BATCH : PN-S8 10–07–2016

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PHYSICS 6. A body of mass m was slowly pulled up the

1. A man of mass 65 kg is holding a bucket of hill by a force F which at each point was
mass 15 kg. He walks 50 m on a level road at directed along the tangent of the trajectory. All
a constant speed of 3 ms–1 and then climbs up surfaces are smooth. Find the work performed
a hill of height 20 m. What is the work done by this force.
by the man? Take g = 10 ms–2.
(1) 2.05 kJ (2) 3.5 kJ
(3) 12 kJ (4) 16 kJ F h
2. Two particles of masses m and 4m have linear
momentam in the ratio of 2 : 1. What is the l
ratio of their kinetic energies ? (1) mgl (2) –mgl (3) mgh (4) zero

(1) (2) 2 7. A weight lifter of power 1960 watt lifts a load

2
of mass M from the ground to a height of 2m
(3) 4 (4) 16 in 3 seconds. M is
3. A block of mass 2 kg is resting on a horizontal (1) 100 kg (2) 200 kg
table. A force of 10 N is applied for 4s on the
(3) 300 kg (4) 400 kg
block in the horizontal direction. If g = 10 ms–2,
8. The energy consumed (in kWh) by four devices
and the coefficient of kinetic friction between
of 500 W each in 10 hours is
the block and the table = 0.2, then the work
done by the net force is (1) 4 kWh (2) 5 kWh
(1) 144 J (2) 96 J (3) 10 kWh (4) 20 kWh

(3) 72 J (4) 36 J 9. A body of mass 100 gm is rotating in a circular

path of radius r with constant speed. The work
4. The work done by a pendulum after complete
done in one complete revolution is-
oscillation is
(1) zero r
(1) 100 r J (2) J
(2) equal to potential energy of the pendulum 100
(3) equal to kinetic energy of the pendulum
100
(4) equal to total energy of the pendulum (3) J (4) zero
r
5. If the speed of a vehicle increases by 2 m/s, its
10. A 4 kg body is thrown vertically upwards from
kinetic energy is doubled, then original speed
the ground with a velocity of 5 m s–1. Its kinetic
of the vehicle is
energy just before hitting the ground is
(1) ( )
2 + 1 m/s (1) 25 J (2) 50 J
(3) 75 J (4) 100 J
(2) 2 ( 2 -1 ) m/s 11. Two men A and B, each weighing 80 kg, run
up the same stair case. While A does it in 20

(3) 2 ( )
2 + 1 m/s
second, B does it in 15 second. The ratio of
the powers developed by A and B is

(4) 2 ( 2 + 1 m/s) (1)

4
(2)
3
(3)
1
(4)
1
3 4 2 4
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 PRE-NURTURE & CAREER FOUNDATION DIVISION 10–07–2016
12. A vehicle is moving on a straight horizontal 20. A ball of mass m collides with a wall with speed
road at a constant velocity of 10 m s –1 . The v and rebounds on the same line with the same
engine needs to spend 4 kJ of energy per speed. If mass of the wall is taken as infinite,
second. The force on the vehicle is then the work done by the ball on the wall is
(1) 0.2 kN (2) 0.4 kN
1
(3) 0.6 kN (4) 1 N (1) mv 2 (2) mv2 (3) 2mv (4) zero
2
13. An engine develops 10 kW of power. How
much time will it take to lift a mass of 200 kg CHEMISTRY
to a height of 40 m ? 21. Empirical formula of hydrogen peroxide is
[Given : g = 10 m s ] –2
(1) HO (2) H2O2 (3) HO2 (4) (HO)2
(1) 4 s (2) 5 s (3) 8 s (4) 10 s 22. Normality of an acid is equal to
14. Two springs have force constants K1 and K2 .
(1) M × acidity (2) M × basicity
Both are stretched till elastic energies are equal.
If the stretching forces are F1 and F2, then F1 : (3) m × acidity (4) m × basicity
F2 is 23. Number of moles of solute dissolved per litre
(1) K1 : K2 (2) K2 : K1 of solution is
(1) normality (2) molarity
(3) K1 : K 2 (4) K12 : K22
(3) molality (4) none of these
15. A body moves a distance of 5 m along a straight
24. A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g of
line under the action of a force of 10 N. If the
NaOH in 100 mL of solution. Its molarity is
work done is 25 J, then the angle which the
force makes with the direction of motion of (1) 1.0 M (2) 2.5 M (3) 1.5 M (4) 4.0 M
the body is 25. The empirical formula of sucrose is
(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 60° (4) 90° (1) CH2 O (2) CHO
16. A ball is allowed to fall from a height of 10 m. (3) C 12 H22 O11 (4) C(H2O)2
If there is 40% loss of energy due to impact, 26. Molarity is expressed in
then after one impact, the ball will go upto
(1) moles/kg (2) gm/lt
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m (3) 4 m (4) 6 m
(3) moles/lt (4) lit/mol
17. A uniform force of 4 N acts on a body of mass
27. One molal solution contains
40 kg for a distance of 2.0 m. The kinetic
energy acquired by the body is (1) one mole of solute in one litre of solution
(1) 4 × 2 × 2 J (2) 4 × 4 × 2 × 108 erg (2) one mole of solute in 1000 gm of the solvent
(3) 4 × 2 J (4) 4 × 4 × 2 erg (3) one gram-equivalent in 1000 ml of solutions
18. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 4 kg are moving (4) one gram-equivalent in 1000 gm of solvent
with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their 28. The number of moles of NaOH present in 10 lt
linear momenta is of 1 molar solution is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 (1) 10 (2) 1 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.01
19. Two balls at the same temperature collide. What
29. A one molar solution is one that contains
is conserved ?
(1) 1 g of the solute in 1000g of solvent
(1) momentum
(2) 1 g mole of solute in 1000 ml of solution
(2) kinetic energy
(3) 1 g mole of solute in 22.4 lt of solution
(3) velocity
(4) 1 g mole of solute in 1000 g of solvent
(4) temperature
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30. The concentration unit which changes with 39. The mass of 3.011 × 1024 molecules of nitrogen
temperature is gas is
(1) molarity (1) 140 gm (2) 24 gm
(2) molality (3) 14 gm (4) None of the above
(3) Both (1) and (2) 40. The number of molecules in 0.25 moles of
oxygen are
(4) None of the above
(1) 1.505 × 1023 molecules
31. Calculate the normality of NaOH solution
containing 50.0 gm NaOH in 5.0 lt solution (2) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
(3) 3.011 × 1022 molecules
(1) 0.25 N (2) 0.025 N
(4) None of the above
(3) 2.5 N (4) 22.5 N
32. The unit of normality is BIOLOGY
(1) equivalent mol –1 (2) equivalent lit–1 41. In which of the following agricultural methods,
(3) equivalent K–1 (4) None of the above the nutrient needs of one crop are fulfilled by
the other crop ?
Molar mass =Ground nut = Rice
33. Gram equivalent mass = . What is
Z t =Wheat v = Soyabeans
true for ‘Z’ ?
(1) Z represents basicity of an acid (1) (2)
(2) Z represents acidity of base
(3) Z represents basicity of base
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) (4)
34. Find the nomality of solution prepared by
dissolving 10 gms of NaOH in 500 ml water. 42. Which of the following option is correct
(1) 0.5 N (2) 5 N (3) 0.05 N (4) 50 N regarding the diagram given below.
35. The number of sulphur atoms in 16g of sulphur
is
(1) 3.011 × 1023 atoms
(2) 12.044 × 1023 atoms
'A' 'B'
(3) 6.022 × 1023 atoms
(1) 'A' is useful for sandy soil and even land
(4) None of the above
and 'B' is a boon in poor water region.
36. The mass of 1 carbon atom is (2) 'A' is an efficient system in the canal irrigated
(1) 1.99 × 1023 g (2) 3.011 × 1023 g area of haryana and karnataka and 'B' is a
(3) 6.022 × 1023 g (4) None of the above method in which vertical pipes fitted with
small tubes.
37. The percentage composition of H in H2O is
(3) 'A' is useful for loamy soil and uneven land
(1) 11.11% (2) 12.11%
and 'B' is the best irrigation technique for
(3) 89% (4) 13% desert plants.
38. The number of moles in 13.8 g of K2CO3 is (4) 'A' is useful for sandy soil and uneven land
(1) 0.1 moles (2) 1 mole 'B' is the best irrigation technique for fruit
(3) 0.001 mole (4) None of the above crops, garden and trees.

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 PRE-NURTURE & CAREER FOUNDATION DIVISION 10–07–2016
43. The removal of stamens from the floral buds is 47. Identify the example of the type of a crop
called mentioned below.
(1) crossing over (2) hybridization Ÿ Grows for short duration
(3) emasculation (4) maturation Ÿ Include seasonal fruits
44. Which of the following is incorrect for the given Ÿ Sown and harvested between March-June
figure? (1) Mustard (2) Potato
(3) Groundnut (4) Cucumber
48. Which one of the following are the examples
of fodder crops ?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Oats Maize Ginger Sorghum

(v) (vi) (vii) (viii)

Moong Pea Rice Alfalfa
(1) It is a type of cropping pattern called
intercropping. (ix) (x)
(2) The given cropping pattern increases the Berseem Barley
productivity of crops per unit area.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (vii), (x)
(3) The given cropping pattern helps in
maintaining soil fertility and makes better (2) (iii), (iv), (ix) (x), (vii)
use of resources. (3) (i), (ii), (iv), (viii), (ix)
(4) None of these. (4) (ii), (iv), (ix), (x)
45. Read the following statements and mark the 49. All of the following are the examples of hybrid
correct option. varieties of rice except
Statement I : Mixed cropping is the practice of (1) Kalyan (2) Pusa
growing two or more crops simultaneously on (3) Jaya (4) Padma
the same piece of land.
50. Which of the following is correct regarding
Statement II : The objective of mixed cropping Kharif crops ?
is to minimise the crop failure due to pest
(1) Require warm and wet weather.
infestation.
(2) Do not need a lot of water.
(1) Both statements I and II are true and
statement II is the correct explanation of (3) Sown in October and November.
statement I. (4) Common examples are wheat, barley.
(2) Both statements I and II are true but 51. Which one of the following are the
statement II is not the correct explanation disadvantages of green revolution ?
of statement I. (1) Excessive use of synthetic pesticides.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (2) Damage to soil fertility.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true. (3) Destroying nutrients of soil.
46. Heat of damp grains in storage occurs due to (4) All of the above
(1) infestation by insects 52. Olericulture includes the production of
(2) decrease in atmospheric pressure
(1) Fruits (2) Vegetables
(3) decrease in humidity
(3) Flowers (4) Oysters
(4) high moisture content and growth of moulds.
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53. Which of the following is not a characteristic (iv)Bacillus Thuringiensis - as biopesticides
of mixed cropping ? (v) Sun hemp - as green manure
(1) It minimises the risk of crop failure. (vi)Vermicompost - as biofertiliser
(2) There is no pattern of sowing seeds. (1) (i), (ii) & (iii) only
(3) Requirement of inputs is comparatively (2) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
more. (3) (iii), (iv), (v) only
(4) Specific pesticides cannot be sprayed. (4) (v), (ii), (iii) only
54. Which of the following factors are needed for
59. Which type of soil has large air spaces and less
increasing crop production ?
water holding capacity ?
(1) Proper nutrient management. (1) Sandy soil (2) Clayey soil
(2) Adequate amount of irrigation. (3) Loamy soil (4) All of the above
(3) Different cropping patterns to maintain the 60. (A) Scientist 'X' is also known as father of green
fertility of soil. revolution.
(4) All of the above
(B) Scientist 'Y' is the founder chairman of the
55. Which one of the following is/are the desirable National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)
agronomic characteristics ? gujarat. He started the “operation flood”.
(1) The food crops should consume less
nutrients.
(2) Cereal crops should be long in height so
that they consume large amount of nutrients
and hence provide nutritious product.
(3) Crops should be strong & able to with
stand winds.
(4) Both (1) & (3)
56. Which of the following is an incorrect pair of 'X' 'Y'
weed with its common name ? (1) Scientist 'X' is Norman Borlaug.
(1) Cyprinus ® Motha Scientist 'Y' is M.S. Swaminathan.
(2) Amaranthus ® Chaulai (2) Scientist 'X' is M.S. Swaminathan.
(3) Xanthium ® Gajar grass Scientist 'Y' is Norman Borlaug.
(4) Chenopodium ® Bathua (3) Scientist 'X' is Norman Borlaug.
57. Which of the following is a correct set of Scientist 'Y' is Dr. V. Kurein.
weedicides ? (4) Scientist 'X' is M.S. Swaminathan.
(1) Isoproturon, DDT, Malathion, 2, 4-D Scientist 'Y' is Dr. V. Kurein.
(2) 2, 4-D, 2, 4, 5-T, Atrazine, MCPA
(3) ZnSO4, CuSO4, DDT, Malathion MATHEMATICS
(4) Bordeaux mixture, DDT, 2, 4-D, ZnSO4 61. The polynomials ax3 + 3x2 – 3 and 2x3 – 5x + a
when divided by (x – 4) leaves remainder R1
58. Which one of the following can be used by a
and R2 respectively; then value of ‘a’ if 2R1 –
plant breeder while practising organic farming?
R2 = 0 is
(i) Neem leaves - as bioinsecticides
(ii) Chrysanthemum - as biopesticides 18 13 17 17
(1) (2) (3) (4) –
(iii) DDT - as biofertiliser 127 64 127 127

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 PRE-NURTURE & CAREER FOUNDATION DIVISION 10–07–2016
62. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + 70. In the following figure given below, PQRS is a
rhombus, SQ and PR are the diagonals of the
(k + 1) (k + 2)
bx + c are of the form and , rhombus intersecting at O. If ÐOPQ = 35°; then
k (k + 1)
find the value of ÐORS + ÐOQP.
then find the value of k. S R
(1) b2 + 4ac (2) b2 – 4ac
(3) a2 + 4ac (4) None O
63. If a and b are zeros of quadratic polynomial
2x2 + 5x + k find the value of k such that
P Q
13 (1) 90° (2) 180° (3) 135° (4) 45°
(a + b)2 – ab =
4 71. If a, b, g are the zeroes of the polynomial x3 +
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) None 1 1 1
x2 – 5x – 5, then the value of + + .
64. Find the value of : ab bg ga
(x – a)3 + (x – b)3 + (x – c)3 – 3(x – a) (x – b)
(x–c) when a + b + c = 3x 2 1 1
(1) (2) – (3) 5 (4)
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 6 10 5 5

65. If a, b, g are zeros of cubic polynomial kx3 –

5x + 9. If a3 + b3 + g3 = 27. Find the value of k.
72. Factorize : å a (b
a,b,c
2 4
- c4 )

(1) 1 (2) –2 (3) –1 (4) 2

(1) (a – b)2 (b – c)2 (c – a)2
66. If 3x = a + b + c, then the value of
(2) (a – b) (a + b) (b – c) (b + c) (c – a) (c + a)
(x – a)3 + (x – b)3 + (x – c)3 – 3(x – a) (x – b) (x – c)
(3) (a + b)2 (b + c)2 (c + a)2
is
(4) None of these
(1) a + b + c
73. If each of the algebraic expressions lx2 + mx
(2) (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)
+ n, mx2 + nx + l and nx2 + lx + m are perfect
(3) 0
(4) None of these l+m
squares, then = ______.
n
67. The bisector of any two adjacent angles of a
parallelogram intersect at (1) –4 (2) 6 (3) –8 (4) None
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° 74. The HCF of the polynomials
68. Identify the remainder when 9(x + a)p (x – b)q (x + c)r and
1 + x + x2 + x3 +............ + x2012 is divided by x – 1. 12(x + a)p + 3(x – b)q–3 (x + c)r + 2 is
(1) 2012 (2) 1 (3) 2013 (4) 0 3(x + a)6 (x – b)6 (x + c)6, then the value of
1 p + q – r is
69. If y = x + , Then x4 + x3 – 4x2 + x + 1 = 0
x (1) 21 (2) 9 (3) 15 (4) 6
becomes
75. If 4x 4 + 12x 3 + 25x 2 + 24x + 16 = ax + bx +
2

(1) x (y + y – 6) = 0
2 2

c, then which of the following is true ?

(2) x2 (y2 + y – 2) = 0
(1) 2b = a – c (2) 2a = b + c
(3) x2 (y2 + y – 3) = 0
(3) 2b = a + c (4) 2b = c – a
(4) x2 (y2 + y – 4) = 0

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76. The diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal and
æ 4 x4 ö
bisect each other. The quadrilateral has to be 83. The factors of ç x 4 + 81 ÷ are
(1) any parallelogram è ø

(2) any rectangle

æ 2 x 2 öæ 2 x 2 ö
(3) any trapezium (1) ç x 2 + 9 ÷ç x 2 - 9 ÷
è øè ø
(4) any rhombus
77. ABCD is a parallelogram. ‘P’ is a point on AD
æ 2 x 2 2 öæ 2 x 2 2 ö
1 (2) ç x 2 + 9 + 3 ÷ç x 2 - 9 + 3 ÷
such that AP = AD and ‘Q’ is a point on BC è øè ø
3

1 æ 2 x2 2 ö æ 2 x2 2 ö
such that CQ = BC. Then AQCP is a (3) ç 2 + + ÷ ç 2 + - ÷
3 èx 9 3ø è x 9 3ø
(1) Parallelogram (2) Rhombus (4) Not possible
(3) Rectangle (4) Square 84. If the polynomial x19 + x17 + x13 + x11 + x7 +
78. In a quadrilateral ABCD, ÐB = 90° and AD = 2
x5 + x3 is divided by (x2 – 1) then the remainder
AB2 + BC2 + CD2, then ÐACD is equal to is
(1) 90° (2) 60° (1) 7x (2) –7x
(3) 30° (4) None (3) –x (4) None of these
79. One side of a parallelogram has length 3, and 85. ABCD is a parallelogram X and Y are mid
another side has length 4. Let a and b denote points of BC and CD respectively. Find
the lengths of the diagonals of the
ar.(DAXY)
parallelogram. Which of the following
ar.(||gm ABCD)
quantities can be determined from the given
information ?
2 5 4 3
(I) a + b (II) a2 + b2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 8 8 8
(III) a3 + b3
86. Parallelogram ABCD and rectangle ABEF have
(1) only I (2) only II
the same base AB and also have equal areas.
(3) only III (4) only I and II Then perimeter of the parallelogram is _____
80. O is any point inside a rectangle ABCD. What than that of the rectangle.
is the value of OB2 + OD2. (1) lesser (2) equal
(1) 2(OA2 + OC2) (2) 3(OA2 + OC2) (3) greater (4) No relation
(3) OA + OC
2 2
(4) 4(OA + OC )
2 2
87. In figure, ABCD is a parallelogram in which P
is the mid-point of DC and Q is a point on AC
81. (a - b)2 + (b - a)2 is
1
such that CQ = AC. If PQ produced meets
(1) Always zero 4
(2) Never zero BC at R, then which of the following is correct?
D P C
(3) Positive if and only if a > b
(4) Positive if a ¹ b
R
82. If x120 + 4x143 + k is divisible by (x + 1) then
the value of k is A B
(1) 2 (2) –2 (3) 3 (4) –1 (1) BR > BC (2) BR = BC
(3) BR < BC (4) DP = AD
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 PRE-NURTURE & CAREER FOUNDATION DIVISION 10–07–2016
88. In a quadrilateral ABCD, ÐA + ÐC is 2 times 90. In parallelogram ABCD, two points P and Q
ÐB + ÐD. If ÐD = 40°, then ÐB = are taken on diagonal BD such that DP = BQ.
(1) 60° (2) 80° (3) 120° (4) 160° Then which is true ?
89. In figure, ABCD and PQRC are rectangle and A D
Q is the mid-point of AC. Then which of the P
following relation is true ?
(1) DP = PC Q
D P C
1 B C
(2) PR = AC R (1) AP = CQ
2 Q
(2) AQ = CP
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(3) APCQ is a parallelogram
(4) DP = 2AB A B
(4) All of these

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