovary,
(1) T T F then the flower is known as
(2) T F F (1) Hypogynous flower (2) Epigynous flower
(3) F F T (3) Unisexual flower (4) Perigynous flower

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A)

129. The placenta which forms a ridge along the (1) Are modified to store food
ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are (2) Are also called pneumatophores
borne on this ridge forming two rows is found in
(3) Provide mechanical support to heavy
(1) Sunflower (2) Dianthus branches
(3) Pea (4) Primrose
(4) Are respiratory roots
130. Select the correct match w.r.t. plants, families
138. The outermost covering of a seed is a seed coat.
and plants.
The seed coat has two layers, the outer A
(1) Colchicum autumnale – Solanaceae
and inner B .
(2) Gloriosa – Fabaceae
(3) Petunia – Solanaceae Select the correct option for A and B.
(4) Trifolium – Liliaceae A B
131. Tepals are absent in
(1) Perisperm Testa
(1) Tulip (2) Aloe
(2) Tegmen Testa
(3) Asparagus (4) Belladonna
(3) Testa Tegmen
132. In the leaves, veins are useful for
a. Transport of water and minerals (4) Pericarp Epicarp
139. In which among the following plants stem is
b. Mechanical support
modified into flattened structure?
c. Transport of organic nutrients
(1) Euphorbia (2) Bougainvillea
(1) Only a (2) Only a and b
(3) Only c (4) All a, b and c (3) Opuntia (4) Colocasia

133. When stamens are attached to the petals, they 140. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. root cap.
are known as
(1) It covers apex of root
(1) Epiphyllous (2) Monoadelphous
(2) It is unicellular
(3) Diadelphous (4) Epipetalous
(3) It is made up of parenchymatous cells
134. Non-essential appendages of flowers are
(4) It is found below the region of meristematic
(1) Sepals and petals
activity
(2) Sepals and carpels
141. False septum occurs in the ovary of
(3) Sepals and gynoecium (1) Tomato (2) Mustard
(4) Androecium and gynoecium (3) Indigofera (4) Gloriosa
135. Variation in the length of filament within a flower 142. Endosperm is present in the mature seeds of
is observed in (1) Bean (2) Castor
(1) China rose (2) Potato (3) Gram (4) Pea
(3) Citrus (4) Salvia 143. The flowers of a raceme are arranged in
SECTION - B (1) Acropetal succession
136. In monocot seed, the outer proteinaceous layer (2) Basipetal order
of endosperm that separates the embryo is
(3) An order where single flower is produced at
(1) Scutellum (2) Aleurone layer tip
(3) Pericarp (4) Coleoptile (4) An order where older flowers are at top
137. Prop roots 144. The edible part of Mango is

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

(1) Cotyledons (2) Thalamus 148. Phyllodes are modified part of plant organ that
perform the function of
(3) Mesocarp (4) Endocarp
(1) Providing support to the climbing plant
145. In unilocular ovary, the ovules develop on the
(2) Photosynthesis
inner wall of ovary. The type of placentation is
(3) Absorption of water and minerals
(1) Basal (2) Axile (4) Protection from browsing animals
(3) Parietal (4) Free central 149. Select the incorrect statement regarding
146. Assertion : Leaves in neem are said to be racemose inflorescence.
pinnately compound. (1) The shoot axis grows indefinitely
Reason : In neem, incisions of the lamina reach (2) Flowers are borne in acropetal succession
upto the midrib.
(3) The main axis terminates into a flower
(1) Both the statements are true and the reason
(4) Younger flowers are present towards the
is correct explanation of assertion
apex
(2) Both the statements are true but the reason
150. Accessory organ(s) in a bisexual flower can be
is not the correct explanation of assertion
(a) Perianth (b) Corolla
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false statement
(c) Calyx (d) Stipule
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
statements The correct ones are
147. The fleshy leaves forms the storage organ in (1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Garlic (2) Cactus (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Aloe (4) Acacia (3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (b), (c) and (d)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 155. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. glands.
151. The colon is divided into _____ parts. (1) Salivary glands are situated outside the
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. buccal cavity

(1) 2 (2) 3 (2) Gastric glands and crypts of Lieberkuhn are

formed by mucosa
(3) 4 (4) 5
(3) Liver is situated in the abdominal cavity and
152. The wall of alimentary canal from stomach to has three lobes in humans
rectum possesses four histological layers from
(4) Pancreas is a compound elongated organ
outside to inside (lumen). Select the correct
option. 156. Structural and functional unit of mammalian liver
is a/the
(1) Serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa, mucus
(1) Hepatocyte (2) Hepatic cell
(2) Serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa, mucosa
(3) Hepatic lobule (4) Glisson’s capsule
(3) Mucosa, sub-mucosa, muscularis, serosa
157. Identify the cells from options given, whose
(4) Mesothelium, sub-mucosa, muscularis, secretion is essential for absorption of vitamin
mucosa B12.
153. Brunner’s glands are located in which layer of the (1) Parietal cells (2) Peptic cells
wall of small intestine? (3) Mucus neck cells (4) Chief cells
(1) Serosa (2) Muscularis 158. Match the following structures with their
(3) Sub-mucosa (4) Mucosa respective location in organs.
154. The terms rugae and villi are associated with a. Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Liver
(1) Serosa (2) Muscularis b. Glisson’s capsule (ii) Small intestine
(3) Sub-mucosa (4) Mucosa
c. Islets of Langerhans (iii) Duodenum

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A)

d. Brunner’s glands (iv) Pancreas (3) Four (4) Only one

163. The reflex action disorder controlled by the centre
Choose the correct option.
in medulla, is
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Hunger (2) Vomiting
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) Thirst (4) Micturition
159. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of
164. Unlike marasmus, children suffering from
(1) Hepatic duct kwashiorkor show
(2) Pancreatic duct (1) Wasting of muscles
(3) Bile duct (2) Thinning of limbs
(4) Hepato-pancreatic duct (3) Failure of growth
160. Select the option that arranges the given (4) Extensive oedema
enzymes in the decreasing order w.r.t. pH
165. Gross calorific value of which food component
required for their optimal activity.
differs greatly from its net physiological value?
(1) Maltase, pepsin, salivary amylase
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Proteins
(2) Maltase, salivary amylase, pepsin (3) Lipids (4) Water
(3) Pepsin, salivary amylase, maltase
166. How many food items listed in the given box can
(4) Salivary amylase, maltase, pepsin be absorbed into blood directly after their
161. Select the option that fills the blanks in the given complete hydrolysis?
equations correctly.
Butter, Sucrose, Milk sugar, Milk protein,
Dipeptides  A
Dipeptidases
Bread, Rice, Ghee

B (1) Two (2) Three

Maltose  Glucose + Glucose
(3) Five (4) Four
Lactose 
 Glucose +
Lactase
C 167. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
normal expiration is
Sucrose 
Sucrase
 Glucose + D
(1) VC – (TV + IRV) (2) ERV + TV + IRV
(1) A-Amino acid, B-Maltase, C-Galactose,
(3) TLC – (ERV + IRV) (4) TLC – (TV + IRV)
D-Fructose
168. One of the constituent released by pancreas and
(2) A-Peptide, B-Maltase, C-Glucose,
poured into the duodenum is
D-Galactose
(1) Chymotrypsin (2) Trypsinogen
(3) A-Amino acid, B-Maltase, C-Fructose,
D-Glucose (3) Carboxypeptidase (4) Enterokinase
(4) A-Amino acid, B-Maltase, C-Glucose, 169. The vitamin which prevents haemorrhage is
D-Galactose (1) Vitamin E (2) Vitamin K
162. Read the given statements.
(3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin B12
(a) Small amounts of lipases are secreted by
170. Choose the odd one w.r.t. enzymes.
gastric glands.
(b) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in (1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin
gastric juice of infants. (3) Amylase (4) Gastrin
(c) About 30 percent of starch is hydrolysed by 171. Majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body
salivary amylase. cells is transported to lungs as/in
(d) Bile juice contains enzymes for fat (1) Dissolved form
breakdown. (2) Bicarbonates
How many are correct statements? (3) Carbonates
(1) Two (2) Three (4) Carbaminohemoglobin

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

172. All of the given structures are associated with 180. Find the energy produced in body in kcal when a
respiration in frog except person consumes 10 g pulses, 1 litre water, 10 g
(1) Skin (2) Buccal cavity butter and 10 g potato?
(3) Diaphragm (4) Lungs (1) 1700 (2) 17
173. What is the common passage for both food and
(3) 170 (4) 17000
air?
(1) Larynx (2) Oesophagus 181. Given below are pulmonary volumes/capacities
of a person
(3) Pharynx (4) Trachea
174. Mark the incorrect statement among the Vital capacity = 4000 mL
following Functional residual = 2200 mL
(1) The membrane of alveoli is very thin, (simple capacity
squamous) and richly supplied with blood
Residual volume = 1200 mL
vessels.
(2) During swallowing, the epiglottis can be Find the total lung capacity (TLC) of the person.
covered by glottis which is a leaf-shaped (1) 5500 mL (2) 5100 mL
cartilaginous structure made up of elastic
(3) 4500 mL (4) 5200 mL
cartilage.
182. Read the following statements and choose the
(3) In humans, lungs lie in an air-tight chamber correct option.
known as thoracic cavity formed dorsally by
the vertebral column. Statement A : The neural signal from
pneumotaxic centre can only increase the
(4) There is presence of sensory olfactory duration of inspiration.
epithelium at inner lining of nasal chamber.
Statement B : Increase of pCO2 in blood
175. A disorder characterised by inflammation in the increases the rate of respiration.
bronchioles due to allergic reaction is called
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Pneumoconiosis
(2) Only statement A is incorrect
(2) Asthma
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Emphysema
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Silicosis
183. CO2 binds to the ‘X’ part of haemoglobin. Select
176. At what rate the normal adult human breathes the correct option for ‘X’
during normal physiological conditions?
(1) Amino group of globin
(1) 12-16 times/min (2) 32 times/min
(2) Carboxy group of globin
(3) 24 times/min (4) 30 times/min
(3) Iron of haem group
177. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is (4) Haem part
decreased is called 184. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(1) Bronchitis (2) Asbestosis mechanism of breathing.

(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumoconiosis (1) Inspiration in mammals is an active process.

(2) Inspiration can occur if atmospheric pressure
178. Which of the following structures is not supported
is lower than intra-pulmonary pressure.
by C-shaped cartilaginous rings, which prevents
it from collapsing? (3) Expiration can occur if intra-pulmonary
pressure is higher than the atmospheric
(1) Trachea
pressure.
(2) Tertiary and secondary bronchi
(4) Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of
(3) Primary bronchi diaphragm.
(4) Terminal bronchiole 185. Which of the following denotes vital capacity of
179. Which of the following gas has 20-25 times the lungs?
higher solubility than that of O2? (a) ERV + TV + IRV (b) IC + ERV
(1) CO2 (2) H2 (c) IC + FRC (d) TV + ERV
(3) CO (4) N2 Select the correct option.

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A)

(1) (a) and (b) only 191. Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by ‘A’,
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only ventrally by ‘B’, laterally by ‘C’ and on the lower
(3) (c) and (d) only side by ‘D’. Select the option that correctly
represents A, B, C and D.
(4) Only (a)
SECTION - B A B C D
186. Approximately ___ of O2 is delivered from (1) Sternum Vertebral Ribs Diaphragm
100 ml of oxygenated blood by haemoglobin
column
during exercise to actively metabolising tissues in
normal adult human. (2) Vertebral Ribs Sternum Diaphragm
Select the correct option that fills the blank. column
(1) 12 mL (2) 20 mL (3) Ribs Vertebral Diaphragm Sternum
(3) 15 mL (4) 25 mL column
187. In all of the given cases, there is shift of
(4) Vertebral Sternum Ribs Diaphragm
O2-dissociation curve towards left except
column
(1) Low temperature
+
(2) Low H ion concentration 192. Ribs are lifted upwards and sternum is lifted
(3) Low pCO2 forward and upward due to contraction of
(4) Low pO2 (1) Diaphragm
188. Match column-I with column-II w.r.t. organisms (2) External intercostal muscles
and their respiratory structures. Select the (3) Abdominal muscles
correct option.
(4) Internal intercostal muscles
Column-I Column-II
193. On an average, a healthy human being breathes
a. Lower invertebrates (i) Gills (1) 12-16 times/min (2) 20-25times/min
b. Earthworm (ii) Lungs (3) 12-16times/sec (4) 12-16times/hr
c. Aquatic arthropods (iii) Moist cuticle 194. Choose the incorrect among the following.
and molluscs
(1) pO2 (deoxygenated blood) = 40 mm Hg
d. Terrestrial (iv) Body surface
(2) pO2 (tissues) = 40 mm Hg
vertebrates
(3) pCO2 (tissues) = 95 mm Hg
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) pCO2 (alveoli) = 40 mm Hg
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
195. Match column-I with column-II and select the
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) correct option.
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) Column-I Column-II
189. A cartilaginous box present at the top of trachea a. Asthma (i) Fibrosis of upper
which helps in production of sound is respiratory tract
(1) Pharynx (2) Larynx b. Emphysema (ii) Elasticity of alveoli
(3) Epiglottis (4) Thyroid is reduced

190. Which of the following is not supported by c. Occupational (iii) Inflammation of

respiratory disorders bronchi
cartilaginous rings?
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(1) Trachea
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(2) Primary bronchi
196. The major components of our food are
(3) Initial bronchioles
(1) Carbohydrates, proteins and fats
(4) Terminal bronchioles
(2) Carbohydrates, proteins and vitamins
(3) Vitamins, minerals and fats

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Fortnightly Test-04 (Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

(4) Carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals (4) It is attached to the floor of oral cavity by the
197. Teeth absent in set of deciduous teeth in humans frenulum
are 199. A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the
(1) Incisors (2) Canines vermiform appendix arises from

(3) Premolars (4) Molars (1) Colon (2) Rectum

198. Select the correct option w.r.t. tongue. (3) Caecum (4) Ileum

(1) It is a freely movable bony organ 200. Which one of the following is not a disorder
associated with digestive system?
(2) The lower surface of the tongue has papillae
(1) Tetanus (2) Diarrhoea
(3) All papillae bear taste buds
(3) Jaundice (4) Dysentery

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