13/01/2021 DLR-13, DLR-14, DLR-15,

MX-1 & LMX-1

CODE-A4

North & North West Delhi | Lucknow Campuses

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2021)
Test - 3

Topics covered :
Physics : Work, Energy & Power, System of Particles & Rotational Motion
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, State of Matter: Gases and Liquids, Thermodynamics
Botany : Biological Classification, Morphology of Flowering Plants
Zoology : Digestion & Absorption, Breathing & Exchange of Gases

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : 4. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are moving with
1. SI unit of ‘work’ is equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their respective
speeds is
(1) Joule (2) Watt
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) Newton (4) Pascal
(3) 1: 3 (4) 2 : 1
2. The dimensional formula of ‘power’ is
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [MLT–3] 5. A particle is moving uniformly on a horizontal
circular path. Work done by centripetal force on the
(3) [ML2T–3] (4) [MLT–2] particle in one complete revolution is
3. As shown in the figure, work done by force (1) mv2 (2) 2πmv2
F = 10 N on the block in displacing horizontally it
(3) πmv2 (4) Zero
by 2 m on the smooth horizontal surface is

(1) 5 J 6. A constant force =
F ( 2iˆ + 3 jˆ ) N displaces a
(2) 10 J particle from x = 0 to x = 2 m. Work done by this
(3) 5 3 J force is
(1) 0 J (2) 4 J
(4) 10 3 J
(3) 2 J (4) 10 J

(1)
7. A ball of mass 100 g is raised to a height of 15. A particle is subjected to a force which varies with
10 m from ground. Work done by gravitational displacement as shown in figure
force is (take g = 10 ms–2)
(1) –10 J (2) 100 J
(3) –0.1 J (4) 1000 J
8. Kinetic energy of a particle changes from 2 J to
5 J. The work done by forces acting on this particle
will be
(1) 2 J (2) 7 J
If mass of the particle is 0.2 kg, then work done by
(3) 5 J (4) 3 J
the force from x = 0 to x = 4 m is
9. A projectile of mass m is projected at an angle θ (1) 0 J (2) 10 J
with horizontal with a speed u. The work done by
(3) 20 J (4) 40 J
gravity from point of projectile to maximum height
is 16. A ball of mass 100 g is thrown in vertically upward
2 2 2 2 direction with velocity 20 m/s. The potential energy
mu sin θ mu sin θ
(1) (2) − gained by the ball at the maximum height is (take
2 2 g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 2mu 2 sin2 θ (4) −2mu 2 sin2 θ (1) 1 J (2) 20 J
10. A block of mass m is released on a smooth inclined (3) 10 J (4) 100 J
plane from a height ‘h’. The kinetic energy of block 17. In a given field potential energy varies with position
on reaching the ground is x as U = (2x2 – 3x) J, where x is in m. The particle
mgh will be in stable equilibrium at x equal to
(1) mgh (2)
2 2 3
(1) m (2) m
1 3 2
(3) 2mgh (4) mgh
4 3
(3) Zero (4) m
11. Two particles of masses 1 kg and 3 kg have kinetic 4
energies in the ratio 1 : 3. The ratio of their linear 18. As shown in the figure, the maximum compression
momenta is in the spring will be
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 2 : 1
12. A spring of spring constant K = 50 N/m is
compressed by an amount 2 cm. The potential
energy stored in the spring is (1) 1 m (2) 0.5 m
(1) 100 J (2) 10 J 1
(3) 0.1 J (4) 0.01 J (3) 2m (4) m
2

13. If force F = ( 2iˆ + 3 jˆ − kˆ ) N is acting on a particle 19. A force acting on a particle of mass 1 kg such that
 position of particle (x) is varying with time (t) as
having instantaneous velocity = v ( 2iˆ − jˆ ) m/s . x = (2t2 – 1), where x is in m and t is in s. Work
Then instantaneous power of this force at that done by the force during 0 to 2 s is
instant will be (1) 32 J (2) 16 J
(1) 1 W (2) 7 W (3) 24 J (4) 4 J
(3) 2 W (4) 5 W 20. In a collision which of the following quantities
14. always remains conserved?
A force F is applied on a block at an angle θ. The
block is displaced by a displacement x. If work (1) Kinetic energy
done by the force F is zero, then angle θ is (2) Potential energy
(1) 0° (2) 60° (3) Mechanical energy
(3) 90° (4) 180° (4) Linear momentum

(2)
21. When separation between two masses increases, 28. If a small amount of mass is taken out from a body
then gravitational potential energy of system having symmetrical mass distribution about an axis,
(1) Must increase (2) May increase then its moment of inertia will
(3) Must decrease (4) May decrease (1) Decrease
(2) Increases
22. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with velocity 2 m/s on
a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure, (3) Remains unchanged
collides head on elastically with an identical ball (4) Depends upon the position of mass
kept at rest. The velocity of the ball B after collision 29. A uniform rod of length L is suspended at point A as
is shown in figure. Initially the rod is horizontal as
shown in figure. Suddenly the string B is cut and
rod rotates about A. What is the acceleration of
center of mass of rod just after the string B is cut?

(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s B

(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 4 m/s
23. The coefficient of restitution ‘e’ for a perfectly A
inelastic collision is 3g
(1) g (2)
(1) Zero (2) 1 4
g
(3) –1 (4) ∞ (3) Zero (4)
4
24. A heavy solid sphere is set into pure translatory 30. A thin uniform rod of mass 4 kg and length 2 m is
motion on a rough horizontal surface with speed v0. lying horizontally on a smooth surface. A small stone
When it starts pure rolling, its linear speed becomes/ of mass 1 kg moving on that surface with 10 ms–1
remains strikes the rod perpendicularly at its one end and get
stopped. The velocity of centre of mass of the rod will
5v 0 2v 0 be
(1) (2)
7 3 (1) 10 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1
v0 3v 0 (3) 2.5 ms –1 (4) 7.5 ms–1
(3) (4) 31. A solid cylinder of radius r rolls down on an
2 5
inclined plane without slipping. The speed of the
25. A particle of mass 100 g is moving at 20 m/s on xy centre of mass when it reaches the bottom, is:
plane along a straight line y = 4 m. Angular momen-
tum of the particle about x-axis is (1) 2gh (2) 4g
(1) 8 Js (2) 4 Js (3) 3gh / 4 (4) 4gh / 3
(3) Zero (4) 2 Js 32. The ratio of radii of two spheres of the same mass,
26. A hollow cylinder of mass 10 kg rotates about its having the same moment of inertia about their
own axis with angular speed 50 rad.s–1. If the radius diameters, one hollow and other solid is:
of cylinder is 40 cm, then the magnitude of the an- (1) (2)
3: 5 5: 3
gular momentum of the cylinder about its axis is
(3) 25 : 9 (4) 9 : 25
(1) 20 Js (2) 40 Js
(3) 80 Js (4) 60 Js 33. A child is standing with folded hands at the center
of a platform rotating about its central axis. The
27. A uniform solid sphere of mass M is rolling on a kinetic energy of the system is K. The child now
horizontal surface with velocity v without slipping. stretches his arms so that the moment of inertia
The ratio of rotational kinetic energy of ball to its of the system doubles. The kinetic energy of the
total kinetic energy is system now is
1 2
K
(1) (2) (1) 2 K (2)
2 5 2
K
2 2 (3) (4) 4 K
(3) (4) 4
7 3

(3)
34. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated
39. A circular disc is in pure rolling motion on a horizontal
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
surface. A, B, D and E are equidistant points from
l cm (as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia
the centre C having speeds vA, vB, vD and vE
of the system about a line AX perpendicular to AB
respectively at the instant shown, then incorrect
and in the plane of ABC, in gram–cm2 units will be
relation is
X
E
mC

l l A B
C
A B
m l m
D
5
(1) 2 m l 2 (2) m l2 (1) vA = vB (2) vE = vD
4
(3) vE > vD (4) vD = 0
3 3
(3) m l2 (4) m l2 40. The necessary and sufficient conditions for
2 4 equilibrium of a body are
(1) Body must not be revolving around any axis
35. Two bodies of equal masses revolve in circular
orbits of radii R1 and R2 with the same period. (2) Sum of all forces on the body should be zero
Their centripetal forces are in the ratio
(3) Net torque on body about any point is zero

 R2 
2
R1 (4) None of these is sufficient alone
(1)   (2)
 R1  R2 41. Angular displacement is
(1) Always a scalar quantity
2
 R1  (2) Always a vector quantity
(3)   (4) R1 R2
 R2  (3) Scalar if infinitely small and vector if finite
36. A wheel has moment of inertia 5 × 10 kgm and –3 2
(4) Vector if infinitely small
is making 20 rev. s–1. The torque needed to stop it
in 10 s is ....... × 10–2 Nm. 42. A uniform thin rigid rod is free to rotate about the
horizontal axis passing perpendicularly to its length
(1) 2  (2) 2.5  through its one end. When released from rest from
(3) 4  (4) 4.5  position OA, then during the journey from OA to
37. Angular momentum of a body is defined as the OB position [  angular speed]
product of
(1) mass and angular velocity A
(2) centripetal force and radius O horizontal
(3) linear velocity and angular velocity
(4) moment of inertia and angular velocity
38. In an orbital motion, the angular momentum vector
is
(1) along the radius vector B
(2) parallel to the linear momentum
(3) in the orbital plane (1)  increases

(4) perpendicular to the orbital plane (2)  decreases

(3)  remains constant
(4)  may increase or decrease

(4)
43. The radius of gyration (K) of a rigid body changes 45. If a particle is moving with uniform speed on a circular
with change of path, then angle between direction of its position
vector and acceleration is
(1) Angular speed
(1) 0°
(2) Axis of rotation
(2) 90°
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(3) 45°
(4) Never changes
44. A solid sphere, a disc and a ring are left free from (4) 180°
the top of a smooth inclined plane of height h and
inclination . Choose the one that will reach the
bottom earliest
(1) Solid sphere
(2) Disc
(3) Ring
(4) All reach the bottom simultaneously
 CHEMISTRY

46. Favourable condition for formation of an ionic (2) Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of
bond is/are two half-filled atomic orbitals containing
electrons in opposite spin
(1) Low ionisation energy of the metal
(3) Covalent bond is formed by complete overlap
(2) High electron affinity of non-metal
of two fully filled atomic orbitals containing
(3) High lattice energy of ionic compound electrons in opposite spin
(4) All of these (4) Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of
two fully filled atomic orbitals containing e–
47. The formal charge on central atom in molecule
electrons in opposite spin
is
(1) –1 (2) 0 54. The correct statement regarding σ bond is

(3) +1 (4) +0.5 (1) It is formed due to overlap of atomic orbitals

along internuclear axis
48. Compound with maximum value of lattice energy
(2) It primarily decides the direction of covalent
is
bond
(1) Na3PO4 (2) NaCl
(3) It is weaker than π -bond
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) CaCl2 (4) Both (1) and (2)
49. Covalent character of an ionic compound is more 55. Which of these overlaps leads to formation of a
when π -bond? (If y-axis is considered to be
(i) Polarisation power of cation is more internuclear axis)
(ii) Polarisability of anion is more. (1) pz + pz (2) p y + pz
(iii) Charge on the anion is less
(3) pz + dx2 − y2 (4) p x + p y
(iv) Size of cation is less
Choose the correct statements. 56. The following graph is meant for Be2 molecule.
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
50. Which of these molecule(s) do not obey octet
rule?
(1) BCl3 (2) IF7
(3) KrF2 (4) All of these According to the graph above
51. Hydrogen bond is absent in (1) Potential energy increases as the two Be
(1) H2O (2) NH3 atoms approach each other leading to
stability in the molecule
(3) HCl (4) HF
(2) Potential energy increases as the two Be
atoms approach towards each other so
52. Which of these is not an odd electron species?
formation of Be2 molecules is energetically
(1) O22– (2) NO not possible
(3) NO2 (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Potential energy decreases as two Be atoms
approach towards each other leading to
53. Which of these statements is correct according to formation of Be2 molecule
VBT?
(4) Potential energy decreases as the two Be
(1) Covalent bond is formed by partial overlap of atoms approach towards each other leading
two half-filled atomic orbitals containing to the stability in the molecule
electrons with same spin

(5)
57. Choose the correct statement among the 63. The correct statement about SO32− and ClO3− is
following.
(i) Both are isoelectronic
(i) Ionic bond is formed due to electrostatic force
of attraction. (ii) Both are isostructural
(ii) KCN contains both ionic and covalent bond. (iii) Both are not isoelectronic
(iv) Both are not isostructural
(iii) NH+4 contains dative bond.
(1) (i) & (iv) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(1) (i) & (ii) only
(3) (i) & (ii) (4) (iii) & (iv)
(2) (ii) & (iii) only
64. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(3) (i) & (iii) only
(1) XeO2F2 and SF4 are isostructural
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) Among IF7 and SF4, IF7 has less no. of atoms
58. Which of the following species do not show
in one plane
hybridisation?
(3) SF4 is a non-planar molecule
(4) N in NH3 is sp3 hybridised
(1) H2SO4 (2) 65. Which of the following compound is the limitation
of Lewis octet rule?
(3) Diamond (4) MgCl2 (1) CCl4
59. Hybridisation can be predicted by (2) CO2

(1) Calculation of no. of σ bonds + number of lp (3) NO

of electrons that participate in delocalisation (4) NH3
(2) Calculation of no. of σ bonds + number of lp 66. The fractional charge on each atom in
HBr molecule is [Given that dipole moment of
that do not participate in delocalisation HBr = 0.78 D, Bond length of HBr = 1.41 Å and
(3) Calculation of no. of π bonds + number of lp 1 D = 1 × 10–18 esu cm]
that participate in delocalisation (1) 0.251 (2) 0.472
(4) Calculation of no. of π bonds + number of lp (3) 0.115 (4) 0.362
that do not participate in delocalisation
67. Choose the correct options regarding bond angle
60. The hybridisation of N in NO2 is in methanol.
(1) sp2 (2) sp3
(3) sp (4) sp3d
61. Number of atoms present in sp hybrid state in the
molecule CH3 − C ≡ C − CH = CH − CN (1) p = r > q (2) p = q < r
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) p = r = q (4) p = q > r
(3) 6 (4) 5 68. Assuming Hund’s rule is not operative, the bond
order and magnetic nature of diatomic molecule
62. Increasing order of bond angle in the following
B2 is
species is
(1) 1 & paramagnetic
OCl2, SCl2, BCl3
(2) 0 & diamagnetic
I II III
(3) 0 & paramagnetic
(1) II < I < III (2) I < II < III
(4) 1 & diamagnetic
(3) III < II < I (4) I < III < II

(6)
69. If 2s-2p mixing is not operative then the no. of 77. In which of the following species bond length is
diamagnetic species among the following is less than expected?
Be2, B2, N2, C2, F2
(1) NH3 (2)
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) CCl4 (4) BF3
(3) 3 (4) 2
78. Match the molecules listed in column A with the
70. Bond order of O–O in the following molecule dipole moment values listed in column B.
Na2O2 is
Column A Column B
(1) 1.0 (2) 1.5
(3) 2.0 (4) 2.5 a. HCl (i) 0.38 D
b. HBr (ii) 1.07 D
71. In , let x be the total number of bond pairs
in the molecules, y be the total number of lone c. HI (iii) 1.78 D
pairs in the molecule and z be the total number of d. HF (iv) 0.79 D
90° angles in , then x + y + z is
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(1) 15 (2) 17
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) 21 (4) 19
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
72. XeOxF6–x molecule will be non-polar for what
values of x? (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) 2 (2) 3 79. The bond order in carbonate ion is
(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 1.0 (2) 1.33
73. For a molecule AB2, if no. of lone pairs on A are (3) 1.5 (4) 2.0
3, then, the correct statement for AB2 is
80. The shape of ICl3 molecule is
(1) AB2 is sp3d hybridised
(1) Pyramidal (2) T-shape
(2) AB2 is linear
(3) µnet of AB2 =
0 (3) Trigonal planar (4) Tetrahedral
81. The state of hybridisation of C2, C3 and C5 of the
(4) All are correct
given hydrocarbon respectively are
74. The correct order of bond length corresponding to
the given hybridisation of carbon atoms is
(1) sp − sp < sp3 − sp3 < sp 2 − sp 2

(2) sp 2 − sp 2 < sp3 − sp3 < sp − sp

(1) sp, sp2, sp3
2 2 3 3
(3) sp − sp < sp − sp < sp − sp (2) sp3, sp2, sp2
(4) sp3 − sp3 < sp 2 − sp 2 < sp − sp (3) sp2, sp3, sp2
75. The number of 109.5° bond angles in CCl4 are (4) sp, sp3, sp2
(1) Four (2) Six 82. Which of the following do not contain all bonds of
(3) Three (4) Eight same bond length?
76. Which of the following molecule has zero dipole (1) SF6 (2) PCl5
moment? (3) CH4 (4) SO3
83. Probability of finding e– in bonding molecular
orbital is represented by ψ B2 MO . The value of
(1) (2) 2
ψ BMO − ψ 2AO1 − ψ 2AO2 is (where ψ 2AO1 is the
probability of finding in atomic orbital 1 and
e–
2
ψ AO2 is the probability of finding e– in atomic
orbital 2)
(3) (4)
(1) ψ AO1 ⋅ ψ AO2 (2) ψ 2AO1 ⋅ ψ 2AO2

(3) 2ψ 2AO1 ⋅ ψ 2AO2 (4) 2ψ AO1 ⋅ ψ AO2

(6)
84. Which bonding molecular orbital(s) possess a 87. Choose the correct statements.
nodal plane?
(i) NH3 contains intermolecular H-bond.
(1) σ2s (ii) NH3 contains intramolecular H-bond.
(2) π2px (iii) Boiling point of p-nitrophenol is more than
(3) σ2pz ortho-nitrophenol.
(iv) Due to intramolecular H-bonding ice
(4) All of these becomes less dense than H2O.
85. The correct representation for HF is (1) (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv)
88. In AsCl5 molecule, the hybrid orbitals used by the
As atom for bonding are
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (1) d x2 −y2 , d z2 , s, px , py
(3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect
(2) d xy , s, px , py , pz
86. Which of the following possess intramolecular
H-bonding? (3) s, px , py , pz , d z2

(4) d x2 − y2 , s, px , py , pz

(1) (2) 89. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

(1) SF4 (2) BF3
(3) BrF5 (4) XeF6
90. Which of the following is a pure covalent
compound?
(3) (4)
(1) H2 (2) HCl
(3) H2O (4) NH3

BOTANY
91. Which of the following characters can be true for 94. A blue green alga, Nostoc does not have
all members of Kingdom Monera? (1) PS I in heterocyst
(1) DNA is linear and double stranded (2) Atmospheric nitrogen fixing enzyme
(2) Cell wall made up of peptidoglycan (3) PS II in heterocyst
(3) Ribosomes are of 70S type (4) Mucilaginous sheath
(4) Presence of histone proteins 95. Select the odd one w.r.t Mycoplasma.
92. The bacteria which can perform only aerobic (1) Unicellular
respiration is (2) Non-motile
(1) Clostridium botulinum (3) Sensitive to penicillin
(2) Bacillus subtilis (4) Lack mesosome
(3) Pseudomonas
96. The organisms which are known as chief
(4) Chlorobium producers in ocean
93. Select the correct statement about (1) Have flagella throughout their life
archaebacteria. (2) Are euglenoids
(1) They are the most primitive, oxygenic (3) Have silica in their cell wall
photosynthetic bacteria
(4) Lack asexual reproduction
(2) They cannot survive in harsh conditions
97. Cell wall is the outermost covering in
(3) They were placed in separate kingdom by Carl
Woese (1) Paramoecium (2) Mycoplasma
(4) They have true nucleus and introns in DNA (3) Euglena (4) E.coli

(7)
98. One of the main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker to 107. Mark the correct option for ascospores.
classify the organisms is (a) Haploid (b) Meiospores
(1) Base sequence of rRNA gene (c) Exogenous (d) Flagellated
(2) Mode of nutrition (1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c)
(3) Number of chromosomes (3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (d)
(4) Habitat 108. Under unfavourable conditions slime moulds form
(1) Fruiting bodies
99. Red tide is caused by
(2) Plasmodium
(1) Anabaena (2) Gonyaulax
(3) Diatoms (4) Entamoeba (3) Vegetative structures
(4) Both (1) and (2)
100. Dikaryophase is not seen in
(1) Neurospora (2) Aspergillus 109. Viroids
(3) Mushroom (4) Phytophthora (1) Are infectious proteins
(2) Have capsid as outer covering
101. The group of fungi which lack sex organs but
perform sexual reproduction belong to class (3) Were discovered by T.O. Diener
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (4) Are viruses with ssDNA
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes 110. TMV is similar to HIV
102. Which of the following organisms is/are (1) ln having RNA as genetic material
autotrophic but lack(s) photosynthetic pigments? (2) As both lack capsid
(1) Purple sulphur bacteria (3) As both infect humans
(2) Nitrosomonas (4) In having envelope
(3) Gymnodinium
111. Primitive bacteria called methanogens
(4) Purple non sulphur bacteria
(1) Are photoautotrophic bacteria
103. Bacteriophages usually have _______ as genetic (2) Have peptidoglycan in their cell wall
material.
(3) Are abundant in marshy areas
(1) ds RNA (2) ds DNA
(4) Show aerobic respiration
(3) ss RNA (4) ss DNA
112. Fungi growing on cow dung are called
104. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Xylophilous (2) Corticolous
(1) Alternaria – Early blight of potato
(3) Coprophilous (4) Epixylic
(2) Phytophthora – Late blight of potato
(3) Puccinia – Smut in wheat 113. Motile structures do not occur in the life cycle of
(4) Albugo – White rust of crucifers (1) Saprolegnia (2) Albugo
105. Choose the incorrect statement for ‘Fungi (3) Penicillium (4) Phytophthora
imperfecti’. 114. Which of the following is not the modified storage
(1) Help in mineral cycling tap root?
(2) Lack perfect stage (1) Carrot (2) Sweet potato
(3) Reproduce asexually by conidia formation (3) Radish (4) Turnip
(4) Have aseptate and coenocytic mycelium 115. Phyllodes performs the function of photosynthesis
106. Read the following statements and select the in
correct option. (1) Aloe (2) Watermelon
(A) Saccharomyces forms edible fruiting body. (3) Australian Acacia (4) Cactus
(B) In Agaricus cell wall made up of cellulose. 116. Eichhornia contains a lateral branch which bear
(1) Only A is correct short internodes and at each node a rosette of
(2) Only B is correct leaves. This branch is called
(3) Both A & B are correct (1) Sucker (2) Offset
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (3) Runner (4) Stolon

(8)
117. A pair of leaves arise at each node on opposite 127. Swollen placenta is seen in
sides in (1) Rose (2) Chilli
(1) Mustard (2) Guava (3) Cucumber (4) Lemon
(3) Sunflower (4) China rose 128. State true (T) or false (F) for the following
118. Read the following floral characters and select the statements.
correct ones for family Solanaceae. (A) Most of the fruits are true fruits.
(a) Actinomorphic flowers (B) Multiple type of fruit develop from a single
(b) Epipetalous androecium flower.
(c) Endospermous seeds (A) (B)
(d) Gamosepalous calyx (1) T T
(2) T F
(1) Only (a) & (b) (2) Only (b) & (c)
(3) F F
(3) Only (c) & (d) (4) All (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(4) F T
119. Find the incorrect match.
129. When pistils are fused together it is called
(1) Cassia : Imbricate aestivation
(1) Pistillate condition
(2) Lily : Epiphyllous condition
(2) Apocarpous condition
(3) Guava : Superior ovary
(3) Syncarpous condition
(4) Tomato : Axile placentation (4) Staminate condition
120. Which of the following symbol is not used in the 130. All of the following are stem modifications, except
floral formula of a legume plant?
(1) Thorns of Bougainvillea
(1) G1 (2) (2) Tendrils of pumpkin
(3) K(5) (4) P(3+3) (3) Flattened structure of Opuntia
(4) Pitcher of Nepenthes
121. Mark the odd one w.r.t endosperm.
(1) It is a result of double fertilisation 131. Keel, wings and standard petals are seen in the
flower of
(2) It is not formed in pea
(1) Aloe (2) Pea
(3) It is a food storing tissue
(3) Tomato (4) Lemon
(4) It is triploid
132. Tuber of potato is
122. The ornamental plant of family Liliaceae, is (1) Endospermic seed
(1) Lupin (2) Petunia (2) Pseudocarpic fruit
(3) Gloriosa (4) Trifolium (3) Edible underground stem
123. A parthenocarpic fruit such as banana is formed (4) Proteinaceous seed
by
133. Cymose inflorescence is a feature of
(1) Fusion of male and female gamete (1) Radish (2) Lupin
(2) Double fertilisation (3) Solanum (4) Mustard
(3) Unfertilised ovary
(4) Thalamus only 134. The branches arising in acropetal order from main
stem giving a conical appearance are not observed in
124. A fruit which develop from entire inflorescence is
called (1) Pinus (2) Casuarina
(1) Simple fruit (2) False fruit (3) Eucalyptus (4) Dalbergia
(3) Composite fruit (4) Aggregate fruit 135. Select the incorrect statement.
125. Coconut and mango both are drupe. In coconut (1) Prop roots provide mechanical support to
the edible part differs from mango as it is heavy branches.
(1) Mesocarp (2) Endosperm (2) The growth of stem and its branches is
(3) Epicarp (4) Endocarp accomplished through the apical bud.
126. Select the odd one w.r.t embryonal structure in (3) Corms grows vertically beneath the soil
maize seed. surface.
(1) Coleorhiza (2) Aleurone layer (4) A bud is present in the axil of all leaflets in a
compound leaf.
(3) Plumule (4) Radicle

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 ZOOLOGY
136. One amongst the following is anti-bacterial activity of 145. If T.S. of alimentary canal shows presence of glands
saliva. Mark it located in the sub-mucosa part, it indicates it is the
(1) Excretion of urea by salivary glands section from
(2) Excretion of ethyl alcohol by salivary glands (1) Ileum (2) Duodenum
(3) Excretion of thiocyanates by salivary glands (3) Jejunum (4) Colon
(4) Excretion of anti-biotics by salivary glands 146. Maximum amount of oxygen transported by one litre
137. Which of the following will play an important role in of blood as during maximum physical activity is
lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium (1) 50 ml (2) 150 ml
from destruction by the highly concentrated hydro-
chloric acid? (3) 200 ml (4) 75 ml
(1) Propepsin (2) Tight junction 147. Volume of O2 present in 1 litre of deoxygenated blood
(3) Mucus (4) Both (2) & (3) under normal condition is
138. Which of the following will be included under protec- (1) 150 ml (2) 200 ml
tive principles of food? (3) 50 ml (4) 15 ml
(1) Carbohydrate (2) Protein 148. Which of the following intercostal muscles help in
(3) Water (4) Lipid normal expiration?
139. On which of the following principles is the Haldane’s (1) Internal intercostal (2) External intercostal
effect based? (3) Oblique muscles (4) None of these
(1) Oxyhaemoglobin behaves as a strong acid 149. Identify the feature of body which is associated with
(2) Oxyhaemoglobin is a strong base acclimatisation of body to high altitude
(3) Haemoglobin consists of a protein of high MW a. Increase in RBC number
(4) All of these b. Increase in cardiac output
140. Conditions matching with Bohr effect include c. More formation of DPG
(a) Entry of CO2 in blood
d. Formation of erythropoietin by kidney
(b) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
(1) a and b is correct (2) Only d is correct
(c) Lesser affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen
(3) a, c and d is correct (4) All are correct
(d) Increased acidity and decreased pH
(1) (a) & (c) is correct (2) (a) is correct 150. If a person inspires in air with utmost effort and them
expires out air with utmost effort. Vital capacity is
(3) All are correct (4) (a), (b) & (c) are correct
amount of air
141. P50 is minimum in
(1) Breathed in
(1) Adult blood (2) Foetal blood
(2) Breathed out
(3) Myoglobin (4) Hypoxic blood
(3) Present in lungs
142. Identify the property which is shown by human liver
(4) That remains in lungs after forceful expiration
a. Liver is seat of lymph formation
151. Respiratory distress syndrome of new borns is
b. It synthesises prothrombin
primarily due to
c. Formation and storage of vit. A
(1) Non-functioning of diaphragm
d. It synthesizes gamma globulin
(2) Non-functioning of intercostals
(1) a is correct (2) b, c & d are correct (3) Little or no surfactant formation in alveoli
(3) a, b & c are correct (4) a, b & d are correct (4) Inability of secretion of NO
143. A preventive measure for galactosemic children is that 152. Which of the following muscle plays important role in
(1) They must be given milk fortified with vitamins intake of air during normal or abdominal breathing?
(2) They must be given milk free diet (1) External intercostal muscles
(3) They must be given pasteurized milk (2) Phrenic muscles
(4) They must be given abundant fats (3) Internal intercostal muscles
144. The sight, smell, thought or taste of food resulting in (4) Abdominal muscles
greater appetite or release of appetite juice is included
153. The oxidative product of haemoglobin is
under ________ of gastric secretion.
(1) Methaemoglobin (2) Leghaemoglobin
(1) Cephalic phase (2) Gastric phase
(3) Myoglobin (4) Pinnaglobin
(3) Intestinal phase (4) Duodenal phase

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154. The carotid and aortic bodies and medullary 161. The much of salivary amylase(ptyalin) secreted by
chemoreceptors are predominantly sensitive to _______ saliv ary gland while much of mucin
(1) Decreases in carbon dioxide secreted by _____ salivary gland
(2) Increases in partial pressure of CO2 (1) Parotid & parotid
(3) Increases in oxygen (2) Parotid & sublingual
(4) Changes in arterial blood pressure
(3) Sublingual & submaxillary
155. Which nerve innervates salivary glands of human like
parotid, submandibular and sublingual glands, (4) Parotid & submandibular
respectively? 162. Myenteric plexus (plexus of Auerbach) present is
(1) III, IV and VI nerve (2) VII, VIII and IX nerve muscular coat of alimentary canal controls
(3) IX, VII and VII nerve (4) IX, X and XI nerve (1) The peristaltic movement in alimentary canal
156. The Myenteric plexus and Meissner’s plexus is (2) Various secretions of alimentary canal
supplied with
(3) Movement of the villi
(1) Sympathetic and parasympathetic f ibres
(4) Both (2) & (3)
respectively
(2) Parasympathetic and sympathetic f ibres 163. Protein and calories deficiency in infants cause
respectively marasmus which is characterised by all of the
(3) Both contain sympathetic nerve fibres only following symptoms except one
(4) Both sympathetic and parasymapathetic nerve (1) Emaciated body
fibres (2) Prominent ribs
157. The gland which secretes mixed secretion and (3) Dry, thin and wrinkled skin
contain both serous and mucous cells in the ratio of
4 : 1 and its secretion forms 70% of total salivary (4) Oedema of face and limbs
secretion per day is 164. During high f ev er, the oxygen haemoglobin
(1) Parotid salivary gland dissociation curve will shift to which side?
(2) Sublingual salivary gland (1) It would shift to right as more oxygen is required
(3) Infraorbital salivary gland (2) It would shift to right, as less oxygen is required
(4) Submandibular salivary gland (3) It would shift to left, as more oxygen is required
158. W hich of the f ollowing is required for proper (4) It would shift to left, as less oxygen is required
functioning of the salivary amylase? 165. Study the following statement and mark the options
(1) Chloride ions (2) Bicarbonate ions For a given pressure difference, CO 2 diffuses
(3) Na+ (4) K+ 20 times
as rapidly as oxygen and in turn, oxygen
159. Mark the correct one for greater omentum a
(1) Fold of peritoneum between the stomach and 2 times
colon diffuses as rapidly as nitrogen
b
(2) Extends beyond greater curvature of stomach (1) a is true; b is false
(3) Has a number of milky spots of lymphoid tissue (2) a is false; b is true
(4) All above statements are correct (3) Both a & b are true
160. Mark the correct match w.r.t. salivary glands, their (4) Both a & b are false
ducts and place of opening
166. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. Parotid gland - Stenson’s duct - upper 2 nd
(1) Alkalosis can inhibit the respiratory centre of
premolar
brain leading to hypoxia
b. Sublingual gland - Rivinus duct - roof of oral
cavity (2) The hypoxia can impare mental performance,
such as judgement and concentration
c. Sub mandibular gland - Wharton’s duct - lower
central incisors (3) The reduction in blood PO2 causes respiratory
alkalosis
(1) Only a (2) Both a & c
(4) Hyperventilation increases arterial oxygen levels
(3) Both b & c (4) Only c
but also reduces blood CO2 levels

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167. Read the following statement and point out which part 172. Which of the following character/s present in large
of the statement is incorrect intestine help into distinguish it from small intestine?
a. Haustra b. Taeniae coli
HCO3– ions
dif f use out into the, plasma and c. Plicae circulae d. Epiploic appendages
a
(1) Only c (2) a, b & d
Na ions tissue level (3) a & b (4) a, b, c & d
enters into RBC at the . This is
b c 173. A person during an open heart surgery develops a
known as Hamburger’s phenomenon. At the level of respiratory disorder namely
external respiration Cl– ion moves out as HCO3– (1) Emphysema (2) Atelectasis
moves in. This is referred to as
(3) Asthma (4) Sleep apnoe
reverse chloride shift 174. Muscular coat of stomach having an additional layer
d of oblique muscle fibres which is present
(1) a (2) b (1) Outer to longitudinal muscle fibre
(3) c (4) d (2) Inner to longitudinal muscle fibre
168. When the pneumotaxic centre signal is strong, the (3) Inner to circular muscle fibres
(4) In between longitudinal and circular muscle fibres
inspiration lasts for and the lung fills only
a 175. Nucleases like DNAase and RNAase are found in
partially. Further, when this signal is weak, the (1) Gastric juice (2) Intestinal juice
(3) Pancreatic juice (4) Both (2) & (3)
inspiration lasts for and the lung fills completely
b 176. Identify the portion of ruminant stomach where secre-
tion of gastric juice takes place
(1) a = 5.0 second; b = 0.5 second
(1) Rumen (2) Reticulum
(2) a = 2.0 second; b = 0.2 second
(3) Omasum (4) Abomasum
(3) a = 0.5 second; b = 5.0 second
177. Mark incorrect statement from given below regarding
(4) a = 0.2 second; b = 2.0 second
periodontal membrane
169. Fishes breathe in water where percentage of oxygen
(1) White fibrous membrane forms lining of alveolus
is less but cannot breathe out of water where
percentage of oxygen is 21% because (2) Avascular membrane
(1) Fish cannot use oxygen of air due to high pO2 (3) Runs in between jaw bone cavity and cement
in atmosphere (4) Helps in fixation of root of teeth within alveolus
(2) When out of water, gill lamellae stick to each 178. Which of the following glands are mainly responsible
other so surface area is reduced for secretion containing HCl and large amount of
(3) Fishes can used oxygen only in water due to pepsinogen?
low pO2 in water (1) Mucous neck cells (2) Pyloric tubular glands
(4) Fishes have gills that have special structure to (3) Oxyntic tubular glands (4) G-cells
use oxygen of water and the oxygen of air 179. Trypsin is present throughout the animal kingdom.
170. Adenoid is enlargement of tonsil in children which Mark the wrong statement regarding Trypsin
may cause obstruction to normal breathing. The tonsil (1) Only protease to act in stomach
related to adenoid in (2) Can coagulate blood protein in sanguivorous
(1) Palatine tonsil (2) Lingual tonsil (3) Stimulated by enterokinase
(3) Tubal tonsil (4) Pharyngeal tonsil (4) Cannot digest keratin protein
171. Which of the following is incorret about Tocopherd 180. Mark wrong match between v itamin and its
(1) Synthesis of coeryme Q deficiency disorder which are given below
(2) Medicinal value for the patients of heart attack (1) Menadione  Pellagra
and Alzheimer’s dis. (2) Folic acid  Megaloblastic anaemia
(3) Decreases erythrocytes fragility (3) Calciferol  Osteomalacia
(4) Required for proper use of vitamin C in the body (4) Thiamine  Beriberi

  

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 13/01/2021 DLR-13, DLR-14, DLR-15,
MX-1 & LMX-1
CODE-A4

North & North West Delhi | Lucknow Campuses

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2021)
Test - 3
ANSWER
1. (1) 40. (4) 77. (4) 118. (4)
2. (3) 78. (1) 119. (3) 154. (2)
3. (2) 41. (4)
79. (2) 120. (4) 155. (3)
4. (2) 42. (1)
80. (2) 121. (2) 156. (4)
5. (4) 43. (2) 122. (3)
81. (3)
6. (2) 44. (4) 123. (3) 157. (4)
7. (1) 82. (2)
45. (4) 83. (4) 124. (3) 158. (1)
8. (4) 125. (2)
9. (2) 84. (2) 159. (4)
46. (4) 126. (2)
10. (1) 47. (3) 85. (2) 160. (4)
127. (2)
11. (1) 48. (3) 86. (4) 161. (4)
128. (2)
12. (4) 49. (3) 87. (3) 129. (3)
13. (1) 162. (1)
50. (4) 88. (3) 130. (4)
14. (3) 89. (2) 131. (2) 163. (4)
51. (3)
15. (1) 90. (1) 132. (3) 164. (1)
16. (2) 52. (1)
53. (2) 91. (3) 133. (3) 165. (3)
17. (4) 92. (2) 134. (4)
18. (4) 54. (4) 166. (3)
93. (3) 135. (4)
19. (1) 55. (1) 167. (2)
94. (3) 136. (3)
20. (4) 56. (2) 95. (3) 168. (3)
21. (1) 57. (4) 96. (3) 137. (4)
22. (2) 58. (4) 169. (2)
97. (4) 138. (3)
23. (1) 59. (2) 98. (2) 170. (4)
139. (1)
24. (1) 60. (1) 99. (2) 171. (4)
61. (2) 100. (4)
140. (3)
25. (3) 172. (2)
62. (1) 101. (3) 141. (3)
26. (3) 173. (2)
63. (3) 102. (2) 142. (3)
27. (3) 103. (2) 174. (3)
64. (2) 143. (2)
28. (1) 104. (3) 175. (3)
65. (3) 144. (1)
29. (2) 105. (4)
66. (3) 176. (4)
30. (3) 106. (4) 145. (2)
67. (4) 177. (2)
107. (1)
31. (4) 68. (4) 146. (2)
108. (1) 178. (3)
32. (1) 69. (1) 147. (1)
70. (1) 109. (3) 179. (1)
33. (2) 148. (4)
71. (2) 110. (1) 180. (1)
34. (2) 111. (3) 149. (4)
72. (1)
35. (2) 112. (3) 150. (2)
36. (1) 73. (4) 113. (3)
151. (3)
74. (3) 114. (2)
37. (4) 115. (3) 152. (2)
75. (2)
38. (4) 76. (3) 116. (2) 153. (1)
39. (2) 117. (2)