JUNIOR NEET WEEKLY TEST

Date: 11-10-2021 Max. Marks: 720

PHYSICS
1. At the maximum height of a projectile, the velocity and acceleration are
1)parallel to each other 2) antiparallel to each other
3)perpendicular to each other 4) inclined to each other at 45o
2. For a projectile, the physical quantity that remains constant is
1)Vertical component of velocity and kinetic energy
2)Potential energy and kinetic energy
3) Horizontal component of velocity and acceleration
4) Potential energy and acceleration
3. Two particles are projected with same velocity but at angles of projection  45    and  45    . Then their
horizontal ranges are in the ratio of
1)1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 1 4) none of the above
4. A number of bullets are fired horizontally with different velocities from the top of a tower they reach the
ground
1)at same time with same velocity 2) at different times with different velocities
3)at same time with different velocities 4) at different times with same velocity

5. A body is projected from a point with different angles of projections 200 , 350 , 450 , 600 with the horizontal
but with same initial speed. Their respective horizontal ranges are R1 , R 2 , R 3 and R 4 . Identify the correct
order in which the horizontal ranges are arranged in increasing order

1) R1, R 4 , R 2 ,R 4 2) R 2 , R1, R 4 , R 3 3) R1, R 2 , R 4 , R 3 4) R 4 , R1, R 2 , R 3

6. For a projectile 'R' is range and 'H' is maximum height

1)a – g ; b – h ; c – e ; d – f 2) a – h ; b – g ; c – e ; d – f
3) a – f ; b – g ; c – h ; d – e 4) a – e ; b – g ; c – f ; d – h

7. A body is projected with a velocity 60 ms1 at 30o to horizontal. Its initial velocity vector is
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
1) 10 i  10 3 j 2) 30 i  30 3 j 3) 30 3 i  30 j 4) 30 3 i
8. A body is projected with velocity u such that its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are same. The
maximum heights is

u2 3u 2 16u 2 8u 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2g 4g 17g 17g
9. The height y and horizontal distance x covered by a projectile in a time t seconds are given by the equations

y = 8t – 5 t 2 and x = 6t. If x and y are measured in metres, the velocity of projection is

1) 8 ms -1 2) 6 ms-1 3) 14 ms-1 4) 10 ms-1

10. A body is projected at an angle 30o to the horizontal with a speed of 30 ms1 . The angle made by the velocity
vector with the horizontal after 1.5 s is (g=10 ms 2 )

1) zero 2) 60o 3) 45o 4) 90o

11. The potential energy of a projectile at maximum height is 3/4 times kinetic energy of projection. Its angle of
projection is

1) 30o 2) 45o 3) 60o 4) none

12. A grass hopper can jump a maximum horizontal distance of 0.3m. If it spends negligible time on ground, its
horizontal component of velocity is (g=10 ms 2 )

3 3 1 1 2 1
1) ms 1 2) ms 3) ms 1 4) ms
2 2 2 3
13. A ball is thrown with velocity u making an angle q with the horizontal. Its velocity vector is normal to initial
velocity (u) vector after a time interval of

uSin u u uCos
1) 2) 3) 4)
g g cos  gSin g
14. A body is projected with velocity 24ms–1 making an angle 30° with the horizontal. The vertical component of
its velocity after 2s is (g= ms1 )

1) 8ms1 upward 2) 8ms1 down ward 3) 32 ms1 upward 4) 32 ms1 down ward

15. An object is projected with a velocity of 20 ms1 making an angle of 45o with horizontal. The equation for the
trajectory is h=Ax-B x 2 where 'h' is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B are constants. The ratio A and B
is (g= 10 ms 2 )

1) 1:5 2) 5:1 3) 1:40 4) 40 :1

16. A body is projected at angle 30o to horizontal on a planet with a velocity of 80 ms 1 its time of flight is 4
seconds then acceleration due to gravity on that planet is

1) 2ms 2 2) 5ms 2 3) 10ms 2 4) 20ms 2

17. Two particles are projected with same velocity but at angles of projection 35o and 55o . Then their horizontal
ranges are in the ratio of
1)1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 1 4) 4 : 1
18. The potential energy of a projectile at its maximum height is equal to its kinetic energy there. Its range for
velocity of projection u is

u2 u2 2u 2 2u
1) 2) 3) 4)
2g g g g
19. The equations of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36t metre and 2y=96t - 9.8 t 2 metre. The angle of
projection is

 4  3  4  3
1) sin 1   2) sin 1   3) sin 1   4) sin 1  
5 5  3  4
20. Two tall buildings are 40m apart. With what speed must a ball be thrown horizontally from a window 145 m
above the ground in one building, so that it will enter a window 22.5m above the ground in other?
1) 4 m/s 2) 10 m/s 3) 8 m/s 4)16 m/s
21. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity of  m/s from the top of a tower of height 2h reaches the
ground in ‘t’ seconds. If another body double the mass is thrown horizontally with a velocity 5 from the top
of another tower of height 8h it reaches the ground in a time of
1) 2t 2) 4t 3) 6t 4) 8t
22. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity of 20 m/s. After what time the vertical
component of velocity is four times the horizontal component of velocity? (g = 10 m / s 2 )

1) 16 sec 2) 8sec 3) 4 sec 4) 2 sec

23. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity of 30 m/s. the velocity of the body 4
seconds after projection is (g = 10 ms 2 )

1) 40ms 1 2) 20ms 1 3) 50 ms 1 4) 100ms 1

24. A sphere rolls off the top of a stairway with a horizontal velocity of magnitude 200 cm/sec. The steps are 10cm
high and 10cm wide. Which step will the ball hit first ? (g=10 m / s 2 )
1) 8 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6
25. At a certain height a body at rest explodes into two equal fragments with one fragment receiving a horizontal
velocity of 10 ms1 . The time interval after the explosion for which the velocity vectors of the two fragments
become perpendicular to each other is (g=10 ms 2 )

1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 1.5 s 4) 1.75 s
26. The nature of change in internal energy in case of processes shown below is

1) +ve in all cases 2) –ve in all cases

3) –ve in 1 and 3 and +ve in 2 and 4 4) zero in all cases
27. If a system undergoes contraction of volume then the work done by the system will be
1)Zero 2)Negligible 3)Negative 4)Positive
28. Triatomic gas is heated isothermally. The percentage of the heat energy is used to increase the
internal energy is
1) 0% 2) 14% 3) 60% 4) 100%
29. One mole of O2 gas having a volume equal to 22.4 litres at 0 o C and 1 atmospheric pressure in
compressed isothermally so that its volume reduces to 11.2 litres. The work done in this process is
1) 1672.5 J 2) 1728 J 3) 1728J 4) 1572.5 J
30. In an isobaric (constant pressure) process. The correct ratio is
1) Q : U  1:1 2) Q : U  1:   1 3) Q : U    1:1 4) Q : U   :1

31. When 1 gm of water at 0 o C and 1  10 5 N / m 2 pressure is converted into ice of volume 1 . 091 cm 2 , the
external work done will be
1) 0.0091 joule 2) 0.0182 joule 3) – 0.0091 joule 4) – 0.0182 joule
32. A Carnot engine takes 3 106 cal of heat from a reservoir at 627 o C and gives it to a sink at 27 o C . The
work done by the engine is
1) 4.2  106 J 2) 8.4 106 J 3) 16.8 106 J 4) zero
33. A cylinder fitted with a piston contains 0.2 moles of air at temperature 27°C. The piston is pushed so
slowly that the air within the cylinder remains in thermal equilibrium with the surroundings. Find the
approximate work done by the system if the final volume is twice the initial volume
1) 543 J 2) 345 J 3) 453 J 4) 600 J
34. An ideal gas undergoes a circular cycle as shown in the figure. The ratio of maximum temperature of
cycle to minimum temperature of cycle is

2 2 2 2
 1 2   2 2  3 2   4 2 
1)   2)   3)   4)  
 2 1   2 2   3 2   4 2 
35. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
1) Its internal energy decreases
2) Its internal energy does not change
3) The work done by the gas is equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it
4) Both 2 and 3 are correct
36. By opening the door of a refrigerator inside a closed room
1) you can cool the room to a certain degree
2) you can cool it to the temperature inside the refrigerator
 3) you can ultimately warm the room slightly
4) you can neither cool nor warm the room
37. The pressure in the tyre of a car is four times the atmospheric pressure at 300 K. If this tyre suddenly
bursts, its new temperature will be (  1 .4 )
0.4/1.4
1
1) 300(4)1.4/0.4 2) 300   3) 300(2)0.4/1.4 4) 300(4)0.4/1.4
4
38. 70 cal of heat is required to rise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure from
30o C to 35o C . The amount of heat required to rise the temperature of same gas through the same
range at constant volume is (R = 2cal mole 1K 1 )
1) 28 J 2) 50 cal 3) 75 J 4) zero
39. The amount of work done in an adiabatic expansion from temperature T to T1 is
R
1) R (T  T1 ) 2) (T  T1 ) 3) RT 4) R (T  T1 )(  1)
 1

40. A system changes from the state  P1 , V1  to  P2 , V2  as shown in the diagram. The work done by the
system is

1) 12 10 4 J 2) 12 108 J 3) 12 105 J 4) 6 10 4 J

41. An ideal gas is expanded adiabatically at an initial temperature of 300 K so that its volume is doubled.
The final temperature of the hydrogen gas is (  1 .40 )
1) 227.36 K 2) 500.30 K 3) 454.76 K 4)  47 o C

42. Two identical samples of gases are allowed to expand to the same final volume (i) isothermally (ii)
adiabatically. Work done is
1) more in the isothermal process 2) more in the adiabatic process
3) equivalent in both process 4) equal in all processes
43. Work done by air when it expands from 50 litresto 150 litresat a constant pressure of 2 atmosphere is
1) 2  10 4 joules 2) 2  100 joules 3) 2  10 5  100 joules 4) 2  10 5  100 joules

44. dU + dW = 0 is valid for

1) adiabatic process 2) isothermal process 3) isobaric process 4) isochoric process
45. How much work to be done in decreasing the volume of and ideal gas by an amount of 2 . 4  10 4 m 3 at
normal temperature and constant normal pressure of 1  10 5 N / m 2
1) 28 joule 2) 27 joule 3) 25 joule 4) 24 joule
 CHEMISTRY
46. 5 mL of 1M HCl, 20 mL of 2M H 2SO 4 and 30 mL of 3M HNO3 are mixed together and volume made
to one litre. The normality of the resulting solution is
1) 5M 2) 10M 3) 20 M 4) 2.45 M
47. Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
1) Molarity 2) Mole fraction 3) Weight percentage 4) Molality
48. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution?
1) 1.770 2) 0.0354 3) 0.0177 4) 0.177

49. If the density of methanol is 0.8 kg L1 , what is its volume needed for making 4 L of its 0.25 M
solution?
1) 4 mL 2) 8 mL 3) 40 mL 4) 80 mL
50. 25 mL of 3 M HNO3 is mixed with 75 mL of 4 M HCl, the molarity of the resulting solution is

1) 2.75 M 2) 1.65 M 3) 3.75 M 4) 2.05 M

51. The molality of a solution having 18 g of glucose (mol. Wt. = 180) dissolved in 500 g of water is
1) 0.2 M 2) 0.1 M 3) 2.2 M 4) 0.5 M
52. When the concentration is expressed as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of the solvent, it
is known as
1) molarity 2) molality 3) normality 4) mole fraction
53. Molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (CH 3COOH) in 75 g benzene is

1) 0.565mol kg 1 2) 0.656mol kg 1 3) 0.556mol kg 1 4) 0.665mol kg 1

54. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M
HNO3 ? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO3 .

1) 70.0 g conc. HNO3 2) 54.0 g conc. HNO3

3) 45.0 g conc. HNO3 4) 90.0 g conc. HNO3

55. Unit of molality is

1) moles/litre 2) moles/kg 3) kg/moles 4) millimoles/gram
56. Which of the following is not affected by temperature change?
1) Molarity 2) Normality 3) Molality 4) Formality

57. When 25 g of Na 2SO 4 is dissolved in 103 kg of solution, its concentration will be

1) 2.5 ppm 2) 25 ppm 3) 250 ppm 4) 100 ppm

58. 36 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g/mol) is present in 500 g of water, the molarity of the solution is
1) 0.2 2) 0.4 3) 0.8 4) 1.0
59. H 2O2 is sold as a solution of approximately 5.0 g H 2O 2 per 100 ml of the solution. The molarity of
this solution is approximately
1) 0.15 M 2) 1.5 M 3) 3.0 M 4) 3.4 M
60. The molarity of a solution having 180g of glucose dissolved in 1000ml of water is
1) 1 M 2) 0.5 M 3) 0.2 M 4) 2 M
61. If 5.85 g of NaCl is dissolved in 90 g of water, the mole fraction of solute is
1) 0.0196 2) 0.01 3) 0.1 4) 0.2
62. Mass percentage (w/w) of ethylene glycol ( HOCH 2  CH 2OH ) in a aqueous solution is 20, then mole
fraction of solute is
1) 0.5 2) 0.067 3) 0.1 4) 0.4
63. 100 ml of ethylalcohol is made upto a litre with distilled water. If the density of C2 H 5OH is 0.46
gr/ml. then its molality is
1) 0.55m 2) 1.11m 3) 2.22m 4) 3.33m

64. The mass of Na 2CO3 required to prepare 500ml of 0.1M solution is

1) 10.6g 2) 5.3g 3) 2.65g 4) 7.95g

65. The molarity of NaOH in the solution prepared by dissolving its 4 g in enough water to from 250 mL
of the solution is
1) 0.2 2) 0.4 3) 0.1 4) 0.25
66. The molarity of pure water is
1) 100 M 2) 55.6M 3) 50 M 4) 18 M

67. Mole fraction of C3H5  OH 3 in a solution of 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is

1) 0.46 2) 0.36 3) 0.20 4) 0.40

68. When 100ml of 10 M solution of H 2SO 4 and 100 ml of 1 M solution of NaOH are mixed the resulting
solution will be
1) Acidic 2) Basic 3) Neutral 4) Can not predicted
69. How many grams of 40% pure sodium hydroxide is dissolved in 0.5 M, 250 ml NaOH solution?
1) 5 gm 2) 2g 3) 12.5g 4) 4 gm

70. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g mL1 . The molality of the solution is
1) 2.79 m 2) 1.79m 3) 3.5m 4) 5.58 m
71. The specific gravity of 98% H 2SO 4 is 1.8 g/cc. 50 ml of this solution is mixed with 1750 ml of pure
water. Molarity of resulting solution is
1) 0.2 M 2) 0.5 M 3) 0.1 M 4) 1 M
72. What volume of 75% H 2SO 4 by mass is required to prepare 1.5 litres of 0.2 M H 2SO 4 ? (Density of
the sample is 1.8 g/c.c)
1) 14.2 c.c 2) 28.4c.c 3) 21.7c.c 4) 7.1 c.c
73. How many grams of CH 3OH would have to be added to water to prepare 150 ml of solution that is
2M CH3OH ?

1) 9.6 2) 2.4 3) 9.6 103 4) 4.3  102

74. The concentration of sugar (C12 H 22O11 ) in mol L1 . If its 20 g are dissolved in enough water to make
a final volume up to 2 L?
1) 0.092 2) 0.029 3) 0.059 4) 0.069

75. The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOHis 1.28g / cm 3 . The molality of the solution is [Given
that molecular mass of NaOH = 40 g mol1 ]
1) 1.20 m 2) 1.56m 3) 1.67m 4) 1.32m

76. In a chemical reaction, A  B 

 AB, if B is acting as a limiting reagent, then choose the correct
option.

1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d
77. Calculate molarity of 63% w/w HNO3 solution if density is 1.4 g/mL.

1) 14 M 2) 12 M 3) 10 M 4) 8 M
78. The morality of 10% H 2SO 4 solution having density 1.1 g/cc is

1) 2.05 M 2) 1.25 M 3) 3.45 M 4) 1.12M

79. The molality of solution containing 15.20 g of urea, (molar mass = 60) dissolved in 150 g of water is

1) 1.689 mol kg 1 2) 0.1689 mol kg 1 3) 0.5922 mol kg 1 4) 0.2533mol kg 1

80. The density of 2.0 M solution of a solute is 1.2 g mL1 . If the molecular mass of the solute is 100 g
mol1 , then the molality of the solution is
1) 2.0 m 2) 1.2 m 3) 1.0 m 4) 0.6 m
81. If air is taken as a binary solution, the solvent is
1) N 2 2) O 2 3) CO 2 4) H 2

82. The physical change among the following is

1) burning of coal 2) burning of sulphur
3) dissolution of Glucose in water 4) burning of white phosphorus
83. 100 grams of an aqueous solution contains 10 grams of Glucose. Then solute and solvent are
1) Water and Glucose 2) Glucose and Water
3) Alcohol and Glucose 4) Glucose and Alcohol
84. The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute and solvent is
known as
1) Molarity 2) molatity
3) mole fraction of solute 4) mole fraction of solvent
85. The apparatus used to prepare “a standard solution’’ is
1) standard flask or volumetric flask 2) burette
3) pipette 4) conical flask
86. Molarity of a solution
1) increases with increase of temperature
2) decreases
3) may increase or decrease with increase of temperature
4) is independent of temperature
87. A solution whose molar concentration is known is called
1) a saturated solution 2) a colloidal solution
3) a standard solution 4) an unsaturated solution
88. To halve the molarity of a solution the following should be adopted
1) weight of the solute to be doubled 2) weight of the solvent to be doubled
3) volume of the solvent to be doubled 4) volume of the solution to be doubled
89. 6 g. of Urea is dissolved in 90 g. of water. The mole of fraction of solute is
1) 15 2) 1/50 3) 1/51 4) 1/501
90. The algebraic sum of the mole fraction of solute and mole fraction of solvent is equal to
1) One 2) Zero 3) Infinity 4) 1000
BOTANY
91. The mentioned features in the given box are related with

1) Laminaria, Fucus 2) Volvox, Dictyota

3) Polysiphonia, Ulothrix 4) Chara, Spirongyra
92. Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom because
1) They have differentiated body than that of algae
2) Their sex organs are multicellular and jacketed
3) Their reproductive phase requires water
4) All of these
93. In a moss, the sporophyte
1) Is partially dependent on photosynthetic gametophyte
2) Produces gametes that give rise to gametophyte
3) Develops from germination of spore
4) More than one option is correct
94. Bryophytes resemble algae in one of the following aspects:
1) Filamentous body, autotrophic nutrition and unicellular sex organs
2) Thallad plant body, lack of vascular tissue and autotrophic nutrition
3) Undifferentiated body, non-jacketed sex organs and lack of vascular tissue
4) Filamentous body, jacketed sex organs and zygotic meiosis
95. Which of the following is a dioecious bryophyte?
1) Funaria 2) Sphagnum 3) Marchantia 4) Riccia
96. Which plant group is known for following features?

1) Algae 2) Bryophytes 3) Pteridophytes 4) Fungi

97. Which of these may not be an ecological importance of bryophytes?
1) Peat formation used as fuel 2) Frist organisms to colonise rocks
3) Reduce the impact of falling rain 4) Prevent soil erosion
98. Which of the following is not related to importance of Pteridophytes?
1) Medicine 2) Soil binding 3) Ornamental 4) Peat formation
99. Which of the following is not a members of class Pteridopsida?
1) Equisetum 2) Dryopteris 3) Pteris 4) Adiantum
100. Select the incorrectly matched pair:
1) Psilopsida – Psilotum 2) Lycopsida – Selaginella
3) Sphenopsida – Dryopteris 4) Pteridopsida – Adiantum
101. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. naked seeded plants.
1) Reduced gametophytes having independent free living existence
2) They are heterosporous
 3) Dominant phase is sporophyte
4) They exhibit diplontic life cycle pattern
102. Pinus is classified as a gymnosperm because of the following features:
1) Mycorrhizal roots 2) Presence of vascular tissue
3) Exposed ovule 4) Heterosporous in nature
103. Double fertilization occurs in the life cycle of
1) Sunflower, Wolffia, Eucalyptus 2) Sunflower, Wolffia, Cycas
3) Cycas, Ginkgo, Pinus 4) Ginkgo, Citrus, Eucalyptus
104. The most common type of life cycle in algae is
1) Diplontic 2) Haplontic 3) Haplodiplontic 4) Diplohaplontic
105. Sporophytic generation represented by only single cell, i.e. zygote is seen in
1) Mosses 2) Algae 3) Ferns 4) Conifers
106. In majority of dicotyledonous plants, the direct elongation of the ____A____ leads to the formation
of ____B____. Select the correct to option to fill the blanks.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
107. Plant that bears of adventitious roots is
1) Pea 2) Monstera 3) Radish 4) Turnip
108. All are examples of edible underground tap root, except
1) Sweet potato 2) Carrot 3) Turnip 4) Radish
109. Pneumatophore is a modification of roots for _____
1) Support 2) Storage 3) Respiration 4) Moisture absorption
110. The main function of stem in most plants is
1) Storage of food and photosynthesis
2) Conduction of water and minerals form leaves to root
3) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers, and fruits
4) Vegetative propagation and synthesis of PGR
111. Leaves are modified into spines and stems become fleshy and flattened to carry out photosynthesis.
Such modified stem is present in
1) Opuntia 2) Onion 3) Mangrove plant 4) Bryophyllum
112. All structures given below represent underground modification of stem, except
1) Rhizome 2) Corm 3) Bulb 4) Sucker
113. Mark the mismatched pair with respect to modification of stem
1) Bulbil – Agave 2) Corm – Banana
3) Stem tendril – Pumpkin 4) Leaf tendril - Pea
114. Leaf base may bear two small leaf-like structures called
1) Bracts 2) Axillary bud 3) Stipules 4) Prickle
115. The arrangement of leaves on stem or is branches is called
1) Phyllotaxy 2) Vernation 3) Venation 4) Heterophylly
116. Opposite phyllotaxy of leaves is found in
1) Mustard, sunflower 2) Guava, China rose
3) Calotropts, guava 4) Nerium, Alstonia
117. Which of the following is not correctly matched.
1) Actinomorphic flower – Mustard 2) Bilateral symmetric flower – Datura
3) Trimerous flower – Lily 4) Asymmetric flower – Canna
118. Select the incorrect match.
1) Zygomorphic flower – Gulmohar 2) Asymmetric flower – Canna
3) Hypogynous flower – Cucumber 4) Perigynous flower – Peach
119. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to vexillary aestivation?
1) Larges petals are keel 2) Smallest petals are found anteriorly
3) Posterior petals are wings 4) Wings overlap two lateral petals
120. Match the columns with respect to plantation

1) a (iii), b (iv), c (i), d (ii) 2) a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)

3) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii) 4) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
121. Sexual reproduction has the biological advantage of promoting genetic variability among animals
because
1) It is uniparental
2) Offspring receive genes from both parents
3) They young ones are identical with parents
4) It is rapid and produces numerous offspring
122. Vegetative propagules are
1) Rhizome & Runner 2) Sucker & Tuber
3) Offset & Bulb 4) All of these
123. Which of the following statement is false regarding the process in which an organism gives rise to
young ones similar to itself.
1) It maintains the continuity of species
2) It maintains the population of organism
3) It does not induce variations
4) Reproduction is a biological process
124. In _____ the body of the parent breaks into distinct pieces, each of which can produce an offspring.
1) Budding 2) Binary fission 3) Fragmentation 4) Gemmule formation
125. The given vegetative propagule is

1) Rhizome of Oxalis 2) Bulb of onion

3) Bulbil of Agave 4) Corm of Amorphophallus
126. The process that ensures the continuity of species on earth is
1) Reproduction 2) Nutrition 3) Respiration 4) Growth and development
127. Which of the following pairs of plans reproduces by sub-aerial vegetative propagation?
1) Potato and Strawberry 2) Mint and Jasmine
3) Lily and Garlic 4) Turmeric and Pineapple
128. Which of the following organisms is said to be immortal?
1) Bacteria 2) Banyan tree 3) Tortoise 4) Peepal tree
129. Water hyacinth or terror of Bengal
(A) Was introduced in India because of its beautiful flowers
(B) Is most invasive weed found growing wherever there is standingwater
(C) Can propagate sexually by offset at a phenomenal rate
Select the correct set of statements:
1) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (C) 3) Only (A) and (B) 4) All (A), (B) and (C)
130. Conidia and zoospores
1) are motile spores 2) are means of perennation
3) are asexual spores 4) are endogenous in origin
131. Match the following

1) a (iv), b (ii), c (i), d (iii) 2) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)

3) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i) 4) a (iv), b (i), c (ii), d (iii)
132. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Clone is a group of morphologically identical but genetically dissimilar individuals
(B) In protists and monerans, cell division is itself a mode of reproduction
(C) Bud formation in yeast is also a kind of asexual reproduction
1) Only (A) and (C) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) All (A), (B) and (C)
133. Gemmules is found in
1) Hydra 2) Sponges 3) Amoeba 4) Potato
134. Encystation of amoeba during
1) Unfavourable condition 2) Favourable condition
3) Nutrient availability 4) None of these
135. Asexual reproductive structure in chalmydomonas
1) Conidia 2) Zoospore 3) Buds 4) Gemmules
 ZOOLOGY

136. Identify A, B and C following figures of simple epithelium tissue

1) A-Ciliated columnar, B-Squamous, C-Cuboidal

2) A-Cuboidal, B-Squamous, C-Ciliated columnar
3) A-Squamous, B-Ciliated columnar, C-Cuboidal
4) A-Ciliated columnar, B-Cuboidal, C-Squamous
137. Lymph differs from blood in
1) Absence of RBC 2) Absence of WBC
3) Excess of water 4) Absence of protein
138. Compound squamous epithelium is found in
1) Stomach 2) Pharynx 3) Intestine 4) Trachea
139. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is
1) Cuboidal epithelium 2) Columnar epithelium
3) Ciliated columnar epithelium 4) Squamous epithelium
140. Tendon is an example of which of the following connective tissue?
1) Loose connective tissue 2) Dense regular connective tissue
3) Specialised connective tissue 4) Dense irregular connective tissue
141. The blubber is formed by
1) Elastic tissue 2) Reticular tissue 3) Adipose tissue 4) Fibrous tissue
142. Identify figures-I and II.

1)

2)

3)

4)
143. Minimum regeneration power is present in
1) Connective tissue 2) Epithelial tissue
3) Muscular tissue 4) Nervous tissue

144. Intercalated disc and cross connections are the characteristic features of
1) Skeletal muscle 2) Smooth muscle
3) Cardiac muscle 4) Voluntary muscle
145. Examine the following figures, identify A, B, and C and choose the correct option

1) A-Skeletal muscle, B- Voluntary muscle, C-Cardiac muscle

2) A-Skeletal muscle, B-Smooth muscle, C-Cardiac muscle
3) A-Cardiac muscle, B- Skeletal muscle, C- Smooth muscle
4) A-Smooth muscle, B- Cardiac muscle, C- Skeletal muscle
146. The chondrocytes of connective tissue are
1) Fibre secreting cells 2) Bone forming cells
3) Cartilage cells 4) Bone eating cells
147. The type of tissue lining present on the ducts of salivary gland and pancreas is
1) Columnar epithelium 2) Cuboidal epithelium
3) Compound epithelium 4) Glandular epithelium
148. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans occur in
1) Eustachian tube and stomach lining 2) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
3) Bile duct and oesophagus 4) Fallopian tubes and urethra
149. Identify A, B and C in given figures and choose the correct combination of options

1) A-Unicellular gland, B-Multicellular gland, C- Multilayered cells

2) A-Multicellular gland, B-Unicellular gland, C- Squamous epithelium
3) A-Goblet gland, B-Multicellular gland, C- Columnar epithelium
4) A-Flattened cell, B-Multilayered cells, C- Transitional epithelium
150. Hardest tissue of the body is
1) Cartilate 2) Fibrous connective tissue 3) Bone 4) Aerolar tissue
151. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
1) Neutrophils and eosinophils 2) Lymphocytes and macrophages
3) Eosinophils and lymphocytes 4) Neutrophils and monocytes
152. Identify A to C in the given diagram of areolar tissue

1) A-Macrophage, B-Fibroblast, C-Collagen fibres

2) A-Mast cells, B-Collagen fibres, C-Plasma membrane
3) A-Chondrocyte, B-Fat storage area, C-Plasmamembrane
4) A-fibroblast, B-Macrophages, C-Mast cell
153. ___________ are cells present in bone marrow that break down to form blood platelets.
1) Erythroblasts 2) Lymphoblasts 3) Myeloblasts 4) Megakaryoctes
154. Identify A,B and C in the given adipose tissue

1) A – Cytoplasm; B – Nucleus; C – Cell wall

2) A – Fat storage area; B – Mast cell; C – Plasma membrane
3) A – Cell fluid; B – Collagen fibers; C – Plasma membrane
4) A – Fat storage area; B –Nucleus; C – Plasma membrane
155. Dorsal and the ventral surfaces of the earthworm are identified respectively by
1) Prostomium and clitellum 2) Clitellum and female genital pores
3) Dark median mid dorsal line and genital pores 4) Ventral pores and dark dorsal line
156. Spermathecal apertures in earthworm are situated on
1) Lateral sides of intersegmental grooves of 6-9 segments
2) Ventro lateral sides of intersegmental grooves of 5-9 segments
3) Lateral sides of intersegmental grooves of 5-9 segments
4) Ventro lateral sides of intersegmental grooves of 6-9 segments
157. Each cocoon produces_______________baby earthworms
1) 2-10 2) 2-20 3) 4-5 4) 2-20 with an average of 4
158. Identify the correct labeling of the picture given below

1) A-Compound eye, B-Maxilla,C-Mandible, D-Labium

2) A-ocellus, B-Maxilla,C-Mandible, D-Labium
3) A-Compound eye, B- Mandible,C- Labium, D- Maxilla
4) A-Compound eye, B-Maxilla,C-Mandible, D-Labrum
159. Statement I: A ring of 6-8 open tubules called hepatic caeca are present at the junction of
fore gut and mid gut
Statement II: Hepatic caeca secrete digestive juice
1) Statement 1 & 2 are true 2) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
3) Statement 1 & 2 are false 4) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
160. Feature common in earthworm and cockroach
1) Nocturnal omnivorous 2) Closed circulatory system
3) Complete digestive system 4) Both 1 & 2
161. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
1) Polio, AIDS 2) Dysentery, Common cold
3) Typhoid, Tuberculosis 4) Ringworm, AIDS
162. Fill up the blanks:
I) Heat and moisture help ... ……..fungi to grow, which makes them thrive in skin folds
II) Maintenance of…………and ........... Hygiene is important for the prevention of
ringworm.
III) ………….gives the diseases its name, elephantiasis.
1) I–Microsporum, II–Public; personal, III–Enlargement of ear
2) I–Trichophyton,II–Personal; public, III–Enlargement of eye
3) I–Epidermophyton, II–Personal; public, III–Enlargement of legs
4) I–Wuchereria, II–Personal; public, III–Enlargement of legs
163. The group of diseases carried by insects is
1) Typhoid,Commoncold,Tuberculosis 2) Mumps,Measles,Smallpox
3) Scabies,Malaria,Ringworm 4) Malaria,Typhoid,Filaria
164. All stages of Plasmodium get digested in crop of female Anapheles except
1) Sporozoit 2) Merozoit 3) Gametocyte 4) Schizont
165. One of the following is not the causative organism for ring worm
1) Macrosporum 2) Trichophyton 3) Epidermophyton 4) Microsporum
166. Introducing fishes like .......in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae, then control the population
mosquito.
1) Catla 2) Betta 3) Claris 4) Gambusia
167. Which of the following is a pair of viral and protozoan diseases?
1) Common cold, ringworm 2) Pneumonia,common cold
3) AIDS, filariasis 4) Common cold , amoebiasis
168. The sporozoites that cause infection, when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person are
formed in
1) Liver of a person 2) Gut of mosquito
 3) Salivary glands of mosquito 4) Blood of mosquito
169. AIDS was first reported in
1) 1981 2) 1980 3) 1982 4) 1983
170. Spread of AIDS is due to
1) Infected needless and syringes 2) Sexual contact with infected person
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Sharing public toilet
171. Which of the following statement is not true about HIV/AIDS?
1) HIV is a spread by mosquito bite 2) HIV weakened and destroy the immune system
3) It belongs to retrovirus 4) AIDS was first reported in 1981
172. AIDS is the condition where
1) The patients immune system is completely destroyed
2) The patient succumbs to various infect, has wasting and develops symptoms such as
fever, diarrhoea and weight loss
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Virus multiply in T-cytotoxic cells
173. Malignant tumours are
I) Mass of neoplastic cells
II) Cells that grow very rapidly and damaging the surrounding normal tissue
III) Cells that show the property of metastisis
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) All of these
174. Match the following columns

1) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II 2) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I

3) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III 4) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
175. Leukemia is due to
1) Excessive production of WBC 2) Excessive production of RBC
3) Excessive production of Thrombocytes 4) Excess amount of blood plasma
176. Which of the following property is possessed by cancerous cell?
1) A new blood vessels formation 2) Uncontrolled cell division
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Controlled cell division
177. The most common type of cancer is
1) lymphoma 2) carcinoma 3) sarcoma 4) leukaemia
178. Which of the following chemical carcinogen mainly causes for Lung cancer is
1) Tabacco smoke 2) X-rays 3) UR rays 4) Vehicle smoke
179. Tumour viruses or cancer causing viruses called ...A... have ...B... . Here A and B refers to
1) A-oncogenic bacteria; B-bacterial oncogenes
2) A-oncogenic protozoan; B-protozoan oncogenes
3) A-oncogenic viruses, B-viral oncogenes
4) None of the above
180. Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given
below, identify the infectious diseases.

1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) ii and iv 4) iii and iv