Practice Test

CODE-A
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PRACTICE TEST
MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 2. A child is standing with folded hands at the
1. A particle of mass m is revolving in a horizontal centre of a platform rotating about its central axis.
The kinetic energy of the system is K. The child
circle of radius r with constant angular speed .
now stretches his arms so that moment of inertia
The areal velocity of the particle is of the system quadruples, the kinetic energy of
r 2 the system now is
(1) r2 (2)
3 K
(1) 2K (2)
r 
2
r2 4
(3) (4) K
2 2 (3) (4) 4K
2
Space for Rough Work
(1)
Code-A Practice Test
3. A satellite revolves in a circular orbit around the

earth. Which quantities among the options given
below changes continuously?
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Potential energy
(3) Linear momentum (4) Angular momentum
4. A wire can be broken by applying a load of
40 kg wt. The force required to break the same (1) 0.4N (2) 1.4N
wire of thrice the diameter is (3) 0.2N (4) Zero
20 9. At a place the angle of dip is 60° and the
(1) 80 kg wt (2) kg wt
9 horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is
(3) 360 kg wt (4) 160 kg wt H. The total magnetic field of earth at that place
is
5. The amount of heat produced (in calories) by a
70 W bulb in 8 minutes will be (1 calorie = 4.2 (1) H (2) 2H
Joule) (assume 100% conversion of electrical
3 2
energy into heat) (3) H (4) H
2 3
(1) 33600 (2) 8000
10. If the value of angle of incidence increases then
(3) 16000 (4) 32300
the value of angle of deviation produced by a
6. A wire 20 cm long and 1 mm 2 in cross-section prism
carries a current of 2 A when connected to a 8 V
(1) Continuously increases
battery. The resistivity of the wire is
(2) Continuously decreases
(1) 3 × 10–6 m (2) 2 × 10–4 m
(3) First increase then decreases
(3) 3 × 10–4 m (4) 2 × 10–5 m
7. A charged particle enters into a uniform magnetic (4) First decrease then increases
field having initial velocity inclined at an angle of 11. Two convex lenses of focal lengths 0.02 m and
30° with the magnetic field. If the pitch of the path 0.06 m are used to make a telescope. The
followed by the charged particle is P, then the distance kept between the two in order to obtain
radius of the helix is an image at infinity is
P P (1) 0.08 cm (2) 8 m
(1) (2)
 3 2 3 (3) 0.03 m (4) 8 cm
3P 2 3P 12. When a thin transparent plate of thickness t and
(3) (4)
2  refractive index  is placed in the path of one of
the two interfering waves of light, then the path
8. A wire is bent in the form of a circle of radius
difference changes by
50 cm and carries a current of 2 A. It is placed in
a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T directed into the (1) ( + 1)t (2) ( – 1)t
plane of paper. The magnitude of net force acting t t
on the wire will be (3) (4)
 1  1
(2)
Practice Test Code-A
13. Assume that a lamp radiates power P uniformly Column I Column II

in all directions. The magnitude of amplitude of
electric field at a distance r from the lamp is (All A. Maximum velocity (P) 1
m2 A2
symbols have their usual meaning) 2
P B. Maximum (Q) A
(1)
2r 2  0 c acceleration
P C. Maximum restoring (R) 2A

(2) force
r 2  0 c
D. Maximum kinetic (S) m2A
P
(3) energy
2r 2 0c
(1) A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)
P (2) A(Q), B(R), C(S), D(P)
(4)
r 20c
(3) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
14. A charged particle having mass m and charge q (4) A(R), B(P), C(Q), D(S)
is shot from a very large distance towards
17. The third overtone produced by a vibrating string
another fixed charge 2q with a speed 2v. The
fixed at both ends and 0.25 m long is 600 Hz.
closest distance of approach will be
The speed of propagation of the wave in m/s is
q2 q2
(1) (2) (1) 150 m/s (2) 100 m/s
20 mv 2 2 0 mv
(3) 200 m/s (4) 75 m/s
q2 q2 18. Which of the following pair of physical quantity
(3) (4)
4 0 mv 2 4 0 mv has different dimensional formula?
15. Choose the correct option among the following. (1) Work done and torque
(1) The total charge of an isolated system is (2) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant
constant (3) Specific heat and latent heat
(2) The total positive charge of an isolated (4) Heat and kinetic energy
system is constant
19. One end of a U-tube manometer is opened to the
(3) The total negative charge of an isolated atmosphere, the other end attached to a
system is constant pressurized gas of gauge pressure 40 kPa. The
(4) The total number of charged particles in an height of the fluid column in the side open to the
isolated system is constant atmosphere is 60 cm and that on the gas side is
16. A particle is executing SHM. Some quantities 30 cm. The density of manometric fluid nearly is
corresponding to this particle are given in (1) 1000 kg/m3
column I and their values ae given in column II.
(2) 11001 kg/m3
Match the correct entries in column I with
corresponding correct entries in column II and (3) 560 kg/m3
tick the correct option. (4) 13333 kg/m3
(3)
20. The specific heat capacity of a body depends on 25. With increase in frequency of an AC supply from
(1) Surface area of the body zero, the current in LCR series circuit
(2) Volume of the body (1) Remains constant
(3) Mass of the body (2) Decreases
(4) Nature of material of the body (3) First decreases then increases
21. One mole of an ideal gas is heated isobarically. (4) First increases then decreases
Its temperature is increased by
T = 100 K. The work done by the gas is 26. A positive charge q moves along the axial line
AB, which lies perpendicular to the plane of
(1) 597 J (2) 600 J
circular loop of conducting wire as shown in the
(3) 750 J (4) 830 J
figure. The induced current in the loop as seen
22. Let Q and W denote the amount of heat given to from B is
an ideal gas and the work done by it in an
isothermal process, then which among the given
option is correct based on above information?
(1) Q  0 (2) W  0
(3) Q = W (4) All of these
23. Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves (1) Zero
such that its position as a function of time t is (2) Clockwise
given by x = 3t2, where x is in meter and t is in
(3) First clockwise then anticlockwise
seconds. The work done by force in first 3
seconds is (4) First anticlockwise then clockwise
(1) 108 J (2) 324 J 27. A vessel of volume V contains an ideal gas at
(3) 216 J (4) 432 J absolute temperature T and pressure P. The gas
24. A block of mass m moving with velocity v0 on a is allowed to leak till its pressure falls to P.
smooth horizontal surface hits the spring of Assuming that the temperature remains constant,
spring constant K as shown. The speed of the the ratio of number of moles of gas that has
1 leaked to the initial number of moles of gas is
block, when compression in the spring is of
3
P
maximum compression will be (1)
P
P
(2) 1 
P
2v 0 2
(1) (2) v0 P
3 3 (3) 1 
P
2 2 v0
(3) v0 (4) P
3 2 (4)
P
(4)
28. In the given figure pulley and string are 33. A nucleus with mass number 240 and binding
massless, then the friction acting on 5 kg mass is energy per nucleon as 7.4 MeV breaks into two
fragments, each with mass number 120. If each
fragment nucleus has binding energy per nucleon
as 8.4 MeV, the total energy released in the
process is
(1) 120 MeV (2) 200 MeV
(3) 220 MeV (4) 240 MeV
34. The potential barrier across a p-n junction is
0.5 V. The electric field intensity in the depletion
80 region having the width of 4 × 10–6 m, will be
(1) Zero (2) N
3 (1) 1.25 × 10+4 N/C (2) 0.125 × 10–4 N/C
40 (3) 12.5 × 10+4 N/C (4) 125 × 10–4 N/C
(3) N (4) 40 N
3 35. A 10 V Zener diode along with a resistance R is
29. The vertical component of initial velocity of a connected across a 25 V supply (as shown in
projectile projected from ground is 30 m/s and its figure). If the Zener current is
velocity at highest point is 40 m/s. The horizontal 20 mA then the value of R is
range of projectile is
(1) 120 m (2) 200 m
(3) 240 m (4) 180 m
30. A particle starts from rest and moves with
constant acceleration. If the distance travelled by
body in first three seconds is s, then the distance
travelled in next three seconds is
(1) s (2) 2s (1) 100 
(3) 3s (4) 5s (2) Zero
31. Which of the following relations representing (3) 500 
displacement (x) of a particle describes motion (4) 350 
with constant acceleration? SECTION-B
7
(1) x  6  (2) x  3t 2  5t 36. The moment of inertia of a ring of radius 0.5 m
t about its geometric axis is 2 kg-m2. If a string is
(3) x  5t 3  4t 2 (4) x  5  7t 4 tied to its circumference and a force of 10 N is
32. The minimum orbital angular momentum of an applied then the value of angular velocity after
electron in a hydrogen atom is 2 seconds will be
h h (1) 2.5 rad/s
(1) (2)
 2 (2) 10 rad/s
2h h (3) 7 rad/s
(3) (4)
 3 (4) 5 rad/s
(5)
37. A particle falls from infinity to the earth. The 41. The ratio of the charge on 5 F capacitor to the
speed of the particle on reaching the earth’s charge on 3 F capacitor in the given circuit in
surface is (Assume that all symbols have their steady state is
usual meaning and R denotes the radius of
earth)
(1) Rg (2) 2Rg
Rg
(3) (4) Zero
2
38. The electromotive force of a cell is 3 volts. When
its two terminals are joined together it gives a
current of 6 A. The internal resistance of the cell 2
(1)
is 3
(1) 0.1  (2) 5 25
(2)
(3) 0.5 (4) 1 9
39. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod 5

(3)
having spherical end of radius of curvature 3
30 cm. The image would be formed at
5
(4)
4
42. Six charges are placed at the corner of a regular
hexagon as shown in figure. The net electric field
at the center will be
(1) 20 cm to the left of P

(2) Infinity
(3) 30 cm to the left of P
(4) 1 cm to the right of P
40. In two separate set-ups of the young’s double slit
experiment, fringes of equal width are observed
when lights of wavelengths in the ratio 5 : 3 are
(1) Along FC (2) Along EB
used. If the ratio of the slit separation in the two
cases is 2 : 3, the ratio of the distance between (3) Along AD (4) Zero
the plane of the slits and the screen in the two 43. The physical quantity having the dimensions
set-ups is [ML2T–2] is
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 1 : 5 (1) Force (2) Energy
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 (3) Power (4) Momentum
(6)
44. When a metal sphere falling in a viscous fluid The induced emf in the loop at the given instant
attains a terminal velocity, then is
(1) The viscous force balances the buoyant (1) Byv (2) 2Byv
force. 1
(3) Byv (4) Zero
(2) The viscous force balances the weight of 2
sphere
47. In the series RLC circuit as shown, the potential
(3) The buoyant force balances the weight of difference across R, L and C are 30 V, 60 V and
sphere. 100 V respectively. The power dissipated in the
(4) The viscous force and the buoyant force circuit is
together balances the weight of sphere.
45. Two metal cubes P and Q of same size are
arranged as shown in figure. The extreme ends
of the combination are maintained at the
indicated temperatures. The arrangement is
thermally insulated. The coefficients of thermal
(1) 50 W
conductivity of P and Q are 300 W m–1°C–1 and
200 W m–1°C–1, respectively. After steady state is (2) 100 W
reached the temperature T of the interface is (3) 60 W
(4) 30 W
48. Choose the incorrect statement among the
following.
(1) The force of static friction balances the
applied external force if no relative motion
(1) 20°C
exists
(2) 10°C
(2) Static friction is self adjusting in nature
(3) 60°C
(3) All frames which are accelerating or moving
(4) 70°C with constant velocity with respect to an
46. A rectangular loop ABCD is moving at the inertial frame will be non-inertial frame
boundaries of two uniform transverse magnetic (4) The pseudo force always acts in direction
field of magnitude B with constant velocity v as opposite to that of acceleration of frame
shown.
49. The angular momentum of an electron in first
orbit of hydrogen atom is L. If the electron is now
assumed to revolve in 3rd orbit of hydrogen atom,
then the change in angular momentum will be
(1) Zero (2) L
L
(3) (4) 2L
2
(7)
50. For the logic circuit shown in figure, truth table is A B Y A B Y

given by 0 0 0 0 0 0
(1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
(3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 0
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

51. In the reaction given below, hybridisation of B
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
changes from
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
F3B + :NH3  F3B  NH3
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) sp2 to sp3 (2) sp3 to sp2
54. 2.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50
(3) sp to sp2 (4) sp2 to sp
g of benzene lowered the freezing point of
52. Which of the following does not exist? benzene by 0.80 K. The freezing point
(1) He2 (2) He22 depression constant of benzene is 5.12 K kg
mol–1. Find molar mass of solute.
(3) H2–
2
(4) C2
(1) 256 g mol–1
53. Match the List I with List II and choose correct
(2) 178 g mol–1
option.
(3) 306 g mol–1
List I List II
(4) 350 g mol–1
(Salt, % (i) van’t Hoff
dissociation) Factor 55. Smallest species among the following is
(1) F– (2) Mg2+
a. AgNO3, 20% (i) 2
dissociation (3) Al3+ (4) Na+
b. CaF2, 40% (ii) 4 56. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed

dissociation by
(1) Spin quantum number
c. H3PO4, 100% (iii) 1.2
dissociation (2) Magnetic quantum number
(3) Principle quantum number
d. NaCl, 100% (iv) 1.8
dissociation (4) Azimuthal quantum number
(8)
57. Given below are two statements 60. Most reactive halide towards SN1 reaction is
Assertion (A): Solubility product (Ksp) of solid (1) n-butyl bromide (2) sec-butyl bromide
barium sulphate decreases in presence of H2SO4
(3) Allyl bromide (4) tert-butyl bromide
at 298 K.
61. Consider the following statements
Reason (R): Common ion effect decreases the
solubility of sparingly soluble salt. I. The order of reactivity of alcohols with a
In the light of above statements choose the given haloacid is 1° > 2° > 3°.
correct answer. II. Addition of Br2 to alkene results in the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the synthesis of vic-dibromides, which are
correct explanation of (A) coloured.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the III. Alkyl iodides are prepared by the reaction of
correct explanation of (A) alkyl bromides with NaI in dry acetone.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false Choose the correct statement(s)
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) I and III only (2) I, II and III
58. The value of kp for the reaction
(3) I and II only (4) III only
2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) is 4 atm–1
62. Which among the following compounds gives an
If equal moles of SO2 and SO3 are present at
amine on reaction with bromine in an ethanolic
equilibrium. Then the partial pressure of O2 at solution of sodium hydroxide?
equilibrium will be
(1) 2.5 atm (2) 0.25 atm
(1)
(3) 1.2 atm (4) 1 atm
59. Given below are two statements
Statement I: The chemistry of corrosion may be (2)
considered essentially as an electrochemical
phenomenon.
(3)
Statement II: Corrosion can be prevented by an
electrochemical method to provide a sacrificial
electrode of another metal which corrodes itself
but saves the object.
(4)
In the light of above two statements choose the
correct option.
63. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2– and
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
[Ni(CO)4] respectively are
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect (1) 3.87 BM and 2.84 BM
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (2) 4.9 BM and 3.87 BM
incorrect (3) 5.92 BM and zero
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (4) Zero and 2.84 BM
correct
(9)
64. The number of hydrogen atoms in 49 g of H2SO4 71. How many electrons can fit in an orbital for which
is n = 4 and l = 3
(1) 3.01 × 1023 (2) 6.023 × 1023 (1) 2 (2) 14
(3) 9.03 × 1022 (4) 3.01 × 1022 (3) 10 (4) 6
65. The molality of a solution of ethanol in water, in 72. Given below are two statements
which the mole fraction of ethanol is 0.040 is Statement I: Nitrogen can form pentahalides.
(1) 2.31 m (2) 1.09 m Statement II: Nitrogen exhibits +5 oxidation
state.
(3) 3.21 m (4) 1.23 m
In the light of the above statements, choose the
66. Consider the following reaction correct answer from the options given below.
xMnO4  yFeC2O4  zH  (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
aMn2  bCO2  yFe3  cH2O
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
The ratio x : b is correct
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 10 (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 (4) Both statement I and statement II are
67. All of the given species contains oxygen in same incorrect
oxidation state, except 73. The oxidation state of phosphorus in
cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is
(1) H2O (2) Li2O
(1) +6 (2) +5
(3) KO2 (4) Na2O
(3) +3 (4) +1
68. Which of the following reactions will lead to the
formation of inorganic benzene?
Statement I: In the covalent oxide Mn2O7, each

(1) B2H6 + O2  (2) B2H6  NH3  Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by O’s including a
Mn-O-Mn bridge.
(3) BF3  NaH  
450 K
(4) BF3  LiAlH4 
Statement II: The stability of Cu+(aq) rather than
69. The correct order of decreasing priority of the Cu2+(aq) is due to much more negative hydH° of
following functional group is Cu+(aq) than Cu2+.
(1) – COOH > – SO3H > – COOR > – COCl In the light of above statements, choose the most
(2) – COCl > – COOH > – SO3H > – COOR appropriate answer from the options given below:
(3) – COOR > – SO3H > – COOH > – COCl (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(4) – SO3H > – COCl > – COOR > – COOH
70. Total number of sp2 hybridised carbon atoms in correct
styrene is
(1) 5 (2) 6 incorrect
(3) 7 (4) 8 (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(10)
75. Given below are two statements 80. On addition of dil. H2SO4 in a salt solution gas is
Assertion (A): Two moles of H atoms have evolved which turns lime water milky. Anion
higher entropy than one mole of dihydrogen present in salt may be
molecule. (1) NO3 (2) CO32
Reason (R): Number of particles increases (3) Cl– (4) Br–
leading to more disordered state.
In the light of above statements choose the
Statement I: Vitamin K is fat soluble vitamin.
correct answer.
Statement II: Deficiency of vitamin K causes
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
cheilosis.
correct explanation of (A)
In light of the above statements choose the
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct answer.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
incorrect
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
76. Which among the following cannot give 2, 4-DNP correct
test?
(1) CH3CHO (2) HCHO
(3) CH3COOH (4) CH3COCH3 incorrect
77. Compounds that can show tautomerism are 82. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) Ethanol (2) Acetylene
(3) Phenol (4) o-Cresol
a. b.
83. Which hydrocarbon cannot be prepared by
Kolbe’s electrolytic method?
(1) Ethane (2) Hexane
c. d. CH2 = CH – OH
(3) Methane (4) Butane
(1) a and d only (2) a only 84. Consider the following statement
Catalysts [A] and [B] in the given reactions
(3) b and c only (4) a, c and d only
respectively are
78. Prussian blue colour is observed on addition of
K4[Fe(CN)6] in (i) CH4  O2  HCHO  H2O
[ A]
(1) FeCl2 (2) FeCl3 (ii) 2CH3CH3  3O2  2CH3COOH  2H2O
[B]
(3) CuCl2 (4) AlCl3 (1) Cu and Mo2O3

79. Unit of rate of reaction for 1st order reaction is (2) Mo2O3 and (CH3COO)2 Mn
(1) s–1 (2) mol l–1s–1 (3) Cr2O3 and V2O5
(3) mol–1 l s–1 (4) mol–1 l s (4) MnO2 and Cu
(11)
85. Consider the following reaction sequence 88. Which of the following pairs cannot form an
acidic buffer?
(1) NaClO4 and HClO4
(2) NaHCO3 and H2CO3
Incorrect statement about B is (3) CH3COONa and CH3COOH
(1) It gives positive iodoform test
(4) NaCN and HCN
(2) It forms keto-oxime on reaction with
hydroxylamine 89. Given below are two statements
(3) It undergoes aldol condensation reaction Assertion (A): A mixture of o-nitrophenol and
(4) It evolves CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3 p-nitrophenol can be separated by steam
distillation.
SECTION - B
Reason (R): p-nitrophenol is steam volatile.
86. Match the List I with List II.
List I List II
correct answer.
Compounds Hybridisation,
shape
a. XeF2 (i) sp3, trigonal
pyramidal correct explanation of (A)
b. SF4 (ii) sp3d, linear (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
c. NF3 (iii) sp3d, see-saw (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
d. BrF5 (iv) sp3d2,
square 90. Consider the reaction given below
pyramidal
Choose the correct option.

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) The compound D is
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
87. Charge required to obtain 0.25 mole of Cr3+ ion (1) (2)
from dichromate ion in acidic medium is
(1) 1.5 F
(2) 1.25 F (3) (4)
(3) 2 F
(4) 0.75 F
(12)
91. Consider the following statements. 95. The molar heat capacity of water at constant
Statement I: In Werner’s theory, the primary pressure is 90 JK–1 mol–1. When 3 kJ of heat is
valencies are normally ionisable and are satisfied supplied to 90 g of water, which is free to
by negative ions. expand, the increase in temperature of water is
Statement II: In Werner’s theory, the secondary (1) 0.37 K (2) 2.4 K
valencies are non-ionisable and are satisfied by (3) 12.4 K (4) 6.67 K
neutral molecules only. 96 Given below are two statements
In the light of above statements, choose the most
Assertion (A): CCl3COOH is more acidic than
appropriate answer from the options given below:
CH3COOH.
Reason (R): Electron withdrawing nature of –
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is CCl3 increases stability of CCl3COO– ion as
incorrect compared to CH3COO– ion.
correct
correct answer.
incorrect
92. Identify the correct increasing order of energy for
5p, 5f, 4d and 6p orbitals (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) 4d < 5p < 6p < 5f (2) 4d < 5p < 5f < 6p (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) 5p < 4d < 5f < 6p (4) 5p < 4d < 6p < 5f (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
93. Given below are two statements correct explanation of (A)
Assertion (A): White phosphorus is less stable 97. Given below are two statements
and therefore, more reactive than the other solid Statement I: Time of completion for a zero order
phases of phosphors under normal conditions. reaction can be calculated as
Reason (R): White phosphorus has angles of Initial concentration
.
60° that offers huge angle strain in the molecule. Rate constant
In the light of above statements choose the Statement II: First order reaction never goes to
correct answer. completion.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the In the light of above statements, choose the most
correct explanation of (A) appropriate answer from the options given below.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
correct explanation of (A) incorrect
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true correct
94. The oxidation state of central carbon atom in (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
carbon suboxide is
(1) +2 (2) Zero
incorrect
(3) +3 (4) +4
(13)
98. Consider the following statements (3)

a. A unit formed by the attachment of a
nitrogenous base to 1 position of sugar is
known as nucleoside.
(4)
b. Nucleotides are joined together by
phosphodiester linkage between 5 and 3
carbon atoms of the pentose sugar. 100. Given below are the two statements.
c. Adenine and cytosine are purine bases. Statement I: Propyne when passed through red
d. Guanine is a bicyclic compound. hot iron tubes, gives mesitylene as major
product.
The correct statements are
Statement II: Mesitylene contains 22 bonds
(1) a, b and c only (2) a, b and d only
and 3 bonds.
(3) a and d only (4) a, b, c and d
99. The pair of alcohols which give blue and red correct answer.
colour in Victor Meyer test respectively are
(1)
incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(2) incorrect
correct
BOTANY
SECTION-A (1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only

101. Which of the following is reoxidised during (2) All except (b) and (d)
alcoholic and lactic acid fermentation? (3) (c), (d) and (f) only
(1) FADH2 (4) All except (d) and (e)
(2) GTP 103. Who estimated that the number of global species
diversity is about 7 million?
(3) NADH + H+
(1) David Tillman
(4) ATP
(2) Alexander von Humboldt
102. Which among the following are narrowly
(3) Paul Ehrlich
utilitarian services of biodiversity?
(4) Robert May
(a) Fibre (b) Oxygen 104. ZW type of sex determination can be found in
(c) Firewood (d) Pollination (1) Birds (2) Drosophila
(e) Drugs (f) Tannins (3) Grasshopper (4) Human
(14)
105. The production of gametes by the parents, the 109. The plasma membrane mainly consists of
formation of the zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants all (1) Cholestrol (2) Phospholipids
can be understood from a diagram called
(3) Glycolipids (4) Polysaccharides
(1) Pie chart (2) Bullet square 110. All of the following are microbodies, except
(3) Punnett square (4) Venn diagram (1) Peroxisomes (2) Sphaerosomes
106. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia as (3) Lysosomes (4) Glyoxysomes
the former is 111. Match the column I with column II and select the
(1) Autosomal recessive trait correct option.
(2) Qualitative problem of synthesising an Column I Column II
incorrectly functioning globin.
a. S-phase (i) Actual cell division occurs
(3) Due to absence or reduced synthesis of one
of the globin chains resulting in excess of b. G2-phase (ii) Histone protein synthesis
other occurs
(4) A result of a single base substitution at sixth c. G1-phase (iii) Post-mitotic phase
codon of beta globin gene d. M-phase (iv) Tubulin protein synthesis
107. Turner’s syndrome occurs
(1) Causes sterility in females (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) Is caused due to additional copy of X (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
chromosome 112. In plant cells, phragmoplast is formed by golgi
(3) Is seen both males and females complex and it grows
(4) Results in lack of both sex chromosomes in (1) Centripetally to form cell plate
females (2) Centripetally to form a cleavage furrow
108. How many of the following statements is/are (3) Centrifugally to form cell plate
correct? (4) Centrifugally to form a cleavage furrow
(a) The cell wall of a young plant cell is capable 113. The structure which is not seen in higher plant
of growth cell undergoing mitosis is
(b) In mature cell, more layers of wall material (1) Centriole (2) Spindle fibre
are added internal to the secondary wall (3) Centromere (4) Kinetochore
which gradually diminishes with maturity 114. Which of the following cells have deposition of
(c) Secondary cell wall holds or glues the suberin in the form of casparian strips in their
different neighbouring cells together. walls?
(d) Middle lamella forms the symplastic system (1) Pericycle cells
between two cells (2) Hypodermal cells
(1) One (2) Two (3) Endodermal cells
(3) Three (4) Four (4) Epidermal cells
(15)
115. Read the following statements and choose the 119. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option correct option for them
Statement I: Only stomatal aperture and guard Assertion (A): The earliest classification
cells are together called stomatal apparatus. systems were based on the usage of various
Statement II: Subsidiary cells are the specialised organisms.
sclerenchymatous cells surrounding the guard Reason (R): Word systematics is derived from
cells. the Latin word ‘systema’ which means systematic
arrangement of organisms.
(1) Only statement I is correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(2) Only statement II is correct
explanation of (A)
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect correct explanation of (A)
116. Which of the following is a short-day plant? (3) Only (A) is true and (R) is false
(1) Soyabean (2) Wheat (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) Sugar beet (4) Radish 120. State True (T) or False (F) for the following
statements and select the correct option.
117. At maturity, a typical angiospermic embryo sac is
7-celled and _______ a. R.H. Whittaker in 1969, proposed a
classification system which was based on
(1) 8-nucleate (2) 7-nucleate
characters like cell structure, thallus
(3) 6-nucleate (4) 5-nucleate organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction
118. Examine the figure given below and select the and phylogenetic relationships.
correct option for it. b. Aristotle divided animals into two groups
anaima and enaima on the basis of presence
and absence of RBCs respectively.
c. In five kingdom classification, Kingdom
Protista has brought together
Chlamydomonas, Chlorella with
Paramoecium and Amoeba.
a b c
(1) T F T
(1) Multicarpellary, apocarpous, gynoecium of (2) T T T

Michelia (3) F T T
(2) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver (4) T F F
(3) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of 121. Which organism causes rust disease in wheat?
Papaver.
(1) Puccinia (2) Trypanosoma
(4) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Michelia
(3) Rhizopus (4) Ustilago
(16)
122. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 127. Read the following statements and select the
(1) A typical flower consists of four whorls which correct option.
are arranged successively on the swollen Statement A: Trichoderma can be used as
end of the stalk or pedicel, called thalamus or biocontrol agent in the treatment of certain plant
receptacle. disease.
(2) Monocotyledonous seeds have endosperm Statement B: Secondary treatment is the
but in some monocots such as orchids seeds removal of floating and suspended solids from
are non-endospermic sewage through filtration and sedimentation.
(3) Cassia and gulmohur show imbricate (1) Only statement A is correct
aestivation. (2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Monadelphous condition of stamens is seen (3) Both statements A and B are correct
in citrus, while diadelphous condition is seen (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
in pea.
128. Which of the following options is the correct
123. The arrangement of ovules on placenta within the example of brood parasitism?
ovary is known as
(1) Cuscuta on hedge plant
(1) Aestivation (2) Placentation (2) Copepods on marine fish
(3) Inflorescence (4) Phyllotaxy (3) Lice on human
124. In mango and coconut, fruits develops from (4) Cuckoo and crow
(1) Monocarpellary inferior ovary 129. Which of the following biotic components of an
(2) Monocarpellary superior ovary ecosystem is also known as key industry
(3) Polycarpellary superior ovary animals?
(1) Secondary consumers
(4) Tricarpellary superior ovary
(2) Producers
125. All are characteristics of gymnosperm, except
(3) Primary consumers
(1) These are seeded plants without fruit.
(4) Tertiary consumers
(2) In these plants the male and female
gametophytes do not have an independent 130. Which of the following statements(s) are
free-living existence. incorrect?
a. Both UAG and UAA codons do not code for
(3) Stems are unbranched in Cycas and Pinus.
any amino acid.
(4) They have well-developed vascular tissues.
b. The first phase of translation is binding of
126. Agar is obtained from which of the following mRNA to ribosome.
algae.
c. In E.coli, the average rate of deoxyribonucleic
(1) Blue-green algae acid polymerisation is 2000 bp/second
(2) Brown algae d. The histones are slightly acidic
(3) Red algae (1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c
(4) Green algae (3) Only b and d (4) Only c and d
(17)
131. How many nucleosomes can be found in a 135. The first stable product of C3 cycle is
typical diploid mammalian cell? (1) 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
(1) 4.6 × 108 (2) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(2) 3.3 × 107 (3) Oxaloacetic acid
(3) 3.3 × 109 (4) Malic acid
(4) 2.3 × 106 SECTION-B
132. In prokaryotes, post-transcriptional modification 136. Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis

occurs during conversion of
(1) Is not required as they lack introns and
(1) Fructose 6-phosphate into Fructose 1,6-
process of transcription and translation are
bisphosphate
coupled
(2) 1, 3- bisphosphoglyceric acid to 3
(2) Require snRNA to remove the non-coding
phosphoglyceric acid
sequences of the primary transcript
(3) Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
(3) Includes addition of poly A tail at 3-end of
mRNA (4) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
137. Consider a typical Mendelian dihybrid cross of
(4) Occurs in the nucleoid region
two pea plants differing in seed shape and seed
133. Select the mismatched pair. colour. In the F2 generation, out of 1760
(1) Translation – Using information progenies how many among them are
present in mRNA to homozygous for both the characters?
make protein (1) 110
(2) 140
(2) Ligase – Joins the Okazaki
fragments (3) 440
(4) 850
(3) Polymerases – Break the DNA into
138. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. plasmids.
fragments
(1) These are small, circular DNA
(4) Transcription – Process of copying
(2) These confer antibiotic resistance to bacteria
information from
DNA to RNA (3) These are single-stranded DNA
(4) These are non-genomic DNA
134. Which of the following options represents the
139. Which phase of cell cycle involves major
correct sequence of electron flow during non-
reorganisation of virtually all components of the
cyclic photophosphorylation?
cell?
(1) PS II  PC  Cyt b6f  Fd  PQ  PS I (1) M-phase
(2) PQ  PS I  PS II  PC  Cyt b6f  Fd (2) G1-phase
(3) Cyt b6f  Fd  PQ  PS I  PS II  PC (3) G2-phase
(4) PS II  PQ  Cyt b6f  PC  PS I  Fd (4) S-phase
(18)
140. State True (T) or False (F) to the given 143. Read the following statements carefully and mark
statements and select the correct option. the correct option for structural components of
(a) Xylem fibres have obliterated central lumens. viruses.
(b) Walls of parenchyma cells are thin and made a. Envelope is the outer thin loose covering
up of lignin composed of proteins, lipids and
carbohydrates.
(c) Complex tissues are made of more than one
type of cells b. Capsid is the outer protein coat made up of
small subunits called capsomeres for the
(d) Phloem in angiosperms is composed of sieve
protection of nucleic acid.
cells, albuminous cells and phloem fibres.
c. On the basis of host specificity viruses are
(a) (b) (c) (d) divided into three groups: Plant viruses,
(1) T F T T Animal viruses and Bacterial viruses.
d. Examples of ssDNA viruses are Coliphage
(2) F F T T
 × 174, M13 phage and Pox virus.
(3) T F F T Select the correct option.
(4) T F T F (1) Only d is incorrect
141. Select the correctly matched pair. (2) a, b and d are correct
(3) b, c and d are correct
(1) Auxins – Overcome apical
(4) Only b and c are correct
dominance
144. Identify the incorrect set of statements w.r.t.
(2) Cytokinins – Stimulates Inflorescence.
adventitious shoot
(a) In Compositae family, head or capitulum type
formation
of inflorescence is present.
(3) Abscisic acid – Inhibits dormancy (b) In Cruciferae family, inflorescence shows
(4) Gibberellin – Stress hormone umbellate clusters.
(c) Poaceae members shows spike of spikelets
142. Wind-pollinated plants differ from insect-
which may be sessile or stalked.
pollinated ones in
(d) Fabaceae members shows a type of
(i) Not having nectaries
inflorescence in which young flowers are
(ii) Having sticky pollen grains present at base and older flowers are at
(iii) Usually having mucilaginous covering on apex.
pollen grains Select the correct option.
(iv) Not being very colourful (1) (a) and (b)
Select the correct one(s) (2) (b) and (c)
(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (2) (i) and (ii) only (3) (b) and (d)
(3) (i) and (iv) only (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (4) (c) and (d)
(19)
145. Find the odd one w.r.t haplontic life cycle. (2) The shape of the pyramids reflect the growth
(1) Spirogyra (2) Volvox status of the population.
(3) Cedrus (4) Ulothrix (3) Bell-shaped pyramid is bell-like with pre-
146. State True (T) or False (F) for the following reproductive individuals being only marginally
statements. more than the reproductive individuals.
(a) Flocs are masses of fungi only. (4) Triangular type of pyramid shows a declining
growth
(b) Methanogens are responsible for biogas
production. 148. All are the characteristics of humus, except
(c) The technology of biogas production was (1) Slightly acidic
developed in India mainly due to efforts of (2) Rich in cellulose, lignin, tannin, resins etc
IARI and KVIC. (3) Functions as a reservoir of nutrients.
(a) (b) (c) (4) Undergoes decomposition at a very fast rate.
(1) T T F 149. Removal of RNA polymerase I from the
nucleoplasm will directly affect the synthesis of
(2) F F T
(1) mRNA (2) rRNA
(3) F T T (3) tRNA (4) hnRNA
(4) T F T 150. ‘DNA replication is semi-conservative in nature.’
147. Which of the following statement is incorrect This was experimentally demonstrated by
w.r.t age pyramid? Meselson and Stahl using
(1) It is a graphical representation of the (1) Streptococcus pneumoniae
proportion of various age groups of a (2) Bacteriophage
population. (3) E. coli
(4) Drosophila melanogaster
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A (2) Two long polypeptide chains that are linked
151. The recombinant DNA is directly injected into the together by glycosidic bonds.
nucleus of an animal cell through (3) Three short polypeptide chains that are
(1) Gene gun linked together by phosphodiester bonds.
(2) Biolistics (4) Three long polypeptide chains that are linked
together by glycosidic bonds.
(3) Microinjection
153. Which of the following factors does not affect the
(4) Ti-plasmid enzymatic activity?
152. The first human hormone produced by (1) Temperature
recombinant DNA technology is insulin. Mature
(2) pH
insulin consists of
(3) Activation energy
(1) Two short polypeptide chains that are linked
together by disulphide bonds. (4) Presence of inhibitor
(20)
154. Which among the following is the third step of (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
respiration in humans? (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(1) Diffusion of respiratory gases across alveolar 159. Choose the odd one w.r.t. pelvic girdle of
membrane humans.
(2) Diffusion of respiratory gases between blood (1) Ischium (2) Acetabulum
and tissues. (3) Acromion (4) Pubis
(3) Atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich 160. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. human brain.
alveolar air is released out. (1) Brain stem – Cerebellum
(4) Transport of gases by the blood. (2) Midbrain – Cerebral aqueduct
155. Most abundant cells of the total WBCs in healthy (3) Forebrain – Thalamus
humans are (4) Hindbrain – Pons
(1) Eosinophils (2) Basophils 161. In human females, cervix has a canal through
(3) Neutrophils (4) Monocytes which
156. When an impulse arrives at the axon terminal, it (1) Uterus opens into the oviduct
stimulates the movement of (2) Fallopian tube opens into the uterus
(1) Ca2+ towards the post-synaptic membrane (3) Uterus opens into the vagina
(2) Na+ outside the axonal membrane (4) Urethra opens into vaginal orifice
(3) Synaptic vesicles towards the pre-synaptic 162. In normal human females, menstrual cycle starts
membrane with the phase which
(4) Synaptic vesicles away from the synaptic (1) Lasts for 14 days
cleft (2) Shows regeneration of endometrium of
157. The Ti plasmid is naturally found in the bacteria uterus
(1) Salmonella typhimurium (3) Is characterized by developing Graafian

follicle
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Lasts for 3-5 days
(3) Escherichia coli
163. All of the following statements are true w.r.t.
(4) Meloidogyne incognita STIs, except
158. Match column I with column II and select the (1) Genital herpes is not completely curable
correct option w.r.t. partial pressure of O2 and even if detected early and treated properly.
CO2 in an adult human under normal conditions. (2) Early symptoms of most of the STIs are
Column I Column II minor, excluding the itching, swelling, etc. in
the genital region.
a. pO2 in vena cava (i) 95 mm Hg (3) Their incidences are reported to be very high
b. pCO2 in (ii) 40 mm Hg among the persons in the age group of 15-24
pulmonary artery years.
(4) One could be free of STIs by avoiding sexual
c. pO2 in aorta (iii) 45 mm Hg intercourse with unknown partners.
(21)
164. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. class Reptilia. (3) Injecting attenuated microbes directly during
(1) Naja – Poisonous snake immunisation
(2) Crocodilus – Four-chambered heart (4) Placental transfer of antibodies to foetus
(3) Chelone – Shed scales as skin cast 170. Consider the following features:
(4) Testudo – Tympanum represents ear (a) First human-like being, the hominid
165. Select the statement which is not incorrect w.r.t. (b) Cranial capacity between 650-800cc
frogs. (c) Probably did not eat meat
(1) They exhibit pulmonary respiration during The above mentioned features are true for
harsh conditions like extreme winter or
(1) Homo erectus (2) Homo habilis
summer.
(3) Homo sapiens (4) Ramapithecus
(2) Their lymphatic system does not consists of
lymph nodes. 171. Match the Column I with Column II w.r.t. human
(3) During respiration, air enters through the and choose the correct option.
nostrils into the buccal cavity and then to Column I Column II
lungs.
(a) Developing (i) Breakdown of
(4) The blood from the heart is carried to all parts
follicles endometrial lining
of the body by the venous system.
166. In which of the following amphibians, tail is (b) Menstruation (ii) Pre-ovulatory phase
present in adults? (c) Zona (iii) Tertiary follicle
(1) Salamandra (2) Rana pellucida
(3) Bufo (4) Hyla
(d) Antrum (iv) Surrounds secondary
167. Choose the option that contains all the organisms oocyte
of same phylum.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(1) Anopheles, Meandrina, Nereis
(2) Branchiostoma, Balanoglossus, Pila (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) Planaria, Ascaris, Pheretima (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) Laccifer, Locusta, Aedes (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
168. A collection of methods that allows correction of 172. The total number of vertebrae in the vertebral
a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a column of an adult man equals to ‘X’. The value
child/embryo is of ‘X’ is
(1) Immunotherapy (2) Gene migration (1) Equal to the sum of total number of cranial
(3) Gene therapy (4) Gene cloning and facial bones in man
169. Choose the odd one w.r.t. examples of passive (2) More than the number of bones in each limb
immunity. of man
(1) Colostrum secreted by mother during initial (3) Less than the number of phalanges in both
days of lactation. forelimbs of man
(2) Antitoxin given for tetanus (4) Equal to the total number of ribs in man
(22)
173. The principal nitrogenous excretory product in 177. Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are
humans is synthesized in the involved in the type of movement named ‘P’. ‘P’
(1) Largest gland of the body also assists in
(2) Double walled cup-like structure enclosing (1) Movement of Amoeba
the glomerulus (2) Removing dust particles from humans in
(3) Reddish brown, bean shaped structure trachea
situated between the levels of last thoracic (3) Maintenance of water current in the canal
and third lumbar vertebra system of Sycon
(4) Lobular structure located between the lungs (4) Capturing of prey in Hydra
behind the sternum on the ventral side of 178. In PNS, myelinated nerve fibres can be
aorta differentiated from unmyelinated nerve fibres on
174. During tubectomy, a small part of ‘X’ is removed the basis of presence of
or tied up through a small incision in the (1) Dendrites (2) Axon
abdomen or through vagina. The type of (3) Schwann cells (4) Nodes of Ranvier
epithelium present in ‘X’ is
179. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
(1) Squamous epithelium heterologous host, it is called
(2) Cuboidal epithelium (1) Native protein
(3) Compound epithelium (2) Alien protein
(4) Ciliated epithelium (3) Recombinant protein
175. Read the following statements. (4) Non-transformed protein
Statement (A): Rh antigen is observed on the 180. Complete the analogy w.r.t. the diseases and
surface of RBCs of more than 90% of humans. their causative agents.
Statement (B): An Rh +ve person, if exposed to Malaria : Plasmodium : : Common cold : _______
Rh –ve blood, forms specific antibodies against
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae
the Rh antigen.
(2) Entamoeba histolytica
Select the correct option.
(3) Rhino virus
(1) Only statement (A) is correct
(4) Wuchereria bancrofti
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
181. The ancestors of horsetails were ' X' while
(3) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect the descendants of seed ferns were 'Y' .
176. In humans, chronic cigarette smoking may lead Choose the option that correctly identifies ‘X’ and
to ‘Y’ respectively w.r.t. evolution of plant forms
(1) Inflammation of bronchi only through geological periods.
(2) Damage to alveolar walls (1) Psilophyton, Cycads
(3) Increase in respiratory surface area for (2) Rhynia type plants, Zosterophyllum
exchange of gases (3) Conifers, Progymnosperms
(4) Inflammation of bronchioles only (4) Bryophytes, Chlorophytes
(23)
182. Select the incorrect statement. SECTION-B

(1) The tendency of a population to remain in 186. The levels of all of the following hormones are
genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by increased several folds in human females during
natural selection. pregnancy, except
(2) A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg (1) LH (2) Estrogens
equilibrium if the population is large. (3) Progestogens (4) Cortisol
(3) Disturbance in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium 187. Choose the odd one w.r.t. marsupials of
results in evolution. Australia.
(4) According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, the (1) Banded anteater (2) Tiger cat
gene pool of a population remains constant. (3) Koala (4) Bobcat
183. The type of bond linking the monomeric units of a 188. A stirred tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical or
dimer containing alanine and glycine is with a curved base to
(1) Glycosidic bond (1) Act as an agitator system
(2) Peptide bond (2) Facilitate the mixing of the reactor’s contents
(3) Disulphide bond (3) Act as a sampling port
(4) Ester bond (4) Provide optimum pH and temperature
184. Select the correct statement. 189. Read the following statements w.r.t. B-DNA.
(1) The side effects of lactational amenorrhea Statement A: At each step of ascent, the strand
are almost nil, as it includes the use of turns 36º.
certain devices made of rubber Statement B: The rise per base pair is 3.4 nm.
(2) Lippes loop and progestasert are hormone Statement C: The backbone is formed by the
releasing IUDs inserted by doctors or expert sugar-phosphate-nitrogenous base chain.
nurses in the uterus through vagina In the light of above statements choose the
(3) Contraceptive injections alter the quality of correct option.
cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of (1) Statement A is correct but statements B and
sperms C are incorrect.
(4) ‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of female (2) All the statements are correct.
condoms
(3) Only statement A is incorrect.
185. How many of the following hormones is/are (4) All the statements are incorrect.
hyperglycemic?
190. An ideal contraceptive should not
(a) Insulin (b) Cortisol
(1) Be user friendly
(c) Glucagon (d) Thyroxine
(2) Easily available
(3) Interfere with sexual drive of the user
(1) Two (2) One (4) Be effective and reversible
(3) Three (4) Four
(24)
191. Assertion (A): RNA interference takes place in (iii) Stimulates glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular (iv) Growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair
defense.
Reason (R): This method involves silencing of a
(1) Two (2) Three
specific tRNA and prevents translation.
(3) Four (4) One
In the light of above statements, select the
correct option. 196. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. eyes of a frog.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false. (1) Situated in the orbit in skull
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (2) Eyes possess only one unit
correct explanation of (A). (3) Protected by nictitating membrane in water
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false. (4) Exhibit binocular vision
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 197. The type of connective tissue which has mostly
correct explanation of (A). collagen fibres and fibroblasts that are oriented
192. How many of the following are correct w.r.t. a differently is present in
healthy human? (1) Dermis of the skin
(a) Cardiac output – 3500 mL of blood (2) Inner lining of the aorta
(b) Diastolic blood pressure – 120 mm Hg (3) Mucus membrane of oesophagus
(c) Duration of a cardiac cycle – 0.8 seconds (4) Inner lining of the buccal cavity
(d) Heart rate – 72 beats min–1 198. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives
(e) Haemoglobin – 12-16 gm/100 mL of blood blue coloured colonies if the plasmid in the
bacteria
Select the correct option
(1) Has the gene required for synthesis of
(1) Three (2) Two
-1-antitrypsin
(3) Five (4) Four
(2) Carries the insertionally inactivated
193. Select the correct match. tetracycline resistant gene
(1) Dentalium – Tusk shell (3) Carries the gene required for synthesis of
(2) Asterias – Sea lily -galactosidase
(4) Does not have the active rop gene
(3) Pheretima – Blood sucking leech
199. Select the odd one w.r.t. homopolymers.
(4) Physalia – Brain coral (1) Starch (2) Cellulose
194. Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method for (3) Inulin (4) Haemoglobin
the correction of 200. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. HIV.
(1) Acute renal failure (2) Glomerulonephritis (1) It belongs to a group of viruses called
(3) Renal calculi (4) Uremia retroviruses.
195. How many of the below mentioned functions (2) It is an enveloped virus.
is/are related to cortisol? (3) It contains two non-identical molecules of
(i) Suppresses the immune response single-stranded RNA.
(ii) Stimulates the RBCs production (4) It has two molecules of reverse transcriptase

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3. A satellite revolves in a circular orbit around the

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13. Assume that a lamp radiates power P uniformly Column I Column II

P C. Maximum restoring (R) 2A

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(1) Rg (2) 2Rg

39. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod 5

(1) 20 cm to the left of P

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50. For the logic circuit shown in figure, truth table is A B Y A B Y

SECTION-A (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

b. CaF2, 40% (ii) 4 56. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed

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(3) CuCl2 (4) AlCl3 (1) Cu and Mo2O3

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Choose the correct option.

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98. Consider the following statements (3)

SECTION-A (1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only

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(1) Multicarpellary, apocarpous, gynoecium of (2) T T T

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132. In prokaryotes, post-transcriptional modification 136. Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis

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(1) Salmonella typhimurium (3) Is characterized by developing Graafian

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182. Select the incorrect statement. SECTION-B

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