Preparing World Worthy Individuals

JUNIOR_NEET – 03.10.2021 (Weekly Test)

Max.Marks: 720 Time: 3 Hrs

PHYSICS
1. A projectile is fired at an angle of 450 and reaches the highest point in its path in 2 2 s . If air resistance
is neglected, maximum height reached by it is
1) g 2) 2g 3) 3g 4) 4g
2. The range of a projectile when launched at an angle of 150 with the horizontal is 1.5 Km. The range
of the projectile when launched at an angle of 45 0 to the horizontal (same velocity of projection)
1) 1.5 Km 2) 3 Km 3) 6 Km 4) 0.75 Km
3. A particle is projected with a velocity u. So that its horizontal range and maximum height reached are
equal. The maximum height reached is
1) 2u2/3g 2) 4u2/5g 3) u2/g 4) 8u2/17g
4. A body projected at angle ‘’ with the horizontal. If remains for a time T in air. Its horizontal range is
R, then tan  =
1) gT/2R 2) g2T/2R 3) gT2/2R 4) gT/2R2
5. A particle is projected with a certain velocity. So as to have the same horizontal range ‘R’. If t 1 and t2
are the times taken to reach this point in the two possible way
1) t1 / t2 = 2R/g 2) t1 t2 = 2R/g 3) t1 + t2 = 2R/g 4) t1 - t2 = 2R/g
6. At the highest point of a projectile its velocity is half the initial velocity in magnitude. The angle of
projection from ground is
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900
7. The equation of trajectory of a projectile thrown from a point on the ground is y = (x – x 2/40) m. If g
= 10 ms-2. The maximum height reached is
1) 6 m 2) 8 m 3) 10 m 4) 12 m

5
8. The velocity of a projectile when it is at half of the maximum height is times its velocity when it
2
is at the highest point. The angle of projection is
1) 150 2) 300 3) 450 4) 600
9. Two second after projection, a projectile is moving at 300 above the horizontal, after one more second
it is moving horizontally (g = 10 m/sec2). The angle of projection is
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900
10. A stone is projected with velocity 147 m/s at6 600 to the horizontal. After how much time will it make
450 to the horizontal?
1) 4.5 s 2) 3 s 3) 5.5 s 4) 2.5 s
11. A cannon ball has the same range R on a horizontal plane for two different angles of projection. If h 1
and h2 are the maximum heights in two paths for which this is possible, then

1) R = h1 h2 2) R  h1 h 2 3) R  2 h1 h 2 4) R  4 h1 h 2

12. A body projected from a point on the ground is found to be at a height 15 m, one second after projection
and it is found to fall at a distance 80 3 m (g = 10 m/sec2). Its angle of projection is

1) 450 2) 600 3) 150 4) 300

13. A player kicks ball at an angle of 450 to the horizontal with initial speed of 20 m/sec. A second player,
60 m away in the direction of the kick, starts immediately to catch the ball. The speed with which the
second player should run so as to catch the ball just before it touches the ground is (g = 10 m/sec 2)

1) 10 m/sec 2) 5 m/sec 3) 5 2 m/sec 4) 106 m/sec

14. If a projectile at 300 to the horizontal reaches the ground two seconds after its projection, the change
in velocity in that interval of time is
1) 9.8 ms-1 2) 14.7 ms-1
3) 19.6 ms-1 4) 29.4 ms-1
15. If the acceleration due to gravity increases by 1%, the range of a projectile
1) Increases by 1% 2) Decreases by 1%
3) Increases by 2% 4) Decreases by 2%

16.  
A body is projected from the ground with velocity aiˆ  bjˆ ms1 . If the range is twice the maximum
height attained, then
1) b = a/2 2) b = a 3) b = 2a 4) b = 4a
17. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with 30 ms -1. If g = 10 ms-2, the velocity of
that body after 4 seconds
1) 40 ms-1 2) 30 ms-1 3) 50 ms-1 4) 20 ms-1
18. A particle projected horizontally from the top of a table touches the ground at a distance ‘d’ from the
edge of the table. If h is the height of the table, then the velocity of projection is

2g g 2g g
1) h 2) h 3) d 4) d
d 2d h 2h
19. From the top of a building 20 m high, a ball is projected horizontally. If the line joining the point of
projection to the point where it hits the ground makes an angle of 45 0 with the horizontal, then the
initial velocity of the stone is (g = 10 ms-2)
1) 5 ms-1 2) 10 ms-1 3) 15 ms-1 4) 20 ms-1
20. Two paper screens A and B are separated by a distance of 100 m. A bullet pierces screen A and then
screen B. The hole in B is 10 cm below in A. If the bullet is travelling horizontally at A, then its
velocity at A is
100 1
1) 700 ms-1 2) 350 ms-1 3) 100 ms-1 4) ms
7
21. An aeroplane flying horizontally at a height of 1.96 km with a velocity of 300 ms -1 drops a bomb when
it is exactly above a point A on the earth. The bomb strikes a target at a point B on the earth. Then
distance between A and B is
1) 3 Km 2) 6 Km 3) 9 Km 4) 12 Km
22. A body is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower 40 m high and strikes the ground at an angle of
450 with the horizontal. The speed with which it was thrown from the top is
1) 7 ms-1 2) 14 ms-1 3) 28 ms-1 4) None
23. Two stones A and B are thrown with velocities 10 ms-1 and 20 ms-1 from the top of a tower
horizontally. If they reaches the ground after times t 1 and t2 respectively
1) t1 = 2t2 2) t2 = 2t1 3) t1 = t2 4) t21 = 2t22
24. A body is projected horizontally with velocity 19.6 ms -1 from certain height. After 2 seconds, the angle
made by its direction of motion to the horizontal is
1) 900 2) 600 3) 450 4) 00
25. When a body is projected horizontally with velocity u from certain height, it reaches the ground with
velocity 4u. Then height from which it is thrown is
1) 4u2/2g 2) 15u2/2g 3) 16u2/5g 4) 4u2/5g
26. A ball rolls off the top of a stair case horizontally. If each step has height h and width x and the ball
just hits the nth step, initial velocity of the ball is

ng ngx ng ng
1) x 2) 3) x 4)
2h 2h h 2hx
27. From the top of a tower of height 78.4 m, two stones are projected horizontally with 20 ms -1 and 30
ms-1 in opposite directions. On reaching the ground, their separation is
1) 100 m 2) 200 m 3) 50 m 4) 400 m
28. A body is projected horizontally from certain height. After 2 seconds, its direction of motion makes
300 to the horizontal. Then its initial velocity is

1) 2g / 3 2) 2 3 g

3) 3g / 2 4) None

29. A body projected horizontally with a velocity u from the top of a tower strikes the ground with a
velocity 2u. Then height of that tower is
1) 3u2/2g 2) u2/2g 3) u2/g 4) 3u2/4g
30. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally at a constant speed. When air resistance is
taken into consideration, the bomb
1) Falls to earth exactly below the aeroplane
2) Falls to earth behind the aeroplane
3) Falls to earth ahead of the plane 4) Flies with the aeroplane
31. The direction of velocity and acceleration of a projectile at the highest point on the trajectory are
1) Parallel to each other 2) Antiparallel to each other
3) Perpendicular to each other 4) No specific relation
32. A bomb is dropped from an aircraft travelling horizontally at 150 ms -1 at a height of 490 m. The
horizontal distance travelled by the bomb before it hits the ground is
1) 1000 m 2) 1200 m 3) 1500 m 4) 1800 m
33. A projectile has
1) Minimum velocity at the point of projection and maximum at the maximum height
2) Maximum at the point of projection and minimum at the maximum height
3) Same velocity at any point in its path
4) Zero velocity at the maximum height irrespective of the velocity of projection
34. The acceleration of a projectile relative to another projectile is
1) –g 2) g 3) 2g 4) 0
35. A number of bullets are fired horizontally with different velocities from the top of a tower they reach
the ground
1) At same time with same velocity 2) At different times with different velocities
3) At same time with different velocities 4) At different times with same velocity
36. For body thrown horizontally from the top of a tower
1) The time of flight depends both on h and v
2) The horizontal range depends only on v but not on h
3) The time of flight and horizontal range depend on h but not on v
4) The horizontal range depends on both v and h
37. A body is projected with a velocity 60 ms-1 at 300 to horizontal. Its initial velocity vector is

1) 10iˆ  10 3 ˆj 2) 30iˆ  30 3 ˆj 3) 30 3 ˆi  30 ˆj 4) 30 3 ˆi

38. A stone is projected from the ground with a velocity of 14 ms -1 at second later it clears a wall 2 m
high. The angle of projection is (g = 10 ms-2)
1) 450 2) 300 3) 600 4) 150
39. The height y and horizontal distance x covered by a projectile in a time t seconds are given by the
equations y = 8t – 5t2 and x = 6t. If x and y are measured in metres, the velocity of projection is
1) 8 ms-1 2) 6 ms-1 3) 14 ms-1 4) 10 ms-1
40. A gun fires a bullet at a speed of 140 ms -1. If the bullet is to hit a target at the same level as the gun
and at 1 Km distance, the angle of projection may be
1) 600 or 300 2) 400 or 500 3) 150 or 750 4) 200 or 700

3
41. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times its initial speed. If the range of the
2
projectile is p times the maximum height attained by it, then p =
4 2 4 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 4

42. The potential energy of a projectile at its maximum height is equal to its kinetic energy there. If the
velocity of projection is 20 ms-1, its time of flight is (g = 10 ms-2)
1 1
1) 2 s 2) 2 2 s 3) s 4) s
2 2
43. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a hill with a velocity of 9.8 m/s. What time elapses
before the vertical velocity is twice the horizontal velocity?
1) 0.5 sec 2) 1 sec 3) 2 sec 4) 1.5 sec
44. A stone is projected horizontally with a velocity 9.8 ms -1 from a tower of height 100 m. Its velocity
one second after projection is

1) 9.8 ms-1 2) 4.9 ms-1 3) 9.8 2 ms 1 4) 4.9 2 ms 1

45. A body is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of 5 m height. It touches the ground at a distance
of 10 m from the foot of the tower. Then initial velocity of the body is (g = 10 ms -2)
1) 2.5 ms-1 2) 5 ms-1 3) 10 ms-1 4) 20 ms-1

CHEMISTRY
2.58  5.8
46. The answer of the calculation in significant figures will be
4.168
1) 3.579 2) 3.570 3) 3.57 4) 3.6
47. 0.0025 has how many significant figures
1) 6 2) 3 3) -4 4) 2
48. 314.000 has how many significant figures
1) 6 2) 3 3) 5 4) 4
49. The correctly reported difference of 16.4215 and 6.01 will have significant figures equal to
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
50. Law of multiple proportions is illustrated by one of the following pairs
1) H2S and SO2 2) NH3 and NO2 3) Na2S and Na2O 4) N2O and NO
51. Which of the following has highest mass
1) 50 grams of iron 2) 5 moles of nitrogen
3) 1 gram atom of silver 4) 5 x 1023 atoms of carbon
52. 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms are present in
1) 0.5 moles of BaCO3 2) 1 mole of BaCO3
3) 2 moles of BaCO3 4) 0.25 moles of BaCO3
53. The weight of gaseous mixture containing 6.02 x 1023 molecules of nitrogen and 3.01 x 1023 molecules
of sulphur dioxide are
1) 46 2) 92 3) 60 4) 30
54. The no. of electrons present in one mole of Azide ion are (N -3)
1) 21 N 2) 20 N 3) 22 N 4) 43 N
55. The percentage of Carbon in CO2 is
1) 27.27% 2) 29.27% 3) 30.27% 4) 26.97%
56. A compound has 20% of nitrogen by weight. If one molecule of the compound contains two nitrogen
atoms, the molecules weight of the compound is
1) 35 2) 70 3) 140 4) 280
57. The empirical formula of an organic compound is CH 2O. Its vapour density is 45. The molecule
formula of the compound is
1) CH2O 2) C2H4O2 3) C3H6O3 4) C6H12O6
58. A compound contains 92.3% of carbon and 7.7% of hydrogen. The molecule of the compound is 39
times heavier than hydrogen molecules. The molecular formula of the compound is
1) C3H3 2) C2H2 3) C2H4 4) C6H6
59. The composition of residual mixture will be if 30 g of Mg combines with 30 g of oxygen
1) 40gMgO + 20gO2
2) 45g Mg + 15gO2
3) 50g MgO +10gO2 4) 60g MgO Only
60. If 5 ml of methane is completely burnt the volume of oxygen required and the volume of CO 2 formed
under the same conditions are
1) 5 ml, 10 ml 2) 10 ml, 5 ml 3) 5 ml, 15ml 4) 10 ml, 10 ml
61. If 0.5 mole of BaCI2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2
formed are
1) 0.7 2) 0.5 3) 0.3 4) 0.1
62. Which of the following pairs can be cited as an example to illustrate the law of multiple proportion?
1) Na2O, K2O 2) CaO, MgO 3) AI2O3, Cr2O3 4) CO, CO2
63. Two gaseous samples were analyzed. One contained 1.2 g of carbon and 3.2 g of oxygen the other
contained 27.3% carbon and 72.7% oxygen. The experimental data are in accordance with
1) Law of conservation of mass 2) Law of definite proportions
3) Law of reciprocal proportions 4) Law of multiple proportions
64. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 grams of nitride ion are
1) 1.4 N0 2) 2.4 N0 3) 3.2 N0 4) 4.2 N0
65. The number of molecules present in 4.4 g of CO 2 gas is
1) 6.023  1023 2) 5.023  1023 3) 6.023  1024 4) 6.023  1022
66. The percentage of C, H and N in an organic compound are 40 %, 13.3 % and 46.7 % respectively then
empirical formula is
1) C3H13N3 2) CH2N 3) CH4N 4) CH6N
67. The amount of zinc required to produce 224 ml of H2 at NTP on treatment with dilute H2SO4 solution
will be
1) 0.65 g 2) 0.065 g
3) 65 g 4) 6.5 g
68. ‘X’ litres of carbon monoxide is present at STP. It is completely oxidized to CO 2. The volume of CO2
formed is 11.207 litres at STP. What is the value of ‘X’ in litres?
1) 22.414 2) 11.207
3) 5.6035 4) 44.828
69. 26 cc of CO2 are passed over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is
1) 15 cc 2) 10 cc
3) 32 cc 4) 52 cc
70. Different samples of water were found to contain Hydrogen and oxygen in the mass ratio of 1:8. This
shows the law of
1) Multiple proportions
2) Constant proportions
3) Reciprocal proportions 4) Conservation of mass
71. The % of Hydrogen in water and Hydrogen peroxide is 11.2 % and 5.94% respectively. This illustrates
the law of
1) Constant Proportions
2) Conservation of mass
3) Multiple Proportions 4) Law of Gaseous volume.
72. How many moles of magnesium phosphate [Mg3(PO4)2] will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?
1) 3.125  10-2 2) 1.25  10-2 3) 2.5  10-2 4) 0.02
73. Study the following table
Which two compounds have least weight of oxygen (molecular weights of compounds are given in
brackets)
Compound (M.Wt.) Weight of compound in g. taken
I) CO2 (44) 4.4
II) NO2 (46) 2.3
III) H2O2 (34) 6.8
IV) SO2 (64) 1.6
1) II & IV 2) I & III 3) I & II 4) III & IV
74. X and Y are two different elements having their atomic masses in 1:2 ratio. The compound formed by
the combination of X and Y contains 50% of X by weight. The empirical formula of the compound is
1) X2Y 2) XY2 3) XY 4) X4Y
75. 15 cc of gaseous hydrocarbon required 45 cc of oxygen for complete combustion if 30 cc of CO 2 is
formed, the formula of the gaseous compound is
1) C3H6 2) C2H2 3) C4H10 4) C2H2
76. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture 1:4. The ratio of number
of their molecule is
1) 1:8 2) 3:16 3) 1:4 4) 7:32
77. A pair of gases having same number of molecules are
1) 22 gm of CO2 and 72 gm of N2
2) 11 gm of CO2 and 28 gm of N2
3) 44 gm of CO2 and 7 gm of N2 4) 11 gm of CO2 and 7 gm of N2
78. The total volume of mixture of 2 gms of helium and 7 gms of nitrogen under STP conditions is
1) 22.4 lit 2) 11.2 lit 3) 16.8 lit 4) 5.6 lit
79. The number of atoms present in 10 gms of CaCO 3 are
1) 5 N 2) 0.5 N 3) 5 4) N
80. The mass of 1.25  1022 molecules of ammonia is
1) 0.34g 2) 3.4 g 3) 3.4 kg 4) 34 g
81. The empirical formula of a gaseous compound is CH 2. The density of the compound is 1.25 gm / lit at
STP. The molecular formula of the compound is ‘X’
1) C2H4 2) C3H6 3) C6H12 4) C4H8
82. Calculate weight percentage of a solution containing 4gr of solute in 46 gr of a solvent
1) 4 2) 2 3) 8 4) 10
83. The weight percentage of a solution containing 2 grams of NaOH in 60 grams of a solution
1) 3.33 2) 6.66 3) 9.99 4) 2.22
84. What is the v/v % of an alcohol solution in water if the volumes of alcohol and water are 8 ml and 42
ml respectively?
1) p 2) 4 3) 16 4) 32
85. The v/v % of a solution containing 2 ml of a solute in 100 ml of a solution
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 16
86. Calculate the w/v % of a solution of HCI. The solution has 3.65 gr of HCI present in 50 ml of the
solution
1) 3.65 2) 7.3 3) 1.8 4) 0.9
87. 1 kg of a solute is present in 10 kg of a solvent then the ppm of the solution is
1) 104 ppm 2) 105 ppm 3) 106 ppm 4) 103 ppm
88. 50 gr of CaCO3 when present in 1000 gr of water. The ppm of the solution is
1) 25000 ppm 2) 60000 ppm 3) 40000 ppm 4) 50  103 ppm
89. What volume of CO at 2 atm and 2730C is required in order to produce 5.6 gr of “Fe” by the reduction
of Fe2O3 by CO. Fe2O3 + 3CO  3CO2 + 2Fe
1) 3.36 L 2) 6.72 L 3) 5.6 L 4) 11.2 L
90. How many grams of CO2 is produced when 98% pure 50 gr of CaCO3 is calcinated?
1) 22 gr 2) 11 gr 3) 21.56 gr 4) 24 gr

BOTANY
91. Part of the stem from which leaf arises is
1) Axil 2) Internode 3) Node 4) Tip
92. Modified stem that help in climbing is
1) Phyllode 2) Stem – aerial 3) Bulb 4) Stem Tendril
93. Stem modification found in ginger
1) Rhizome 2) Corm 3) Bulb 4) Stem tuber
94. Stem is developed from
1) Epicotyl 2) Hypocotyl 3) Radicle 4) Plumule
95. __________ is a leaf modification
1) Thorn 2) Cladophyll
3) Phyllode 4) Phylloclade
96. Arrangement of leaves on the stem is called
1) Anthotaxy 2) Phyllotaxy 3) Venation 4) Vernaton
97. Rachis is found in the leaves of
1) Neem 2) Bryophyllum 3) Bombax 4) Hibiscus
98. Asymmetrical flowers are found in
1) Cassia 2) Canna 3) Pisum 4) Datura
99. In Citrus, the stamens are
1) Monoadelphous 2) Diadelphous 3) Polyadelphous 4) Polyandrous
100. An Ovary with false septum is found in
1) Pea 2) Nicotiana 3) Mustard 4) Tridax
101. Bacteria and yeast reproduce asexually by binary fission and budding respectively,
Because they are
1) Microscopic organisms 2) Uninucleated organisms
3) Unicellular organisms 4) Heterotropic organisms
102. Number of parents involved in asexual and sexual reproductions respectively
1) 2, 1 2) 1, 2 3) 2, 2 4) 1, 1
103. The sequence events occurs during the entire lifespan of living organism
1) Juvenile phase – Mature phase – Old age – Death
2) Mature phase – Juvenile phase – Old age – Death
3) Old age – Mature phase – Juvenile phase – Death
4) Juvenile phase – Old age – Mature phase – Death
104. Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction in
1) Protista & all fungi
2) Protista only
3) Monera fungi & higher plants 4) Protista & Monera
105. Most common special asexual reproductive structure seen in member of algae is
1) Zoospore 2) Conidia
3) Sporangia spore 4) Gemmule
106. Short horizontal branch which is one intermode long and produces a cluster of leaves above and cluster
of roots below is called
1) Stoton 2) Offset
3) Rhizome 4) Bulbil
107. Find out the incorrect statement
1) Period from birth to natural death is called life span
2) Life span of an organism are necessarily correlated with their size
3) Except single called organism all other are mortal
4) Reproduction enable the species generation after generation
108. Regarding the reproduction which of the following statement is correct
1) Asexual reproduction is common among multicellular plants & animals
2) In monerans cell division itself a mode of reproduction
3) Yeast undergo equal type cell division to produce bud
4) In fungi fission is most common method of asexual reproduction
109. Write down the name of fleshy bud that produces new plant in Agave
1) Bulbil 2) Bulb 3) Rhizome 4) Offset
110. The continuity of life is maintained by the process of
1) Respiration 2) Reproduction 3) Photosynthesis 4) Adaptation
111. The offspring produced through which of the following process are not exactly similar to their parents?
1) Asexual reproduction 2) Sexual reproduction
3) Parthenogenesis 4) Ameiotic thelytoky
112. Reproduction is essential for
1) Producing young ones 2) Adaptations
3) Variations 4) Continuity of a species
113. Which of the following organism has longest life span?
1) Elephant 2) Horse 3) Crocodile 4) Parrot
114. Match the column –A with column – B
Column – A Column – B
i) Budding a) Cockroach
ii) Binary fission b) Hydra
iii) Gemmule c) Amoeba
iv) Gamete formation d) Sponge
1) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – a, (iv) – d
2) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – d, (iv) – a
3) (i) – d, (ii) – a, (iii) – c, (iv) – b
4) (i) – d, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a
115. Arrange these animals in the increasing order of their life span
Crow, Horse, Parrot, Elephant
1) Horse, Parrot, Crow, Elephant 2) Crow, Parrot, Horse, Elephant
3) Crow, Parrot, Elephant, Horse 4) Crow, Horse, Elephant, Parrot
116. Which of the following is capable of giving rise to new off springs
1) Runner 2) Rhizome 3) Sucker 4) All
117. Terror of Bengal is
1) Water lily 2) Water hyacinth 3) Pistia 4) Both 1 and 2
118. Water hyacinth can grow in
1) Floating water 2) Moving water 3) Running water 4) Standing water
119. Terror of Bengal was introduced in India because of its
1) Capacity to kill fishes 2) Beautiful roots
3) Beauty of flowers & shape of leaves 4) None
120. Life span of A is 4times more than B the A & Bare
1) Parrot, dog 2) Crow, Crocodile
3) Crocodile, Crow 4) Rose, Rice
121. Term Asexual is unambiguous in
1) Plants 2) Fungi 3) Animals 4) All the above
122. The term vegetative reproduction is frequently used in
1) Plants 2) Fungi 3) Animals 4) All the above
123. The term used to morphologically and genetically similar individuals is
1) Hybrids 2) Mutants 3) Clones 4) Variants
124. If offspring is produced by a single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation
1) Sexual reproduction 2) Asexual reproduction
3) Both 1 & 2 4) None
125. Both budding and fragmentation can be seen
1) Yeast 2) Algae 3) Hydra 4) All
126. Which of the following is considered as ripened ovary after fertilization
1) Seed 2) Fruit 3) Flower 4) All
127. If a fruit is formed without fertilization of ovary is called
1) Parthenogenetic 2) Parthenocarpic fruit
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
128. Wall of a fruit is
1) Parthenocarp 2) Perisperm
3) Pericarp 4) None
129. Type of fruit in mango and coconut is
1) Drupe 2) Pepo 3) Pome 4) All
130. In mango fruit develops from
1) Polycarpellary superior ovary
2) Tricarpellary superior ovary
3) Monocarpellary superior ovary 4) Monocarpellary inferior ovary
131. In a fleshy fruit, pericarp differentiate into inner
1) Epicarp 2) Mesocarp 3) Endocarp 4) Procarp
132. Edible part of mango is
1) Epicarp 2) Mesocarp 3) Endocarp 4) All the above
133. Fibrous mesocarp can be seen in
1) Mango 2) Coconut 3) Peanut 4) Groundnut
134. Stony hard endocarp can be seen in
1) Mango 2) Coconut
3) Both 1 & 2 4) None
135. Number of seeds in fruit developed from monocarpellary superior ovaries are
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

ZOOLOGY
136. The term ‘Health’ is defined in many ways. The most accurate definition of the term ‘health’ would be
1) Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition
2) Health is the absence of disease or physical fitness
3) Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
4) Health is the symbol of economic prosperity
137. Greeks like Hippocrates and Indian Ayurveda system considered health as _____
1) Imbalance of certain ‘humors’ 2) Balance of certain ‘humors’
3) Absence of certain ‘humors’ 4) Presence of certain ‘humors’
138. Health is affected by
I) Genetic disorders II) Infections III) Life style
Which of the key words given above are correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
139. Which of the following disease cause internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage
of the intestinal passage?
1) Ascariasis 2) Filariasis 3) Amoebiasis 4) Trypanosomiosis

140. Hemozoin is a
1) Precursor of haemoglobin
2) Malaria pigment metabolized from globin part
3) Toxin released from infected hepatic cells
4) Toxin released from Plasmodium infected erythrocytes
141. Who discovered blood circulation?
1) William Harvey 2) Landsteiner 3) J.F Watson 4) Weiner
142. The sporozoites that cause infection when a female anopheles mosquito bites a person are stored in
1) Liver of the person 2) RBCs of mosquito
3) Salivary glands of mosquito 4) Intestine of mosquito
143. A patient approaches physician with headache, weakness, loss of appetite, constipation, stomach
pain and sustained high fever, the suspected disease could be confirmed by
1) ELISA test 2) Widal test 3) Shick test 4) PCR test
144. The disease chikungunya is transmitted by
1) Houseflies 2) Female Aedes mosquitoes
3) Female Culex mosquitoes 4) Female Anopheles mosquitoes
145. Which one is not a symptom of disease is caused by Entamoeba histolytica
1) Stool with excess mucus 2) Constipation
3) Abdominal pain 4) Nasal discharge
146. Which part of the lungs is infected in pneumonia?
1) Alveoli 2) Trachea 3) Bronchus 4) Terminal bronchioles
147. Find the correct match
Disease - Pathogen - Mode of infection
1) Ring worm - H.influenzae - Droplet infection
2) Typhoid - S.typhi - Air borne infection
3) Malaria - Plasmodium - Bite by female anopheles mosquito
4) Filariasis - W.bancrofti - Bite by male mosquito
148. The Plasmodium parasite reproduces in liver by ______ and in blood by ______
1) Asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction
2) Asexual reproduction, asexual reproduction
3) Spore formation, sexual reproduction
4) Sexual reproduction, spore formation
149. Which one of the following diseases causes dry, scaly lesion skin, nails and scalp?
1) Skin allergy 2) Botulism 3) Ringworm 4) None of these
150. Salmonella typhi generally enter the small intestine through ….A…. and migrates to other body parts
through……B…….
1) A–Contaminated food and water; B–Blood
2) A–Skin; B–Blood
3) A–Contaminated food; B–Blood 4) A–Air; B–Blood
151. Fill up the blanks:

I) Heat and moisture help ...... ……..fungi to grow, which makes them thrive in skin folds
II) Maintenance of…………and........... Hygiene is important for the prevention of ringworm
III) ………….gives the diseases its name, elephantiasis.
1) I–Microsporum, II–Public; personal, III–Enlargement of ear
2) I–Trichophyton,II–Personal; public, III–Enlargement of eye
3) I–Epidermophyton, II–Personal; public, III–Enlargement of legs
4) I–Wuchereria, II–Personal; public, III–Enlargement of legs
152. What is indicated by ‘a’ in the figure?

1) Merozoites 2) Sporozoites
3) Hyponozoites 4) Gametocytes
153. Which one of the following diseases is spread by housefly?
1) Denguefever 2) Encephalitis 3) Filariasis 4) Amoebiasis
154. AIDS is widely diagnosed by
1) Widal test 2) ELISA 3) MRI 4) Chromatography
155. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
I) Belongs to the group retrovirus
II) Has RNA genome enclosed in an envelope
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) I and II 4) None of these
156. Which one of the following statements are true
1) Dysentery, Plague and diphtheria are viral diseases
2) HIV replicates in host cell by reverse transcriptase enzyme
3) The disease ring worm disappears during summer and rainy season
4) Common cold can be confirmed by ELISA
157. Select the true statement
I) AIDS has no cure, prevention is the best option
II) During HIV infection, the person suffers from fever, weight loss and diarrhoea
1) Only II 2) Only I 3) Both I and II 4) None of these
158. AIDS is the condition where
1) The patient’s immune system is completely destroyed
2) The patient succumbs to various infect, has wasting and develops symptoms such as fever,
diarrhoea and weight loss
3) Both 1 & 2
4) Virus multiply in T-cytotoxic cells
159. Enzyme responsible for replication of HIV in macrophages is
1) RNA polymerase
2) DNA ligase
3) DNA polymerase 4) Reverse transcriptase
160. The time period between infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms may vary from
1) One month to three months
2) Few months to one year
3) One month to 5-10 years 4) Few months to 5-10 years
161. In HIV infected person the number of these cells decrease progressively
1) Macrophages 2) Helper T-lymphocytes
3) B-lymphocytes 4) Natural killer cells
162. Transmission of HIV occurs by
I) Sexual contact with infected person
II) Transfusion of contaminated blood
III) Sharing infected needless
IV) From infected mother to her baby through placenta
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
163. In AIDS, the system which show failure is
1) Digestive system
2) Respiratory system
3) Immune system 4) Sensory system
164. The word NACO stands for
1) National AIDS Control Organization
2) Non-Governmental AIDS Control Organization
3) National Agrochemical Organization
4) Both 2 & 3
165. Refer the given figure showing the mode of action of AIDS virus and identify the sequences labelled
as A, B, C and D.

1) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral DNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host RNA;
D – New viral RNA produced
2) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral RNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host DNA;
D – New viral DNA produced
3) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral DNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host DNA;
D – New viral RNA produced
4) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral RNA; C - Viral RNA incorporates into host DNA;
D – New viral DNA produced
166. The invasion of cancerous cells from one part of the body to another of body is called
1) Contact inhibition 2) metastasis 3) Benign tumour 4) Tumour
167. Cancer in epithelial tissue is called
1) Carcinoma 2) Lymphoma 3) Leukemia 4) Sarcoma
168. Which of the following chemical carcinogen mainly causes for Lung cancer is
1) Tobacco smoke 2) X-rays 3) UR rays 4) Vehicle smoke
169. Due to the loss of which property of the following, cancer cells divide continuously giving rise to
masses of cells?
1) Fast growth rate 2) Contact inhibition 3) High potency 4) Metastasis
170. The combination of surgery, radiotheraphy and chemotheraphy can help to treat
1) Cancer 2) AIDS 3) both 1 & 2 4) None of these
171. Malignant tumours are
I) Mass of neoplastic cells
II) Cells that grow very rapidly and damaging the surrounding normal tissue
III) Cells that show the property of metastasis
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) All of these
172. Which of the following property is possessed by cancerous cell?
1) A new blood vessels formation 2) Uncontrolled cell division
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Controlled cell division
173. Normal cell have genes called ...A... which are present in inactivated state but under certain
conditions like ...B... they get transformed to ...C... Here A, B and C refers to
1) A-cellular oncogenes, B-mutation, C-cancer causing oncogenes
2) A-proto-oncogenes, B-mutation, C-disease causing genes
3) A-viral oncogenes, B-mutation, C-tumour causing genes
4) None of the above
174. Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells?
1) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
2) They show contact inhibition
3) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
4) They do not remain confined in the area of formation
175. Physical carcinogen, e. g., UV-ray, X-ray and γ- rays causes
1) DNA damage 2) RNA damage 3) Protein damage 4) Both 1 & 2
176. Benign tumours
I) Remain confined to their original location and do not spread to other parts
II) Cause little damage
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) I and II 4) None of the above
177. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers?
1) Radiography (X-rays) 2) Computed tomography (CT)
3) Histophathological studies 4) Magnetic resonance imagining (MRI)
178. Alpha-interferons
1) Activate the immune system 2) Help in destroying the tumour
3) Both 1 & 2 4) None of the above
179. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
2) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
3) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis 4) Heroin accelerates body functions
180. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A) Biopsy I) Uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image
of the internal of an object
B) Radiography II) Leukemia
C) Blood or bone marrow test III) X-rays are used to detect cancer of the internal organs
D) Computed tomography IV) A piece of the suspected tissue out into thin sections,
stained and examined under microscope
1) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III 2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
3) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV 4) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III