DATE: 29/01/2023 E

Part Test – 01

Physics : Basic Maths, Vector, Mo on in a Straight Line, Mo on in a Plane, Laws of Mo on

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic Structure, IUPAC Nomenclature, Isomerism

Botany : Cell: Unit of life, Cell Cycle, Living World

Zoology : Structural Organisa on in Animals, Diges on and Absorp on, Breathing and Exchange of Gases
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 6. Two trains each 50m long, are travelling in opposite
1. A particle moving on a circular path with constant directions with respective velocities
speed then its acceleration will be:
10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of crossing is:-
(1) Zero
(2) Outward radial acceleration (1) 2 s
(3) Inward radial acceleration (2) 4 s
(4) Constant acceleration
(3) 2√3 s
2. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum (4) 4√3 s
horizontal distance of 180 m. The speed with which
he throws the ball is:
7. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of
(1) 35 m/s
(2) 30 m/s 500 ms–1 and a bomb released from it, strikes the
(3) 40 m/s ground in 10 s. Angle at which it strikes the ground
(4) 42 m/s will be {g =10 ms–2)
1
3. Two equal forces are acting at a point with an angle (1) tan–1  
of 60° between them. If the resultant force is equal 5
to 40√3 N, then magnitude of each force is 1
(2) tan −1  
(1) 40 N 2
(2) 20 N
(3) tan–1 (1)
(3) 80 N
(4) 30 N (4) tan–1 (5)

4. A particle moves in a straight line, its position 8. A cricket ball is hit for a six by the bat at an angle
(in m) as function of time is given by x = (at2 + b). of 45° to the horizontal with kinetic energy K. At
What is average velocity in time interval t = 3s to
the highest point, the kinetic energy of the ball is
t = 5 sec?
(1) zero
(Where a and b are constants and a = 1 m/s2, b = 1m)
(1) 8 m/s (2) K
(2) 5 m/s (3) K/2
(3) 10 m/s (4) K/√2
(4) 12 m/s

5. The range of a projectile is R when the angle of 9. The position vector of a particle is
projection is 40°. For the same velocity of r = a sin t 𝑖̂ + a cos t 𝑗̂
projection and range, the other possible angle of The velocity of the particle is
projection is (1) parallel to position vector
(1) 45°
(2) perpendicular to position vector
(2) 50°
(3) 60° (3) directed towards origin
(4) 40° (4) directed away from the origin

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10. A particle moves in xy-plane from positions 14. A river is flowing at the rate of 6 km/h. A swimmer
(2m, 4m) to (6m, 8m) in 2s. Magnitude and swims across the river with a velocity of 9 km/h
direction of average velocity is w.r.t. water. The resultant velocity of the man will
–1
(1) √2 ms and 45° be in (km/h) :
–1
(2) 2√2 ms and 45° (1) √117
–1
(3) 4√2 ms and 30° (2) √340
(4) 3√2 ms–1 and 60° (3) √17
(4) 3√40
11. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time
are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and 15. Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance
y are in metres and t in seconds. The acceleration of x as shown in figure. They are projected as shown
the particle at t = 2 s is in figure with different initial speeds. The time after
(1) 5 ms–2
which the horizontal distance between them
(2) – 4 ms–2
becomes zero is
(3) –8 ms–2
x
(4) 0 (1)
u
x
12. Three projectiles A, B and C are thrown from the (2)
2u
same point in the same plane. Their trajectories are
2u
shown in the figure. Then which of the following (3)
x
statement is true ?
(4) None of these

16. The vector P = aiˆ + ajˆ + 3kˆ and Q = aiˆ − 2jˆ − kˆ are
perpendicular to each other. The positive value of a is
(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three (1) 3
(2) The launch speed is greatest for particle C (2) 4
(3) The horizontal velocity component is greatest (3) 9
for particle C (4) 13
(4) All of the above
17. A particle moves along a path ABCD as shown in
13. A block of mass 4 kg is suspended through two light the figure. Then the magnitude of net displacement
spring balances A and B in series. Then A and B of the particle from position A to D is:
will read respectively. (1) 10 m
(1) 4 kg and zero kg (2) 5 2m
(2) zero kg and 4 kg (3) 9 m
(3) 4 kg and 4 kg (4) 7 2m
(4) 2 kg and 2 kg

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18. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then 23. A body of mass 2 kg moving on a horizontal surface
magnitude of difference is with an initial velocity of 4 m/s comes to rest in
(1) √2 2 seconds. If one wants to keep the body moving on
the same surface with the velocity of 4 m/s, the force
(2) √3
required is
(3) 1/√2 (1) Zero
(4) √5 (2) 4 N
(3) 8 N
19. A = 2iˆ + ˆj,B = 3jˆ − kˆ and C = 6iˆ − 2kˆ value of (4) 16 N
A − 2B + 3C would be 24. Which of the following distance time graph is
(1) 20iˆ + 5jˆ + 4kˆ representing the uniform accelerated motion of
body
(2) 20iˆ − 5jˆ − 4kˆ
(3) 4iˆ + 5jˆ + 20kˆ
(4) 5iˆ + 4jˆ + 10kˆ (1)

20. A particle is simultaneously acted by two forces

equal to 4 N and 3 N. The net force on the particle
is
(1) 7 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 1 N
(2)
(4) Between 1 N and 7 N

21. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a

projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the
projectiles is
1
(1)  = tan –1  
4
(2)  = tan –1 ( 4 ) (3)

(3)  = tan –1 ( 2 )
(4)  = 45

22. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water

crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river
water in km/hr is (4)
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 21
(4) 1

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25. Two balls are projected from top of a tower of height (3) a parabolic path
120 m, one with initial upward velocity of 36 km/h (4) a straight line path inclined equally to x and
and other with initial downward velocity of y-axes
36 km/h. The speed of each ball just before hitting
the ground is (Take g = 10m/s2) 30. A boat crosses a river with a velocity of 8 km/h. If
(1) 50 m/s, 70 m/s the resulting velocity of boat is 10 km/h then the
(2) 50 m/s, 50 m/s velocity of river water is
(3) 70 m/s, 50 m/s
(1) 6 km/h
(4) 50 m/s, 5√2m/s
(2) 8 km/h
(3) 10 km/h
26. A flag is mounted on a car moving due North with
(4) 4 km/h
velocity of 20 km/hr. Strong winds are blowing due
East with velocity of 20 km/hr. The flag will point
31. The velocity-time graph for a body with variable
in direction
(1) East acceleration is a:
(2) North - East (1) Straight line
(3) South – East (2) Straight line parallel to X axis
(4) South – West (3) Straight line parallel to Y axis
(4) Curved line
27. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of
10 kmh–1 and a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving 32. A moving body, whose momentum is constant,
Northwards with a speed of 10kmh–1. The time after must have constant and non-zero
which the distance between them becomes shortest is (1) Force
(1) 0 h (2) Velocity
(2) 5 h (3) Acceleration
(3) 5 2 h (4) All of these
(4) 10 2 h
33. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined plane
28. A boy sitting on the topmost berth in the making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The
compartment of a train which is just going to stop at coefficient of static friction between the block and
a railway station, drops an apple aiming at the open the plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the block is
hand of his brother sitting vertically below his hands (1) 10 N
at a distance of about 3 metre. The apple will fall (2) 7 3 N
(1) Precisely on the hand of his brother
(3) 10  3 N
(2) Slightly away from the hand of his brother in
the direction of motion of the train (4) 7 N
(3) Slightly away from the hand of his brother in
the direction opposite to the direction of train 34. A ball of mass 10 kg and another ball of mass 20 kg
(4) None of the above are dropped from equal height. If time taken by the
balls are t1 and t2 respectively, then
29. A particle moves in x – y plane according to rule (1) t1 = t2/4
x = a sin t and y = a cos t. The particle follows (2) t1 = t2
(1) an elliptical path (3) t1 = t2/2
(2) a circular path (4) t1 = 4t2

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35. A 60 kg man stands is a lift. The apparent weight of Reason: Because distance can’t be negative but
the man when the lift starts moving downwards displacement can be negative.
with an acceleration of 1.5 m/s2 is
(use g = 9.806 ms–2) 40. A body of mass 2 kg is at rest on a horizontal table.
(1) 65 kgf The coefficient of friction between the body and the
(2) 50.81 kgf
table is 0.3. A force of 5 N is applied on the body.
(3) 60 kgf
The force of friction is
(4) 55 kgf
(1) 5 N
SECTION - B (2) 5.88 N
36-39 question are based on assertion & reason (3) 6 N
Direction: Each of these questions contain two (4) 20 N
statements.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also 41. Two forces of magnitude F have a resultant of the
has four alternative choices, only one is correct. same magnitude F. The angle between the two
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct and forces is:
reason is correct explanation for assertion. (1) 45°
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct and (2) 120°
reason is not correct explanation for assertion. (3) 150°
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect (4) 60°

(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 42. A car moves from O to D along the path OABCD
shown in figure. What is distance travelled and net
36. Assertion: Force of action and reaction do not displacement.
cancel each other.
Reason: Forces of action and reaction are equal in
magnitude and opposite in direction.

(1) 16, 5
37. Assertion: A man who falls from a height on a (2) 17, 5
cement floor receive more injury than when he falls (3) 20, 4
from the same height on a heap of sand. (4) 15, 3
Reason: The impulse given by cement floor is more
than the impulse given by a heap of sand. 43. Which of the following options is correct for
magnitude of acceleration
dV
38. Assertion: A frame accelerated with respect to an (1)
dt
inertial frame is a non- inertial frame.
dV
Reason: The concept of pseudo force is valid for (2)
dt
both inertial as well as non-inertial frame.
dV
(3)
39. Assertion: Speed can’t be negative, but velocity dt
can be negative. (4) none of these

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44. A body is moving with uniform acceleration 47. Calculate the acceleration using the graph shown
describes 40 m in the first 5 sec and 65 m in next below.
5 sec. Its initial velocity will be
(1) 4 m/s
(2) 2.5 m/s
(3) 5.5 m/s
(4) 11 m/s

45. A stone thrown upwards with a speed ‘u’ from the

top of the tower reaches the ground with a velocity (1) m/s2
3u. The height of the tower is: (2) 5 m/s2
4u 2 (3) 3 m/s2
(1)
g (4) 1.5 m/s2

4u 2 48. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the

(2)
2g particle moving on a semi-circle track of radius 5 m
8u 2 if it takes 2.5 s to move from A to B?
(3)
g

7u 2
(4)
g
(1) 1 km
46. Which one of the following curves do not represent (2) 2.5 m/s
motion in one dimension- (3) 4 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

(1) 49. Which of the following quantities is not a vector

quantity?
(1) Velocity
(2) Force
(2) (3) Speed
(4) Acceleration

50. If a swift car travelling at 10 m/s takes a U-turn in

10 s without changing its speed, find the average
(3)
acceleration of the car.
(1) 1/2 m/s2
(2) –1 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) (4) –2 m/s2

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 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 56. 5 L of an alkane requires 25 L of oxygen for its
51. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic complete combustion. If all volumes are
gas is (NA = 6.022 1023 mol−1 ) measured at constant temperature and pressure,
the alkane is:
(1) 6.026 1022 (1) Isobutane
(2) 1.807  1023 (2) Ethane
(3) Butane
(3) 3.600 1023
(4) Propane
(4) 1.800  1022
57. An element, X has the following isotopic
composition:
52. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL 200
X : 90%, 199 X :8.0%, 202 X : 2.0%
of its solution. The concentration of solution is
The weighted average atomic mass of the
(1) 0.02 M
naturally occurring element X is closest to
(2) 0.01 M (1) 201u
(3) 0.001 M (2) 202u
(4) 0.1 M (3) 199u
(4) 200u
53. The number of water molecules is maximum in
58. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight.
(1) 18 molecules of water
The molar mass of haemoglobin is approximately
(2) 1.8 g of water 67200 g. The number of iron atoms (at. weight of Fe
(3) 18 g of water is 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin are
(4) 18 moles of water (1) 1
(2) 6
54. 1 cc N2O at STP contains (3) 4
1.8 (4) 2
(1)  1022 atoms
224
59. The number of significant figures for the three
6.02
(2)  1023 molecules measurement 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm are
22400
(1) 3, 4 and 5 respectively
1.32
(3)  1023 electrons (2) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
224
(3) 3, 3 and 4 respectively
(4) All of the above (4) 3, 3 and 3 respectively

55. At STP, the density of CCl4 vapour in g/L will be 60. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of
nearest to N3− ion is (NA is the Avogadro's number)
(1) 6.87 (1) 2.1 NA
(2) 3.42 (2) 4.2 NA
(3) 10.26 (3) 1.6 NA
(4) 4.57 (4) 3.2 NA

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61. What is the weight of oxygen required for the 66. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed
complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene? by
(1) 2.8 kg (1) azimuthal quantum number
(2) 6.4 kg (2) spin quantum number
(3) 9.6 kg (3) magnetic quantum number
(4) 96 kg (4) principal quantum number

62. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for 67. In hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is
which n = 3 and l = 1? –3.4 eV. Then, KE of same orbit of hydrogen
(1) 2 atom is
(2) 6 (1) +3.4 eV
(3) 10 (2) +6.8 eV
(4) 14 (3) –13.6 eV
(4) +13.6 eV
63. The orbital angular momentum of electrons in d
orbital is equal to 68. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with
mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is
(1) 6
(1) 6.63 × 10–33 m
(2) 2
(2) 6.63 × 10–33 m
(3) 2 3 (3) 6.63 × 10–35 m
(4) 0 (4) 6.65 × 10–36 m
64. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
valence electron of rubidium atom (at. no. = 37) 69. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is
is 1  10 −5 kg m/s . The uncertainty in its position
1
(1) 5,1,1, + will be (Given, h = 6.62 10−34 kg m2 /s )
2
1 (1) 1.05 10−28 m
(2) 6,0,0, +
2 (2) 1.05 10−26 m
1
(3) 5,0,0, + (3) 5.27 10−30 m
2
1 (4) 5.25 10−28 m
(4) 5,1,0, +
2
70. The orbitals are called degenerate when
65. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an (1) they have the same wave functions
atom is determined by the following (2) they have the same wave functions but
(1) 4l + 2 different energies
(2) 2l + 1 (3) they have different wave functions but same
(3) 4l – 2 energy
(4) 2n2 (4) they have the same energy

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71. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state 76. The IUPAC name of the compound
is 0.53 Å. The radius of Li2+ ion (at. no. = 3) in a
similar state is
is
(1) 0.17 Å
(2) 0.53 Å
(3) 0.265 Å (1) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
(4) 1.06 Å (2) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
(3) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
72. Electronic configuration of calcium atom can be (4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
written as
(1) [Ne]4p 2 77. The IUPAC name of the compound having the
(2) [Ar] 4s 2 formula CH  C—CH = CH2 is
(1) 3-butene-1-yne
(3) [Ne] 4s2
(2) 1-butyn-3-ene
(4) [Kr] 4p2 (3) but-1-yne-3-ene
(4) 1-butene-3-yne
73. The number of spherical nodes in 3p-orbital is/are
(1) one 78. How many stereoisomers does this molecule
(2) three have?
(3) two CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3
(4) None of these (1) 4
(2) 6
74. In the photoelectron emission, the energy of the (3) 8
emitted electron is (4) 2
(1) greater than the incident photon
(2) same as that of the incident photon 79. Which one of the following pairs represents
(3) smaller than the incident photon stereoisomerism?
(4) proportional to the intensity of incident photon (1) Chain isomerism and rotational isomerism
(2) Structural isomerism and geometrical
75. If uncertainty in position and momentum are isomerism
equal, then uncertainty in velocity is (3) Linkage isomerism and geometrical
1 h isomerism
(1)
2m  (4) Optical isomerism and geometrical
isomerism
h
(2)
2
80. Geometrical isomers differ in
1 h
(3) (1) position of functional group
m  (2) position of atoms
h (3) spatial arrangement of atoms
(4)
 (4) length of carbon chain

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81. Which of the following will exhibit chirality? 87. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of
(1) 2-methyl hexane a solute in:
(2) 3-methyl hexane (1) 1000 g of the solvent
(3) Neopentane (2) one litre of the solvent
(4) Isopentane
(3) one litre of the solution
(4) 22.4 litres of the solution
82. The process of separation of a racemic
modification into d and l-enantiomers is called
(1) resolution 88. The total number of electrons in one molecule of
(2) dehydration carbon dioxide is
(3) revolution (1) 22
(4) dehydrohalogenation (2) 44
83. The IUPAC name of (3) 66
CH 3 —CH— CH = C—CHO (4) 88
| |
OH CH3
(1) 4-hydroxy-1-methyl pentanal 89. Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. wt. of Fe
(2) 4-hydroxy-2-methyl pent-2-en-1-al = 55.85 g mol–1) is
(3) 2-hydroxy-4-methyl pent-3-en-5-al (1) twice that in 60 g carbon
(4) 2-hydroxy-3-methyl pent-2-en-5-al (2) 6.023 × 1022
(3) half that in 8 g He
84. Isomers of a substance must have the same (4) 558.5 × 6.023 × 1023
(1) structural formula
(2) physical properties
90. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid
(3) chemical properties
solution that is 29% H2SO4 (molar mass = 98 g
(4) molecular formula
mol–1) by mass will be

85. How many structural isomers could be obtained (1) 1.45

from the alkane, C6H14? (2) 1.64
(1) Four (3) 1.88
(2) Five (4) 1.22
(3) Six
(4) Seven
91. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion
SECTION-B 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical
86. In which mode of expression, the concentration of formula of the hydrocarbon is:
a solution remains independent of temperature? (1) C2H4
(1) Molarity
(2) C3H4
(2) Normality
(3) Formality (3) C6H5
(4) Molality (4) C7H8

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92. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. (3) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
no. of Fe = 26) ion is
(4) CH3 − CH2 − C  CH
(1) 4
(2) 5
97. Which of the following molecules is expected to
(3) 6 rotate the plane of plane-polarised light?
(4) 3

(1)
93. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular
momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is
(1) 10 h/
(2) 2.5 h/ (2)
(3) 25 h/
(4) 1.0 h/
(3)
94. Which one of the following sets of ions represents
a collection of isoelectronic species?
(1) N3–, O2–, F–, S2– (4)
(2) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
(3) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+
98. The IUPAC name of neopentane is
(4) Ba2+, Sr2+, K+, Ca2+ (1) 2, 2 dimethylpropane
(2) 2-methylpropane
95. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in (3) 3, 3 dimethylpropane
ground state is 13.6 eV, then that in the 2nd excited (4) 2-methylbutane
state is
(1) 1.51 eV 99. Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism:
(2) 3.4 eV (1) 2-Butene
(3) 6.04 eV (2) Lactic acid
(3) 2-Pentanone
(4) 13.6 eV
(4) Cyclohexane

96. Amongst the following compounds, the optically 100. The transition from the state n=3 to n=1 in a
active alkane is hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation.
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition
from
(1)
(1) 3 → 2
(2) 4 → 2
CH3 (3) 4 → 3
|
(2) CH3 − CH2 − CH − CH3 (4) 2 → 1

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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION-A 105. The lysosomal hydrolases are able to digest
101. If we used taxonomy along with evolutionary (1) Proteins and carbohydrates only
relationships then this is called (2) Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic
(1) Systematics acids
(2) Classification (3) Proteins and lipids only
(3) Taxonomic hierarchy
(4) Carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acid only
(4) Taxonomical aids

106. Which of the following show division by fission?

102. Identify incorrect statement
(1) Mitochondria
(1) Meiosis increases the genetic variability
(2) Meiosis is important for the formation of (2) Ribosomes
haploid cells (3) Microbodies
(3) The growth of multicellular organisms is due to (4) Lysosomes
mitosis 107. One can’t found following in power house of the cell?
(4) Meiotic division occurs in meristematic cells (1) Circular DNA
(2) 80S ribosome
103. Match the following columns and choose the (3) Infoldings of its inner membrane
correct option. (4) RNA molecules
Column I Column II

a Leptotene (i) Terminalisation of 108. In mustard plant, oils and fats are mainly stored in
(1) Aleuroplast
chiasmata (2) Amyloplast
b Diplotene (ii) Chiasmata formation (3) Elaioplast
(4) Chloroplast
c Pachytene (iii) Use of recombinase

enzyme 109. Read the following statements.

P. Golgi apparatus is the important site of
d Diakinesis (iv) Compaction of
formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
chromosome Q. Enzymes of lysosomes are optimally active at
basic pH.
(1) a→(ii), b→ iii), c→(iv), d→(i)
R. Plant vacuole is bound by a single membrane
(2) a→(iv), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(i)
called tonoplast.
(3) a→(iv), b→(ii), c→(i), d→(iii)
S. Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein
(4) a→(iii), b→(ii), c→(i), d→(iv)
synthesis only.
How many is/are correct?
104. Which of the following found in chromatin?
(1) One
(1) DNA and RNA only
(2) DNA and some basic proteins only (2) Two
(3) DNA, histones, non-histones proteins and RNA (3) Three
(4) Only DNA (4) Four

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110. How many of following is/are correctly matched? 114. Match the following columns and choose the correct
P. Botanical – Ex-situ conservation option
garden strategy Column I Column II

Q. Herbarium – Quick referral system in a Chromatin (i) Genetically active

taxonomical studies portion
R. Key – Based on contrasting
b Euchromatin (ii) Indistinct network
characters of nucleoprotein
S. Monograph – Account of habitat and fibres
distribution of plants in a
c Heterochromati (iii) Basic protein
given area n
(1) P and S only
d Histone protein (iv) Genetically
(2) S only
inactive
(3) P, Q and R
(4) P and R only portion

111. A bacterium divides amitotically in 20 minutes. A (1) a→(ii), b→(iii), c→(i), d→(iv)
suspension culture of these bacteria containing (2) a→(ii), b→(i), c→(iv), d→(iii)
104 cells/ml is grown for 160 minutes. Find out cell (3) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(ii), d→(i)
concentration per ml in 160 minutes. (4) a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(iv)
(1) 8 × 104
(2) 104 115. The enzymes required for the synthesis of
carbohydrates and proteins are located in _____of
(3) 256 × 104
chloroplasts?
(4) 160 × 104
(1) Thylakoid
(2) Grana
112. DNA content in a pollen grain of an angiospermic
(3) Stroma
plant is 30pg. Find out the DNA content of the
(4) Stroma lamella
pollen mother cell during G2 phase.
(1) 15pg 116. Which of the following is not feature of plant cell
(2) 30pg wall?
(3) 60pg (1) Protects the cell from bursting
(4) 120pg (2) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
(3) Protect the cells from infections
113. Recombinase enzyme mediated process between (4) Involves in active transport of materials
homologous chromosomes is completed by the end 117. Which of the following possess majority of
of chloroplasts?
(1) Pachytene (1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Diplotene (2) Mesophyll cells
(3) Zygotene (3) Root cells
(4) Diakinesis (4) None of these

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118. Cell membrane of animal cell 124. The core of Paramoecium cilia is called axoneme,
(1) Does not contain cholesterol which is made up of
(2) Contains lipids and proteins only (1) Filament, hook and basal body
(3) Contains lipids, proteins, carbohydrates and (2) 9 centrally located doublets and 2 microtubules at
cholesterol periphery
(4) Does not contain carbohydrates (3) 2 centrally located microtubules and 9 doublets at
periphery
119. Order Polymoniales includes the families. (4) Central hub and 11 peripheral doublets
P. Poaceae
Q. Solanaceae 125. Select the option accordingly.
R. Convolvulaceae P. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated with
(1) P and Q only the plasma membrane of the cell
(2) P and R only Q. Several ribosomes on a single mRNA form a
(3) P, Q and R structure called polysome
(4) Q and R only R. Polysome translates the protein into mRNA
P Q R
120. During gamete formation, bivalent or a tetrad is (1) T F T
formed in (2) F T T
(3) T F F
(1) Zygotene
(4) T T F
(2) Diplotene
(3) Leptotene
126 Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. cylindrical
(4) Diakinesis
structure found in centrosome
(1) Form the basal body of cilia
121. The short-lived phase between meiosis I and meiosis
(2) Form the basal body of bacterial flagellum
II is not characterized with (3) Give rise to spindle apparatus by the formation
(1) Centriole duplication in animal cells of spindle fibres
(2) RNA synthesis (4) Contain nine peripheral triplets
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) DNA replication 127. Mesosome found in gram positive bacteria is
(1) Small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA
122. During reduction division, centromere splits during (2) A specialised differentiated form of cell
(1) Metaphase II membrane
(2) Anaphase II (3) Fluid matrix of the cytoplasm
(3) Metaphase I (4) A structure on their cell wall
(4) Anaphase I
128. How many of the following are taxa?
123. 70S Ribosomes are made up of Dogs, Cats, Mammals, Wheat, Rice, Plants,
Animals.
(1) Ribonucleic acid and proteins surrounded by a
(1) 3
unit membrane
(2) 4
(2) Ribonucleic acid and proteins
(3) 5
(3) Flattened membranous sacs (4) 7
(4) Both (1) & (2)

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129. Metaphasic chromosome is made up of 134. Read the following statements
(1) 2 sister chromatids P. The eukaryotic cells have membrane bound
(2) 4 sister chromatids nucleus
(3) 2 non-homologous chromosomes Q. All living organisms are composed of cells and
(4) 2 homologous chromosomes products of cells
R. All cells arise from pre-existing cells
130. Identify karyokinesis stage where chromosomal
S. Prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria,
material condenses to form compact mitotic
blue green algae
chromosomes. This process starts during
Which of the above statements are considered to be
(1) Metaphase
part of cell theory after Virchow contribution?
(2) Prophase
(3) Telophase (1) P and Q only
(4) Anaphase (2) Q and R only
(3) Q and S only
131. During gut cell division, DNA replication occurs (4) P, Q, R and S
during
(1) S-phase 135. Which of the following is/are defining feature of all
(2) G2-phase life forms?
(3) G1-phase (1) Reproduction and consciousness
(4) G0-phase (2) Isolated metabolic reactions in test-tube
(3) Self-consciousness and intrinsic growth
132. Match the following columns and choose the (4) Cellular organisation and metabolism
correct option.
Column-I Column-II
SECTION-B
a Bacillus (i) Spiral 136. In metacentric chromosome, the centromere is
located
b Coccus (ii) Comma shaped
(1) At the middle of chromosome
c Vibrio (iii) Spherical (2) Slightly away from the middle of chromosome
(3) Close to one end of chromosome
d Spirillum (iv) Rod like
(4) At the end of the chromosome
(1) a→(ii), b→(i), c→(iv), d→(iii)
(2) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(ii), d→(i) 137. The nuclear pores are the passages through which
(3) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(i), d→(ii) movement of RNA and protein molecules takes
(4) a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(iv) place
(1) In one direction i.e. from the nucleus to the
133. Which of the following organelles is found in both cytoplasm only
Nitrosomonas and Saccharomyces? (2) In both directions between the nucleus and
(1) Lysosome cytoplasm
(2) ER (3) Only inside of the nucleus
(3) Ribosome
(4) In uncontrolled manner
(4) Food vacuoles

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138. The number and different types of organisms 145. Cytoplasmic compartmentalisations are absent in
present on earth is termed as (1) Mesophyll cells
(1) Population (2) Nerve cells
(2) Flora (3) Mycoplasma
(3) Biodiversity
(4) Epithelial cells
(4) Taxa

139. The quiescent stage of cell is 146. Sometimes few chromosomes have non-staining
(1) An inactive stage of cell w.r.t. cell division secondary constriction at a constant location.
(2) An abnormal stage of dividing cell This gives the appearance of a small fragment called ___.
(3) Seen only in meristematic tissues (1) Short arm
(4) Not found in higher animals (2) Satellite
(3) Kinetochore
140. The phase between two successive M phases is
(4) Telomere
called
(1) Interkinesis
(2) Metaphase 147. Select the mis-matched pair.
(3) Anaphase (1) Diplotene : Represents transition
(4) Interphase to metaphase
(2) G1-phase : Most organelle
141. Exchange of genetic material between homologous duplication takes
chromosomes occurs during place
(1) Replacement of old dead cells (3) Quiescent stage : Cells metabolically
(2) Gametogenesis
active
(3) Meiosis-II only
(4) Meristem cell division (4) Pachytene : Crossing over

142. The site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis in 148. Read the statements from the followings
human is P. Properties of cellular organelles are present in
(1) Ribosome the molecular constituents of the organelles.
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum Q. Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving
(3) Golgi apparatus and self-regulating interactive systems.
(4) Nucleolus
R. All living organisms are linked to one another
143. Conclusion that the presence of cell wall is a unique by sharing of common genetic material but to
character of plant cells was given by varying degrees.
(1) Schleiden S. Plants do not respond to factors like light,
(2) Schwann temperature, pollutants etc.
(3) R. Virchow T. Extrinsic growth is a fundamental defining
(4) R. Brown feature of living organisms.
How many is/are correct?
144. Which of the following is found in animal cells?
(1) One
(1) Microbodies
(2) Two
(2) Cell wall
(3) Chromoplast (3) Three
(4) Leucoplast (4) Four

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149. Match the structures given in column-I with their 150. The primary cell wall of a young plant cell is/has
functions/explanations given in column-II, and (1) Secondary wall on outer side
select the most appropriate answer? (2) Made of calcium pectate
Column-I Column-II (3) Calcium carbonate deposition
(4) Capable of growth
a Inclusion (i) Increases surface area
bodies and enzymatic content
of plasma membrane

b Plasmid (ii) Several ribosomes

DNA attach to a single
mRNA

c Polysome (iii) Reserve materials in

the cytoplasm of
prokaryotes

d Mesosome (iv) Confers certain unique

phenotypic characters
to bacteria

(1) a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(iv)

(2) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(ii), d→(i)
(3) a→(iii), b→(iv), c→(ii), d→(i)
(4) a→(iii), b→(ii), c→(iv), d→(i)

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 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 156. Which of the following layers of alimentary canal
151. Choose the incorrect match forms villi?
(1) Skeletal muscle fibres – Multinucleated (1) Serosa
(2) Cardiac muscle fibres - Branched in appearance (2) Mucosa
(3) Visceral muscle fibres - Involuntary in nature (3) Submucosa
(4) Smooth muscle fibres - Cylindrical in appearance (4) Muscularis

152. Select the incorrect events that occur during 157. Which of the following tissues perform the
inspiration function of linking and supporting other
(1) Contraction of diaphragm tissues/organs of the body?
(2) Contraction of external intercostal muscles (1) Epithelial tissue
(3) Pulmonary volume increases (2) Muscular tissue
(4) Intra pulmonary pressure increases (3) Connective tissue
(4) Nervous tissue
153. Identify the correct statement with reference to the
human digestive system 158. Which of the following prevents the entry of food
(1) Ileum opens into the small intestine into the glottis during intake of food?
(2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the (1) Glottis itself prevents the entry of food into
alimentary canal glottis
(3) Ileum is a highly coiled part of small intestine (2) Food entry is prevented by air present in windpipe
(4) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum (3) Food entry into glottis is prevented by
annular rings of pharynx
154. How many hepatic caeca are present at the (4) Food entry is prevented by epiglottis into glottis
junction of foregut and midgut in alimentary canal
of cockroach? 159. Brood pouch in a female cockroach is formed by
(1) 4-6
(1) 7th sternum only
(2) 2-4
(2) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum
(3) 6-8
(3) 9th, 12th, 11th sternum
(4) 10-12
(4) 11th and 12th sternum only

155. Which of the following animals respire via buccal

160. Which of the following guards the opening of
cavity, moist skin and lungs?
hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
(1) Hydra
(1) Pyloric sphincter
(2) Frog
(2) Sphincter of Oddi
(3) Sycon
(3) Semilunar valve
(4) Earthworm
(4) Ileocecal valve

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161. Pneumotaxic centre is related to ____A___ and 166. Match the following and choose the correct option
located in _____B______ Animal Respiratory
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly organ
A B
A. Earthworm I. Moist cuticle
(1) Inhibition of Lungs B. Insects II. Gills
inhalation
C. Fishes III. Lungs
(2) Switching off the Pons
inspiration D. Birds/Reptiles IV. Tracheal tubes

(3) Stimulation of Medulla A B C D

exhalation oblongata (1) II I IV III
(2) I IV II III
(4) Increasing breathing Cerebral cortex (3) I III II IV
rate (4) I II IV III

167. Ligament forms a connection between

162. Total number of spiracles in cockroach is
(1) Muscle to muscle
(1) 4
(2) Bone to muscle
(2) 10 (3) Bone to skin
(3) 6 (4) Bone to bone
(4) 20
168. Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms
163. How many salivary glands are present in human normally occur in the human body?
beings? (1) Caecum
(1) 6 (2) Oral lining
(2) 10 (3) Vermiform appendix
(3) 8 (4) Duodenum
(4) 12
169. Select mismatched pair w.r.t. respiratory volume
164. Structure responsible for cutting of food in and capacity
(1) Vital capacity - 4600 ml
cockroach is _________
(2) Tidal volume - 500 ml
(1) Mandibles
(3) Inspiratory capacity - 2300 ml
(2) Maxillae
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume- 3000 ml
(3) Hypopharynx
(4) Labium 170. Jointed filamentous structures present on tergum
of 10th segment in both male and female
165. Which of the following component of gastric juice cockroach are___________
inactivates salivary amylase? (1) Caudal style
(1) Mucus (2) Filiform antenna
(2) Rennin
(3) Anal style
(3) HC1
(4) Anal cerci
(4) Pepsin

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171. Castle’s intrinsic factor helps in____________
(1) Absorption of vitamin-B12 in ileum
(2) Absorption of vitamin-B7 in jejunum
(3) Digestion of proteins
(4) Digestion of carbohydrates and fats
172. All of the following statements are correct except
(1) Outer pleural membrane is in close contact
with the thoracic lining
(2) Inner pleural membrane is in contact with the
lung surface
(3) Pleural fluid is present between them
(4) Pleural fluid increases friction on the lung
surface
173. Which of the following statements is true
regarding the nocturnal vision of cockroach?
(1) Eye has 2000 hexagonal ommatidia
(2) With the help of ommatidia cells, it receives
several images of an object
(3) This kind of vision is of more sensitivity and
less resolution
(4) All of the above
174. Select the incorrect enzymatic reaction
(1) Sucrose ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Invertase
→ Glucose + Fructose
(2) Lactose ⎯⎯⎯→
Lactase
Glucose + Fructose
(3) Pepsinogen ⎯⎯⎯
→ Pepsin
HCl
(4) Maltose ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
Maltase
→ Glucose + Glucose
175. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Gastric caeca is present at the
junction of foregut and midgut
Statement II: Gastric caeca secrete digestive juice
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
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176. Muscularis is formed by smooth muscles usually
arranged into an inner ___A___ and outer ___B___
layer
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly
(1) A-circular B-longitudinal
(2) A-longitudinal B-circular
(3) A-circular B-oblique
(4) A-longitudinal B-oblique
177. Complete the analogy and choose the correct option
Ommatidia: 2000:: Ganglia:______
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 7
178. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Inspiration is an active process
Statement II: Expiration is a passive process
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
179. _________ lies within the cavity enclosed by the
mouthparts
(1) A posterior tough lobe, acting as tongue
(2) A median flexible lobe, acting as
hypopharynx
(3) An anterior flexible lobe, acting as labium
(4) A median flexible lobe, acting as labrum
180. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa
of stomach and secrete pepsinogen
(2) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of
intestine and secrete mucus
(3) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of
stomach and secrete HCl
(4) All of the above
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181. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. One of the major causes of this is
cigarette smoking. Identify the disorder
(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Bronchitis
(4) Fibrosis
182. Malpighian tubules are
(1) 100-120 yellow coloured thin filamentous structure
(2) 100-120 brown coloured thin filamentous structure
SECTION-B
186. Given below are two statements w.r.t. cockroach
Statement I: Alimentary canal present in the body
cavity is divided into three regions
Statement II: Mouth opens into a long tubular
pharynx leading to a wide tubular passage
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct

(3) 100-150 yellow coloured thin filamentous structure

187. Which of the following options correctly
(4) 100-150 yellow coloured thick chitinous structure represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively?
183. Which of the following options is correct w.r.t. (1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
respiratory surface
jaundice?
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
(1) Skin turns yellow respiratory surface
(2) Eyes turn yellow (3) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation
(3) Liver gets affected of bronchioles
(4) All of the above (4) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation
of bronchioles

184. Solubility of CO2 is ______ times higher than that 188. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. epithelial tissue
of O2 and its location
(1) 40 – 45 (1) Simple cuboidal epithelium - Lining of trachea
(2) 20 – 25 (2) Transitional epithelium - Lining of urinary
bladder
(3) 100 – 200
(3) Stratified epithelium - Lining of buccal cavity
(4) 200 – 300 (4) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium - PCT

185. The cilliated epithelial cells are required to move
particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in
(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles
(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(3) Vesicles of thyroid
(4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
189. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct option
I. Vomiting reflex is controlled by a neural
centre in medulla oblongata of brain
II. Pepsin in the gastric juice of infants helps in
the digestion of milk protein
(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(3) Both I & II are correct
(4) Both I & II are incorrect

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190. Select the incorrect match
(1) C-shaped cartilaginous – Trachea, bronchi
rings and initial bronchioles
(2) Pharynx – Common passage for food and air
(3) Intercostal muscles – Participate in both
inspiration and expiration
(4) Spirometer – Helps in measuring residual volume
during clinical assessment of lung function
191. Carrier proteins facilitate the absorption of
substances like ______
(1) Amino acids and glucose
(2) Glucose and fatty acids
(3) Fatty acids and glycerol
(4) Fructose and some amino acids
192. Heart of cockroach consists of elongated __A__
lying along __B__ of thorax and abdomen
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly
A B
(1) Neural tube Ventral line
(2) Muscular tube Mid dorsal line
(3) Muscular tube Lateral line
(4) Ectodermal tube Mid ventral line
193. Arrange the given steps of expiration in the
sequence of event occurring first
I. Relaxation of the diaphragm and sternum
II. Reduction of the pulmonary volume
III. Expulsion of air from the lungs
IV. Increase intrapulmonary pressure
Choose the correct option
(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) I → II → IV → III
(3) IV → III → II → I
(4) IV → II → III → I
194. Which of the following pairs of food components
in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
(1) Starch and fat
(2) Fat and cellulose
(3) Starch and cellulose
(4) Protein and starch
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195. Read the following statements w.r.t. epithelial
tissue and choose the correct option
A. Cells are compactly packed
B. Cells have no intercellular matrix
C. Cells have little intracellular material
D. It is single or multilayered
(1) A & D
(2) B & C
(3) A, C & D
(4) All of the above
196. Which of the following constituents of the
pancreatic juice poured into the duodenum in
human beings?
(1) Trypsinogen
(2) Chymotrypsin
(3) Trypsin
(4) Enterokinase
197. Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding FRC?
(1) FRC equals the expiratory reserve volume
plus the residual volume
(2) Amount of air that remains in the lungs at the
end of normal expiration
(3) It amounts to about 5000 milliliters
(4) All of the above
198. Read the following statements
I. Ground substance is hard and non-pliable
II. Rich in collagen fibres and calcium salts
III. Main tissue that provides structural
framework to the body
Identify the tissue on the basis of given
characteristics and choose the correct option
(1) Dense regular connective tissue
(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Loose connective tissue
(4) Specialised connective tissue
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199. The vermiform appendix is situated at the junction
of
(1) Large intestine and small intestine
(2) Small intestine and duodenum
(3) Anus and rectum
(4) Stomach and duodenum
200. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): O2 associated to haemoglobin in
the lung surface and gets dissociated at the tissues
Reason (R): CO2 associated to haemoglobin in the
tissue and gets dissociated at the alveoli
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In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
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