Time : 3 Hrs.

TEST MM : 720

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. In an experiment mass and velocity of an object are 6. Linear momentum p of an object changes with time
measured as 1.00 kg and 2.00 m/s respectively.
t3
2
Maximum percentage error in calculation of kinetic t as p = t – (kg m/s). If mass of the object is
energy of the object is 3
1 kg then velocity of the object when its acceleration
(1) 1% (2) 2% becomes zero is
(3) 1.5% (4) 2.5% 8
2. Acceleration (a) of a particle moving in a straight line (1) 1 m/s (2) m/s
3
is given as a = – 2 v. At what position, the particle 4 2
will come to rest, if it starts its motion with initial (3) m/s (4) m/s
velocity 10 m/s from origin? 3 3
7. Two blocks are pulled with two different horizontal forces
(1) 6 m (2) 2.5 m as shown in figure. Coefficient of friction between the
(3) 5 m (4) 10 m two blocks is  = 0.3. The ground is smooth. Force of
3. A particle is thrown from ground as a projectile with friction acting between the two blocks is
initial speed of 20 2 m/s making 45° with the  = 0.3
horizontal. Centripetal acceleration of the particle 2 kg 4N
after one second of projection is
2 2
5 kg 10 N
(1) 2 5 m/s (2) 5 m/s
2 2
Smooth
(3) 4 5 m/s (4) 10 m/s
(1) 5 N (2) 4 N
4. Velocity of a particle moving in a plane is given by
 (3) 6 N (4) Zero
 
v  4 sin(t )i  6 cos(t ) j . If the particle starts its 8. A body moves on a straight line by a machine
motion from origin then the shape of the trajectory is delivering constant power. The variation of velocity (v)
(1) Ellipse (2) Circle with position s is best shown by

(3) Parabola (4) Straight line v v

5. A car of mass 100 kg is moving on rough horizontal

(1) (2)
road of radius 200 m. If speed of the car increases
2
at the rate of 2 m/s then the force of friction exerted s s
by the road when its speed is 20 m/s is v v
(1) 200 N (2) 200 2 N
(3) (4)
(3) 400 N (4) 400 2 N s s
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9. A block of mass 1 kg is released from the top of a 12. Position of centre of mass of quarter of a uniform
fixed rough wedge of height 10 m. When the block circular ring of radius R from its center O as
reaches the ground, its speed becomes 10 m/s. shown is
Work done by the force of friction is
(1) 100 J R
(2) 50 J
O R
(3) – 25 J
 R 
(4) – 50 J (1) (0, 0) (2)  , 0 
  
10. A ball moving with velocity 10 2 m/s hits the  2R 2R   2R 
horizontal ground making angle 45° with the vertical. (3)  ,  (4)  0, 
      
If coefficient of restitution between the ground and
13. A circular disc of mass M is under pure rolling on
1 horizontal surface with velocity of centre of mass as
the ball is then angle made by the ball with the v0 and angular speed 0 about its central axis as
3
horizontal after collision is shown. The angular momentum of the disc about
point O is
(1) 45°
(2) 60° O

(3) 30° d
–1
(4) tan (2)
v0
11. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass
R 0
density  is bent into circular loop with centre at O.
The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis
XX is MR 0
2

X X  (1) Mv0d (2)  Mv 0d

2
90º 2 2
MR 0 MR 0
(3) (4)  Mv0d
2 2
14. Two satellites A and B of masses m1 and m2
(m2 = 2m1) are moving in circular orbits R1 and R2
3 3
(R1 = 4R2) respectively around the earth. Ratio of
3L  2L  TA
(1) (2) their time period of revolution T is
82 32 B
3 3
L 3L  (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 2
2  (3) 8 (4) 16
Space for Rough Work
15. A tunnel is made along the chord AB inside the a
earth as shown. An object is released at point B
from rest. Speed of the particle when it reaches the
mid-point P is (g - acceleration due to gravity on the 3m
2m
earth’s surface)

P 5m
A B
2 2
60° (1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s
R 2 2
(3) 3 m/s (4) 2 m/s
O
18. Velocity of liquid coming out the small hole
containing two different liquids of density 2  and 
as shown is

5gR
(1) gR (2)
2
2h
3 gR
(3) 7.1gR (4)
4

16. A uniform rod of length L and mass M is pulled h

horizontally on a smooth surface with force 3 F as 
shown. The cross sectional area of the rod is A and
Young’s modulus is Y.. The elongation produced in (1) 6 gh (2) 2 gh
the rod is
(3) 2 gh (4) gh
3F
19. What is the difference in water level in two
communicating capillary tubes of radius 1.5 mm and
2 FL 3 FL 1 mm, if surface tension of water is 0.06 N/m?
(1) (2)
AY AY
3 mm 2 mm

FL 3 FL
(3) (4)
AY 2 AY

17. An open rectangular tank of dimension 5 m × 4 m ×

3 m containing water upto height 2 m is accelerated
along the direction as shown in figure. Then
maximum acceleration a that can be given without (1) 4 mm (2) 8 mm
spilling the water is
(3) 12 mm (4) 16 mm
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20. A solid cylindrical object of length L and density s 22. A whistle executes SHM along x-axis
x with amplitude
is floating while submerged completely between two 
liquids of density 1 and 2 as shown. Now the 10 cm and time period s . If the frequency of
15
cylinder is pushed a little down and released for whistle is 100 Hz then ratio of maximum and
SHM. Then time period of small oscillation is minimum frequency heard by listener standing on
x-axis
axis is (speed of sound = 300 m/s)
(1) 1.02 (2) 1.5

l (3) 2.2 (4) 3

23. Two wires A and B of identical length and material
having radii R and 2 R are joined together as shown.
They are fixed between two points under some
tension. If they are vibrated by a tuning fork then
ratio of number of loops formed in them is
1  2  l sl
2
(1) (2) 2    g A B
 g
s
  1 2

1  2  l sl 1
2 2 (1) 1 (2)
(3) (4) 2
 g
s
 1  2g
1 1
21. Two springs each of spring constant k, are attached (3) (4)
to a block of mass m1 as shown in the figure. The 4 8
block can slide smoothly along a horizontally 24. Two moles of helium is mixed with two moles of
platform clamped to the opposite walls of the trolley oxygen. Average degree of freedom in the mixture
of mass m2. If the block is displaced by x and per molecule is
released, the time period of oscillation is
(1) 3 (2) 4

k k (3) 5 (4) 6
m1 25. Pressure P of n moles of an ideal gas changes as
P = P 0 – V, where V is volume of the gas.
Maximum temperature of the gas is
2 2
2P P
m1  m2 2(m1  m2 ) 0 0
(1) 2 (2) 2 (1) (2)
2k k nR nR

2m1m2 m1m2 P02 P 02

(3) 2 (4) 2 (3) (4)
(m1  m2 )k m1  m2 )2k
(m 4 nR 2 nR
Space for Rough Work
26. A cup of tea cools from 40°C to 30°C in 10 minutes 31. In the CE amplifier circuit shown if the current gain
when it is kept in surroundings temperature of 15°C.  = 100 and voltage drop between base and emitter
Assuming Newton’s law of cooling to be valid. Find is 0.7 V then value of potential drop between
the time taken by the tea to come down to 20°C collector and emitter VCE is
(1) 10 minutes (2) 15 minutes
100 
(3) 20 minutes (4) 25 minutes
27. For first Bohr orbit of circumference 2r the 8.6 k
de-Broglie wavelength of revolving electron will be 18 V

(1) r (2) 2r 5V

1 1
(3) (4)
2r 4r

28. If first excitation potential of hydrogen like atom is V (1) 10 V (2) 5 V

electron volt then ionization energy of the atom will
(3) 13 V (4) Zero
be
32. In the following network of logic gates if X = 0 and
4V
(1) V (2) Y = 0 then output Z =
3
X
6V 9V
(3) (4)
5 8 Z
Y
29. A radioactive substance has half life of 5 years.
Probability of decay in 10 years is
(1) Zero
(1) 100% (2) 75%
(2) One
(3) 50% (4) 25%
30. Which of the following diodes is forward biased? (3) Between 0 and 1

– 2V – 5V (4) Can’t be determined

(1)
33. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential
– 2V 2V
(2) (1) Depends on angle of incidence of light

5V 10V (2) Depends on intensity of light

(3)
(3) Is independent of material
– 4V – 3V
(4) (4) Is independent of intensity of light
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34. In the experiment on polarization of light, the 38. In the following RLC alternating current circuit, the
polarizer and analyzer axis make 60° with each frequency ()) of alternating voltage is 2000 rad/s.
other. Percentage of incident intensity of unpolarized RMS value of the current flowing will be
light passing through the system is approximately

(1) 75% (2) 50% 5 mH, 4  50 F

6
(3) 25% (4) 12.5%


35. In the Young’s double slit experiment when a thin
glass plate of refractive index  = 1.5 and thickness
t is introduced in the path of one of the interfering 20 V
beams of wavelength ,, the intensity at the central (1) 2 A (2) 3.3 A
maxima remains unchanged. Which of the following
may not be the thickness of the plate? 2
A
(3) (4) 5A
(1)  (2) 2  5

(3) 4  (4) 6  39. An emf of 15 V is applied in R – L circuit containing

L = 5 H and R = 10 .. The ratio of current at t = 
36. An illuminated object of height H is kept at one and t = 1 s is
metre from a vertical screen. For two different
2
positions of a convex lens kept in between the e e
object and the screen, the image size on the screen (1) (2)
e 1 e2  1
is 18 cm and 8 cm respectively. The value of H is
e 1 1
(1) 13 cm (2) 12 cm
(3) (4)
e e
(3) 16 cm (4) 14 cm
40. Two identical small bar magnets are placed one over
37. An object is placed at 12 cm to the left of a the other such that they are mutually perpendicular.
converging lens of focal length 8 cm. Another Time period of the combination in a horizontal
converging lens of focal length 6 cm is placed at a magnetic field is T. Time period of each magnet in
distance of 28 cm to the right of the first lens. the same field is
The second lens will produce image which will be (1) 2T
(1) Real, enlarged
(2) 214 T
(2) Virtual, enlarge
(3) 2 14 T
(3) Real, diminished

(4) Virtual, diminished (4) 2 12 T

Space for Rough Work

41. A rod of length l with uniformly distributed charge Q Vs
is rotated about one end with a constant frequency
f. Its magnetic moment is
A B
2  2 E
(1) 2fQl (2) fQl
3 G

4
(3) fQl 2 (4) 4fQl 2 6 k
3
(1) 1.5  (2) 2 
42. Two charged particles having same mass m and
(3) 0.5  (4) 1 
charges + q and – q are separated by distance d in
a uniform magnetic field B as shown. If particles start 44. In the circuit shown the current I is
with velocities v1 and v2 as shown then they will not
collide if 30  I

X X X X
B
– v1
X X X X 40  40 V
d
X X X X
+ v2
X X X X 40  80 V

(1) 0.4 A (2) 0.8 A

m v 1  v 2  m v1  v 2 
(1) d > (2) d < (3) 1.2 A (4) 1.6 A
qB qB
45. A capacitor with the dielectric is charged completely
2m
(3) d > v1  v2 
and the battery is disconnected. Now the dielectric
(4) v=v
qB 1 2 is pulled out. Hence,

(1) Charge stored will decrease

43. In the arrangement shown for potentiometer to find
internal resistance of the cell E,, the balance point is (2) Electric field between the plates will decrease
obtained at a distance of 75 cm from A when key k
(3) Potential difference between the plates will
is open. The balance point is at distance 60 cm
decrease
from A when key k is closed. The internal resistance
of the cell is (4) Energy stored will increase

Space for Rough Work

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 [CHEMISTRY]
46. Which of the following aqueous solutions of salt have 49. For the following compounds
CHO
maximum freezing point?
O O
(1) 0.2 m NaCl (aq) ( = 80%) CH3 C O C 2 H5
(2) 0.4 m (aq) MgCl2 ( = 60%) (c) O
I3 C C CH3 OHC CI3
(3) 0.8 m CaCl2 ( = 30%)
(d) (e)
(4) 0.6 m AlCl3 ( = 10%)
Negative iodoform test is given by
47. When pressure is applied on NaCl type unit cell
then (1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (b) & (c)

(1) Mass of new unit cell decreases (3) (c), (d) & (e) (4) All of these

(2) Density of crystal increases 50. If the order of Cannizzaro reaction is four, then which
of the following will form?
(3) Number of ions per unit cell decreases
(1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion
(4) All of these
(3) Carbene (4) Dianion
CH3 51. Consider the following statements

(i) BD3/THF
(a) b)

48. A. Compound ‘A’ can be

(ii) H2O2
a. Melting point of ice decreases on increasing
CH3 pressure.

b. Adding inert gas in Haber’s process at constant

CH3 CH3
volume does not affect the equilibrium.

(1) (2) c. Vapour pressure increases on increasing surface

OH OH area.
H3C D H3C H
d. Work done under adiabatic condition is state
function.
CH3 CH3
Correct statement is/are
(3) (4) (1) a & c only (2) b, c & d only
OH OH
H3C D H3C D (3) a & b only (4) a, b & d only

Space for Rough Work

52. In isothermal expansion of gas 55. If the ratio of time of revolution of electron in two
a. The kinetic energy of gas molecules remains same. different orbits of H-like
like specie is 8 : 1, the ratio of
b. The kinetic energy of gas molecules decreases. the radius will be

c. The pressure of gas decreases. (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

d. The kinetic energy of gaseous molecules (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
increases.
56. For the following reaction
Correct statement is/are
O
(1) a & b (2) b, c & d Br2 + NaOH
R C NH R NH + NaBr + Na CO
(3) a & c (4) b & d 2 2 2 3

53. Packing fraction and nearest neighbour distance in Correct statement is/are
body centered cubic respectively are (1) 4 moles of NaOH consumed
 3 3  (2) Formation of isocyanate is the rate determine
(1) , a (2) ,a step
8 2 6
64 a  (3) 3 moles of NaOH consumed
(3) , (4) , 2a
3 2 6 (4) Both (1) & (2)
54. The reaction of HBr with the following compound 57. What is the pH of the solution when 0.2 mole of HCl
would produce is added to one litre of a solution containing 1 M
each of acetic acid and acetate ion?
OH
(pKa for CH3COOH = 4.76, log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48)
(1) 4.1 (2) 4.6
OH (3) 5.2 (4) 6.25
(1) NaNH2
Br 58. Reactant (A) Liq. NH3
Product .
Br Which of the following compounds can form meta
OH isomer as major product?
(2)
CF3 OCH3 CH3
Cl
Br
(3) Cl
Br Br
Br (a) (b) (c)
Br (1) (a) only (2) (b) & (c) only
(4)
(3) (c) only (4) (a) & (c) only
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59. 0.759 g of a silver salt of a dibasic organic acid on 62. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO 4 solution and
ignition left 0.463 g metallic silver. Equivalent weight Na 2 S 2 O 3 solution is added to it. Which of the
of acid is following statements is incorrect for the reaction?

(1) 70 (2) 108 (1) Evolved I2 is reduced (2) CuI2 is formed

(3) Na2S2O3 is oxidised (4) Cu2I2 is formed
(3) 60 (4) 50
63. In the series of reaction
60. Molecules in which all -orbitals are in same plane
OH
C6H6 O C C C O H2C C CH2
Zn/ (1) HCN/HCl/AlCl3 LiAlH4
(a) (b) (c) A B C
(2) H2O
MnO2
H2C CH CH CH2 H2C C C CH2 D
The product D is a/an
(d) (e)
(1) Alcohol (2) Ketone
(1) (a) & (c)
(3) Aldehyde (4) Carboxylic acid
(2) (a) & (d)
64. Which of the statements are correct for following
(3) (a), (b) & (e) graph?
(4) (d) only

Fraction of molecule
61. Consider the following statements T1
N
K
a. in Arrhenius equation represents fraction of N
A
molecules having energy greater than or equals
to threshold energy.
speed
b. Rate of exothermic reaction decreases on
increasing temperature. a. Area under the curve represents total number of
o
molecule.
c. Ecell and E cell
are intensive properties.
b. On increasing temperature fraction of molecules
o
d. G = 0 when Q = K having most probable speed increases.
Incorrect among the following are c. On increasing temperature fraction of molecules
having high speed increases.
(1) b & c
d. Area under the curve decreases on decreasing
(2) a, b & d temperature.
(3) d only (1) a, b & d (2) a & c
(4) b & d (3) b & d (4) b, c & d

Space for Rough Work

65. A given mass of gas expands from state A and state CH3
B by three paths 1, 2 and 3 as shown in the figure
below. If w1, w2 and w3, be the work done by gas (1) H3C C CH CH2
along three paths CH3

CH3
A
(2) H3C C CH3
3
P 2 CH3
1
B (3) H2C C CH2 CH3

V CH3

(1) w1 > w2 > w3 CH3

(2) w1 < w2 < w3 (4) CH3 C CH CH3

(3) w1 = w2 = w3 68. Correct statement among the following is/are

(4) w1 < w2 > w3 (1) Nitrogen of azobenzene and pyridine cannot be

estimated by Kjeldahl’s method
R (2) Maleic acid and fumaric acid are diastereomers
–
66. C + OH (aq.) Substitution product. (3) Gauche form of glycol is more stable than anti-
anti
R Cl (Nucleophile) form
R
(4) All of these
(1) Configuration of product is 100% inverted
69. Coagulation of 90 ml of a negative sol requires
(2) Configuration of product is 100% retention 10 mL of 0.5 M NaCl. The coagulation value of
(3) Percentage of inverted product is less than NaCl is
retention product (1) 25.30 (2) 50.25
(4) Product will be a racemic mixture (3) 55.5 (4) 100

CH3 70. Collector used in Froth-floatation

floatation process is
alc. KOH
67. H 3C C CH2 CH2 Br 'A' (1) NaCN
(Major product)
CH3 (2) CuSO4

(3) Pine oil

Product ‘A’ in the above reaction is
(4) Cresol
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71. The correct order of the mobility of alkali metals ions 76. Consider the following statements
in aqueous solution is
a. V2O5, Benzene and NaCl are diamagnetic species.
(1) Rb > K > Na > Li
b. Gmix, Hmix and Smix are zero for ideal solution.
(2) Li > Na > K > Rb c. Ethanol is more acidic than phenol.
(3) Na > K > Rb > Li Correct statement is/are

(4) K > Na > Rb > Li (1) a & b (2) b & c

72. Correct reaction among the following is (3) c only (4) a only
77. The correct statement about the compound A, B &
Cl
C is
Cl2
(1) R CH2 COOH R CH COOH
PBr 3
COOC2H5 COOH COOH
Cl H OH H OH H OH
(2) R
Br2 H OH H OH HO H
CH2 COOH R CH COOH
PCl 3 COOH COOC2H5 COOC2H5
O A B C
Br2 (1) A & B are diastereomers
(3) R CH2 COOH R CH2 C Br
PBr 3
(Final product) (2) A & B are enantiomers
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) A & C are enantiomers
73. Which of the following complexes exhibits cis
cis-trans (4) A & B are identical
isomerism?
78. In which of the following none of the sulphur atom
(1) [PtCl (NH ) ] (2) [PdCl2BrI]
2 3 2 has zero oxidation state?
(3) [PtNH3PyClBr] (4) All of these
(1) Na2S4O6 (2) Na2S2O3
74. Which of the following order is correct?
(3) S8 (4) All of these
(1) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 (Boiling point)
79. A mixture of NaCl(s), K2Cr2O7 (s) and conc. H2SO4
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Te (Acidic nature) is heated. The orange red fumes are
(3) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (Oxidising power) (1) CrO3 (2) Cr2O3
(4) All of these (3) CrO2 (4) CrO2Cl2
75. The group attached to C-1
1 of glucose in its cyclic 80. The total number of isomers possible for square
structure is planar complex K2 [Pd Cl Br2 SCN] is
(1) Acetal (2) Hemiacetal (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Alcohol only (4) Aldehyde (3) 4 (4) 6

Space for Rough Work

81. Consider the following statements 86. Which among the following has highest pKa?
a. Under the influence of strong field ligand
NH2 CH2NH2
d-electrons in t2g and eg does not obey Hund’s rule.
b. [Ni(CO)4] has tetrahedral geometry. (1) (2)

c. d 2 2 have more energy than dxy in square

x y
planar complex. NH2 NH2
2– NO2
d. [PdL4] is square planar complex when L is
(3) (4)
–
Cl and CN .
NO2 NO2
Correct statement among the above is/are
(1) a, b & d only (2) a, c & d only 87. Total number of chiral molecules in the following
examples is
(3) b only (4) a, b, c & d
Cl H CH3
82. Correct statement among the following is
CH3
(1) CO is a -acid ligand
C
(2) I is a weak field ligand Cl Cl T H
D
(3) Ferrocene and Zeise’s salt are --organometallic
complexes
N CHCl3 H3C CH C CH CH3
(4) All of these CH3
83. A 0.1 M, 10 L solution of MgCl2(aq) is electrolysed
(1) 2 (2) 3
with 965 F electricity then the weight of Mg(s)
deposite on cathode is (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 0.12 g (2) 0.24 g 88. Which among the following is not a thermoplastic
(3) 0.06 g (4) Zero polymers?
84. Correct order of bond length is (1) Bakelite (2) Polythene

(1) O  O  O (2) O  O 
2 2
O  (3) Polystyrene (4) Polyvinyls
2 2 2 2 2 2
89. The compound which is an artificial sweetener is
(3) O O
2
O (4) O  O  O2
2 2 2 2 2 2
(1) Terpenoids (2) Chloramphenicol
85. Which of the following products are formed when
(3) Bithionol (4) Aspartame
potassium iodide reacts with potassium permanganate
in alkaline medium? 90. Which is not a disaccharide?
– – 2+
(1) IO , MnO (2) IO , Mn
3 2 4 (1) Lactose (2) Sucrose
– 2–
(3) I , MnO (4) IO , MnO
2 2 4 (3) Maltose (4) Galactose
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 [BIOLOGY]
91. Select correct statements w.r.t. reproduction in 94. With respect to male reproductive part the most
organisms. resistant organic material is synthesised by (i)
a. The common asexual spore in fungi is haploid and constitutes (ii)
and endogenous. (1) (i) Anther, (ii) Sporoderm
b. Tape grass is aquatic weed which propagates (2) (i) Tapetum, (ii) Exine
vegetatively by stolon.
(3) (i) Endothecium, (ii) -cellulose fibrous wall
c. Few perennial plants are monocarpic also. (4) (i) Tapetum, (ii) Intine
d. Monoecious condition represents bisexuality of 95. How many structures are of sporophytic origin from
plants and flower. the given below?
(1) a & b (2) a & c a. Microspores tetrad
(3) b & c (4) c & d b. Nucellus
92. Which of the following is incorrectly matched pair? c. Aril
(1) Progenitor of next – Embryo d. Placenta
generation e. Embryosac
(2) Clear cut vegetative, – Jackfruit and mango f. Central cell
reproductive and
g. Aleurone layer
senescent phases
are distinct h. Generative cell

(3) Monoecious, – Stone wort (1) b, c, d & g (2) a, b, d & g

protandrous (3) b, c, d & f (4) a, d, f & g
and oogamous 96. Find correct match w.r.t. all the three columns.
(4) Recovery phase – Monocarpic plants Column-I Column-II Column-III
absent
(1) Zostera Hypohydrophily Filamentous
93. Anther is pollen grain

(1) Upper fertile part with non-vasculated connective (2) Amorpho- Foul odoured flower Pollinated by
phallus bees
(2) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate at proximal end
of filament (3) Cereals Multiovulate ovary Anemophily

(3) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate at distal end of filament (4) Orchids Pseudocopulation Plant provides
safe place and
(4) More than one option is correct nectar
Space for Rough Work
97. Which of the following methods is employed for the 101. Number of linkage group is one more in females than
development of embryo directly from nucellus without males in organisms having sex determination.
gametophytic stage?
(1) XO type as in grasshopper
(1) Apospory
(2) XY type as in mammals
(2) Diplospory
(3) ZO type as in butterflies
(3) Adventive embryony
(4) ZW type as in birds
(4) Diploid parthenogenesis
102. Considering the flow of information in cell identify A,
98. Consider the given cross.
B & C events w.r.t. enzymes involved.
P -I P -II

T t Rr Y y tt R rY y B
A DNA RNA Protein
a. How many zygotic combinations are possible? C
b. What is probability of getting offspring with (1) A. RNA dependent DNA polymerase
genotype TtrrYY?
B. DNA dependent DNAP
1 1
(1) a - 32, b - (2) a - 64, b - C. RNA dependent RNAP
32 16
(2) A. DNA dependent DNAP
1 8
(3) a - 16, b - (4) a - 32, b - B. DNA dependent RNAP
64 64
C. RNA dependent DNAP
99. Mutant haemoglobin molecules undergo
polymerisation under low oxygen tension when (3) A. DNA dependent RNAP
(1) Template 3-CTC-5 is mutated into 3-CAC-5 B. DNA dependent Translocase
(2) 3-GAG-5 mutated into 5-GTG
GTG-3 C. Reverse transcriptase
(3) Four alleles undergo transversion mutation (4) A. DNA dependent Primase
(4) Gibberish mutation occurs
B. DNA dependent RNAP
100. 50% of total males will be colour-blind
blind from which of
C. RNA dependent DNAP
the following parental combinations?
103. How many statements are correct for autocatalytic
(1) A normal female marries a colour
colour-blind male
function of DNA in E. coli?
(2) Carrier × Colour-blind
a. Semiconservative, bidirectional and semi-
(3) A female whose father and mother were discontinuous.
colour- blind marries a normal male
b. Rate of polymerisation is 4000 nucleotides per
(4) Colour-blind × Normal second.
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 c. Removal of primer is performed by alpha DNA 107. Binding of 40S-mRNA with tRNA meth. requires
polymerase. (1) eIF1 & ATP (2) eIF3 & GTP
d. Template strand with 5  3 polarity synthesize (3) EF-G & GTP (4) eEFI & GTP
leading strand.
108. Non constitutive gene of lac operon is (i) and
(1) a & b (2) b & c its regulation by (ii) is referred to as negative
(3) a & d (4) c & d control

104. During non-cyclic journey of electron in granum
membrane
(1) Electrons move within the photosystems
(2) Protons are transported across the membrane
(3) pH of stroma is decreased
(4) NADP reductase accepts electron from PS-I and
+ Philippines in varieties like
H from lumen
105. CO2 concentration mechanism occurs in
prevent activity in C4-plants
(1) Mesophylls, pepco
(1) (i) p-gene, (ii) Repressor
(2) (i) o-gene, (ii) Lactose
(3) (i) z, y, a-gene, (ii) Repressor
(4) (i) z-gene, (ii) Operator
109. A gene responsible for dwarfing in rice, reported from
Taiwan was introduced in rice varieties by IRRI,
(1) Remei and Jagannath
to
(2) Sonora 64 and Lerma Rojo 64
(3) Atomita-2 and ADT-37

(2) Bundle sheath cells, pyruvate dikinase (4) IR-8 and IR-24

(3) Bundle sheath cells, oxygenase 110. Read the following statements.

(4) Mesophylls, oxygenase a. Type of resistance in maize for stem borers is

morphological and biochemical.
106. Select incorrectly matched pair.
b. Legumes are commonly deficient in sulphur
(1) Deoxyribonucleoside – Provide energy for
containing amino acid.
monophosphates polymerisation
reaction c. SCP production also reduces environmental
pollution.
(2) Catalytic activity of – Dominance of RNA
snRNPs world d. Pathogens free clones of plants can be obtained
by embryo culture.
(3) Degenerate codons – Specifying serine,
proline and valine etc. How many of the given statement/s is/are correct?

(4) First loop of tRNA – Aminoacyl synthetase (1) One (2) Two
from 5 binding (3) Three (4) Four

Space for Rough Work

111. Floating debris and grit from sewage are removed by 114. Select odd one out w.r.t. positive interaction in
population.
(1) Sedimentation only
a. Zoophily and Zoochory
(2) Sequential filtration only
b. Balanus and Chathamalus
(3) Sludge digester and sedimentation respectively
c. Sparrow and Plants (Seed)
(4) Sequential filtration and sedimentation
d. Sea anemone and hermit crab
respectively
e. Clownfish and sea anemone
112. Consider the given statements A to D and select the
correct option stating True (T) and False (F). (1) a & c (2) b & c
(3) b & e (4) c & d
A. Cyclosporin A is used as an immuno-
suppressive agent and it is produced by fungi 115. The most important cause of “The Evil Quartet”
belonging to ascomycetes. driving animals and plants to extinction is

B. Trichoderma are free living fungi that are very (1) Over-exploitation
common in root ecosystem. (2) Allien species invasions
C. Baculoviruses have narrow spectrum insecticidal (3) Co-extinctions
applications.
(4) Habitat loss
D. Biofertilisers are bacteria and cyanobacteria only. 116. The most effective air pollution control measure for
A B C D removing SO2 from industries smoke/exhaust is
(1) ESP
(1) T T F F
(2) Catalytic converter
(2) T F T F
(3) Scrubber
(3) F T F T
(4) Green Muffler Scheme
(4) F T T F
117. How many features in the given box are commonly
113. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. ecological found in mitochondria, chloroplast and golgi
succession? apparatus?
(1) Hydric to mesic condition
Membrane bound, 70S ribosome, Enzymes,
(2) Mesic to xeric condition Duplication in G2-phase, Proteins, Assimilation

(3) Xeric to mesic condition (1) Three (2) Four

(4) Species diversity and biomass increase (3) Five (4) Seven

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118. The sequence of the developmental process in a 120. A. The asexual spores are generally found in
plant cell is represented by the figure, the arrows 1, mushrooms, bracket fungi and in puffballs.
2 and 3 correctly representing B. Plasmogamy is brought by fusion of two
genetically dissimilar somatic cells in members
2 of basidiomycetes.

Meristematic 1 Differentiation Find correct w.r.t. Basidiomycetes.

cells
(1) Both A & B are incorrect
Mature (2) Only A is incorrect
Expansion 3 cell
(3) Both A & B are correct
(4) Only B is incorrect
(1) 2 - Death 121. Find correct match.
3 - Maturation (1) Sporozoans – Activity moving
(2) 1 - Elongation organisms

2 - Senescence (2) Flagellated protozoans – Infectious spores

(3) 1 - Plasmatic growth (3) Ciliated protozoans – Silica shells on their

surface
3 - Maturation
(4) Amoeboid protozoans – False feet
(4) 2 - Plasmatic growth
122. Features in the given box can be included under how
3 - Elongation many taxonomical aids?
119. a. Protonema
Dried and pressed specimens, Pennisetum,
b. Rhizoids Labelling of scientific names, Quick referral
c. Dioecious gametophyte system, Preserved plants and animals specimens,
d. Rhizophore Analytical, Food habits and behaviour

e. Micro and megaspores (1) Two (2) Five

f. Seed habit (3) Four (4) Three
g. Homospores 123. Which of the features of Trifolium cannot be
The features a, b, c, g and b, c, d, e, f are found in understood by using floral formula % K(5) C1+2+(2)
respectively A(9)+1 G1?
(1) Marchantia and Equisetum (1) Sexuality and symmetry
(2) Sphagnum and Salvinia (2) Aestivation and superior ovary
(3) Sphagnum and Selaginella (3) Placentation and number of ovules
(4) Polytrichum and Dryopteris (4) Number of stamens and carpels
Space for Rough Work
124. Find incorrect statements. 126. All are the functions of boron, except

(1) The structure and function of a tissue would also a. Nitrogen metabolism
be independent on location b. Cell differentiation
(2) In grasses all adaxial epidermal cells along the c. Carbohydrate translocation
veins modify into large, empty and colourless
d. Present in methionine
cells, called bulliform cells
e. Utilisation of Ca2+
(3) In monocot stem, phloem parenchyma is
present and schizolysigenous water cavities f. Pollen germination inhibition

present within conjoint, closed and endarch g. Cell elongation

vascular bundles (1) b, c & e
(4) More than one option is incorrect (2) a, d & f
125. The flow sheet showing (ETS), find correct match (3) d only
w.r.t. A, B and C.
(4) a & g
Cytoplasm Outer membrane
127. Select the correct option.
+ + +
2H 2H 2H Space
DNA
a. 2 pg  4 pg (i) Interkinesis
2e–
2e–
2e –
2e–
–
2e Inner 4 chromosomes 4 chromosomes
A
membrane
UQ UQ B b. Homologous pair (ii) Interphase
NAD+
2H+ 1 separate but sister
Matrix O2 chromatids remain
NADH2 2
C associated
TCA
cycle
c. Centriole duplicates (iii) Prophase I
but DNA not
(1) B - Complex III Cyt a - a3
replicated
C - Final hydrogen acceptor
d. Synapsis is (iv) Anaphase I
(2) A - Complex II - Succinic reductase accompained by
synaptonemal
B - Cytochrome - c
complex
(3) C - Metabolic water
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
B - Cytochrome c - oxidase (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) A - ATPase (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
C - ATP (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

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128. When fat like tripalmitin acts as respiratory substrate, 132. During light reaction of photosynthesis (Z-scheme)
the RQ value showing chlorophyll a absorbs (PS II) wavelength of C
(1) Less use of O2 than evolved CO2 red light, electrons become excited and jump
B , then passes to an electron transport system
(2) Use volume of O2 is equal to evolved volume of
consisting of A . Complete the above statements
CO2
with blanks A, B & C.
(3) RQ value more than one
(1) A - NADP-reductase
(4) More use of O2 than evolved CO2
B - 700 nm
129. Epigynous and perigynous flower are not found in
(2) C - 680 nm
(1) Guava and rose
B - Uphill
(2) Ray florets of Helianthus and plums
(3) B - Downhill
(3) China rose and brinjal
A - Cytochromes
(4) Cucumber and peach
(4) C - 680 nm
130. The following assumption based on evolution of
C4 - photosynthesis system, it explains correctly B - Ground state

fixed fixed 133. Select correct statement for dedifferentiated tissue

used 0.1% CO 2 used
2 ml H2 O 1 ml H2 O in extra-stelar region
_ Plant
B A
_
Plant A. Couple of layer thick having rectangular thick-
walled cells.
0.3 gm 0.3 gm
Carbohydrate Carbohydrate
B. Ontogenetically and functionally secondary
(1) B - C4, plants are twice as efficient as C3 (A) meristem.
plants in terms of fixing carbon to making sugar C. Produces dead tissue on outer side.
(2) A - C4, plants loses only half as much water as
(1) A & B
C3 (B) plants for the same amount of CO2 fixed
(2) B & C
(3) A - C3 , plants minimising water loss and
maximising availability of CO2 (3) A & C
(4) B - C 4 plants maximising water loss and (4) B only
minimising availability of CO2
134. Poleward movement of chromosome as dyad can be
131. Modified underground stem does not show observed in
(1) Perennation (1) Metaphase I
(2) Storage of food (2) Anaphase II
(3) Mechanical support (3) Anaphase I
(4) Vegetative reproduction (4) More than one option is correct

Space for Rough Work

135. Plantae members having dependent, reduced
gametophytes and siphonogamy condition are
exemplified by
(1) Non-archegoniates and non-embryophytes
(2) Vascular cryptogams
(3) Angiosperms only
(4) Phanerogams
136. If a person is infected with Clostridium tetani
microbes, to which quick immune response is
required, the doctors will give
140. Which of the following is a direct method of gene
(1) DPT vaccine, providing the person with artificially
acquired active immunity
(2) ATS injection, providing the person with artificially
acquired passive immunity
139. Assume that 6 of 24 students have attached
earlobes. Calculate the allele frequency within this
gene pool.
(1) The allele frequency of q is 0.2, so p is 0.8
(2) The allele frequency of q is 0.5 and p is 0.5
(3) The frequency of q is 0.80, then the frequency
of p is 0.10
(4) The frequency of q is 0.5, and frequency of p is
0.25
transfer?
(1) Ti plasmid
(2) Retro viruses

(3) Preformed antibodies or antitoxins, providing the (3) Chemical mediated gene transfer
person with artifically active immunity (4) Transposons
(4) Tetanus toxoid 141. Which of the following is not a cause of genetic
137. Which of the following is a powerful technique to change?
identify many genetic disorder? It is also being used
(1) Genetic drift
to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer
patients. (2) Random mating

(1) ELISA, based on the principle of antigen – (3) Natural selection

antibody interaction
(2) PCR and probe
(3) Recombinant DNA technology
(4) Monoclonal antibodies
138. Which of the following is
downstreaming processing?
(1) Separation of product
(2) Product is formulated with suitable preservatives
(3) Expression of genes
(4) Mutation
142. Which of the following is not an important
component in the event of parturition?
(1) High levels of estrogen, prostaglandins and
not included in oxytocin, cause the smooth muscle of the
uterus to contract
(2) Estrogen/progesterone ratio increase
(3) Increase in oxytocin level due to positive
feedback controls

(4) Metabolite specific purification (4) Release of prolactin

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143. Pregnancy is characterised by all, except
(1) Corpus luteum is rescued from regression by
hCG, produced by syncytiotrophoblast or chorion
in the first trimester
(2) In first trimester corpus luteum, stimulated by
hCG is responsible for the production of estrogen
and progesterone
(3) Human placental lactogenic hormone keeps
increasing throughout pregnancy
(4) Pulsatile GnRH stimulates the anterior lobe to
secrete FSH and LH
144. The blood from a person with an AB blood type
(1) Would agglutinate with anti-A antibodies only
(2) Would agglutinate with anti-B antibodies only
(3) Would agglutinate with both anti-A and anti-B
antibodies
(4) Would not agglutinate with either anti-A and anti-
B antibodies
145. When you feel thirsty or there is dehydration, it
results in increase in osmolarity of blood above
300 mos mL–1. It would stimulate the release of all
the following, except
(1) This triggers the release of ADH. ADH causes
the walls of the distal convoluted tubules and
collecting ducts in the kidney to become more
permeable to water
(2) Aldosterone will stimulate the distal convoluted
+
tubules and collecting ducts to reabsorb Na
(3) Increase in osmolarity may also trigger the
release of atrial natriuretic hormone
(4) A lowering of blood volume stimulates the
release of renin
Space for Rough Work
146. Plasmodesmata are a type of
(1) Gap junction
(2) Anchoring junction
(3) Communicating junction
(4) Tight junction
147. Second messengers are activated in response to
(1) Steroid hormones (2) Thyroxine
(3) Peptide hormones (4) Estrogen
148. A sexually transmitted disease that can be treated
with antibiotics is
(1) Genital herpes (2) Hepatitis B
(3) Chlamydiasis (4) AIDS
149. Ectopic pregnancy is characterised by all, except
(1) Blastocyst occasionally embeds and develops in
the fallopian tubes
(2) Such a pregnancy is extremely painful and
potentially fatal to the mother because heavy
bleeding occurs as the embryo grows
(3) CAT scanning is generally used to detect the
disorder
(4) The embryo cannot survive in the fallopian tube,
and it must be removed surgically
150. By the end of the first trimester, which of the
following has occurred in the foetus?
(1) The first movements of the foetus and
appearance of hair on the head are usually
observed
(2) The body is covered with fine hair, eyelids
separate, and eyelashes are formed
(3) Most of the major organ systems are formed,
limbs and external genitalia are well developed
(4) The foetus uses its lungs to breathe
151. Most sensory receptors function by producing
depolarising potentials to the stimulus. Which of the
following function by hyperpolarization rather than
depolarization?
(1) Proprioceptors (2) Nocireceptors
(3) Olfactory receptors (4) Photoreceptors
152. ‘Birds are glorified reptiles’ have evolved along
dinosaur line. Which group of living reptiles is most
closely related to birds?
(1) Pteranodon (2) Tuataras
(3) Crocodiles (4) Turtles
153. What evidence convinced scientists that
Archaeopteryx should be classified as a bird rather
than a small dinosaur?
(1) Scales
(2) A toothless, elongated mouth like beak
(3) A tail similar to that of modern birds
(4) Fused collarbone, indicating flying ability
154. ‘Homo sapiens’ arose in Africa and moved across
continents and developed into distinct races. What
evidence the scientists have used to estimate when
and where modern humans evolved?
(1) Cave paintings
(2) Articles buried with the dead
(3) Analysis of mDNA and Y-chromosome
(4) Analysis of language
155. Roundup ready crop plants have been genetically
engineered to be resistant to
(1) Pesticide Bt toxin
(2) Glyphosate
(3) Abiotic environmental stresses
(4) Ringspot virus
Space for Rough Work
156. When a mammal swallows, the food is prevented
from going up into the nasal cavity by the
(1) Oesophagus (2) Tongue
(3) Soft palate (4) Epiglottis
157. What is the role of Ca
2+
in muscle contraction?
(1) It binds to tropomyosin, enabling troponin to
move and reveal binding sites for cross bridges
(2) It binds to troponin, enabling tropomyosin to
move and reveal binding sites for cross bridges
(3) It binds to tropomyosin, enabling troponin to
release ATP
(4) It binds to troponin, enabling tropomyosin to
release ATP
158. The ear detects sound by the movement of
(1) Basilar membrane
(2) The tectorial membrane
(3) The cupula that surrounds the hair cells
(4) Fluid in semicircular canals
159. False statement is
(1) Bt toxins encoded by the genes cryIAc and
cryIIAb control cotton bollworm, a lepidopteran
(2) RNAi is a method of cellular defense in all
eukaryotes
(3) Bt toxins encoded by cryIAb control corn borer
a coleopteran
(4) Thurioside is a Bt toxin which can kill insect
pest and its larvae by inhibiting the transport of
ions in the midgut
160. Mating of animals within the same breed but having
no common ancestors on either side of their
pedigree upto 4-6 generations is called
(1) Outbreeding
(2) Cross-breeding
(3) Interspecific hybridisation
(4) Inbreeding
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161. Creation of antibodies in passive immunity is
(1) By the recipient
(2) By preformation
(3) Created by fresh exposure
(4) Created by antitoxins
162. Which of the following represents the action of
insulin?
(1) Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of
glycogen
(2) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating
glucagon production
(3) Decreases blood glucose levels by forming
glycogen
(4) Increases blood glucose levels by promoting
cellular uptake of glucose
163. Breathing rate will automatically increase when
(1) Blood pH is high and the amount of carbon
dioxide is high
(2) The amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
increase and oxygen decreases
(3) The amount of carbon dioxide increases
(4) Hemoglobin is unloaded
164. False statement about HIV.
(1) HIV infects helper T cells with CD4 receptors and
automatically kills them
(2) HIV does not rupture and kills the macrophage
cells it infects. They are HIV factory
(3) HIV mainly spreads by sexual contact
(4) HIV can also be transmitted through the toilet
seats, kissing and insect bites
Space for Rough Work
165. If the sodium-potassium pump of a neuron failed,
what effect would this likely have on the neuron’s
function?
(1) The concentration of positive and negative ions
would cause the neuron to be negative inside
(2) Voltage gated potassium and sodium ion
channels would no longer function
(3) The neuron could not conduct another action
potential until the resting potential was fully
restored
(4) The concentration of sodium ion would be higher
outside the cell and that of potassium ions would
be higher inside
166. A fight or flight response in the body is controlled by
the
(1) Sympathetic division of the nervous system
(2) Parasympathetic division of the nervous system
(3) Release of acetylcholine from post ganglionic
neurons
(4) Somatic neural system
167. Which of the following is the false statement?
(1) Mutations are random and directionless while
Darwinian variations are small and directional
(2) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult
human skull than adult chimpanzee skull
(3) Neanderthal man with brain size of 1400 CC first
used hides to protect their body and buried their
dead
(4) After industrialization there were more dark
winged moths in the same area, they became
dark due to industrial smoke and soots
168. Which evolutionary force decreases the genetic
diversity of a population by increasing the proportion
of similar individuals?
(1) Mutation (2) Gene flow
(3) Bottleneck effect (4) Random mating
169. Over the time the same bones like humerus, radius, 172. Which of the following is the false statement?
ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges in the (1) Aedes aegypti is the vector of diseases like
forelimbs in different group of vertebrates were put to dengue and chikungunya
different uses. This falls under the category of
(2) Chikungunya is caused by alpha group of
(1) Missing limbs arbovirus and the symptoms are fever, rash and
(2) Vestigial structures joint pain
(3) Convergent evolution and analogous organs (3) Polysaccharides vaccines are available for
pneumonia caused by pneumococcus
(4) Divergent evolution and homologous structures
(4) Common cold caused by Rhino viruses can be
170. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. name,
treated by antibiotics
source and action of some drugs?
173. The function of spermathecae in Periplaneta is
Name Source Action
(1) To help in copulation
(1) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Acts as a
stimulant (2) To store eggs
interferes
(3) To secrete outermost covering of spermatophore
with the
transport of (4) To store sperms
dopamine
174. The open circulatory system is not of any
(2) Morphine Latex of Papaver Relieves physiological hindrance to cockroach because
somniferum pain
(1) Excretion occurs with the help of malpighian
(3) Vincristine Rosy periwinkle To treat tubules
childhood
(2) Heart is dorsal and thirteen chambered
leukemia
(3) Blood is without any respiratory pigment
(4) Amphetamine Synthetic Stimulant
analogue of (4) The circulatory system and respiratory system
acetylcholine are not linked
171. Each of the following statements concerning malaria 175. Which of the following epithelium is found in the
is correct, except epithelium of ducts, of gland and tubular part of
(1) The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector nephrons in the kidneys and its main functions are
secretion and absorption?
(2) Early in infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
(1) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Release of merozoites from red blood cells
(2) Ciliated epithelium
causes periodic fever and chills
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) The principal site of gametocytes formation is
human gastrointestinal tract (4) Squamous epithelium

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176. False statement is 179. Which of the following is not correctly matched with
its typical examples and key characteristics?
(1) NAD is a nucleotide of vitamin niacin and acts
as coenzyme Phylum Examples Key characteristics

(2) Haem is prosthetic group of peroxidase and (1) Mollusca Pila, Aplysia 1. Unsegmented
catalase body

(3) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate 2. Usually

can be removed by increasing the concentration dioecious and
of succinic acid oviparous with
X Y indirect
development
(4) The reaction C C X Y + C = O, is
catalysed by transferase (2) Echinodermata Ophiura, 1. Excretory system
Antedon absent
177. Read the following statements and mark the correct
2. Fertilisation
answer.
external and
Assertion : Ornithorhynchus is an oviparous development is
mammal. indirect
Reason : It possesses hair, mammary glands, (3) Hemichordata Balanoglossus,
Balanoglossus 1. Deuterostomic
pinnae and is homoiothermous.
Saccoglossus 2. Pattern of
(1) Both statement and reason are true and the coelom
reason explains the statement development is
schizocoely
(2) Statement and reason are true in themselves but
the reason does not explain the statement (4) Aschelminthes Wuchereria,
Wuchereria 1. Dioecious

(3) The statement is true but the reason is false Ancylostoma 2. Often the females
are longer than
(4) The statement and reason are false
males
178. Chameleon is well adapted for arboreal mode of life,
because 180. Key evolutionary advances of flatworms are bilateral
symmetry and
(1) It shows camouflaging and is ectothermal
(1) A one way digestive tract
(2) It is poikilotherm and the body is covered by dry
and cornified skin (2) A body cavity

(3) It has prehensile tail and shows syndactyly (3) Internal organs

(4) Fertilisation is internal and it is amniote (4) Intracellular digestion

  

Space for Rough Work
 ANSWERS

1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (3)

2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146 (3)
3. (3) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (4) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (4) 148. (3)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (3) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (3)
7. (4) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (1) 84. (1) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (1) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (3) 50. (4) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (1)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (4) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (2) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (3) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (4) 56. (4) 92. (2) 128. (4) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (1) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (2) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (1) 95. (1) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (4) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (1) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (2) 172. (4)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (4) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (4) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (1) 139. (2) 175. (1)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (1) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (1) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (3)

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 Hints to Selected Questions
[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 9. Answer (4)
Error in mass = 0.01 × 100 = 1% 1
1.00 wf = mv – mgH = – 50 J
2
2
0.01
Error in velocity = × 100 = 0.5% 10. Answer (3)
2.00
 Maximum % error in KE = % error in mass + 10 3 1
tan =    = 30°
2% error in velocity 10 3
= 1 + 1 = 2% 11. Answer (1)
2. Answer (3) 12. Answer (3)
vdv
a =– 2v  = –2v  xdm  2R  ydm  2R
2
dx and
0 x  dm   dm 
  dv  0 2dx  – 10 = –2 x 13. Answer (2)
10 14. Answer (3)
x=5m
T R 32
 3 2
3. Answer (3) =8

A A 4
TB  RB 
v = u cos  i  (u sin   gt ) j
15. Answer (4) 
 20i  ( 20  10)j  20i  10 j v = A 
10 1
 tan =  3R
 g
20 2 = and A = R sin 60° =
R 2
10  2 16. Answer (4)
Now, ac = g cos = 4 5 m/s2
5 L
3FL
4. Answer (1) 3F

  = OYLA (L  x)dx  2AY

r  2 {(2cos t )iˆ  (3 sint ) j }
17. Answer (2)
5. Answer (2)
a 2 2g
fk = mat = 200 N  a= = 4 m/s
2

mv
2 g 5 5
fs = = 200 N  f = 200 2 N 18. Answer (3)
R
6. Answer (3) 1 2
g 2h + 2gh = (2)v
dp 2 2
a=0f=0 = 0  2t – t = 0  t = 0, 2
dt v=2 gh
v= P(at t  2) 4 m/s 19. Answer (1)

m 3 2T
7. Answer (4) Patm – PA = r
A
Both are moving with same acceleration
2T
8. Answer (2) Patm – PB =  h = 4 mm
2 dv rB
mv 1/3
= constant vs and PA – PB = gh
dx

2/8
 20. Answer (4) 33. Answer (4)
21. Answer (4) 34. Answer (4)
22. Answer (1) I0 2
I0
I= cos 60° = = 12.5%
V0  A 2 8
V0  A = 1.02 35. Answer (1)

23. Answer (2) 2

t ( – 1) = 2 n
24. Answer (2) 
25. Answer (3) 36. Answer (2)
nRT H= 18  8 = 12 cm
P = P0 – V  =P–V
0
V 37. Answer (2)

1 dT 38. Answer (1)
0 P
 T= [P0V – V ]
2
 =0V= 1
nR dV 2 V 20
Here L = I=  =2A
c R 6 4
T=
0 P2 39. Answer (2)
4nR
I = I0 [1 – e–tR/L]
26. Answer (3) 40. Answer (3) 
40  30  40  30  
K  15 I
10  2  T = 2   T = T 21 4
MB
30  20 30  20  
 t = 20 minutes
K  15


 2  2I
t T = 2
M2B
27. Answer (2)
 41. Answer (2)
h


h
mr =   2r M Q Q
2 mv   M  L
28. Answer (2) L 2M 2M
L = I  = 2f
13.6 4V 2 2
V
10.2 3 Q ML fQl
M 
29. Answer (2) 2M 3 3

Amount of substance decayed in 10 years (two half 42. Answer (3)

N0 3N0 43. Answer (1)

lives) is N0 –
4 4  75  1
  6 = 1.5 
3N / 4  60 
0
 Probability of decay =  75%
N0 44. Answer (1)
Eeq = 20 V req = 20 
30. Answer (1)  

31. Answer (3) 20

 I= = 0.4 A
3
5 – Ib (8.6 × 10 ) – 0.7 = 0 30  20
45. Answer (4)
1
 I = mA  I = 50 mA
b 2 c Q2
U= Q remains same and C decreases.
Now, 18 – 100 (50 mA) – VCE  0  VCE = 13 volt 2C
32. Answer (1) E and V will increase.

3/8
 [CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1) 56. Answer (4)

i 1 O O H
Tf im when  Br2 + NaOH
n 1 R C NH2 NaOBr R C N Br
i 1 –H2O
O OH
–

0.8   i  1.8 O
a = 80% = 0.8
21 –Br
R C N R C N Br
n=2
H2O
Tf  1.8  0.2  0.36 K R N C O R NH C O

Lesser the Tf more the freezing point of solution. OH

47. Answer (4)
On applying pressure NaCl type crystal changes to R NH2 + CO2
CsCl type crystal. CO2 + 2NaOH
48. Answer (1) 1

Hydroboration oxidation follows syn--addition. Na2CO3 + H2O

49. Answer (2) 57. Answer (2)
Compound b have more acidic H than -H whereas
in compound c, -H is not present. pH  pKa log [Salt]
[Acid]
50. Answer (4)
58. Answer (4)
— —
O O O
OH
—
OH
— 59. Answer (1)
H — C— H H — C— H H — C —H
60. Answer (2)
—
O—H O 61. Answer (4)
dianion

51. Answer (4) 62. Answer (2)

63. Answer (3)
52. Answer (3)
53. Answer (1) OH O
Zn/ HCN/HCl LiAlH4
3 AlCl3
Packing fraction in BCC = 8 
(A) (B)
3
Nearest neighbour in BCC = a CH2OH CHO
2
MnO2
54. Answer (2)
Addition of HBr follows carbocation mechanism and
(C) (D)

CH OH 64. Answer (2)

CH2 is more stable Area under the curve remains same at all
temperature whereas fraction of molecules having
due to +R group. most probable speed decreases.
55. Answer (3) 65. Answer (2)
3
Time  n Work is equal to area under P-V
P graph. Area under
2
Radius  n graph 3 is maximum and under graph 1 is minimum.

4/8
66. Answer (4) 78. Answer (2)
Reaction proceed via SN1 mechanism. S(-2)
67. Answer (1)
S(+6)
68. Answer (4) NaO ONa
Geometrical isomers are diasteremoers. O

69. Answer (3) 79. Answer (4)

Chromyl chloride test.
10 mL of 0.5 M NaCl = 10 × 0.5 millimoles of NaCl
80. Answer (3)
= 5 millimoles of NaCl
Two geometrical isomers and two linkage isomers.
90 mL of total sol requires NaCl = 5 millimoles
81. Answer (4)
 1 L solution requires NaCl = 55.5 millimoles
82. Answer (4)
70. Answer (3)
83. Answer (4)
Factual.
H2 will evolve at cathode.
71. Answer (1) 84. Answer (1)
72. Answer (1) 85. Answer (1)
73. Answer (4)
2MnO–4 + H2O + I 2MnO 2+ 2OH + IO– 3
All show geometrical isomerism.
86. Answer (2)
74. Answer (4)
87. Answer (2)
75. Answer (2)
Optically active compounds are
CH2OH Cl H CH3
O *
H H OH
C* CH3 CH C CH CH3
C-1
OH H T H
OH H D
H OH 88. Answer (1)
76. Answer (4) Fact.

77. Answer (2) 89. Answer (4)

Rotating B in plane by 180º will give a structure Fact.

which is non superimposable mirror image of A. 90. Answer (4)

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3) 96. Answer (1)
Conidia - exogenous 97. Answer (3)
92. Answer (2) Polyembryony
Polycarpic 98. Answer (1)
93. Answer (3) TtRrYyXttRrYy
94. Answer (2) 99. Answer (1)
Sporopollenin SCA
95. Answer (1) 100. Answer (2)
c
a, e, f, h - “N” X X – XY

5/8
101. Answer (4) 131. Answer (3)
102. Answer (2) 132. Answer (2)
103. Answer (1) 133. Answer (2)
DNA polymerase I - primer removal in 5 – 3. 134. Answer (3)
104. Answer (2) 135. Answer (4)
PQ - pumping Both gymnosperms and angiosperms.
105. Answer (3) 136. Answer (2)
CO2 from malic acid in bundle sheath cells. ATS injection is anti-tetanus serum. It contains
106. Answer (1) preformed antibodies against the tetanus toxin
providing the person with temporary but immediate
Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate immunity.
107. Answer (2) DPT vaccine and tetanus toxoid provide active
108. Answer (3) immunity, it is slow in expression but long lasting.
i-gene – constitutive gene 137. Answer (2)
109. Answer (4) By PCR we amplify the genetic material of the
normal gene. A ssDNA or RNA, tagged with
110. Answer (2)
radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise
111. Answer (4) to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells
112. Answer (4) followed by detection using auto-radiography. The
cells having the mutated gene will not appear on
113. Answer (2) photographic film, because the probe has no
Succession leads to mesic conditions. complementarity for mutated gene.
114. Answer (2) 138. Answer (3)
115. Answer (4) Upstreaming processing involves all the steps from
sterilization of the bioreactor, preparation of the
116. Answer (3) medium till the completion of biosynthetic pathway.
ESP - 99.9% particulate matters separated. So gene expression will be included in upstreaming.
117. Answer (2) 139. Answer (2)
2 2
118. Answer (3) p + q + 2pq = 1
6
119. Answer (3) students have attached ear lobes a recessive
24
120. Answer (2) character.
Asexual spores absent. 2
So, q (frequency of individuals who are homozygous
121. Answer (4) recessive)
122. Answer (2) 2 6 1
q    0.25
123. Answer (3) 24 4
124. Answer (4)
q  0.25
125. Answer (3)
q = 0.5
A - NAD dehydrogenase
p+q=1
126. Answer (2)
p = 0.5, q = 0.5
127. Answer (3)
140. Answer (3)
128. Answer (4)
Direct method of gene transfer is vectorless method.
129. Answer (3) Chemical mediated gene transfer is with the help of
130. Answer (2) PEG chemical.

6/8
141. Answer (2)
According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, in a large
random mating population the frequencies of various
alleles in a population will remain constant in
absence of forces like genetic drift, mutation, natural
selection mutation, recombination.
142. Answer (4)
143. Answer (4)
During pregnancy the high levels of estrogen and
progesterone will suppress the release of FSH, LH
and Gn-RH.
144. Answer (3)
Blood group AB has both the antigens A and B on
the outer surface of RBCs but antibodies are absent.
So the blood from a person with AB blood type will
agglutinate with both anti-A and anti-B.
145. Answer (3)
If there is increase in the osmolarity of our blood
plasma it would stimulate renin angiotensin
aldosterone system not ANF. ANF i.e., the atrial
natriuretic factor is released when there is increase
in blood volume, blood pressure, decrease in
osmolarity of blood plasma, it comes less than 300
–1
mos mL .
146 Answer (3)
Plasmodesmata are a type of communicating
function in plants.
147. Answer (3)
Second messengers are associated with response
to peptide hormones they are insoluble in lipid and
soluble in water. They do not enter inside the cell
but bind with extracellular receptor and generate the
second messenger. Whereas, steroid hormones,
thyroxine, estrogen all are lipid soluble, they directly
enter the cell and bind with intracellular messengers.
They do not need a second messenger.
148. Answer (3)
Genital herpes, Hepatitis-B and AIDS are viral
diseases. Viral disease cannot be treated by
antibiotic because they lack the cell wall and cellular
machinery of their own.
149. Answer (3)
Ectopic pregnancy is generally detected by
ultrasound/sonography. As ultrasound is not harmful
even for embryo.
150. Answer (3)
The rudiments of all organs are laid by the end of
third trimester.
151. Answer (4)
Rods and cones work by hyperpolarization.
152. Answer (3)
153. Answer (4)
Archaeopteryx had non-pneumatic bones.
154. Answer (3)
Today we are studying the variations in the
mitochondrial DNA and Y-chromosome of different
human races to study human evolution. Greater the
accumulation of variations older will be the DNA.
Maximum variations are found in the mitochondrial
DNA of Africans.
155. Answer (2)
Glyphosate its trade name is ‘Round up’. It kills the
herbs by inhibiting the action of a chloroplast enzyme
EPSP synthetase which is required for the synthesis
of aromatic amino acids.
156. Answer (3)
The food is prevented from going up into the nasal
cavity by closure of internal nares by uvula.
157. Answer (2)
The calcium binding protein in skeletal muscle fibres
and cardiac muscle fibres is troponin-C.
158. Answer (1)
The ear detects sound by the movement of the
basilar membrane which forms the floor of scala
media. The auditory receptor cells and supporting
cells rest on basilar membrane.
159. Answer (3)
Bt toxin encoded by cryIAb controls corn borer a
lepidopteran.
160. Answer (1)
Mating of animals within the same breed, but having
no common ancestors on either side of their
pedigree upto 4 to 6 generations is out-crossing,
which is included in out-breeding.
161. Answer (2)
When readymade antibodies are directly given to
protect the body against infective agent, it is called
passive immunity. An injection of preformed
antibodies, synthesized by another organism in
response to deliberate infection is given.
162. Answer (3)
Insulin hormone is hypocalcemic hormone, it
converts excess of glucose to glycogen.
7/8
163. Answer (3)
+
Increase in pCO2, H concentration will stimulate the
respiratory centre to increase the rate and depth of
respiration. The role of oxygen in the regulation of
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
164. Answer (4)
HIV cannot spread through the toilet seats, kissing
and insect bites.
165. Answer (3)
Sodium-potassium
potassium pump is responsible for
maintaining the resting potential
ential / polarised state of
the membrane.
The neuron is negative inside when the sodium
sodium-
potassium pump is working. Voltage gated sodium
and potassium ion channels have no link with
sodium potassium pump.
166. Answer (1)
Sympathetic nervous system and adrenal medulla
work in association to form closely integrated
sympathetic-adrenal
adrenal outflow. Both are stimulated
under the same emergency conditions.
167. Answer (4)
During post industrialization period, the tree trunks
became dark due to industrial smoke and soot.
Black winged moths were already present and they
could easily camouflage.
168. Answer (3)
169. Answer (4)
Whales, bats, cheetah, human (all mammals) share
similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs, but
perform different functions. This is divergent evolution
and homologous structure.
170. Answer (4)
Amphetamine is a stimulant. It is synthetic analogue
of adrenaline.
  
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171. Answer (4)
The principal site of gametocyte formation is the
human RBCs.
172. Answer (4)
Common cold is caused by Rhino viruses cannot be
treated by antibiotics. We cannot treat the viral
diseases by antibiotics as they lack the cell wall.
173. Answer (4)
A pair of spermatheca are present in the 6
th
abdominal segment of female, which stores the
sperms deposited during copulation.
174. Answer (4)
In insects the branches of trachea i.e., tracheoles
carry oxygen directly to the tissues. The exchange
of gases occurs directly between the environment
and tissues
s through the tracheal system.
175. Answer (1)
176. Answer (4)
XY
C C X Y + C = O, this reaction is catalysed
by lyases. They breakdown the covalent bond with
removal of group, leaving covalent bond behind.
177. Answer (3)
Ornithorhynchus is oviparous, possess hair,
mammary gland are homoiothermous but lack
pinnae.
178. Answer (3)
179. Answer (3)
Hemichordates are deuterostomic and the pattern of
coelom development is enterocoely.
180. Answer (3)
Flatworms have two way digestive tract, no body
cavity i.e.,, solid mesoderm, intracellular digestion
occurs in poriferans.