Booklet No.

NEET Revision Test -II This Test Booklet contains 22 pages

A  Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Physics Newton’s laws of motion & work, power and energy

R-2 Chemistry Chemical Bonding & Periodic classification
Biology Morphology of flowering plants, Anatomy of flowering plants
& Structural organization in animals

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1
 Rough Sheet

1) A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with a
velocity v as shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is:

2
 v v
(1) v (2) (3) v sin θ (4)
sin θ cos θ
2) In the system shown in the adjoining figure, the tension T2 is:

(1) g (2) 2g (3) 5g (4) 6g

3) A rocket of mass 6000 kg is set for vertical firing. If the exhaust speed be 1 km/s, how
much gas must be ejected to give the rocket an upward acceleration of 20 m s-2
(Take g = 10 m s-2)
(1) 45 kg/s (2) 90 kg/s (3) 120 kg/s (4) 180 kg/s

4) If the tension in the cable of 1000 kg elevator is 1000 kg weight, the elevator:
(1) Is accelerating upwards (2) is accelerating downwards
(3) may be at rest or accelerating (4) may be at rest or in uniform motion
5) A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V. If
μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to
rest after a time:

(1) gμ/V (2) g/V (3) V/g (4) V/(gμ)

3
6) A block of mass 5 kg is moving horizontally at a speed of 1.5 m s-1. A vertically upward
force 5 N acts on it for 4 seconds. What will be the distance of the block from the point
where the force starts acting?
(1) 2 m (2) 6 m (3) 8 m (4) 10 m

7) A gun of mass 10 kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 kg and the
velocity of the bullet when it leaves the gun is 300 m s-1. The force required to hold the
gun when firing is:
(1) 6 N (2) 8 N (3) 24 N (4) 240 N

8)
A ball of mass 3 kg, moving with a speed of 100 m/s, strikes a wall at an angle 60° (as
shown in figure). The ball rebounds at the same speed and remains in contact with the
wall for 0.2 sec; the force exerted by the ball on the wall is:

(1) 1500√ 3 N (2) 1500 N (3) 300√ 3 N (4) 300 N

9) A block has been placed on an inclined plane. The slope angle θ of the plane is such that
the block slides down the plane at a constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is
equal to:
(1) Sin θ (2) cos θ (3) g (4) tan θ

10) If a car is being driven on a circular path, in which of the following circumstances it will
not slip:
mv2 mv2 mv2 v
(1) ≥ μmg (2) =4 μmg (3) ≤ μmg (4) =μg
r r r r

11) A block of mass 50 kg slides over a horizontal distance of 1m. If the coefficient of
friction between their surfaces is 0.2, then work done against friction is:
(1) 98 J (2) 72 J (3) 56 J (4) 34 J

12) In the given figure, the position time graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The
impulse at t=2 sec is:

4
 (1) 0.2 kg m sec-1 (2) -0.2 kg m sec-1 (3) 0.1 kg m sec-1 (4) -0.4 kg m sec-1

13) Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only
along, the Y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is:

(1)
√3 N (2) √ 3 N (3) 0.5 N (4) 1.5 N
4

14) A particle moves in the XY-plane under the influence of a force such that its linear
momentum is,
⃗p ( t ) =A ¿ sin (kt)]

Where A and k are constants. The angle between the force and momentum is:
(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 90°

F = 6i−8
15) A body, under the action of force, ⃗ ^ ^j+10 k^, acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2 .
The mass of this body must be:
(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg (3) 10√ 2 kg (4) 2√ 10 kg

16) How many 2.5 kg bricks can a man carry up a staircase 3.6 m high in one hour if he
works at the average rate of 9.8 watt?
(1) 800 (2) 200 (3) 600 (4) 400

3t 2
17) Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as P = watt. Here, t is
2

5
 in seconds. If velocity of particle at t=0 is v=0 , the velocity of particle at time t=2 s will
be:

(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 2√ 2m/s

18) A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force P for a time t. Its kinetic energy after
an interval t is :
P2t 2 P2t 2 P2t 2 Pt
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m 2m 3m 2m

19) The work done by a force acting on a body is as shown in the graph. The total work done
in covering an initial distance of 20 m is:

(1) 225 J (2) 200 J (3) 400 J (4) 175 J

20) The force F acting on a particle of mass mis indicated by the force-time graph shown
below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is:

(1) 24 N s (2) 20 N s (3) 12 N s (4) 6 N s

21) A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x−¿direction with a constant speed of 10 m s-1 is
subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel form x=20 m to 30 m. Its
final KE will be:
(1) 450 J (2) 275 J (3) 250 J (4) 475 J

22) A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to its displacement. Its
loss of kinetic energy for any displacement x is proportional to:
(1) x 2 (2) e x (3) x (4) log e x

23) A stone projected up with a velocity u reaches a maximum height h. When it is at a

height of 3h/4 from the ground, the ratio of KE and PE at that point is:
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2

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24) A car accelerates from rest to a speed of 10 m s-1. Let the energy spent be E. If we
accelerate the car form 10 m s-1 to 20 m s-1 , the energy spent will be:
(1) E (2) 2E (3) 3E (4) 4E
25) An object of mass 5 kg falls form rest through a vertical distance of 20 m and reaches
ground with a velocity of 10 m/s. The work done by air resistance is: (g = 9.8 m s-2)
(1) +730 J (2) -730 J (3) +980 J (4) -980 J

26) A car drives along straight level frictionless road by an engine delivering constant power.
Then, velocity is directly proportional to:
1
(1) T (2) (3) √ t (4) none of these
√t
27) a particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its
centripetal acceleration ac is varying with time t as, a c= k 2 rt 2 , where k is a constant. The
power delivered to the particle by the forces acting on it, is:
(1) zero (2) mk 2 r 2 t 2 (3) mk 2 r 2 t (4) mk 2 rt

28) A ball is dropped from a height of 20 cm. Ball rebounds to a height of 10 cm. What is the
loss of energy ?
(1) 25 % (2) 50 % (3) 100 % (4) 125 %

29) Given that the displacement of the body in metre is a function of time as follows:

x=2 t 4 +5
The mass of the body is 2 kg. What is the increase in its kinetic energy one second after
the increase in its kinetic energy one second after the start of motion.?
(1) 8 J (2) 16 J (3) 32 J (4) 64 J

30) A block of mass M slides down the surface of a bowl of radius R from its rim to the
bottom. What will be the kinetic energy of the block at the bottom?
(1) 2MgR/2 (2) MgR (3) MgR/2 (4) MgR/4

31) In the series of ethane, ethylene and acetylene, the C—H bond energy is
(1) the same in all the three compounds
(2) greatest in ethane
(3) greatest in ethylene
(4) greatest in acetylene.

32) The species in which the N atom is in a state of sp hybridisation is

+¿¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿
(1) NO 2 (2) NO 2 (3) NO 3 (4) NO2

33) In PO 3−¿¿
4 ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and bond order of P—O
bond are respectively
(1) -0.75, 1.25 (2) -0.75, 1.0
(3) -0.75, 0.6 (4) -3, 1.25
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34) Assuming 2s-2p mixing is not operative, the paramagnetic species among the
following is
(1) Be2 (2) B2 (3) C2 (4) N2

35) The ionic species having largest size is

+¿ ¿ +¿ ¿ +¿ ¿ +¿ ¿
(1) L i (g) (2) N a(aq) (3) R b(aq) (4) L i(aq)

36) Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is
false?
(1) The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
(2) The H - C - H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
(3) The H - C - H bond angle in CH4, the H - N - H bond angle in NH3 and the H - O - H
bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90°.
(4) The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C - H bond angle in CH4.

37) Which one of the following is incorrect?

(1) An element which has high electronegativity always has high electron gain enthalpy.
(2) Electron gain enthalpy is the property of an isolated atom.
(3) Electronegativity is the property of a bonded atom.
(4) Both electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy are usually directly related to
nuclear charge and inversely related to atomic size.

38) . Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following?

+¿¿ −¿¿ −¿ ¿
(1) N O 2 (2) N O3 (3) NO2 (4) NO2

39) The ionic radii (in Å) of N3-, O2- and F- are respectively
(1) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (2) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
(3) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (4) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40

40) Which transition involves maximum amount of energy? −¿ ¿

−¿¿ + ¿+2 e ¿
−¿→ M ( g) +e ¿ −¿→ M ¿
(1) M ( g) (2) M ( g) ( g)

−¿ ¿ −¿ ¿
2+ ¿+e ¿ 3 +¿+ e ¿
+¿→ M ( g) ¿ 2+¿ → M (g) ¿
(3) M ( g) (4) M ( g)

41) Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?
(1) N3 (2) NO3- (3) NO2- (4) CO2

42) Predict the correct order of repulsion among the following:

(1) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(2) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(3) lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
(4) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair

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43) Which of the following molecules is theoretically not possible?
(1) OF4 (2) SF4 (3) OF2 (4) O2F2

44) Which of the following compounds doesn't have linear structure?

(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (3) BeCl2 (4) C2H2

45) For which of the following molecules significant μ ≠0?

(1) (3) and (4) (2) Only (l)

(3) (l)and(2) (4) Only (3)

46) The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal similarities are
(1) noble gas (2) representative elements
(3) transition elements (4) rare earth elements.

47) . Which one has the highest boiling point?

(1) Kr (2) Xe (3) He (4) Ne

48) The strength of an oxyacid E(OH)n; where E is the central atom, depends upon
(1) electronegativity of E but not on oxidation state of E
(2) atomic size of E but not on electronegativity of E
(3) not on oxidation state of E in oxyacids
(4) atomic size, electronegativity and oxidation state of E.

49) Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
−¿¿ 2−¿¿
2−¿, N O3 ¿ , SO ¿
(1) S O3 (2) Cl O−¿
3
3

2−¿¿ 2−¿¿
2−¿ ,S O3 ¿ ,C O
(3) C O3 (4) Cl O−¿
3
3 ¿

9
50) In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with
the variation of property indicated against it?
(1) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(2) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
(3) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- (increasing ionic size)
(4) B < C < O < N (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
51) According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statements about the
+¿¿
magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding O 2 ?
(1) Paramagnetic and bond order < O2
(2) Paramagnetic and bond order > O2
(3) Dimagnetic and bond order < O2
(4) Dimagnetic and bond order > O2

52) Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment?
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) NF3

53) The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance
between the molecules is
(1) London force (2) hydrogen bond
(3) ion-ion interaction (4) ion-dipole interaction.

54) Most efficient overlapping is

(1) sp - sp2 overlap
2
(2) s - s overlap
(3) sp3- sp3 overlap (4) sp - sp overlap.

55) The shape of XeOF2 on the basis of VSEPR theory is

(1) see saw (2) V - shaped
(3) trigonal planar (4) T-shaped.

56) The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3, is

(1) it contains Cs+, I- and lattice I2 molecule
(2) it is a covalent molecule
−¿¿
(3) it contains Cs+ and I 3 ions
(4) it contains Cs3+ and I- ions.

57) In which one of the following pairs the radius of the second species is greater than
that of the first?
(1) Na, Mg (2) O2-, N3 (3) Li+, Be2+ (4) Ba2+, Sr2+

58) The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order
do their radii increase?
(1) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar (2) K+ < Ar < Ca2+
+ 2+
(3) Ar < K < Ca (4) Ca2+ < Ar < K+

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59) . If x-axis is the molecular axis, then π-molecular orbitals are formed by the
overlap of
(1) s + pz (2) px + py (3) pz + pz (4) px + px

60) Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing first ionization
enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar?
(1) Ca < Ba < S <Se < Ar
(2) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
(3) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(4) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
61) Young stems are generally
(1) Woody (2) Dark brown in color (3) Green and photosynthetic (4) All of these

62) Which stem act as an organ of perennation?

(1) Potato (2) Ginger (3) Colocasia (4) All of these

63) The most important vegetative organ for photosynthesis is

(1) Stem (2) Leaf (3) Root (4) All of these

64) The arrangement of leaves in the stalk is termed as

(1) Venation (2) Phyllotaxy (3) Inflorescence (4) None of
these

65) Bud is present in axil

(1) Simple leaf (2) Compound leaf (3) Leaflet (4) Both (1) and (2)

66) Which of the following possess disc florets and ray florets?
(1) Mustard (2) China rose (3) Sunflower (4) Calotropis

67) In cymose the type of inflorescence is

(1) Main axis terminates into a flower.
(2) Flower born in basipetal order.
(3) Main axis not terminates into flower.
(4) Flower born in acropetal order.

68) Select the correct matching:

Column I Column II Column III

1. Hypogynous A. Gynoecium occupies the X. mustard, brinjal, china
highest position rose
2.Epigynous B. Gynoecium is situated in Y Plum, peach, rose
the center
3.Perigynous C Margin of thalamus Z. guava, cucumber, ray
grows upward enclosing florets of sunflower
ovary completely
(1) 1 – A – X, 2 – B – Y, 3 – C – Z, (2) 1 – A- X, 2 – C - Z, 3 – B – Y

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 (3) 1 – B - Y, 2 – A – X, 3 – C – Z (4) 1 – A – X, 2 – B –Z, 3 – C – Y
69) A sterile stamen is called
(1) Monadelphous (2) Epipetalous (3) Epiphyllous (4) Staminode

70) A placentation in which ovule are born on central axis and septa as absent, is found in
(1) Argemone and mustard (2) Dianthus and Primula
(3) Rose and tomato (4) Pea
71) In coconut and mango, the fruit is known as
(1) Legume (2) pod (3) Drupe (4) Samara

72) Embryo is made up of

(1) A radicle (2) Embryonic axis (3) One or two cotyledons (4) All of these

73) Which macromolecule is present in aleurone layer?

(1) Protein (2) Carbohydrate (3) Lipid (4) All of these

74) Find out the correct matching

A. Br 1. Bracteate
B. K 2. Calyx
C. C 3. Corolla
D. A 4. Gynoecium
E G 5. Androecium
F G 6. Superior ovary
G ♂ 7. Male
H 8. Bisexual
I 9. Actinomorphic
J % 1 Zygomorphic
0
K ♀ 1 Female
1
(1) 1 – B, 2-C, 3-E, 4–K, 5-A, 6-J, 7-I 8-F, 9-H, 10-D, 11-G
(2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E , 5- D, 6-G, 7-I, 8-H, 9-F, 10-J, 11-K
(3) 1-K, 2-J, 3-I, 4-H, 5-G, 6-F, 7-D, 8-E, 9-C, 10-B, 11-A
(4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E, 5-D, 6-F, 7-G, 8-H, 9-I, 10-J, 11-K
75) Zygomorphic flower is found in
(1) Aloe (2) Potato (3) Sesbania (4) Ashwagandha

76) In unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the placentation is

(1) Marginal (2) Basal (3) Free central (4) Axile

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77) Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in
(1) Calotropis (2) Neem (3) China rose (4) Alstonia

78) Seed coat is not thin, but membranous in

(1) Maize (2) Coconut (3) Groundnut (4) Gram

79) A hilum is a scar on the

(1) Seed, where funicle was attached. (2) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel.
(3) Fruit, where style was present. (4) Seed, where micropyle was present.
80) The term ‘polydelphous’ is related to
(1) Androecium (2) Corolla (3) Calyx (4) Gynoecium

81) Which simple tissue is characterized by pits?

(1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma (3) Sclerenchyma (4) All of these

82) Sclereids are present in

(1) Guava (2) Pear (3) Sapodilla (4) All of these

83) In which way collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma?

(1) Retaining protoplasm at maturity (2) Having tick walls
(3) Having wide lumen (4) Being meristematic
84) Select the correct matching:

COLUMN I COLUMN II
A Tracheids 1. Elongated and tube like cells with
thick and lignified wall and tapering
ends.
B Vessels 2. Tube like structure made up of many
cells, each cell with lignified wall and
large central cavity.
C Xylem fibre 3. Highly thickened walls and
obliterated central lumen
D Xylem parenchyma 4. Living cell with thin cell wall made
up of cellulose.
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3,D-4 (2) A-3, B-1,C-2, D-4
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
85) Angiosperms have more
(1) Tracheids (2) Vessels (3) Xylem sclerenchyma (4) Xylem parenchyma

86) Both sieve tubes and companion cells are absent in

(1) Angiosperms (2) Pteridophyta (3) Gymnosperms (4) Both (2) and (3)

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87) Stem hairs are
(1) Unicellular (2) Acellular (3) Multicellular (4) Any of
them

88) Ground tissue is made up of

(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) sclerenchyma (4) All of these

89) Vascular bundle is closed when

(1) Cambium is present (2) Cambium is absent (3) Pericycle is absent (4) None of these

90) Stele is made up of (in dicot root)

(1) Pericycle (2) vascular bundle (3) Pith (4) All of these

91) Vascular cambium is formed by

I. Interfascicular cambium
II. Intrafascicular cambium.
III. Cork cambium
(1) I and III only (2) II and III only (3) I, II and III only (4) I and II only

92) Bark refers to

(1) Periderm (2) Secondary phloem (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

93) Cambium causes growth in

(1) Circumference (2) Width (diameter) (3) Leaves (4) Length

94) The tissue made up of thin-walled rectangular cells responsible for the secondary growth
is
(1) Cortex (2) Xylem (3) Cambium (4) Pith

95) The layer of cells between endodermis and vascular bundles is called
(1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle (3) Hypodermis (4) Pith

96) Lateral roots arise from

(1) Pericycle (2) Pith (3) Stem (4) Root

97) The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called
(1) Phellogen (2) Periderm (3) Phellem (4) Phelloderm

98) Lenticels are involved in :

(1) Transpiration (2) gaseous exchange (3) Food transport (4) Photosynthesis

99) A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of.

(1) Open vascular bundles
(2) Scattered vascular bundles
(3) Vasculature without cambium

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 (4) Xylem along the radius

100) The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses

(1) Characterize the sapwood
(2) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels
(3) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels
(4) Originate in the lumen of vessels

101) If the cuboidal epithelium turns out to have microvilli on it, what will it be called?
(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium (2) Pseudo ciliated epithelium
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Ciliated epithelium
102) Which of the following is not secreted by exocrine glands?
(1) Earwax (2) Oil (3) Milk (4) hormones

103) What is the function of a tight junction?

(1) Protects from bacterial infection
(2) Stop substance leaking across the tissue
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Elasticity to the tissue

104) In which of the following connective tissues, the elastin fibers are absent?
(1) Bone (2) Cartilage (3) Blood (4) Both (1) and (2)

105) Which of the following tissue is not present in skin?

(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Dense connective (3) Areolar tissue (4) All of these

106) What kind of tissue is goblet cells?

(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue (3) Neural tissue (4) All of these

107) When muscle cells receive stimulus, they get

(1) Shortened (2) Lengthened (3) Elongated (4) All of these

108) What is the function of Neuroglia?

(1) Protect and support neurons (2) Act as intracellular matrix
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) None of these
109) Alary muscles are found in
(1) Frog (2) Earthworm (3) Cockroach (4) Hookworm

110) Mosaic vision means

(1) More sensitivity and less resolution
(2) More sensitivity and more resolution
(3) Less sensitivity and less resolution
(4) Less sensitivity and more resolution

15
111) What is discernable trend?
(1) Complexity of organ system (2) Evolutionary trend
(3) Inheritance trend (4) All of these
112) What kind of action can be caused by neurons?
(1) Stimulatory (2) Inhibitory (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Excitatory

113) The sheath enclosing the several bundles of muscle fibres is __________ tissue
(1) Epithelial (2) connective (3) Both (4) neural

114) Intercalated discs in cardiac muscles provide________

(1) Tight junction (2) Communication junction (3) Flexible junction (4) All of these

115) Which portion of cartilage provides it with solidity, pliability and resistance to
compression?
(1) Collagen fibres (2) Calcium content (3) Intracellular material (4) Chondrocytes

116) Where are osteocytes located?

(1) Entire bone (2) In lacunae (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

117) What is the main function of sodium bicarbonate in the blood?

(1) Protection of body (2) Transport of various substances
(3) buffering (4) Maintaining osmolarity balance
118) The matrix or ground substance in connective tissues are made up of _____
(1) Thick proteins (2) Elastin fibres
(3) Modified polysaccharides (4) Modified triglycerides
119) Which one is correct about cockroach?
(1) Generally brown and black color (2) Pest and vectors of several disease
(3) Found in damp places (4) All of these
120) Which of the following is a typical skeletal muscle?
(1) Biceps (2) Triceps (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
Rough Sheet

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