10/08/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 25 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Dimensional formula for angular momentum is 4. A metal bar of length L and area of cross-section
A is clamped between two rigid supports. For the
(1) ML2T–2 (2) ML2T–1 material of the rod, Young’s modulus is Y and
(3) MLT–1 (4) M0L2T–1 coefficient of linear expansion is . If the
temperature of the rod is increased by t °C, the
2. A body is moving according to the equation x = at force exerted by the rod on the support is
+ bt2 – ct3 where x is displacement and a, b and c
(1) YALt (2) YAt
are constant. The acceleration of the body is
YLt
(1) a + 2bt (3) (4) YALt
A
(2) 2b + 6ct 5. Energy needed in breaking a drop of radius R into
(3) 2b – 6ct n drops of radii r is given by (Here T is surface
tension of drop)
(4) 3b – 6ct2
4
(1) 4T(nr2 – R2) (2) (r3n – R2)
3. The escape velocity of a body from earth’s surface 3
is ve. The escape velocity of the same body from
(3) 4T(2R2 – nr2) (4) 4T(nr2 + R2)
a height equal to 7R from earth’s surface will be
6. Two rain drops falling through air have radii in the
ve v ratio 1 : 2. They will have terminal velocity in the
(1) (2) e
2 2 ratio

ve ve (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) (4)
2 2 4 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

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Test-25 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

7. On centigrade scale the temperature of a body 13. For what value of the length l, the deflection in the
increases by 30°C. The increase in temperature galvanometer will be zero in the following
on Fahrenheit scale is potentiometer arrangement? The length of the
(1) 50° (2) 40° wire AB is 4 m and its resistance is 10 
(3) 30° (4) 54°
8. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at
constant pressure and volume are denoted by CP
CP
and CV, respectively. If   and R is the
CV
universal gas constant then CV is equal to
1  
(1) R (2)
1 
(1) 0.8 m
R  1 (2) 1.6 m
(3) (4)
 1 R
(3) 2.4 m
1
9. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance (4) 3.6 m
3
releases 200 J of heat to a hot reservoir. Then the 14. A proton and an -particle, accelerated through
work done on the working substance is same potential difference, enter a region of
uniform magnetic field with their velocities
100
(1) J (2) 100 J perpendicular to the field. The ratio of radii of their
3 path is
200
(3) J (4) 150 J (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
3
10. A body performs SHM with an amplitude A. At a (3) 2 : 2 (4) 1: 2
A 15. Two magnets of equal magnetic moment M each
distance from the mean position, the correct
2 are placed as shown in figure below. The resultant
relation between KE and PE is magnetic moment is M. Then the value of is

PE
(1) KE  (2) KE  2 PE
2
PE
(3) KE = PE (4) KE 
2
11. A wave motion is described by y(x, t) = a sin(kx – t).
Then the ratio of the maximum particle velocity to (1) 60° (2) 90°
the wave velocity is
(3) 45° (4) 30°
1
(1) a (2) 16. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the
ka
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a as
 shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy
(3) (4) ka
k of the system is zero, then Q is equal to
12. A sound source is moving towards a stationary
1
observer with of the speed of sound. The ratio
10
of apparent to real frequency is
10 11
(1) (2)
9 10 q
2 2
(1) (2) –q
 11  9 2
(3)   (4)  
 10   10  (3) +q (4) Zero

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
17. The capacity of parallel plate capacitor depends
on
(1) The type of metal used in plates
(2) The charge on capacitor
Test-25 (Code-A)
23. Which of the following is incorrect statement in
case of elastic collision of bodies?
(1) Linear momentum of individual body may
change

(3) The potential difference across the plates
(4) The separation between the plates
18. Time period of a simple pendulum is measured
with the help of a stopwatch having least count
0.15 s. If time taken by the simple pendulum of 25
oscillations is recorded to be 20 s, then the
maximum percentage error in measurement of
time will be
(1) 0.62% (2) 0.75%
(3) 0.5% (4) 1%
(2) Total linear momentum of system of colliding
objects remains conserved
(3) Total energy of the system remains conserved
(4) Kinetic energy of system during collision
remains conserved
24. A disc of mass m and radius r is rotating about its
m
axis with angular speed . If a particle of mass
2
sticks with it at a point at its centre, then the new
angular velocity of disc is

19. A block of mass m suspended from ceiling by (1)  (2) 2

means of a string of mass M. Then the force  
exerted by block on the string will be (3) (4)
3 2
(1) (M + m)g 25. The moment of inertia of a disc of mass m and
(2) (M – mg) radius R about an axis tangential to its edge and
(3) mg in the plane of the disc is

(4) Mg mR 2 3
(1) (2) mR 2
20. A particle of mass m is suspended from rigid 4 2
support, by a string of length l. The particle rotates mR 2
5
l (3) mR 2 (4)
in a horizontal circle of radius with angular 4 2
2
velocity , the tension in the string is 26. A body of mass 2 kg is projected vertically
upwards with velocity 20 m/s. If the body rises to
1 a height of 15 m, the work done by air drag is
(1) mg (2) m 2 l
2 (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) m2l (4) 2m2l (1) – 15 J (2) – 25 J
21. A block is held suspended from a ceiling through (3) – 40 J (4) – 100 J
a massless spring of spring constant k. Initially the 27. A thermal neutron in a reactor has kinetic energy
spring has natural length and block is suddenly of about 0.01 eV. The de-Broglie wavelength of
released. The maximum elongation of spring is neutron is
2mg mg (1) 2.86 Å
(1) (2)
k k
(2) 28.6 Å
mg k
(3) (4) (3) 0.286 Å
k mg
(4) 286 Å
22. A body of mass m is placed on a smooth incline
28. The circuit given below gives which of the
having angle of inclination  and is slowly moved following output (z)?
up with constant velocity v. Then the rate of doing
work is
(1) mgv
(2) mg sin v
(3) mg cos v (1) (x + y) (2) xy
(4) Zero (3) 1 (4) 0

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Test-25 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

29. When photon of energy 3.8 eV falls on metallic 35. If current through wire of infinite length is
surface of work function 2.8 eV, then the kinetic decreasing, then induced current in loop is
energy of emitted electrons are
(1) 1 eV (2) 6.6 eV
(3) 2.8 eV (4) 0 to 1 eV
30. Which of the following is possible in a + decay?
(1) Zero
(1) A proton may decay into neutron and a
positron (2) Clockwise
(2) A neutron may decay into proton and a (3) Anticlockwise
positron (4) First clockwise then anticlockwise
(3) A proton may decay into electron and a 36. An ideal transformer is used on 220 V line to
positron deliver 2 A at 110 V. The current through the
(4) A neutron may decay into electron and a primary coil is
positron (1) 10 A (2) 5 A
31. A reverse biased diode is (3) 1 A (4) 0.1 A

(1) 37. If mutual inductance is neglected, then effective

inductance between A and D is
(2)

(3)

(4)
32. The binding energy of an electron in 4th orbit of (1) 3 H (2) 9 H
hydrogen atom is (3) 6 H (4) 1 H
(1) 2.4 eV (2) 0.85 eV 38. Which of the following can be deflected in
magnetic field?
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 0.5 eV
(1) X-rays (2) Cathode rays
238
33. A 92 U nucleus at rest is decayed by emitting
(3) -rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
234
alpha particle into 90 Th. The speeds of the alpha 39. The instantaneous current in a circuit is given by
particle and the thorium nucleus are in the 4
approximate ratio I cos(t  ) ampere. The rms value of the
2
(1) 1 : 58 (2) 58 : 1 current is
(3) 90 : 1 (4) 45 : 1 (1) Zero (2) 2A
34. Which of the following figures represent the
variation of kinetic energy of particle and (3) 2 A (4) 2 2 A
associated wavelength ()? 40. When switch K is closed at time t = 0, find the
current at t = .

(1) (2)

(1) 2.5 A (2) 0 A

(3) (4)
(3) 10 A (4) 2 A

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-25 (Code-A)
41. The fringe-width in a Young’s double slit (1) 22.5 cm (2) 45 cm
experiment can be increased, if we decrease (3) 20 cm (4) 20.5 cm
(1) Separation between the slits 44. Figure shows a right angle isosceles prism of
(2) Width of the slits glass of refractive index 1.414. The angle of
(3) Distance between slit and screen incidence i at AB for which the refracted ray
through diagonal face AC goes undeviated is
(4) Wavelength of the source of light
42. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity

at a point where path difference is is I. If I0
6
 I
denotes the maximum intensity then   is
 I0 

3 3 (1) 0°
(1) (2)
2 4 (2) 30°
1 1 (3) 45°
(3) (4)
2 2 (4) 90° (grazing incidence)
43. An object and a screen are kept at a distance of 45. If the refractive index of the material of an
120 cm. A lens is kept between them so that a real equilateral prism is 3 , then angle of minimum
image is formed on the screen for two different deviation of the prism is
positions of the lens. Difference between the
(1) 30° (2) 45°
positions of the lens is 60 cm. The focal length of
the lens is (3) 60° (4) 75°

CHEMISTRY
50. Which of the following is the weakest base?
46. The IUPAC name of is (1) NaOH (2) Zn(OH)2
(3) Ca(OH)2 (4) KOH
(1) 3-Bromo-2-methylpropene 51. A solution containing 4 g of a non-volatile organic
(2) 1-Bromo-2-methylpropene solute per 100 mL was found to have an osmotic
(3) 2-Methyl-3-bromopropene pressure equal to 500 cm of mercury at 27°C. The
molecular weight of the solute is
(4) 2-Methyl-1-bromopropene
(1) 14.99 g
47. Temporary hardness is caused due to the
presence of (2) 149.9 g

(1) CaSO4 (2) CaCl2 (3) 1499 g

(4) 1.499 g
(3) MgCl2 (4) Ca(HCO3)2
52. For a reaction, the rate constant is expressed as,
48. Which of the following is the strongest oxidant? k = Ae–6000/T. The energy of the activation, Ea i
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(1) 12 kcal (2) 8 kcal
(3) Br2 (4) I2 (3) 3 kcal (4) 4 kcal
49. An element having electronic configuration, 53. The number of moles of Na+ ions present in 10 mL
1s22s22p63s23p64s1 will form of 0.8 M Na3PO4 is
(1) Acidic oxide (1) 0.012
(2) Basic oxide (2) 0.008
(3) Amphoteric oxide (3) 0.024
(4) Neutral oxide (4) 0.016

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Test-25 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

54. A cubic solid is made up of two element A and B. 61. The slope of the graph between log x/m vs log p
Atoms A are present at the corners of the cube in Freundlich isotherm can have value
and atoms B occupy the centres of each of the (1) 1 to 2 (2) < 0
faces of the cube. The formula of the compound is
(3) 0.1 to 0.5 (4) > 2
(1) AB3 (2) A3B
62. The correct order of freezing point for the following
(3) AB2 (4) A2B aqueous solution is given by (assume complete
55. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by ionisation of the electrolytes)
(1) Trimethylacetaldehyde (1) 0.2 M Glucose > 0.2 M KBr > 0.2 M Na2S >
(2) Acetaldehyde 0.2 M AlCl3

(3) Benzaldehyde (2) 0.2 M AlCl3 > 0.2 M Na2S > 0.2 M KBr > 0.2 M
(4) Formaldehyde Glucose
56. The product, P in the reaction, will be (3) 0.2 M AlCl3 > 0.2 M Glucose > 0.2 M KBr > 0.2
CH MgBr H O  M Na2S
Ethyl acetate 
3
Excess
 
3
P
(4) 0.2 M Glucose > 0.2 M AlCl3 > 0.2 M Na2S >
(1) (2) 0.2 M KBr
63. For a zero order reaction, if reaction is 80%
completed in 40 min, then the half-life period will
be
(3) (4)
(1) 25 hr (2) 17.3 hr
(3) 0.416 hr (4) 0.288 hr
57. If the internal energy of an ideal gas decreases by
the same amount as the work done by system, the 64.
process is
(1) Cyclic Compound C and its
colour is
(2) Isothermal
(1) NiO, brown
(3) Adiabatic
(2) Ni(BO2)3, brown
(4) Isolated
58. The reactivities of methanol (I), 1-propanol (II), (3) Ni(BO2)2, yellow
2-butanol (III) and 2-methyl-2-propanol (IV) (4) NiBO2, yellow
towards sodium metal follows the order
65. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
(1) I > II > III > IV
(1) Cellulose
(2) IV > III > II > I
(2) Lactose
(3) I > IV > II > III
(3) Starch
(4) IV > II > III > I
(4) Glucose
59. Which of the following compound will form yellow
precipitate when treated with I2 and NaOH(aq)? 66. Which of the following cannot be the ozonolysis
product of o-xylene?
(1) (2) CH3OH (1) (2) CHO – CHO

(3) (4) (3) (4)

60. Which of the following amine does not respond to 67. The charge present on 42 g of nitride ions in
carbylamine reaction? coulomb is
(1) Ethylamine (2) (CH3)2NH (1) 4.8 × 10–19 (2) 14.4 × 10–19
(3) CH3NH2 (4) Aniline (3) 2.86 × 105 (4) 8.6 × 105

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-25 (Code-A)

68. Which type of crystal system contain only one 75. Mendius reaction involves the reduction of
Bravais lattice? (1) Alkyl isocyanides
(1) Hexagonal (2) Tetragonal (2) Oximes
(3) Cubic (4) Monoclinic (3) Cyanoalkanes
69. Which of the following species will have the (4) Nitroalkanes
minimum bond energy?
76. The following reaction has maximum rate when X
(1) N2 (2) N2 is

(3) N22  (4) N2

70. The product A in the following reaction is (1) Cl (2) NH2
(3) OR (4) OCOR
77. Presence of blood red colour in Lassaigne’s test
is due to the formation of
(1) NaSCN
(1) (2) (2) Fe 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3 .xH2 O
(3) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–
(4) [Fe(SCN)]2+
(3) (4)

71. Highest third ionisation energy among the 78.

following is
(1) N (2) F The product formed in the above reaction is
(3) Ne (4) Be (1) Aniline
72. pH of Ca(OH)2 solution is (Ksp = 4 ×10–15) (2) Azobenzene
(1) 5.2 (2) 7.65 (3) Hydrazobenzene

(3) 9.3 (4) 8.2 (4) Azoxybenzene

73. Zr and Ti metal are purified by 79. Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained by heating
ammonium nitrate?
(1) Mond process
(1) NO (2) N2O3
(2) van Arkel method
(3) N2O (4) N2O4
(3) Zone refining
(4) Liquation 80. The magnetic moment for the complex K2[MnCl4]
is 5.9 B.M. Then the number of unpaired e–
present in the complex is
74. I. II.
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 4
III. IV. 81. Maximum number of electrons in a shell having
principal quantum number equal to 6 is
(1) 6 (2) 12
The correct stability order of the above cations is
(3) 36 (4) 72
(1) I < II < III < IV
82. Which of the following is a biodegradable
(2) III < IV < II < I
polymer?
(3) IV < III < II < I
(1) Bakelite (2) PVC
(4) IV < II < I < III
(3) PMMA (4) PHBV
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Test-25 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

83. Maximum prescribed concentration of Fe in (1) 55.46 (2) 40.7

drinking water is (3) 15.74 (4) 9.86
(1) 0.2 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
88. C.F.S.E. is maximum in
(3) 3.0 ppm (4) 0.005 ppm
(1) [Co(NO2 )6 ]3– (2) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+
84. Hybridisation of P-atom in solid PBr5 is
(1) sp3 (2) sp3d (3) [CoCl6 ]3– (4) [Co(H2 O)6 ]3+
(3) sp3d2 (4) Both (1) and (3)
85. Two moles of PCl5 is heated in a 2 litre flask to
89.
give PCl3 and Cl2 and found to be 60% dissociated
to attain equilibrium. What is the value of
equilibrium constant (Kc)?
A and B are respectively
(1) 1.20 (2) 0.90
(1) KIO3, I2 (2) I2 , I2
(3) 0.50 (4) 1.90
(3) KIO3, KIO2 (4) I2, KIO3
86. The number of peroxide linkage is maximum in
(1) H2SO5 (2) H2S2O8 90. Strongest acid among the following is

(3) CrO5 (4) H2S2O7 (1) NC – CH2 – COOH

(2) NO2CH2COOH
87. If the standard electrode potential, EoCell for the
cell, x(s) | x2+ || y+ | y(s) is 1.20 V, the logarithm of (3) CCl3COOH
the equilibrium constant, log Keq, will be (4) CF3COOH

BOTANY
91. Read the following statements w.r.t. 93. What does ‘S’ stands for in the equation
decomposition. log S = log C + Z log A?
a. It is controlled by chemical composition of (1) Species area
detritus only.
(2) Species richness
b. It is an oxygen requiring process.
(3) Regression coefficient
c. It is regulated by temperature and soil
moisture. (4) Species interrelationship

d. It is faster if detritus is rich in nitrogen and 94. The sugarcane species originally grown in North
water soluble substances. India and used to get the desirable qualities by
crossing with other sugarcane species of South
e. Anaerobic conditions promote decomposition. India was
Select the option for correct ones. (1) Saccharum spontaneum
(1) a, b, c and d (2) Saccharum barberi
(2) a, c, d and e (3) Saccharum officinarum
(3) b, c and d only (4) Saccharum munja
(4) a, d and e only 95. Which mineral is required during formation of cell
92. Identify the correctly printed scientific name wall and mitotic spindle?
(1) Mangifera indica Linnaeus (1) Potassium
(2) Mangifera Indica Linnaeus (2) Magnesium
(3) Mangifera indica Linn. (3) Iron
(4) Mangifera Indica Linn (4) Calcium

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-25 (Code-A)
96. Find odd one out w.r.t. key functional aspects of 104. Read the following statements and find the option
the ecosystem. for correct ones w.r.t. plasma membrane.
(1) Nutrient cycling a. Lipid component of the membrane mainly
(2) Energy flow consist of phosphoglycerides
(3) Decomposition b. Lipids constitute 52% in membrane of human
RBC
(4) Species composition
c. Peripheral proteins lie on the surface of
97. Which of the following stages lasts for months or
membrane
years in the oocytes of some vertebrates?
d. Quasi-fluid nature of membrane allows lateral
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
movement of proteins within overall bilayer
(3) Diakinesis (4) Telophase I
(1) a, b, d (2) a, b, c
98. The microtubules from the opposite poles of the
(3) b, c, d (4) a, c, d
spindle attach to the pair of homologous
chromosomes in 105. Mitotic prophase is characterised by
(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II (1) Presence of only one chromatid in each
chromosome
(3) Leptotene (4) Diplotene
(2) Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
99. Which of the following chromosome complements
is correct for Klinefelter’s Syndrome? (3) Splitting of centromeres
(1) 47, XXXX (2) 45, XO (4) Poleward movement of chromosomes
(3) 47, XXY (4) 46, XYY 106. Which one is mismatched?
100. All of the following are true w.r.t. numerical (1) Edible ascocarp Morels
taxonomy, except
(2) Used for experimental Neurospora
(1) Based on few observable characters genetics
(2) Uses computation of data
(3) Formation of basidiocarp Puffballs
(3) Characters are given equal importance
(4) Numbers and codes are assigned to (4) Formation of non-motile Alternaria
each character gametes
101. Almost 90 percent of the volume of a mature plant 107. A plant heterozygous for three allelic pairs,
cell can be occupied by undergoes selfing, then how many genotypes
(1) Plastids regarding these alleles will be produced in F1
generation?
(2) Vacuoles
(1) 8 (2) 64
(3) Mitochondria
(3) 9 (4) 27
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
108. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
102. Microbes are useful to human being in diverse
node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
ways. Which of the following products are formed
is modified sub-aerial stem for
by fermentive activity of yeast?
(1) Supporting the heavy branches in terrestrial
(1) Bread, curd, cheese
plant
(2) Toddy, cheese, curd
(2) Anchoring the aquatic plants with substratum
(3) Biogas, biofertilizer, cheese
(3) Vegetative propagation in aquatic plants
(4) Bread, ethanol, wine
(4) Assimilatory function in Asparagus
103. Myotonic dystrophy which also follows Mendelian
109. Choose correct option w.r.t. adapter molecule.
pattern of inheritance is
(1) Its first loop from 3 end is for enzyme binding
(1) Autosomal recessive trait
(2) It has unpaired nitrogenous bases as well
(2) Holandric trait
(3) Amino acid attachment site is at 5 end
(3) X-linked recessive trait
(4) The 3-D structure looks like a clover-leaf
(4) Autosomal dominant trait
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Test-25 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

110. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for 116. Primary meristem(s) is/are
production of two sucrose molecules in (a) Lateral meristem
sugarcane?
(b) Apical meristem
(1) 60 ATP, 24 NADPH2
(c) Intercalary meristem
(2) 120 ATP, 48 NADPH2 (1) Only (a) and (b)
(3) 30 ATP, 12 NADPH2 (2) Only (b)
(4) 240 ATP, 96 NADPH2 (3) Only (b) and (c)
111. A large variety of marine invertebrates and fish live (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
at great depths in the ocean where the pressure 117. Hilum represents the junction between
could be > 100 times the normal atmospheric
(1) Funicle and ovary wall
pressure. Which kind of adaptation it represents?
(2) Ovule and funicle
(1) Behavioural adaptation
(3) Chalaza and integument
(2) Biochemical adaptation
(4) Funicle and micropyle
(3) Morphological adaptation
118. In mitochondrial ETS, transfer of electrons
(4) Migration
between enzyme complex III and IV occurs by
112. The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating
examples of mutualism are found in (1) Ubiquinol

(1) Plant - bacteria relationships (2) Small intrinsic protein

(2) Plant - fungi relationships (3) Peripheral mobile carrier protein

(3) Plant - cyanobacteria relationships (4) Succinate dehydrogenase

(4) Plant - animal relationships 119. About turner’s syndrome all of the following are
correct, except
113. Which of the following bacteria catalyses the given
conversion? (1) A chromosomal disorder
(2) Results due to fusion of egg (22 + 0) with
2NH3 + 3O2  2NO2 + 2H+ + 2H2O
sperm (22 + X)
(1) Nitrobacter (3) Rudimentary ovaries
(2) Nitrococcus (4) Normal secondary sexual characters
(3) Thiobacillus 120. Organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide
(4) Pseudomonas range of temperatures are called
114. Select the option which is not true for a protist that (1) Stenothermal
is also called consumer-decomposer protist. (2) Eurythermal
(1) In the vegetative stage, cell is not covered with
(3) Ectotherms
cell wall
(4) Poikilotherms
(2) They have saprobic or phagotrophic mode of
nutrition 121. Growth in plants is
(3) Both sexual and asexual mode of (1) Indeterminate and closed type
reproduction occurs in them (2) Determinate and closed type
(4) Motile stage is absent in their life cycle (3) Limited but both open and closed type
115. Find odd one out w.r.t. ethylene functions. (4) Indeterminate and open type
(1) Rapid internode elongation in deep water rice 122. In the kingdom system of classification given by
plants Whittaker, Chlamydomonas, Chlorella,
(2) Initiates flowering and synchronising fruit set Paramoecium and Amoeba were, brought from
in pineapples how many kingdoms proposed by Linnaeus?
(3) Thinning of fruits like cherry, walnut and cotton (1) Two kingdoms (2) One kingdom
(4) Stimulation of root formation on stem cuttings (3) Three kingdoms (4) Four kingdoms

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-25 (Code-A)
123. Succession begins with invasion of a bare lifeless 129. Which of the following embryos in dioecious
area by pioneers (a) which later succeeded by flowering plants is/are genetically identical to the
bigger plants and ultimately a stable climax female plants?
community (b) is formed. Choose correct option (1) Nucellar embryo
for (a) and (b) in hydrosere.
(2) Integumentary embryo
(1) Lichens, trees ecosystem
(3) Zygotic embryo
(2) Mosses, grassland
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Sedges, grassland
130. Plant hormone that can be used to improve the
(4) Phytoplanktons, forest
shape of apples and to increase length of grape
124. During reduction step of Calvin cycle stalks is
(1) ATP and NADPH are formed (1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin
(2) Carboxylation of RuBP occurs (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene
(3) ATP and NADPH are utilised 131. Few layers of _______ cells are present next to
(4) CO2 acceptor molecule is produced endodermis in dicot root.
125. Select correct statement w.r.t. female Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
gametophyte development in flowering plants.
(1) Collenchymatous
(1) Micropylar megaspore undergoes three free
(2) Thick walled parenchymatous
nuclear mitosis
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(2) Six nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and
organised into cells (4) Thin walled chlorenchymatous
(3) The large central cell has two nuclei situated 132. Which of the following is bacterial blight resistant
above egg apparatus cowpea variety?
(4) Each Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis (1) Pusa Swarnim
126. Which of the following taxonomic categories will (2) Pusa Shubhra
have similar taxon in the classification of mango (3) Pusa Komal
and wheat?
(4) Pusa Sadabahar
(1) Class (2) Division
133. Zygotes do not undergo reduction division
(3) Order (4) Family immediately and they produce a multicellular body
127. The main source of biofertilisers in terrestrial in
environments are (1) Marchantia and Funaria
(1) Bacteria only (2) Chlamydomonas and Sargassum
(2) Fungi only
(3) Gracilaria and Volvox
(3) Prokaryotes only
(4) Ulothrix and Spirogyra
(4) Bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi
134. What is used extensively for removal of particulate
128. Solute potentials and pressure potentials of three matter present in the exhaust from a thermal
solution A, B and C are as follows: power plant?
s(A) = – 7 bar, s(B) = – 11 bar, s(C) = – 5 bar (1) Catalytic converter
p(A) = 5 bar, p(B) = 8 bar, p(C) = 3 bar (2) Agro chemicals
On the basis of given data select the incorrect (3) Pyrolysis
statement.
(4) Electrostatic precipitator
(1) Solution B is hypertonic with respect to
135. The debate between proteins versus DNA as the
solution A
genetic material was finally resolved from the
(2) Solution A has more solute concentration than experiment of
solution C
(1) Frederick Griffith
(3) Water potential of solution B is less than that
of solution C (2) Hershey and Chase
(4) All the solutions A, B and C are isotonic with (3) Watson and Crick
respect to each other (4) Meselson and Stahl

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Test-25 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

ZOOLOGY
136. Development in P. americana occurs through a 143. Mark the cell junction found in epithelial layer
number of nymphal stages through 13 times which facilitates the cells to communicate with
moulting. Such a type of development is called each other by connecting the cytoplasm of
(1) Holometabolous (2) Paurometabolous adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small
molecules and sometimes big molecules
(3) Ametabolous (4) Hypermetabolous
(1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junctions
137. Which of the following tissue covers moist
surfaces such as buccal cavity, pharynx, (3) Interdigitation (4) Gap junction
oesophagus and cornea of the eye? 144. Opening of oesophagus into stomach is regulated
(1) Stratified cuboidal epithelium by a muscular sphincter called
(2) Stratified squamous non-keratinised (1) Cardiac sphincter
epithelium (2) Pyloric sphincter
(3) Pseudostratified epithelium (3) Upper oesophageal sphincter
(4) Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium (4) Uvula
138. Choose correct option which fills the blank to 145. Mucus and bicarbonates present in gastric juice
complete analogy, Scoliodon : Placoid scale : : play an important role in
Labeo : ______
(1) Decreasing pH of stomach
(1) Claspers (2) Cycloid scale
(2) Protection of mucosal epithelium from
(3) Poison sting (4) Viviparous
excoriation by the highly concentrated
139. Which of the following is incorrect match? hydrochloric acid
(1) Pennatula – Sea pen (3) Churning movement
(2) Euplectella – Venus flower (4) Peristalsis
basket 146. In which of the following disorders, skin and eyes
turn yellow due to deposition of bile pigment?
(3) Meandrina – Dead man’s finger
(1) Indigestion (2) Constipation
(4) Euspongia – Bath sponge
(3) Jaundice (4) Diarrhoea
140. Depression in the sphenoid bone that lodges
147. Mark the thickest chamber of human heart
pituitary gland is
(1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium
(1) Sella turcica (2) Basisphenoid
(3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle
(3) Ethmoid (4) Foramen magnum
148. Which of following is not true w.r.t. effect of
141. Mesoderm arises from the wall of the embryonic
sympathetic nervous system on heart?
gut as hollow outgrowth which forms ______,
occurs in _______ and _______. (1) Increase rate of heart beat
(1) Schizocoelom, Annelids, Arthropods (2) Increase cardiac output
(2) Schizocoelom, Annelids, Molluscs (3) Decrease speed of conduction of action
(3) Enterocoelom, Echinoderms, Chordates potential

(4) Eucoelom, Molluscs, Echinoderms (4) Increase strength of ventricular contraction

142. In urochordates 149. Which of the following is not a part of renal tubule?
(1) Notochord is present only in adult stage (1) PCT (2) DCT
(2) Notochord is present only in tail of larval stage (3) Loop of Henle (4) Glomerulus
(3) Notochord is present from head to tail region 150. Most abundant homopolymeric biomolecule in
in larva biosphere is
(4) Notochord is present from head to tail region (1) Collagen (2) Cellulose
throughout their life (3) RuBisCO (4) DNA

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-25 (Code-A)
151. At the end of joint diastole ventricle is 157. Find the incorrect match between drug and its
source?
(1) One third filled by blood
(2) Two third filled by blood Drug Source
(3) Completely filled by blood
(1) Smack Acetylation of morphine
(4) Not filled by blood
(2) Ganja Erythroxylum coca
152. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Inflammation of joints occur due to the (3) Cannabinoids Cannabis sativa
accumulation of uric acid crystals
(4) Morphine Papaver somniferum
(2) Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased
bone mass and increased chances of 158. What is the ploidy of primary and secondary
fractures spermatocyte respectively?
(3) Multinucleated condition is found in smooth (1) n, 2n
muscle (2) 3n, n
(4) Muscular dystrophy is the progressive (3) n, n
degeneration of skeletal muscle
(4) 2n, n
153. Corpus callosum, a tract of nerve fibres connects
159. Given below is a figure that indicates the external
(1) Two cerebellar hemispheres features of cockroach.
(2) Two cerebral hemispheres
(3) Two superior colliculi
(4) Two inferior colliculi
154. Macula is the sensory part of
(1) Organ of corti
(2) Ampulla
(3) Cochlea
(4) Utricle and saccule Choose the option which is correct for the
155. All of the following are examples of conditioned features of the labelled structure A, B, C, and D.
reflexes except (1) A – Tegmina Transparent,
(1) Salivation on sight of food membranous wings used
in flight
(2) Salivation in response to taste and chewing of
food (2) B – Anal styles Jointed filamentous
structures present in
(3) Salivation on hearing sound of bell
males but absent in
(4) Writing females
156. Which of the following is incorrect statement (3) C – Compound With the help of several
about genetically modified organism? eye ommatidia, a cockroach
(1) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides can receive several
images of an object
(2) Transgenic cow Rosie produce milk which known as mosaic vision
was enriched in human -1-antitrypsin with more sensitivity and
less resolution, being
(3) Genetically modified crop has more tolerance
common during night.
to abiotic stresses
(4) Transgenic animal model exist for many (4) D – Forewings Dark, opaque and
human diseases such as cancer, cystic leathery which are used
in flight
fibrosis, Alzheimer's etc.

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Test-25 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

160. Which of the following is not a function of 166. Placenta also act as an endocrine tissue and
glucocorticoids? produces several hormones except
(1) Produces anti-inflammatory reaction (1) hCG
(2) Suppresses the immune response (2) Estrogen
(3) Stimulate the RBC production (3) FSH
(4) Inhibit gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and (4) Progestogens
proteolysis
167. Which of the following factors will not affect the
161. The anabolic steroid abused by sportsperson to
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
enhance their performance have several side
effects too. These side effects in males are all of (1) Gene migration
the following, except (2) Genetic drift
(1) Depression and mood swings (3) Mutation
(2) Enlargement of prostate gland (4) Random mating
(3) Increased sperm production 168. The only difference in insulin and proinsulin is that
(4) Increased aggressiveness insulin lacks
162. Read the statements A–D and choose whether (1) A – peptide
these are true or false.
(2) B – peptide
(A) Micturition reflex is a neural mechanism for
release of urine (3) C – peptide
(B) ADH helps in water elimination, making the (4) Both A and B peptides
urine hypotonic 169. Infertility due to anovulation or oligoovulation can
(C) Glomerular filtrate has the same composition be corrected using which of the following ART?
as plasma except the proteins (1) AI (2) IUI
(D) Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the (3) GIFT (4) AZT
proximal convoluted tubule
170. Which of the following respiratory volumes cannot
A B C D be measured using simple spirometer?
(1) T T T T
(1) Inspiratory capacity (2) Expiratory capacity
(2) T F T T
(3) Vital capacity (4) Residual volume
(3) F F T T
171. During inspiration, the diaphragm
(4) T F F T
(1) Relaxes to become dome-shaped
163. The process of introduction of foreign DNA into
host bacterium is known as (2) Contracts and flattens
(1) Transformation (3) Shows no change
(2) Recombination (4) Expands
(3) Elution 172. Where was Saheli developed?
(4) Downstream processing (1) Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow
164. In MOET which of the following hormone is (2) All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New
administered to induce follicular maturation and Delhi
super ovulation?
(3) National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi
(1) FSH (2) Estrogen
(4) JNCASR, Bengaluru
(3) Progesterone (4) Pitocin
173. Under a given oxygen concentration in blood,
165. Which of the following is not included in barriers
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will increase if
of innate immunity?
(1) pH of blood falls
(1) Mucus coating of respiratory tract
(2) Natural killer cells (2) pH of blood rises
(3) B and T lymphocytes (3) CO2 concentration in blood falls
(4) Interferons (4) Decrease in body temperature

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-25 (Code-A)
174. A portal system is one in which 177. The ear ossicle which is in direct contact with
(1) A vein starts from an organ and ends up in fenestra ovalis is
heart (1) Malleus (2) Incus
(2) A vein starts from an organ and ends up in (3) Stapes (4) Bony labyrinth
another organ but not directly in heart 178. The reabsorption of water in kidneys is under the
(3) A vein starts from heart and ends up in lungs control of a hormone called

(4) A vein start from lung and ends up in heart (1) STH (2) ACTH

175. Aqueduct of sylvius is another name for (3) LH (4) ADH

179. Hormone relaxin is meant for
(1) Aqueous chamber
(1) Release of ova from ovary
(2) Central canal
(2) Relaxing vagina
(3) Foramen of monro
(3) Relaxing public symphysis
(4) Iter
(4) Relaxing fallopian tubes
176. The shape of the lens in the eye of mammals is
180. Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are used in
altered by
producing
(1) Iris
(1) Bioinsecticidal plants
(2) Vitreous humor (2) Biomineralisation
(3) Aqueous humor (3) Biometallurgical techniques
(4) Ciliary muscles (4) Biofertilizers

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