Integrated Programme (Class Ix) : Brilliant

Integrated Programme(Class IX )Module - III
INTEGRATED PROGRAMME
(CLASS IX)
2021-2022
Module - III
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
PALA
Mutholy Campus, Ph: 04822 - 206100, 206800
Arunapuram Campus, Ph: 04822 - 212415, 210949, 216975
Ernakulam - Ph: 0484 - 2665080, 2665090
www.brilliantpala.org., email: brilliantstudycentre@gmail.com
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Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Blank
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CONTENTS
PHYSICS
1. Gravitation ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 05
2. Fluids -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 29
3. Wave motion -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 48
CHEMISTRY
1. Study of Gas Law ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 73
BIOLOGY
1. Diversity and Living Organism --------------------------------------------------------------------- 95
2. Adaptation---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 128
3. Improvement of Food Resources ---------------------------------------------------------------- 151
4. Natural Resources and its Management --------------------------------------------------- 171
MATHEMATICS
1. Quadrilateral and Circle I --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 193
2. Lines, Angles and Triangles ----------------------------------------------------------------------- 244
3. Permimeter and Area of Plane Figures ------------------------------------------------------ 279
4. Average, Probability and Statistics ----------------------------------------------------------- 317
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PHYSICS
CHAPTER - 01
GRAVITATION
Every particle in the universe attracts every other particle, which has been suggested by Newton forms the
basis of Newtons law of gravitation.
Newton’s Universal law of Gravitation :
Every particle in the universe attracts every other particle with a force directly proportional to the product of
the masses of the particle and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Mathematical Expression:
The universal law of gravitation states that the magnitude of the force of attraction between the bodies is:
(i) directly proportional to the product of their masses.
(ii) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them
m1 m2
r
According to law of gravitation
F  m1 m 2 ................(i)
1
F ......................(ii)
r2
combining (i) and (ii)
m1 m 2 Gm1 m 2
F  F
r2 r2
Where G is proportionality constant and is known as the universal gravitational constant.
(a) Universal Gravitational Constant:
(i) Definition :
Gm1 m 2
In relation, F 
r2
If m1 = m2 = 1, r = 1, then F = G. Hence, universal gravitational constant may be defined as the force of
attraction between two bodies of unit mass separated by unit distance apart.
(ii) Units of G:
Gm1m 2
F
r2
5
Fr 2 Nm 2
We have , G  ; In S.I. G   Nm 2 kg 2
m1m 2 kg kg
dyne cm 2
In C.G.S G   dyne cm2 g 2
g.g
(iii) Values of G:
In S.I G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2 kg–2
In C.G.S G = 6.67 × 10-8 dyne cm2 g–2
Illustrations
1. Two persons having mass 50kg each, are standing such that the centre of gravity are 1m apart.
Calculate the force of gravitation and also calculate the force of gravity on each.
(Take G = 6.67×10-11 N.m2 kg2 , mass of earth M = 6×1024 kg, radius of earth R = 6.4×106 m).
Solution: Given : m1 = m2 = 50 kg
r = 1m, G = 6.67×10-11 N.m2/kg2
Gm1m 2
Force of gravitation F =
r2
6.67 1011  50  50
F  1.67  107 N
1
2
Force of gravity is the force with which earth attracts every body towards its centre.
GMm
F Here r = R, radius of the earth and m1 = M = mass of earth, m2 = m = mass of object
r2
6.67 1011  6  1024  50

F   0.48 103 N........(ii)
 6.4 10  6 2
F is much greater than F so the persons will not move towards each other but each of them moves towards the
earth.
Between sun and earth Between moon and earth
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Mass of earth 6 × 10 kg Mass of earth 6 × 1024 kg
Mass of sun 2 × 1030 kg Mass of moon 7.4 × 1022 kg
Distance of earth 1.5 × 1011 m Distance of moon 3.8 × 108 m
from sun from earth
Gravitational force 6.67  1011  6 10 24  2  1030 Gravitational force 6  1024  7.4  1022
between sun and between earth and
Gm1m 2 1.5 10 11 2
Gm1m 2  3.8 10 
8 2
earth moon
r2  3.6  10 22 N r2  2.05 1020 N
2. Two bodies A and B having mass m and 2m respectively are kept at a distance d apart. Where should a small
particle be placed so that the net gravitational force on it due to the bodies A and B is zero?
Solution : It is clear that the particle must be placed on the line AB, supports it is at a distance x from A. Let
its mass is m’.
6
Gmm
The force on m’ due to A, F1  towards A
x2
A B
m'
G  2m  m m 2m
and that due to B is- F2  towards B F2
d  x  F1
2
x d–x
Gmm G  2m  m
The net force will be zero if F1 = F2 ; Thus, 
d  x 
2
x2
d d
or (d-x)2 = 2x2; dx  2x ; 
d  1 2 x ;  x
1  2  or
x
1  2 
d
As x cannot be negative ; So x = 1  2  
Example 1 : Gravitational force between point masses m and M separated by a distance is F. Now if a point mass
2 m is placed next to m, what will be the force on M due to m and total force on M.
GMm GM 3 m
Force on M due to M   F; Force on M due to 3m   3F
d2 d2
Example 2 : Three uniform spheres each having mass m and radius r are kept in such a way that each touches the
other two. Find the magnitude of gravitational force on any sphere due to the other two.
Let m is the mass of each sphere and r in the radius of each sphere.
F2 F
m
r
r r
m
r
r r
m
F is the net force on a sphere due to the other two.
Gm 2 Gm 2 2.Gm 2 cos 30 3 Gm 2
 F  F1 cos 30  F2 cos 30  cos 30  cos 30  
 2r   2r 
2 2
4r 2 4r 2
Acceleration due to gravity
If we drop a ball from a height, its speed increases as time passes. If we throw a ball upwards, its speed
decreases till it reaches the highest point. If we throw the ball at an angle to the vertical, its direction of motion
changes. In all these cases, the velocity of the ball changes , i.e., the ball is accelerated, whenever an object moves
near the surface of the earth with no other object pushing or pulling it. This acceleration is caused due to the force of
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gravity and is called the acceleration due to gravity.

Consider an object of mass m moving freely near the earth’s surface. Neglecting air resistance, the only force
on it , is due to gravity. This force has magnitude:
GM e m
F .............(i)
R 2e
where Me = mass of the earth, m = mass of the object, and Re = radius of the earth
As the earth’s radius Re (6400 km) is large as compared to distance of the object from the earth’s surface. We
use Re in equation (i) to denote the distance of the object from the centre of the earth. As the force given by equation
(i), is the resultant force on the object, its acceleration is
F GM e
a 
m R e2
Note that this acceleration does not depend on the mass of the object. Thus we have the following :
If gravity is the only acting force (meaning that air resistance is neglected ), all objects move with the same
acceleration near the earth’ s surface. This acceleration is called the acceleration due to gravity, whose magnitude ‘g’
is given by
 11 Nm 
2
2  
 6.67  10  6 1024 kg 
GM e kg 
g g  9.8 ms 2
R e2 ;
 6.4 10 m 
6 2
The direction of this acceleration is towards the centre of the earth, i.e, in the vertically downward direction.
The acceleration has the same value, both in magnitude (9.8 m/s 2) and direction (towards center of earth),
whether the particle falls , moves up or moves at some angle with the vertical. In all these cases, we say that the
particle moves freely under gravity.
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The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is times the acceleration due to gravity on the surface
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of the earth.
Mass of earth and mean density of earth
(a) Mass of the Earth:
The mass of the earth can be calculated by using Newton’s law of gravitation. Consider a body of mass m lying
on the surface of the earth, then force of gravity acting on the body is given by
GMm
F ............(i) ; Where, M = mass of the earth; R = radius of the earth
R2
Also, F = mg ................(ii)
GMm gR 2
From (i) and (ii), we have mg  or M 
R2 G
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(b) Mean Density of Earth :

GM
We know, g 
R2
Let  be the mean density of the earth. Since earth is assumed to be a homogeneous sphere of radius R,
therefore, mass of the earth is given by
4
M = Volume ×density = R 3
3
G 4 3 4
Substituting this value in equation (i), we get g  2
 R   GR
R 3 3
3g
 
4GR
Variation of g
Due to shape of earth
Earth is not a perfect sphere but an oblate sphere. It is Bulged at equator and flattened at the poles. Equatorial
radius 21 km more than polar radius.
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On the surface of earth g  , Due to this the value of g increases from equator and maximum at poles.
R2
Due to change in altitude
GM
On the surface of earth g  and on a height h, above the surface of earth.
R2
GM
GM g 
g  i.e.,  h
2
R  h R 1  
2
 R
So with increase in height g decreases.
If h << R,
2
 h  2h 
g  g  1    g  1  
 R  R 
With depth
For calculating acceleration due to gravity at depth d,
4 3
Mass of earth  R  .  - density of earth.
3
G 4 3 4
g  2
 R   GR
R 3 3
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d
R (R – d)
 Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d,
4
gd  G  R  d  
3
gd R  d  d
   1  
g R  R
 d
g d  g 1  
 R
At centre of earth d = R,  g d  0
i.e., at the centre of earth acceleration due to gravity is zero. Going done below the surface of earth acceleration
due to gravity decreases.
Variation in g due to Rotation of Earth
Effect of latitude (Due to Rotation of earth about its own axis)
Latitude at a place is defined as the angle which the line joining the place to the centre of the earth makes
with the equatorial plane. It is generally denoted by the letter  .
N
r P A
C


O E
S Equatorial
plane
Suppose g is the acceleration due to gravity when earth were at rest, then the gravity pull on the particle (i.e.
true weight of the particle) = mg ; which acts along a vertical direction PO.
Let g' be the acceleration due to gravity at P when rotation of earth is taken into account.
Then apparent weight of the particle at
P = mg'
g  g  R2 cos 2 
As cos  and  are positive, thereforee g1  g
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Thus acceleration due to gravity

(i) decreases on account of rotation of earth
(ii) increases with the increase in latitude of the place
Comparison between ‘g’ and ‘G’
Acceleration due to gravity (g) Universal gravitational constant (G)

1 The acceleration produced in a body falling The gravitational force between two bodies
freely under the action of gravitational pull of of unit masses separated by a unit distance
the earth is known as acceleration due to is known as universal gravitational constant.
gravity.
2 The value of ‘g’ is different at different points The value of ‘G’ is same at every point in
on the earth. the universe.
3 The value of ‘g’ decreases as we go higher The value of ‘G’ does not change with
from the surface of the earth or as we go deep height and depth from the surface of the
into the earth. earth.
4 The value of ‘g’ at the centre of the earth is The value of ‘G’ is not zero at the centre of
zero. the earth or anywhere else.
5 The value of ‘g’ is different on the surfaces of The value of ‘G’ is same throughout the
different heavenly bodies like the sun, moon, universe.
the planets.
6 The value of ‘g’ on the surface of the earth is The value of G = 6.673 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
9.8 ms–2. throughout the universe.
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Example 3 : The mass of the red planet is 0.1 times of the earth and its radius is that of the earth. Compare the
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acceleration due to gravity on the planet’s surface to that on the surface of the earth.
Solution :
Mass = m Mass = Mp = 0.1 Me
Radius = R Radius = Rp, R e/2
Earth Red planet
GM e R e2
2
ge 2
Re  M  Rp  Me
  e     42
gp GM  
p  M p   R e  0.1M e R e
2
RP
ge : gp = 10 : 4 = 5 : 2
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Example 4 : Compute the mass and density of the moon if acceleration due to gravity on its surface is 1.62 and its
radius is 1.74 × 106 m (G = 6.67 × 10–11 mks units)
R 2 g 1.74  10   1.62
6 2
GM
g 2 , M  11
 7.35  1022 kg
R G 6.67  10
M gR 2 3g 3  1.62
     3.3  103 kg / m 3
V 4  4GR 4  3.14  6.67 10 11  1.74  106
G  R 3 
3 
Example 5 : Three particles each of mass m are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of sided. Calculate
(a) PE of the system (b) work done on the system if the side of the triangle is charged from d to 2d.
m
C
o
60
d
m m
A B
Gm1m 2 3Gm 2
PE  ; PE of the system; U A  U12  U 23  U 31  
r d
3Gm 2 3Gm 2
When d is charged to 2d, U B   ;  Work done  U B  U A 
2d 2d
Mass and Weight
(a) Mass:
Definition : quantity of matter possessed by a body, is called the mass of the body. It is represented by the
symbol m .It is a scalar quantity.
Inertia: A body requires a force to change its state. A body with more mass, needs a greater effort (force) to
move it from rest or stopping it from motion. This is due to inertia. Thus, mass offers inertia. So this mass is called
inertial mass. A body never has no zero mass.
Measurement of mass: Mass of a body is measured by a beam balance by comparing the mass with bodies
of known mass. At one place, bodies of same mass have same pull of gravity on them.
A beam balance works on the principle of moments (Bodies of equal masses, having equal weights, have equal
and opposite moments about fulcrum of the balance, when suspended at equal distances from the fulcrum and make
the beam horizontal).
(b) Weight:
Definition: The force with which a body is attracted towards the centre of the earth, is called the weight of the
body. It is represented by the symbol W.
It is a vector quantity having direction towards the centre of the earth. It’s unit is Newton (N)
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Expression for Weight: If mass of a body = m

Acceleration due to gravity of the earth = g
Then from relation,
Force = Mass ×Acceleration i.e, W = mg
Since W = mg, the weight of a body will vary from place to place due to variation in value of g.
A body has zero weight at the centre of the earth (where g = 0)
Measurement of weight: Weight of a body is measured by a spring balance.
(c) Difference between Mass and Weight:
Mass Weight
1 Mass is quantiy of matter possessed by a Weight is the force with which a body is
body. attracted towards the centre of the earth.
2 It is a scalar quantity. It is a vector quantity.
3 Its S.I. unit is kilogram (kg). Its S.I. unit is newton (N)
4 Mass of a body remains constant at all places. Weight of the body changes from place to
place.
5 Mas is measured by a beam balance. Weight is measured by a spring balance.
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i.e. weight on moon = th weight on earth
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Gravitational unit of force kg-wt:
From relation, W = mg
If m = 1kg Wt = 9.8 N
Hence a 1kg body has a weight of 9.8 N
It means that 9.8 N becomes equal to a force of 1 kilogram weight (kg.wt.). 1 kg wt = 9.8 N.
(e) Variation in the weight of a body :
Weight of the body is given by, W = mg
The weight of a body depends upon (i) the mass of the body and (ii) value of acceleration due to gravity (g) at
a place.
Gravitational field
The sphere of influence surrounding a mass in which gravitational force is experienced is called the gravitational
field.
Gravitational Intensity
The strength of the gravitational field is measured in terms of gravitational intensity. The force experienced on a
unit mass placed at a point in the gravitational field of a body is called the gravitational intensity at that point.
F GMm GM F
I    .
m R2  m R2 M
Unit of gravitational intensity is N kg–1
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Gravitational potential
The gravitational potential at a point is defined as the negative of the work done in shifting a unit mass from
infinity to the given point.
W
V     (W is the work done in shifting a mass, m from infinity to a point.
m
It is a scalar quantity and Unit is J/kg.
Potential at a point represents the PE of a unit point mass at that point.
GM
V
r
Gravitational Potential Energy
Gravitational potential energy of a body at a point in a gravitational field of another body is defined as
the amount of work done in bringing the given body from infinity to that point without acceleration.
When the body is at infinity with respect to another body, the gravitational attraction on the body is zero.
Therefore its potential energy is zero, which is called zero level of potential energy.
The gravitational potential energy of a body at a point is defined as the amount of work done in bringing the
body from infinity to that point against the gravitational force.
r r
GMm 1
W 2
dx   GMm  

x  x 
GMm
W
r
This work done is stored inside the body as its gravitational potential energy
GMm
U  
r
Example 6 : What are the values of gravitational attraction and potential at the surface of earth referred to zero
potential at infinite distance.
Mass of earth = 6 × 1024 kg, radius of earth = 640 km., G = 6.67 × 10–11 mks units)
Gravitational attraction is the intensity of gravitational field.
GM 6.67 1011  6  1024

 I   9.8 N/kg
 6.4 106 
2
R2
GM 6.67 1011  6 1024

Gravitational potential  V     6.25 107 J/kg
R 6.4 106
i.e., 1 kg mass at the surface of earth experience a force of 9.8 N and 6.25 × 107 J of work is required to shift
it from the surface of earth to infinity.
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Escape velocity
It is the minimum velocity with which a body should be projected from the surface of a planet so as to reach
infinity. Due to this the body escapes the gravitational attraction of the planet.
2GM
Escape velocity ve   2gR
R
for earth Ve  2  9.8  6.4  106  11.2 km/s
Ve is independent of the mass of the body and direction of projection of the body.
Since sin v0  gR - orbital velocity
then ve  2 v 0
Example 7 : Escape velocity of a body on the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s. If the mass of earth increases to twice
its present value and radius of earth becomes half, what will be the escape velocity.
2GM
V
R
2GM 2G2M 8GM 2GM

V1  ; V2   2  2v1
R R/2 R R
 v2 = 22.4 km/s
Example 8 : For a planet whose diameter and mass are both one half of those of earth. The days temperature of
this planet reaches upto 800 K. Determine whether oxygen molecules are possible in the atmosphere of the planet.
(Ve = 11.2 km/s, k = 1.38 × 10–23 J/k, mass of oxygen molecule = 5.3 × 10–26 kg)
vp Mp RE 1 2
    1
ve Me Rp 2 1
 v p  v E  11.2 km/s
By kinetic theory of gases.
3RT 3  Nk  T
v rms   (R - gas constant, k - Boltzmann constants, N - no. of mole)
M NM
3kT 3  1.38  1023

 v rms    0.79 km/s
m 5.3 1026
Since the velocity is much smaller than escape velocity of the planet, oxygen molecules cannot escape the
atmosphere of the planet.
15
PLANETS AND SATELLITES

(a) Planets :
Planets are large natural bodies rotating around a star in definite orbits. The planetary system of the star. Sun is
called solar system consists of eight planets, viz., Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.
(b) Satellites:
Satellites are natural or artificial bodies describing orbit around a planet under its gravitational attraction. Moon
is a natural satellite while INSAT -IB is an artificial satellite of earth. We shall here now compute and discuss some
physical entities of interest for a satellite undergoing circular motion.
It is the minimum velocity required for a satellite to revolve around a planet in an orbit.
Orbital velocity vs : Let a satellite of mass m be moving in an orbit of radius r with speed vs as shown in figure.
The centripetal force required for the motion is  mv 02 / r  while the gravitational force is GMm/r2. As gravitation
provides centripetal force,
mv02 GMm GM
 2
 v02 
r r r
ve m
h
R
GM g GM
or v0   v0  R with g  2 and r = (R+h) ..................(i)
r R  h R
From this expression it clear that:

(i) Orbital velocity is independent of the mass of the orbiting body and is always along the tangent to the orbit.
(ii) Orbital velocity depends on the mass of central body and radius of orbit. Greater the radius of orbit lesser
 1 
will be the orbital velocity  v e  
 r
(iii) Close to the surface of earth r = R as h = 0
GM
v0   gR  10  6.4  106  8 km/s
R
v0 = 8 km/s
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Period of a satellite
If T is the period of revolution, then
2 2r 2r r3
T    2
 v GM GM , i.e., T 2  r 3 - Keplers law..
r
since GM  R 2 g
r3 2 r 3
T  2
2

R 2g R g
Energy of Satellite
When a satellite revolves around a planet in its orbit, it possesses both potential energy (due to its position
against gravitational pull of earth) and kinetic energy (due to orbital motion).
GMm  L2  GM 
 As V  r , L  m GMr 
2 2
1) Potential energy : U  mV   2
r mr
1 GMm L2  GM 
2) Kinetic energy : K  mv2    As v  
2 2r 2mr 2  r 
GMm GMm GMm L2

3) Total energy: E  U  K    
r 2r 2r 2mr 2
Geostationary satellite
Satellites which revolve around the equatorial plane of earth with the same period as that of the earth is called
geostationary satellites and in used for communication purposes. For this T = 24 hr.
Gravitational Potential Energy
Potential energy is the energy stored in a body or system by virtue of its configuration or its position in a field.
W u
Gravitational potential V    (where u = – w) w - is the work done.
m m
u - the gravitational PE is equal to the negative of work done. Gravitational potential = PE per unit mass.
GMm
 u  mv  
r
 PE of a body on the surface of earth will be
GMm GM
Us   (since r = R and v   )
R R
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Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion

(i) Law of Orbits:
Each planet moves around the sun in an elliptical orbit with the sun at one of the focal points.
(F1 and F2 are the focal points in figure)
Planet
F1 F2
Sun
(ii) Law of Areas:

The line joining the sun and a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.
Let a planet moves from position A to Position B in time t and then it moves from position C to Position D in
the same time t as shown in figure.
B A
C
S (Sun)
Then, according to Kepler’s second law,

Area SAB = area SCD ..............(i)
(iii) Law of Periods:
The square of the time taken by a planet to complete a revolution around the sun is directly proportional to the
cube of semi-major axis of the elliptical orbit.
B A
r B
A
O
OA = Semi-major axis
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T 2  r3
T2
or  constant
r3
Weightlessness
Everybody in a state of free fall appears weightless (falling down under acceleration due to gravity.)
Weightlessness may be defined as the state in which a body appears to lose its weight. This happens due to
free fall of the body.
Weightlessness of an Astronaut in a Satellite (Space Ship):
A satellite is at a height from the surface of earth. The satellites are always in a freefall towards the centre of
earth, but it does not come to the surface of earth because it is always revolving round the earth in an orbit i.e., It has
got a velocity parallel to the surface of earth.
Due to this the astronauts feel weightless.
19
QUESTIONS
LEVELI
1. Two identical solid copper spheres of radius R are placed in contact with each other. The gravitational force
between them is proportional to
A) R2 B) R–2 C) R–4 D) R4
2. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of radius r. Under the action of their mutual gravitational force.
The speed of each particle is = ............
1 1 Gm 1 Gm 4Gm
A) v  B) v  C) v  D) v 
2r Gm 2r 2 r r
3. Gravitational attraction of Earth on the stone of mass M is FS. If the force on hydrogen balloon of mass M
located at the same space is FB, then
   
A) FS > FB B) FS < FB C) FS  FB D) FS  FB
4. If mass of a body is M on the earth surface, then the mass of the same body on the moon surface is
M
A) B) 56 C) M D) None of these
6
5. An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational attraction between the earth and apple. If F1 is the magnitude
of force exerted by the earth on the apple and F2 is the magnitude of force exerted by apple on earth, then
A) F1 is very much greater than F2 B) F2 is very much greater than F1
C) F1 is only a little greater than F2 D) F1 and F2 are equal
6. Two objects of masses m and 4 m are at rest at infinite separation. They move towards each other under
mutual gravitational attraction. Then, at a separation r, which of the following is true?
A) The total energy of the system is not zero
B) The force between them is not zero
C) The centre of mass of the system is at rest
D) All the above are true
7. The value of g on the earth surface is 980 cm/sec2. Its value at a height of 64 km from the earth surface is
...........cms–2.
A) 960.40 B) 984.90 C) 982.45 D) 977.55
8. The value of g.
A) increases as we go above the earth’s surface
B) decreases as we go to the centre of the earth
C) remains constant
D) is more at equator and less at poles
20
9. A ball is thrown up, the value of g will be

A) zero B) positive C) negative D) negligible
10. Objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the moon would
A) have same velocities at any instant B) experiences forces of same magnitude
C) have different acceleration D) undergoe a change in their inertia
11. Sun is about 330 times heavier and 100 times bigger in radius than earth. The ratio of mean density of the sun
to that of earth is
A) 3.3 × 10–6 B) 3.3 × 10–4 C) 3.3 × 10–2 D) 1.3
12. The orbital velocity of earth’s satellite near the surface is 7 kms–1. when the radius of orbit is 4 times that of
earth’s radius, then orbital velocity in that orbit is = ........ kms–1.
A) 3.5 B) 17 C) 14 D) 35
13. Orbital velocity of an artificial satellite does not depend upon
A) mass of earth B) mass of satellite
C) radius of earth D) acceleration due to gravity
14. As astronaut orbiting the earth in a circular orbit 120 km above the surface of earth, gently drops a spoon out
of space-ship. The spoon will
A) Fall vertically down to the earth
B) move towards the moon
C) Will move along the space-ship
D) will move in an irregular way then fall down to earth
15. Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) has a group of ........... satellites.
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
1
16. A body weights 700 g wt on the surface of earth. How much it weigh on the surface of planet whose mass is
7
and radius is half that of the earth.
A) 200 g wt B) 400 g wt C) 50 g wt D) 300 g wt
17. What will happen to the weight of the body at the south pole, if the earth stops rotating about its polar axis?
A) no change B) increase C) decrease but does not become zero
D) reduces to zero
18. At what height over the earth’s pole, the free fall acceleration decreases by one percent = ...... km (Re =6400km)
A) 32 B) 80 C) 1.253 D) 64
19. If the force inside the earth surface varies as rn, where r is the distance of body from the centre of earth, then the
value of n will be
A) –1 B) –2 C) 1 D) 2
20. A satellite which is geostationary in a particular orbit is taken to another orbit. Its distance from the centre of
earth in new orbit is two times of the earlier orbit. The time period in second orbit is ......... hours.
A) 4.8 B) 48 2 C) 24 D) 24 2
21
21. The mass of the earth is 6.00 × 1024 kg and that of the moon is 7.40 × 1022 kg. The constant of gravitation
G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2. The potential energy of the system is –7.79 ×1028 Joules, the mean distance
between the earth and moon is = ........... meter.
A) 3.80 × 108 B) 3.37 × 108 C) 7.60 × 108 D) 1.90 × 102
22. Escape velocity of a body of 1 kg. on a planet is 100 ms–1. Gravitational potential energy of the body at the
planet is = ............J
A) –5000 B) – 1000 C) –2400 D) 5000
23. What should be the speed with which the earth have to rotate on its axis so that a person on the equator would
weighs (3/5)th as much as present? Given equatorial radius is R.
A) 2g / 5R B) 2g /  5g  C) 2 R / 5 g  D) 2g/5R
24. If the moon is to escape from the gravitational field of the earth forever, it will require a velocity
A) 11.2 km/s B) less than 11.2 km/s
C) slightly more than 11.2 km/s D) 22.4 km/s
LEVEL II
1. The distance of the moon and earth is D the mass of earth is 81 times the mass of moon. At what distance from
the center of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero
D 12D 4D 9D
A) B) C) D)
2 3 3 10
2. The radius of the Earth is about 6400 km and that of the Mars is 3200 km. The mass of the Earth is about 10
times the mass of the Mars. An object weighs 200 N on the surface of Earth, its weight on the surface of Mars
will be
A) 8 N B) 20 N C) 40 N D) 80 N
3. A particle of mass 20 g experiences a gravitational force of 4 N along +ve X-direction. The gravitational field
at that point (magnitude) is
A) 50 N kg–1 B) 100 N kg–1 C) 200 N kg–1 D) 150 N kg–1
4. There are two bodies of masses 100,000 kg and 1000 kg separated by a distance of 1 m. At what distance
from the smaller body, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero?
1 1 1 10
A) m B) m C) m D) m
9 10 11 11
5. If the change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of earth is same as at a depth d below it, then (both
d and h being much smaller than the radius of the earth)
h
A) d  B) d = h C) d = 2h D) d = h2
2
6. A satellite of mass m is revolving round the earth at a height R above the surface of the earth. If g is the
gravitational field intensity at the earth’s surface and R is the radius, the K.E. of the satellite will be:
mgR mgR
A) B) C) mgR D) 2mgR
4 2
22
7. A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting around earth at height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius of the
earth is taken as 6000 km. The geo-stationary satellite comes back to its position after one revolution in exactly
24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10 m/s2 and mass of satellite be 1000 kg; calculate the work
done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational force.
A) 1.36  1014 J B) 2  7.21014 J C) 1.8 1014 J D) 0 J

8. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun s. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area
SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C and D and t2 is the time to move from A to B then
m v
C
B
S
A
D
A) t1  t 2 B) t1  4t 2 C) t1  2t 2 D) t1 = t2
9. Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve round a planet in coplanar circular orbits in the same sense. Their periods of
revolution are 1 h and 8h respectively. The radius of orbit of S1 is 104 km. The speed of S2 relative to S1 when
S2 is closest to S1, is ............... km h–1.
A) 2 × 104 B)  104 C) 2  10 4 D) 104
10. A satellite moving in a circular path of radius r around the earth has a time period T. If its radius slightly increases
by 4%, then percentage change in its time period is .............
A) 1% B) 6% C) 3% D) 9%
11. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the gain in potential energy of the earth at a height
equal to three times the radius R of the earth will be
1 1 3
A) mgR B) mgR C) mgR D) mgR
2 3 4
12. The escape velocity of a body from earth’s surface is Ve. The escape velocity of the same body from a height
equal to 7 R from earth’s surface will be
Ve Ve Ve Ve
A) B) C) D)
2 2 2 2 4
1 1
13. Given mass of the moon is of the mass of the earth and corresponding radius is of the earth. If escape
81 4
velocity on the earth surface is 11.2 kms the value of same on the surface of moon is = ........... kms–1.
–1
A) 0.14 B) 0.5 C) 2.5 D) 5
23
14. A satellite with kinetic energy E is revolving round the earth in a circular orbit. The minimum additional K.E.
required for it to escape into outer space is
2 E E
A) B) 2E C) D) E
2
15. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 1.96 ms2. If it is safe to jump from a height of 3 m on the earth,
the corresponding height on the planet will be
A) 3 m B) 6 m C) 9 m D) 15 m
16. The mass of the earth is 6.00 × 10 kg and that of the moon is 7.40 × 10 kg. The constant of gravitation
24 22
G=6.67 × 10–11 Nm2/kg2. The potential energy of the system is –7.79 × 1028 joules. The mean distance
between earth and moon is:
A) 3.80  108 metres B) 3.37  106 metres C) 7.60  104 metres D) 1.90 10 2 metres
17. An artificial satellite revolves around the earth in a circular orbit with a speed v. If m is the mass of the satellite,
the total energy is:
1 1 3 2
mv 2 B)  mv D)   mv
2
A) C) –mv2
2 2 2
18. A satellite is orbiting around the earth. The centripetal force on the satellite is F. The gravitational force of the
earth on the satellite is also F. The net force on the satellite is:
F
A) F B) zero C) 2F D)
2
19. A satellite is moving around the earth with speed v in a circular orbit of radius r. If the orbit radius is decreased
by 1%, the speed of the satellite will
A) increase by 1% B) increase by 0.5% C) decrease by 1% D) decrease by 0.5%
20. A planet is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun. Its closest distance from the sun is r and the farthest
distance is 3 r/2. If the velocity of the planet nearest to the sun is v and that farthest away from the sun be V,
v
then is:
V
2 3 4 9
A) B) C) D)
3 2 9 4
21. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by two percent, its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to
gravity on the earth’s surface would
A) decrease by 2% B) increase by 2% C) increase by 4% D) decrease by 4%
22. At what height above the earth’s surface does the force of gravity decrease by 10%? The radius of the earth is
6400 km
A) 345.60 km B) 687.20 km C) 1031.8 km D) 12836.80 km
23. The ratio of the KE required to be given to the satellite to escape earth’s gravitational field to the KE required
to be given so that the satellite moves in a circular orbit just above earth’s atmosphere is :
A) one B) half C) two D) infinity
24. The true weight of an object in a geostationary satellite whose weight at N pole is 10 N is
A) zero B) 10 N C) 2.3 N D) 0.23 N
24
LEVEL III
More than one correct.
1. A comet is revolving around the sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Which of the following will remain constant
throughout its orbit?
A) Kinetic energy B) Potential energy C) Total energy D) Angular momentum
2. An object is taken from a point P to another point Q in a gravitational field,
A) assuming the earth to be spherical, if both P and Q lie on earth’s surface the work done is zero
B) If P is on earth’s surface and Q above it, the work done is minimum when it is taken along the straight line
PQ.
C) The work done depends only on the positions of P and Q and is independent of the path along which the
particle is taken.
D) there is no network done if the object is taken from P to Q and then brought back to P, along any path
3. The total energy of a satellite of mass m moving with speed v around the earth of mass M in a circular orbit of
radius r is directly proportional to
A) m B) M C) v D) r
Passage Comprehension
A body moving in an orbit around the earth is called earth’s satellite. The moon is the natural satellite of the
earth. The first artificial (or man-made) satellite was put into earth’s orbit in 1956. Artificial satellites are put
into orbit at an altitude of a few hundred kilometers. The satellite is carried in a rocket which is launched from
the earth with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The escape velocity is the velocity with which a body
must be projected in order that it may escape the gravitational pull of the earth. When the rocket has achieved
the desired height, the satellite is released horizontally by imparting to it a very high speed so that it remains
moving in a nearly circular orbit around the earth. This velocity is called the orbital velocity which is about 8
km/s for a satellite a few hundred kilometers above the earth.
4. The escape velocity of a rocket fired from the earth depends upon.
A) Mass of the rocket B) Volume of fuel in the rocket
C) Acceleration due to gravity of the earth D) The direction in which the rocket is fired.
5. The centripetal force necessary to keep a satellite in a circular orbit around the earth is provided by
A) A continuous ejection of hot gases by the satellite.
B) The gravitational attraction between the earth and the satellite
C) The gravitational pull of the sun exerted on the satellite.
D) The weightlessness of the satellite
6. An artificial satellite is orbiting the earth at an altitude of 500 km. A bomb is released from the satellite. This
bomb will:
A) Explode due to the heat generated by the friction of air
B) Fall freely on the earth
C) Escape into outer space
D) Orbit the earth along with the satellite
25
Matrix Match.
7. Match the columns I and II.
Column I Column II
A) Kinetic energy of a body p) must be zero
projected from surface of earth,
at large distance from surface of
earth.
B) Gravitational potential energy of q) may be zero
a bound system
C) Change in potential energy of a r) positive
point mass if left free to itself,
with time
D) Change in areal velocity of earth s) may be negative
as earth moves from apogee
towards perigee
t) must be negative
8. Match the following. (2019)
Column I Column II
A) Earth p) 25.95
B) Jupiter q) 3.7
C) Saturn r) 9.8
D) Mars s) 11.08
Integer-Type Questions
9. The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of mass is 3200 km. The mass of the earth is 10 times of mars.
An object weighs 20 N on Earth’s surface, and then its weight on mars would be?
10. By what factor the force between two objects change, when the mass of one object is doubled?
11. An artificial satellite is orbiting at a height of 1800 km from earth’s surface. The earth’s radius is 6300 km and
g = 10 m/s2 on its surface. What is the radial acceleration.
12. Two satellites of a planet have periods 32 days and 256 days. If the radius of the orbit of the former is R, the
orbital radius of the latter is
13. An earth satellite S has an orbit radius which is 4 times that of a communication satellite C. The period of
revolution of S is
Reasoning Type.
Each question contains Statement I and Statement II. Of these Statements, mark correct choice if
A) Statements I and II are true and Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I
B) Statements I and II are true and Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I
C) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
D) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
14. Statement I : Value of g does not depend upon mass of the body.
Statement II : Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity.
26
15. Statement I : Astronauts in a stable orbit around the earth are in a weightless condition.
Statement II : The satellite and its contents are falling freely at the same rate.
16. Statement I : During a journey from the earth to the moon and back, maximum fuel is spent to overcome the
earth’s gravity at take off.
Statement II : Earth’s mass is much greater than that of the moon.
NTSE PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS
1. If the mass and radius of earth become half and one-fourth of the present in values then the value of acceleration
due to gravity will become: (2007)
1 1
A) g B) g C) 4 g D) 8 g
8 4
2. The escape velocity on the earth is 11.2 km/s. A planet has twice the radius of earth and same mean density
as earth. Then the escape velocity on planet in km/s will be: (2016)
A) 5.6 B) 11.2 C) 22.4 D) 16.5
3. Suppose universal gravitational constant starts to decrease, then: (2014)
A) length of the year will increases
B) earth will follow a spiral path of decreasing radius
C) kinetic energy will remain constant
D) all of the above
4. Value of acceleration due to gravity of earth is maximum: (2014)
A) At centre of earth B) At surface of earth
C) At a height of 50 km from earth’s surface D) At a height of 12 km from earth’s surface
5. Neglecting the rotation of the earth, if suddenly the attractive power of the earth drops to zero a man standing
on the earth will: (2014)
A) Fly up B) slide along the surfaces
C) move D) stand unaffected
6. A planet of volume V and mass m has gravitational acceleration g on its surface. If it expands to 8 time its
original volume, what will be the acceleration due to gravity: (2015)
g g
A) 4 g B) 2 g C) D)
4 8
7. A planet has density  , radius R and acceleration due to gravity as g. If the radius of the planet were doubled,
keeping the density same, the acceleration due to gravity at the surface will be : (2015)
g
A) 4 g B) 2 g C) g D)
2
8. The mass of an object is 10 kg on earth. So we can say: (2015)
A) Its weight on earth is 10 N B) Its weight on Earth is 1.67 N
C) Its weight on moon is 10 N D) Its mass on moon is 10 kg
27
9. The weight of a body of mass 15 kg on moon is: (2017)

A) 24.5 N B) 2.45 N C) 245 N D) 0.245 N
g
10. Let M denotes the mass of earth and let R denotes its radius. The ratio at earth’s surface is (2108)
G
R2 M M R
A) B) C) D)
M R2 R M
11. The mass of earth is 80 times that of moon and its diameter is double that of moon. If the value of acceleration
due to gravity on earth is 9.8 m/s2, then the value of acceleration due to gravity on moon will be : (2017)
A) 0.98 ms 2 B) 0.49 ms 2 C) 9.8 ms 2 D) 4.9 ms 21
12. When a body is orbiting near the surface of the earth, what will be the ratio of its orbital velocity to the escape
velocity from earth? (2018)
A) 1: 2 B) 2 :1 C) 2 : 1 D) 1 : 2
13. The mass of a planet is twice and its radius is three times that of the earth. The weight of a body, which has a
mass of 5 kg. On that planet will be (2019)
A) 11.95 N B) 10.88 N C) 9.88 N D) 20.99 N
14. How much time the satellite will take to complete one revolution around the earth, if velocity of satellite is 3.14
km/s and its height above earth’s surface is 3600 km. (Radius of earth is 6400 km) (2019)
A) 2000 s B) 20000 s C) 1000 s d) 10000 s
15. A planet in orbit sweeps out an angle of 160o from March - May, When it is at an average distance of 140
million km from sun. If the planet sweeps out an angle of 10o from October - December, then the average
distance from sun is .......... (2019)
A) 56  105 km B) 56  106 km C) 56 107 km D) 56  108 km
16. Two planets ‘A’ and ‘B’ of same mass and same radius are shown in the figure 1 and 2 are densities of the
materials in the planets and 1  2 . If the accelerations due to gravity on the surfaces of the planets A and
B are gA and gg respectively, then
'A'
   
A) Given information is not sufficient B) gA > gg

C) gA < gg D) gA = gg
28
CHAPTER - 02
FLUIDS
Introduction
A small iron nail sinks in water, while a huge ship of heavy mass floats on water. An Astronaut wears a special
suit while travelling in space. Why do deep sea fishes die when brought to shallow water. A submarine can sink in
water as well as float. The answers to all these questions lie in studying the fluid pressure and the principles involved.
Matter exists in three states - solid, liquid and gas. Solids have definite shape and size, but liquids and gases
have no definite shape. Liquids and gases have the property of flowing - begins to flow when force is applied on it.
So they are generally called fluids. The property of fluids at rest is studied in hydrostatics and the branch which
studies fluids in motion is studied in hydrodynamics.
Molecules of a fluid are in random motion due to their thermal velocities and they collide with the walls of the
container during their motion. During collision they suffer a change in momentum and consequently they apply a
force on the walls of the container. The normal force applied on the walls of the container is called thrust. SI unit of
thrust is Newton.
Pressure
The normal force (thrust) exerted by a liquid at rest per unit area of the surface in contact with it is called
pressure of liquid.
Thrust
Pressure P 
Area
Unit of pressure N/m2
1 N/m2 is also known as Pascal.
1 Pascal = 1 N/m2
A large unit of pressure is Bar, 1 bar = 105 Pa
Fluids exert pressure in all possible directions. The force exerted on the lateral sides of the container of the
liquid is equal in all directions at a horizontal level and thus net force acting on the walls is zero. There is a resultant
force exerted on the bottom portion of the beaker by liquid. If a is the area of cross section of beaker and F is the
force exerted by the liquid on the bottom of the beaker, then pressure
Force F
P 
Area a
The force is equal to weight of the liquid, w = mg, where m is the mass of the liquid and g is acceleration due
to gravity.
Mass m = volume × density
29
= area × height of liquid column × density of liquid = a  h  

 Weight w  ahg
ahg
 Pressure P   h g
a
 Pressure exerted by a liquid at a point inside it is directly proportional to (1) height of the liquid column (h)
and (2) density of the liquid (  )
1
P for a constant force.
A
It means that pressure is very large when area is very small. To reduce pressure, Area has to be increased.
This principle is used in laying down sleepers under railway track.
Atmospheric pressure is measured in terms of the height of mercury.
Average atmospheric pressure is
1 atm = 76 cm or mercury column
= 0.76 × 13.6 × 103 × 9.8 = 1.013 × 105 Nm–2 = 1.013 × 105 Pa
Measurement of atmospheric pressure
A barometer is used to determine atmospheric pressure. A pure liquid of high density (Mercury) is filled in a
glass tube of length about 1 m. The tube is then inverted and dipped in a beaker containing mercury. Now we can
see that mercury remains in the tube upto a height of h above the level in the beaker. This height h gives a measure of
the atmospheric pressure. The length of mercury column is, h = 76 cm. So the pressure exerted by the atmosphere
is 76 cm of Hg.
vacuum
Mercury h = 76 cm
30
Manometer
A device used to measure pressure of a gas is called a manometer. It consists of a U-tube with uniform
diameter, open at both ends. It contains liquid in both arms of the tube.
At normal pressure (fig. A) liquid level in both limbs remain at the same level. When a pressure is to be
measured it is connected to one limb (A) of the tube. Depending on the pressure of the gas the level of liquid rises or
lowers in the open limb. The difference in levels (h) in the height of liquid column will be proportional to the pressure
applied at the end P of the tube. The pressure P  p0  hg
P p0 C
h
p0 p0 p0
A B A B p0
Normal Pressure
(A) (B)
Pascals Law - Transmission of fluid pressure.
An increase in pressure of any point inside a liquid at rest, is transmitted equally and without any change in all
directions to every other point in the liquid. This law is used in the development of hydraulic brakes in automobiles,
Bramah Press etc.
F1 F2
A1 A2
The equipment consists of two tubes of different area of cross section, A2 > A1.
A small force F1 is applied at the limb A1 produces pressure P in the liquid.
F1
P
A1
F2
This pressure is Transmitted equally to the other limb of the liquid. At the other limb P  A
2
F1 A 
 F2  P  A 2   A 2  F1   2  Since A2 is > A1, F2 > F1
A1  A1 
F2 will be greater than F1. So a small force applied at one end produce a large force at the other end of the
tube which is the principle of hydraulic breaks and Bramah press.
31
Example 1 : The area of cross section of two cylinders in Bramah press are 10 cm2 and 50 cm2 respectively. To
move a weight of 100 N placed on the piston of larger area what force is to be applied on smaller area.
a1 = 10 cm2, a2 = 50 cm2, f2 = 100 N
F1 F2
p 
a1 a 2
F2  a1 100  10
F1    20N
a2 50
Height of atmosphere can be calculated assuming density of air.
Let atmospheric pressure = 1.013 × 105 Pa and density of air = 1.3 kg/m–3, then p  hg ,
p 1.013 105
h   7951 m  8 km
g 1.3  9.8
Upthrust or Buoyant force
When a body is immersed into a fluid completely or partly, the body experiences an upward force by the fluid.
It is the force acting on the immersed body by the displaced liquid, and is called the upthrust or buoyant force. The
property of the fluid to exert buoyant force on an object immersed is known as buoyancy.
As the body is completely immersed in the liquid, the body displaces liquid, whose volume is equal to volume
of the body.
Thus upthrust = F = [volume of liquid displaced (v)] × [density of liquid (  )] × [Acceleration due to gravity g]
F  vg = weight of liquid displaced.
Thus upthrust on a body immersed in a liquid is equal to weight of the liquid displaced.
Archimedis principle
When a body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid, it experiences an upthrust which is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by it. “Due to this upthrust it apparently loses a part of its weight and this apparent loss
of weight is equal to the upthrust.
For a body completely or partially immersed in a fluid, upthrust = weight of the fluid displaced = apparent loss
of weight of the body.
Density
The mass per unit volume of an object is called density. The unit of density is kg/m3 in SI and gm/cm3 in cgs
system.
Relative density or specific gravity
The ratio of density of a substance to the density of water at 4oC is defined as the relative density.
Density of substance
R.D. of a solid  Density of water at 4o C
R.D. can be found in different ways.

weight of a certain volume of substance in air
R.D. =
weight of same volume of water
32
weight of solid in air

=
weight of water displaced by the solid
weight of solid in air

=
Apparant loss of weight of the body in water
Apparant loss of weight of a body in liquid

R.D. of a liquid = Apparant loss of weight of body in water
Example 2 : Mass of a body is 5 kg, and its volume is 625 cm3. Find Relative density.
mass = 5000 gm
Mass 5000
Density =   8 gm / cm 3
Volume 625
 R.D. of the body = 8
Example 3 : A body weighs 100 gm in air and 72 gm when completely immersed in a liquid and 62 gm when
completely immersed in water. Find the R. density of solid and liquid.
weight of solid in air 100  g 100

R.D. of solid = loss of weight of solid in water  100  62 g  38  2.63
 
loss of weight of solid in liquid 100  72
R.D. of liquid  loss of weight of solid in water  100  68  0.736
Density of liquid = R.D. of liquid × density of water = 0.736 × 103 = 736 kg/m3
Example 4 : The mass of a body is 3 kg and its volume is 375 cm3. Find its density and relative density.
Solution : Mass of the body = 3 kg
Volume of the body = 375 cm3 = 375 × 10–6 m3.
3
Density of the body =  8  103 kg/m 3
375 10 6
Density of body 8 103

R.D. of the body   8
Density of water 1 103
Example 5 : The specific gravity of gold is 19. Find the mass of a gold ornament that displaces 30 cm3 of water
when immersed in it.
Solution : Sp gravity of gold = R.D. of gold = 19
 Density of gold = 19 gm/cm3
Volume of water displaced when gold is immersed in it = 30 cm3 = volume of gold ornament.
Mass of gold body = volume × density = 30 × 19 = 570 gm
33
Example 6 : A body weigh 85 gm is air, 77 gm when completely immersed in a liquid and 74 gm when completely
immersed in water. Find the density of liquid.
Solution : Mass of body in air = 85 gm
Mass of body in liquid = 77 gm
Mass of body in water = 76 gm
loss of wt.of body in liquid
Density of liquid  loss of wt. of body in water  Density of water
85  77
  1 gm/cm3  0.727 gm/cm3
85  74
LAW OF FLOATATION
Law of floatation is an extension of Archimedes principle.
When a body is immersed partially or wholly in a fluid, then the various forces acting on the body are (i) upward
thrust (B) acting at the centre of buoyancy and whose magnitude is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced and (ii)
the weight of the body (W) which acts vertically downwards through its centre of gravity.
(i) When W > B, the body will sink in the liquid.

(ii) When W = B, then the body will remain in equilibrium inside the liquid.
(iii) When W < B, then the body will come upto the surface of the liquid in such a way that the weight of the liquid
displaced due to it balance the weight of the body immersed inside the liquid.
Thus law of floation is defined as follows:
Definition:
A body floats in a liquid if weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed portion of the body is equal to the weight
of the body.
(a) Special features of floating body:
(i) Floating body is a weightless body: As the weight acting downwards is neutralized by the buoyant force
acting upwards, a floating body is a weightless body. We can also say that the apparent weight of the floating
body is zero.
(ii) Loss of weight of a floating body is complete: As the floating body is weightless, it means it has lost its
weight completely.
 loss of weight for a floating body = Real weight – Apparent weight = Real weight – 0 = Real weight.
(b) Relation between Density of Solid and Liquid
Let 1 be the density of the solid whose volume is V1 . Let  2 be the density of the liquid and the volume of
the portion of the solid immersed in the liquid be V2.
Now, weight of the floating solid = weight of the liquid displaced.
34
1 V2
i.e., V11g  V22 g    V
2 1
Density of solid Volume of the immersed portion of the solid

or Density of liquid  Total volume of the solid
= Fraction of volume of body immersed in liquid.
(c) Equilibrium in Floating Bodies
From law of floatation, we know that a body will float in a liquid when its weight W is equal to the weight w
of the liquid displaced by the immersed part of the body. But this does not necessarily indicate that the body will be
in equilibrium. A body will be in equilibrium only if the resultant of all the forces and couples acting on the body is
zero. If W and w act along different lines, they will then from a couple which will tend to rotate the body. Thus, a
floating body can be in equilibrium if no couple acts on it. It will be so if the line of action of W and w is along the
same vertical straight line. Thus, there will be equilibrium of floating bodies if the following conditions are fulfilled:
(i) A body can float if the weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed part of body must be equal to the weight
of the body.
(ii) A body can be in equilibrium if the centre of gravity of the body and centre of buoyancy must be along the same
vertical line.
(iii) The body will be in stable equilibrium if centre of gravity of body lies vertically below the centre of buoyancy
and in the unstable equilibrium if centre of gravity lies vertically above the centre of buoyancy.
NOTE:
When an ice block is floating in water in a vessel, then the level of water in the vessel will not change when the whole
ice melts into water.
When an ice block is floating in a liquid in a vessel and ice completely melts, then the following cases may arise for
the level of liquid in the vessel.
(i) If density of liquid is greater than that of water i.e., L  W , the level of liquid plus water will rise.
(ii) If density of liquid is less than the density of water i.e.,  L   W , the level of liquid plus water will decrease.
(iii) If density of liquid is equal to the density of water i.e., L  W , the level of liquid plus water will remain
unchanged.
STREAMLINE FLOW
The path taken by a particle in flowing fluid is called its line of flow. In the case of steady flow all the particles
passing through a given point follow the same path and hence we have a unique line of flow passing through a given
point which is also called streamline.
Streamlines
A
C vC
B
vA vB
Tube of flow
(a) (b)
35
Characteristics of Streamline :
(i) A tangent at any point on the stream line gives the direction of the velocity of the fluid particle at that point.
(ii) Two steamlines never intersect each other.
Laminar flow
If the liquid flows over a horizontal surface in the form of layers of different velocities, then the flow of liquid is
called Laminar flow. The particle of one layer do not go to another layer. In general, Laminar flow is a streamline
flow.
Turbulent flow
A flow of fluid in which velocity of all particles crossing a given point is not same and the motion of the fluid
becomes disorderly or irregular is called turbulent flow.
Equation of continuity
The equation of continuity expresses the law of conservation of mass in fluid dynamics.
a1v1 = a2v2, a is the area of cross section of the tube and v is the velocity of liquid flow.
A
a2,v 2
a1, v1
In general av = constant. This is called equation of continuity and states that as the area of cross section of the
tube of flow becomes larger, the liquid’s (fluid) speed becomes smaller and vice-versa.
Viscosity
During the steady flow of a liquid, different layers of the liquid exert a frictional force to the adjacent layers, due
to which, there is a change of velocity between the adjacent layers. This frictional force existing between the adjacent
layers of liquid is called viscosity.
Due to this the top layer of liquid flow have maximum velocity and bottom layer have minimum velocity.
Different liquids will be having different viscosity, when temperature increases viscosity decreases, when viscosity is
larger mobility of the liquid decreases viscosity of oil is greater than that of water.
The viscous force between two layers of a liquid depends on velocity between two layers dv, proportional to
the Area of the layers (A) and inversely proportional to the distance between the layers (dx)
A dv A dv
 F or F  
dx dx

where is the coefficient of viscosity..
dv
is the velocity gradient
dx
36
dv
When  1 , when A = 1 m2, then F  
dx
 Coefficient of viscosity of a liquid is equal to the tangential force required to maintain a unit velocity gradient
between two parallel layers of liquid each of area unity.
The unit of coefficient of viscosity is Nm–2s or Poiseuille
Surface Tension
Liquids in small quantity at rest, free from external forces, always tend to have a spherical shape. For a given
volume, a sphere has the least surface area. So the free surface of every liquid remains spherical. In doing so the free
surface of the liquid remains as a stretched membrane having tension in all directions. This tension on the free surface
of the liquid is called surface tension. Surface Tension is the property of the liquid by virtue of which the free surface
of liquid tends to have minimum surface area and it acts as if covered with a stretched membrane.
Surface tension is measured as the force acting per unit length on an imaginary line drawn tangential to the
liquid surface
F
s  , unit Nm–1
l
Due to surface tension a small liquid drop takes a spherical shape, we can float an iron needle carefully placed
on the surface of liquid, water can be used in combing hair.
The reason for surface tension is the inter molecular force acting between different molecules of the liquid.
Due to surface tension molecules on the surface have more potential energy. Surface Tension may also be
defined as the work done in increasing the surface area of a liquid surface by unity against force of surface tension,
at constant temperature.
work done
 surface tension 
surface area
Application of S.T.
1. Oil spreads over the surface of water, as ST of oil is smaller than that of water.
2. Cleaning of clothes by soap solution is achieved due to S.T. S.T. of soap solution is very low, so it can spread
over large area and clothes can be washed more effectively.
3. Stromy waves at sea can be calmed by pouring oil on sea water.
37
QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. Among the following liquids, the pressure inside them at a given depth is the highest in ..... at a constant
temperature.
A) fresh water B) petrol C) sea water D) alcohol
2. A liquid whose density is twice the density of mercury is used as a barometric liquid. Then one atmosphere
pressure equals ...... cm of the liquid.
A) 76 B) 38 C) 152 D) 380
3. The pressure exerted by a liquid column at the bottom of the container at a point inside a fluid
A) does not depend on the area of the container
B) dependent on the density of the fluid
C) equal in all directions
D) all the above are true
4. A sudden fall in atmospheric pressure by a large value indicates ...........
A) Arrival of storm B) Arrival of dust-storm C) Fair weather D) None of the above
5. A manometer is connected to a gas container. Then the mercury level rises by 2 cm in the arm of the manometer
which is not connected to the container. If the atmospheric pressure is 76 cm of Hg then the pressure of the gas
is ....... cm of Hg.
A) 80 B) 76 C) 72 D) 78
6. The two thigh bones (femurs) each of cross-sectional area 10 cm2 support the upper part of a human body of
mass 40 kg. Estimate the average pressure sustained by the femurs. g = 10 m/s2.
A) 2  105 Nm 2 B) 3  105 Nm 2 C) 3.5  102 Nm 2 D) 4  105 Nm 2
7. Readings of a barometer at the top and ground floors of a building are 75.000 cm. and 75.125 cm. respectively.
The density of mercury is 13600 kg/m3 and that of air is 1.36 kg/m3. What is the height of the building?
A) 8.3 m B) 18.7 m C) 9.8 m D) 12.5 m
8. An ice cube containing a glass ball is floating on the surface of water contained in a trough. The whole of the ice
melts, the level of water in the trough
A) rises B) falls C) remains unchanged D) first falls and then rises
9. A block of aluminium of mass 1 kg and volume 3.6 × 10–4 m3 is suspended from a string and then completely
immersed in a container of water. The decrease in tension in the string after immersion is (use g = 10 ms–2)
A) 9.8 N B) 6.2 N C) 3.6 N D) 1.0 N
10. When equal quantities of an oil, water and mercury are poured into a beaker, the order in which the liquids
arrange themselves from bottom to top is
A) mercury, water, oil B) water, mercury, oil C) water, oil, mercury D) mercury, oil, water
38
11. A substance floats in water, but sinks in coconut oil. The density of the substance
A) is less than the density of water B) is greater than the density of oil
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Cannot be decided based on the given information
12. A spring balance shows 100 gf, reading when a metallic sphere is suspended from its hook. When the balance
is lowered such that the sphere is immersed in water, the reading shown by the balance is 75 gf. The relative
density of the material of the sphere is (gf is gm force, equal to mass of 1 gm multiplied by acceleration due to
gravity.)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
13. A piece of wax weighs 18.8 gm wt. in air. A piece of metal weighs 17.03 gm wt. in water. Metal is tied to wax
and both of them together in water weigh 15.23 gm. Find the R.D. of wax.
A) 0.85 B) 0.91 C) 1.1 D) 1.25
14. In a hydrometer, the floatation bulb is large in size compared to the size of the gravity bulb because
A) it lowers the centre of gravity B) it decreases the buoyancy of liquids
C) it displaces a large amount of liquid and thus does not allow the hydrometer to sink completely in the liquid
D) none of these
15. An object just floats in water. If common salt is added into the water.
A) the volume of the object immersed in the liquid decreases B) the object sinks
C) the object first sinks and then floats up D) cannot be determined
16. A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in a pond. If the man drinks some water from the pond, what will
happen to the level of water in the pond.
A) The level of water in the pond remain unchanged B) level of water will increase
C) level of water goes down D) none of the above
17. Total area of cross-section is 0.25 m2. If blood is flowing at the rate of 100 cm3/s then the average velocity of
flow of blood through capillaries (in mm/s) is
A) 0.4 B) 4 C) 25 D) 400
18. A metal block of volume 500 cm3 and density 2 g cm–3 is suspended from a spring balance and one fourth of its
volume is immersed in water. The reading on the spring balance is ........ N. (Take g = 10 ms–2)
A) 8.575 B) 10.175 C) 500 D) 8.750
19. A cube of wood floating in water supports a 200 g mass resting at the centre of its top face. When the mass is
removed, the cube rises 2 cm. Find the volume of the cube.
A) 1.5  103 cm 3 B) 2.8  103 cm 3 C) 103 cm 3 D) 104 cm 3

20. In a stream line (laminar flow) the velocity of flow at any point in the liquid
A) does not vary with time B) may vary in direction but not in magnitude
C) may vary in magnitude but not in direction D) may vary both in magnitude and direction
39
LEVEL II
1. Two stretched membranes of area 10 cm and 20 cm2 are held horizontally in a liquid, at the same height. The
2
ratio of pressures on them is .......

A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1 C) 1 : 4 D) 1 : 1
2. At a higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lesser as, at higher altitudes
A) the length of air column exerting the pressure is less B) density of air decreases
C) acceleration due to gravity decreases D) all the above
3. In a mercury barometer, if a tube containing mercury is tilted, then
A) vertical height of the mercury column remains same
B) the length of mercury column in the tube increases
C) the vertical height of the mercury column decreases
D) both (A) and (B)
4. What is the pressure on a swimmer 10 m below the surface of lake? g = 10 ms–2; atmospheric pressure
 1.01105 Pa
A) 2 atm B) 1 atm C) 3 atm D) 2.5 atm
5. Find the pressure at the tip of a drawing pin of area 0.2 mm square if it is pushed against a board with a force
of 5 kg wt. [Use g = 10 m/s2]
A) 2.25 × 1010 Pa B) 2.25 × 108 Pa C) 2.5 × 108 Pa D) 1.95 × 108 Pa
6. The area of smaller piston of a hydraulic press is 2 cm square and that of large piston is 20 cm square. How
much weight can be raised on the larger piston when a force 200 kg f is exerted on the smaller piston?
g  10 m/s 2
A) 2.0 103 kg f B) 2  104 kg f C) 2.8  103 kg f D) 3.5  103 kg f

7. The area of cross-section of the wider tube shown in figure is 800 cm2. If a mass of 12 kg is placed on the
massless piston, what is the difference in the level of water in two tubes.
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm C) 21 cm D) 18 cm
8. The neck and bottom of a bottle are 2 cm and 20 cm in diameter respectively. If the cork is pressed with a force
of 1.2 kgf in the neck of the bottle, calculate the force exerted on the bottom of the bottle.
A) 120 kgf B) 135 kgf C) 85 kgf D) 108 kgf
9. A glass of water upto a height of 10 cm has a bottom of area 10 cm2, top of area 30 cm2 and volume 1 litre. The
downward force exerted by water on the bottom is ..... (Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3;
atmospheric pressure = 1.01 × 105 N/m2)
A) 100 N B) 102 N C) 110 N D) 120 N
40
10. Determine height h of oil in the U tube as shown in figure. Density of oil = 0.9 g/cc; Density of liquid is 1.6 g/cc
and density of mercury = 13.6 g/cc.
A) 18.9 cm B) 15.28 cm C) 21.2 cm D) 12.5 cm

11. A tank 5 m high is half filled with water and then filled to the top with oil of density 0.85 g/sec. What is the
pressure at the bottom of the tank due to these liquids.
A) 3.25  103 N/m 2 B) 4.53 104 N/m 2 C) 2.85  104 N/m 2 D) None of these
12. A 20 N metal block is suspended by a spring balance. A beaker containing some water is placed on the
weighing machine which reads 36 N. The spring balance is now lowered so that the block gets immersed in the
water. The spring balance now reads 16 N. What will be the reading of the weighing machine?
A) 36 N B) 20 N C) 40 N D) 16 N
13. The density of the atmosphere at sea level is 1.29 kg/m3. Assume that it does not change with altitude. Then
how high would the atmosphere extend? g = 9.8 ms–2. Atmospheric pressure = 1.013 × 105 Pa.
A) 5809 m B) 7989 m C) 8541 m D) 8375 m
14. A U-tube is partially filled with water. Oil which does not mix with water is poured into one side until water rises
by 25 cm on the other side. If the density of oil be 0.8, the oil level will stand higher than the water level by
A) 6.25 cm B) 12.50 cm C) 31.75 cm D) 62.50 cm
15. A piece of material weighing 50.0 gram is coated with 6.3 gram of wax of sp. gravity 0.9. If the coated piece
weighs 16.3 gram in water, then the density of the material in g/cc is
A) 1.515 B) 2.112 C) 2.351 D) 4.613
16. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in fig. The distances l and h are shown
there. After some time the coin falls into the water. Then
Coin
l
h
A) l decreases and h increases B) l increases and h decreases

C) both l and h increases D) both l and h decreases
41
17. A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g cm–3) over mercury (density = 13.6 g cm–3). A homogeneous sphere floats
with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. What is the density of material of sphere?
A) 0.85 gm cm–3 B) 7.2 gm cm–3 C) 8.5 gm cm–3 D) 8.5 × 103 gm cm–3
18. A wooden cube floating in water supports a mass 0.2 kg on its top. When the mass is removed the cube rises
by 2 cm. What is the side length of the cube? Density of water = 103 kg/m3.
A) 12 cm B) 15 cm C) 10 cm D) 8 cm
19. A piece of solid weighs 120 g in air, 80 g in water and 60 g in a liquid. The relative density of the solid and that
of the liquid are respectively.
3 3 3
A) 3, B) 2, C) ,2 D) 4, 3
2 4 2
20. A solid shell loses half of its weight in water. Relative density of shell is 5.0. What fraction of its volume is
hollow?
3 2 1 3
A) B) C) D)
5 5 4 4
21. A solid uniform ball having volume V and density  floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids as shown in
figure. The densities of the upper and lower liquids are 1 and  2 respectively, such that 1    2 . What
fraction of the volume of the ball will be in the lower liquid.
  2 1 1   1  
A)    B)    C)    D) 2
1 2 1 2 1 2
22. A block of wood floats in water with (4/5)th of its volume submerged. If the same block just floats in a liquid,
the density of liquid in (kg m–3) is
A) 1250 B) 600 C) 400 D) 800
23. The water level in a tank is 5 metres high. There is a hole of 1 cm2 cross-section at the bottom of the tank
through which water will leak initially at the rate of (g = 10 metres per sec2)
A) 10–3 metre3 per sec B) 10–4 metre3 per sec C) 10 metre3 per sec D) 10–2 metre3 per sec
24. A river water is flowing at 5 ms–1. The depth of river water is 10 m. What is the shearing stress between
horizontal layers of the river water? Viscosity of water is 1 millideca poise.
A) 0.1 10 3 Nm 2 B) 0.5  10 3 Nm 2 C) 10 3 Nm 2 D) 2  10 3 Nm 2
42
25. A solid ball of density half that of water falls freely under gravity from a height of 19.6 m and then enters water.
Neglecting air resistance and viscosity effects in water, the depth upto which the ball will go is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
A) 19.6 m B) 9.8 m C) 14.7 m D) 12.7 m
26. Surface tension of a soap solution is 1.9 × 10–2 N/m. Work done in blowing a bubble of 2.0 cm diameter will be
A) 7.6  106  J B) 15.2 106   J C) 1.9 106   J D) 1 104   J

LEVEL III
More than one correct options.
1. With the rise in temperature, which of the following forces can never increase
A) friction B) elastic C) viscous D) surface tension force
2. When a body of density  and volume V is floating in a liquid of density 
A) its apparent weight is zero B) its density  is less than that of liquid 
C) its loss in weight in liquid is V  g D) its true weight is V  g
3. A piece of wood is floating in water kept in bottle. The bottle is connected to an air pump. When more air is
pushed into the bottle from the pump.
A) the thrust of air will increase B) the total thrust will remain unchanged
C) the thrust of water will decrease D) the wood piece will rise a little
4. A sample of metal weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in liquid. Then Relative Density (RD) of
A) metal is 3 B) metal is 7 C) liquid is 3 D) liquid is 7
5. Some pieces of impurity (density =  ) is embedded in ice. This ice is floating in water. (density = w ). When
ice melts, level of water will
A) fall if    w B) remain unchanged, if   w
C) fall if   w D) rise if    w
6. A block is floating in a liquid as shown in figure. Suppose w = weight of block, P = pressure at bottom of block
and F = upthrust on the block. Now suppose container starts moving upward with some positive acceleration.
The new values are suppose w', P' and F' then
A) w' > w B) P' > P C) F' > F D) F' – w' = 0
43
Passage I
In a U-tube, 20 cm of a liquid of density  is on left hand side and 10 cm of another liquid of density 1.5  is
on right hand side. In between them there is a third liquid of density 2  .
7. What is the value of h?

A) 5 cm B) 2.5 cm C) 2 cm D) 7.5 cm
8. If small but equal lengths of liquid – 1 and liquid –2 are increased in their corresponding sides then h will
A) remain same B) increase C) decrease D) may increase or decrease
Passage II
If a body is immersed in a fluid, it experiences an upward force called the buoyant force. The magnitude of
buoyant force depends on (a) the size or volume of the body and (b) the density of the fluid. The necessary
condition for a body to float in a liquid is that the weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed portion of the
body must be equal to the weight of the body.
9. A block of wood floats in a liquid in a beaker with 3/4ths of its volume submerged under the liquid. If the beaker
is placed in an enclosure that is falling freely under gravity, the block will
A) float with 3/4ths of its volume submerged
B) float completely submerged
C) float with any fraction of its volume submerged
D) sink to the bottom
10. A piece of copper having an internal cavity weighs 264 g in air and 221 g in water. The density of copper is 8.8
g cm–3. What is the volume of the cavity?
A) 12 cm3 B) 13 cm3 C) 14 cm3 D) 15 cm3
Matrix Match.
11. Match the following.
Column I Column II
A) Water in a reservoir p) Pressure energy
B) Water flowing down from a height q) Potential energy
C) Water flowing on a horizontal ground r) Linear kinetic energy
D) Water flowing on a ground forming eddies s) Rotational kinetic energy
44
12. Match the following.

Column I Column II
A) Water supply in cities p) Pascal’s law
B) Hydraulic brake q) Archimede’s Principle
C) Sucking of a cool drink by using a straw r) Fluid pressure
D) Fish weighs less in water than in air s) Atmospheric pressure
E) Relative density of solids t) Upthrust
Integer Answer Type.

13. The reading of spring balance when a block is suspended from it in air, is 60 N. This reading is changed to 40 N
when the block is immersed in water. Find the specific gravity of the block.
14. A large block of ice 10 m thick with a vertical hole drilled through it is floating in a lake. The minimum length of
the rope required to scoop out a bucket full of water through the hole is (0.2 x)m. Find the value of x. Take
density of ice = 0.9 g/cm3.
15. A cubical block of wood of specific gravity 0.5 and chunk of concrete of specific gravity 2.5 are fastened
together. The ratio of the mass of wood to the mass of concrete, which makes the combination to float with its
entire volume submerged under water is (0.x). Find value of x.
Reasoning Type.
16. Statement I : A needle placed carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas a ball of the same material
will always sink.
Statement II : The buoyancy on an object depends both on the material and shape of the object.
17. Statement I : A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it has attained a certain height in the sky.
Statement II : The atmospheric pressure decreases with height and becomes zero when maximum height is
attained.
18. Statement I : A block of wood is floating in a tank containing water. The apparent weight of the floating
block is equal to zero.
Statement II : Because the entire weight of the block is supported by the buoyant force (the upward thrust)
due to water.
45

1. Two thin circular discs of radii 3 cm and 4 cm respectively are placed separately at the bottom of a vessel
containing water. The ratio of thrusts acting on them will be : (2007)
A) 3 : 4 B) 4 : 3 C) 3:2 D) 9 : 16
2. When a body is immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force that acts on the body will be : (2014)
A) vertically downwards B) vertically upwards
C) horizontally right side D) horizontally left side
3. Ice is floating on water on a beaker when ice completely melts then level of water in beaker: (2014)
A) increases B) decreases
C) remains the same D) first increases decreases
4. A cork of mass m1 and a steel of mass m2 are tied to the ends of a massless string. The whole system is kept
in a liquid of density ‘  ’. 1 and  2 are densities of cork and steel respectively. Which of the following is
wrong? (2014)
 
A) The tension in the string T  m 2 g  1   when the system is in equilibrium.
 2 
B) The cork is completely immersed in the liquid if  m1  m 2  12   m12  m 21  
m1 m 2  
C) The volume of submerged part of cork is equal to     1    when the system is in equilibrium
 2 
 
D) The system sinks if T  m1g   1
 1 
5. Pascal’s law states that pressure at every point of liquid in position of equilibrium is same if : (2015)
A) mass is constant B) force acts perpendicular at surface
C) gravitational effect is negligible D) all of the above
6. The volume of a substance is 20 cm3. The mass of the substances if its relative density is 2.5 will be (2016)
A) 5 g B) 50 g C) 500 g D) 5 kg
7. An aluminium sphere is dipped into water. If BI and BII are the buoyancy in water at 0oC and 40oC respectively:
A) BI < BII B) BI > BII (2015)
C) BI = BII D) BI > or < BII depending upon the radius of the sphere
46
8. An air bubble with a radius R and an iron ball with the same radius are present in water. The distance between
the centers of bubble and iron ball is 1 m. Neglect the mass of air in the bubble. The mass of water drop
whose size is equal to the size of bubble is 1.5 kg. The densities of water and iron are 1 gm/cm3 and 8 gm/cm3
respectively. The force between bubble and iron ball is ......... (approximately) (2015)
A) repulsive, equal to 2.2 × 10–9 N B) attractive, equal to 1.1 × 10–9 N
C) respulsive, equal to 1.1 × 10–9 N D) attractive, equal to 2.2 × 10–9 N
9. A piece of wood floats in water kept in beaker. If the beaker moves with a vertical acceleration ‘a’, the wood
will be : (2015)
A) remain in the same position relative to the water surface
B) sink deeper in the liquid, if ‘a’ is downward with a < g
C) sink deeper the liquid, if ‘a’ is upward
D) come out, more from the liquid, if ‘a’ is downward with a <g
10. The magnitude of buoyant force depends on which one of the following properties of fluid? (2017)
A) Mass of object B) Size of object C) Density of liquid D) Size of container
11. A force of 16 N is distributed uniformly on one surface of a cube of edge 8 cm. The pressure on this surface
is : (2017)
A) 3500 Pa B) 2500 Pa C) 4500 Pa D) 5500 Pa
12. At what temperature was density of water is maximum. (2017)
A) Below 4oC B) Above 4oC C) 0oC D) 4oC
13. A Density of water is .............. (2017)
A) 1000 kg/m3 B) 1 kg/m3 C) 1000 g/cm2 D) 100 kg/m3
14. According to law of floatation weight of a floating body is: (2017)
A) Equal to the weight of liquid displaced B) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
C) Is gretaer than the weight of liquid displaced D) Is less the weight of liquid displaced
2
15. A ball of uniform density of that of water is dropped freely into a pond from a height 10 m above its
3
surface. The maximum depth the ball can travel in water is
A) 21 m B) 10 m C) 20 m D) 30 m
16. A ship rises up as it enters the sea from a river because
A) Sea water is harder than river water B) Density of sea water is lesser than river water
C) Large quantity of sea water pushes ship up D) Density of sea water is greater tthan river water
17. A spring balance measures the weight of an object in air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of 0.08 N when the
object is completely immersed in water. If the value of acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2, the volume of the
object is
A) 20 cm3 B) 80 cm3 C) 200 cm3 D) 2 cm3
47
CHAPTER - 03
WAVE MOTION AND SOUND
A wave is a mode of transference of energy from point to point in the direction of propagation of the wave. The
waves are periodic disturbances transmitted through a medium from a point of origin called the source. The disturbances
from the source are handed over to the particles in the medium. The particles in the medium behave as if they are
connected by some elastic forces. When a particle in the medium is set into vibration, the adjacent particles acquire
a similar kind of vibration.
A wave motion is a form of disturbance which travels through the medium due to the repeated periodic motion of
the particles of the medium about their equilibrium positions, the disturbance being handed over from particle to particle.
A wave is a disturbance which propagate energy from one place to another without transport of matter.
Mechanical and non mechanical waves
A wave may or may not require a medium for its propagation. The waves which do not require a medium for
their propagation are called non-mechanical wave.
Eg. light waves, heat waves, radio waves etc. Non-mechanical waves can travel through vacuum. In fact all
electromagnetic waves are non-mechanical. On the other hand waves which require a medium for the propagation
are called mechanical waves. In the propagation of mechanical waves, elasticity and density of the medium play an
important role. Waves on strings, springs, sound waves etc are familiar examples of mechanical waves.
TYPES OF WAVES
(i) Longitudinal wave
If the vibrations of the particles of the medium conveying a wave are to and fro and parallel to the direction of
propagation of the wave, then the wave is called a longitudinal wave.
For example, when a spring under tension is set up oscillating to and fro at one end, a longitudinal wave travels
along the spring; the coils vibrate back and forth in the direction in which the disturbance travels along the spring.
Sound waves in a gas are longitudinal waves. When a sound wave propagates through a gas, particles in the medium
vibrate to and fro and parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
In longitudinal motion of the particles, sound waves consist of a series of compressions followed by rarefactions.
48
Figure above shows how a vibrating tuning fork sends out a sound wave. When the prong moves out, it
compresses the air particles. This region of higher pressure is called condensation. Thus a pulse of compression
moves outwards. Similarly a reverse movement of the prong gives rise to a region of low pressure called rarefaction.
(ii) Transverse wave
If the vibrations of the particles of the medium conveying a wave are perpendicular to the direction of propagation
of the wave, then the wave is called a transverse wave.
For example, consider a light rope tied at one end. Hold its other end. It is kept under tension by stretching.
Give a sudden flipping motion by a jerk of the hand perpendicular to the length of the rope. A disturbance in the
shape of a pulse can be seen travelling along the rope towards the fixed end. The waves travelling along the rope is
transverse.
Waves can also be classified as one, two and three dimensional waves, according to the number of dimensions
in which they propagate energy. Waves moving along a string or a spring are one dimensional. Ripples on the surface
of water are two dimensional. Sound waves and light waves are three dimensional.
Difference between Transverse and Longitudinal waves
Transverse waves
1 The particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
2 The wave travels in the form of crests and troughs.
3 One crest and one trough constitute one wave.
4 These waves can be polarised.
Longitudinal waves
1 Particles in the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
2 The wave travels in the form of condensations and rarefactions.
3 One condensation and one rarefaction constitute one wave.
4 These cannot be polarised.
Important terms connected with wave motion
Amplitude (A)
Amplitude of a wave is the maximum displacement of the wave. In the case of mechanical waves it is the
maximum displacement of the particles of the medium from their equilibrium position
Unit: m
Period (T)
Period of a wave is the time taken by the particles of the medium to execute one complete to and fro motion.
Unit: s
49
Frequency (v)
Frequency of a wave is the number of vibrations executed by a particle of the medium in one second.
1
 Unit: hertz (Hz)
T
Wave length (  )
Wave length of a wave is the distance travelled by the wave during one complete vibration of a particle in the
medium.
It is also defined as the distance between two consecutive particles which are in the same phase of vibration.


So the wavelength is the distance between two successive crests or troughs of the wave.
Velocity (v)
Velocity of a wave is the distance travelled by the wave in one second.
Unit: ms–1
Relation between frequency (v) and period (T)
By definition
Time for completing v vibrations = 1 sec
1
Time for completing one vibration = sec

1 1
i.e., T  or   or vT = 1 -------------(1)
 T
Relation between velocity, frequency and wavelength of the wave
Suppose  = frequency of a wave,
T = time period of the wave,
 = wavelength of the wave,
v = velocity of the wave.
distance s
By definition, velocity   ---------(2)
time t
In one complete vibration of the particle, distance travelled, s =  and time taken, t  T , From (2),
 1
v  
T T
Using (1), we get v   ------------(3)
Hence velocity of wave is the product of frequency and wavelength of the wave. This relation holds for transverse
as well as longitudinal waves.
50
Example 1 : The frequency of a wave is 200 Hz and its wavelength is 60 m. Find its velocity.
Solution : v = 200 Hz,   60 m
v    200  60  12000 m/s
Example 2 : The distance between a compression and the next rarefaction of sound wave is 12.5 cm. If the sound
waves can travel 1050 m in 3 seconds. Then find the number of waves produced in 1 second.

Solution : The distance between a compression and the next rare faction is .
2

  12.5 or   25 cm  0.25 m
2
1050
Velocity   350 m/s
3
v 350
Number of waves produced in 1 s  frequency      1400 Hz
 0.25
Example 3 : A wave of time period 10 ms travels with a velocity of 1.5 ms–1. If the time period of another wave is
6 ms, find its velocity and also find the ratio of their velocities. (Assume the wavelength of the two waves is same.)
1
Solution : 1   100 Hz , v1 = 1.5 ms–1
10  103
v1 1.5
1    0.015 m
1 100
Since the wavelength is the same for the two waves.
1
2   166.67
6  10 3
v2   2   166.67  0.015  2.5 m/s
Ratio of the velocities
v1 1.5 3
  v1 : v 2  3 : 5
v 2 2.5 5
Example 4 : For the range of frequencies of sound 11 kHz to 11 MHz, find the range of wavelength of sound at
0oC, given the velocity of sound in air as 330 ms–1 at 0oC.
Solution : 1  11 kHz ,  2  11 MHz
330
1   0.03 m
11000
330
2   3  105 m
1110 6
 The Range is 3 × 10–2 m to 3 × 10–5 m
51
Example 5 : A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. What is the wavelength of sound in
a tissue in which the speed of sound is 1.7 km s–1 ? The operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz.
Solution : Velocity = 1.7 km/s = 1700 m/s
Frequency v = 4.2 MHz = 4.2 × 106 Hz
v  
v 1700
   0.000405 m  0.405 mm
 4.2  106
SOUND WAVES
Hearing is one of the primary sensations. The physical cause that produces the sensation of hearing is the
vibration of the source. These vibrations are carried by air, as a medium. Our ear is sensitive only to those vibrations
whose frequency lies between 20 hertz to 20,000 hertz. This frequency range is called audible range.
Any vibration whose frequency is greater than 20,000 hertz is called ultrasonic vibration. It cannot be heard by
human ear. The sound waves which have frequencies less than the audible range are called infrasonic waves.
The velocity of sound in air at room temperature and normal pressure is roughly 350 ms-1. An object moving with a
speed greater than the speed of sound is said to move with a supersonic speed.
SPEED OF WAVE MOTION
Wave motion, as we know, can be transverse as well as longitudinal. It is found that generally transverse and
longitudinal waves travel with different speeds in the same medium.
(a) Speed of transverse wave motion
(i) The velocity of propagation of a transverse wave on a stretched string is given by
v  T m ----------------(4)
where T is tension in the string and m is linear density of the string i.e. mass per unit length of the string.
(ii) The velocity of transverse waves in a solid is given by v    --------------(5)
where  is the modulus of rigidity and  is the density of the material of the solid.
(b) Speed of Longitudinal wave Motion
(i) In a solid medium,
When the solid is in the form of a long bar, the speed of longitudinal waves through the bar is given by
v  Y  --------------(6)
where Y is the young’s modulus of the material of the bar.
(ii) In liquids, the velocity of longitudinal waves is given by v  K  -------------(7)
where K is the bulk modulus and  is the density of the liquid.
P
(iii) In gases, the velocity of longitudinal waves is given by v  -------------(8)

where  is the ratio of specific heats, P the pressure and  the density of the gas.
52
FACTORS AFFECTING VELOCITY OF SOUND

The velocity of sound in any gaseous medium is affected by a large number of factors like density, pressure,
temperature and humidity.
P
(a) Effect of density. The velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is given by v  
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of density of the gas. For example,
density of oxygen is 16 times the density of hydrogen.
vH O
 4 or v H  4v O
vO H
Therefore, the velocity of sound in hydrogen is four times the velocity of sound in oxygen.
P
(b) Effect of Pressure. The formula for velocity of sound in a gas is v  
According to the standard gas equation for one gm molecule of a gas, PV = RT, where the letters have their
usual meanings. P = RT/V
RT RT
 v 
 V M
where  × V = M, the molecular weight of the gas. For a given gas, R,  and M are constants. If the
temperature T of the gas is kept constant, then v is constant.
Hence velocity of sound is independent of the pressure of the gas, provided temperature remains constant.
P
(c) Effect of Temperature. The formula for velocity of sound in a gas is v  
According to standard gas equation,
RT RT
PV = RT or P  RT  v 
V  V M ------------(9)
 v  T ---------------------(10)
Hence velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature.
(d) Effect of Humidity. The presence of water vapours in air changes its density. That is why the velocity of sound
changes with humidity of air. ;
Suppose,  m = density of moist air,,
d = density of dry air,,
vm = velocity of sound in moist air,,

v d = velocity of sound in dry air..
Assuming that effect of humidity on  is negligible
53
P P
we get from (8), vm   and vd  
m d
vm d
Dividing, we get 
vd m ------(11)
Dry air is heavier than water vapours. The presence of water vapours, therefore, reduces the density of air.
i.e.  m  d
therefore, from (11), vm>:vd
Hence velocity of sound in moist air is greater than the velocity of sound in dry air. That is why sound travels
faster on a rainy day than on a dry day.
Example 6 : A sound wave has frequency 1000 Hz and wavelength 33 cm. How long will it take to move through
1 km?
Solution : Given that frequency,   1000 Hz .
Wavelength   33 cm  0.33 m
Distance d = 1 km = 1000 m
Velocity of wave is given by
v  h  1000  0.33ms 1  330 ms 1
Distance 1000
Time taken    3.03 s
Velocity 330
Example 7 : If 500 sound waves are produced in one minute, then find the time taken by a vibrating particles to
move from its mean position to the immediate rarefaction.
Solution : Frequency   500
1
Period T 
500
T
The time taken by the vibrating particles to move from its mean position to the immediate rarefaction is
2
T 1 1
 the time t    s  0.001 s
2 2  500 1000
Example 8 : Calculate the velocity of sound through iron, given that the modulus of elasticity for iron = 2 × 1011 Pa
and density of iron = 8 × 1013 kgm–3.
Solution : Velocity of sound through a solid.
Y
v . Y - Youngs modulus;  - Density..

2  1011
 v  25  106 m/s  5 103 m/s
8  103
54
Example 9 : At what temperature the velocity of sound in air will be double that of air at 0oC. (Given v0 = 332 ms–1)
RT
Solution : We have v 
M
v2 T2 v2 T 2v 0 T2 T2
  ;  2 ;  ; 4  T2  1092 K  819o C
v T v1 T1 v0 T0 v0 273 273
Example 10 : Displacement-distance graph of particles vibrating in a gas under the influence of a tuning fork of
frequency 512 Hz is given as follows. Find the velocity of sound in the gas?
A B
4
Displacement (mm)
0 C D
20 40 60 80 100 120
–2
Distance (cm)
–4
P
Solution : Points A and B represent the consecutive compression. Distance between them is called wavelength
 .
So,   100  20   80 cm  0.8 m
We know that v    512  0.8  409.6 ms 1

Example 11 : A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 100 k Hz in air. If this sound meets a water surface, what
is the wavelength of (a) the reflected sound (b) the transmitted sound ? Speed of sound in air = 340 ms–1 and in
water = 1486ms–1.
Solution : v = 100 × 103 Hz
1) For the reflected sound, the wave is in air.
 va  340 m/s
va 340
 a    0.0034 m  3.4 mm
 100  103
2) For the transmitted sound
vT  1486 m/s
vT 1486
T    0.01486 m  1.486 cm
 100  103
55
Example 12 : A steel wire 70 cm long has a mass of 7 g. If the wire is under a tension of 100 N, what is the speed
of transverse waves in the wire ?
Solution : T = 100 N
7g 7  103 kg
Linear density m    0.01 kg/m
70 cm 0.7 m
T 100
v   100 m/s
m 0.01
Example 13 : A stone is dropped into a well in which water is 78.4 m deep. After how long will the sound of splash
be heard at the top ? Take velocity of sound in air = 332 ms–l.
Solution : Depth of the well = 78.4 m.
Total time = T = t1 + t2
t1 = The time taken by the stone to reach the bottom of the well.
t2 = The time taken by sound to reach from the bottom of the well.
1 2
h gt1
2
2h
 t12 
g
2h 2  78.4
t1   4s
g 9.8
h  ua  t2
h 78.4
 t2    0.2365
u a 332
Total time T  t1  t 2  4  0.236  4.236 s
SUPERPOSITION PRINCIPLE
The principle of superposition enables us to find the resultant of any number of waves. According to this
principle, the displacement at any time due to any number of waves meeting simultaneously at a point in a medium,
is the vector sum of the individual displacements due to each one of the waves at that point at the same time.
If y1 , y 2 , y 3 ..... are the displacements at a particular time at a particular position, due to individual waves, then the
resultant displacement y at the same time at the given position would be y  y1  y 2  y 3  ..... (12)
56
Y R1
y
A
B
O X
t
Y'
For example, in Fig. above, crest of one wave A falls on crest of the other wave B, and trough falls on trough.
Therefore, the amplitude of the resultant wave R1 is the sum of the amplitudes of the two waves, A and B.
Again, in Fig. below, crest of one wave A falls on the trough of the other wave B and trough falls on crest.
Therefore, the amplitude of the resultant wave R2 is the difference in the amplitudes of the two waves A and B.
Y
y A
R2
O X
t
B
Y'
Note that this principle of superposition applies equally well to electromagnetic waves.
BEATS
When two sound waves of slightly different frequencies, travelling in a medium along the same direction,
superimpose on each other, the intensity of the resultant sound at a particular position rises and falls regularly with
time. This phenomenon of regular variation in the intensity of sound with time at a particular position, when two
sound waves of nearly equal frequencies superimpose on each other is called beats.
The time interval between two successive beats (i.e. two successive maxima or minima of sound) is called beat
period. The number of beats produced per second is called beat frequency.
Number of beats/sec. = difference in frequencies of two sources of sound
Number of beats/sec. n = n1 – n2
where n1 and n2 are two slightly different frequencies
v v
n1  , n2 
1 2 ,
v v 1 1 
then n      v     
1 2  1 2 
57
Example 14 : A tuning fork P produces 5 beats/sec with another tuning fork Q whose frequency is known
to be 284 hertz. Deduce the frequency of fork P ?
Solution : The number of heats prodcued/sec or beat frequency is the differences in frequency of the feching forks.
 The frequency of the fork 2 is
n  284  5
i.e., 289 Hz or 279 Hz
Standing waves in a string
Fixed at both ends
A stretched string fixed between two points can be made to vibrate transversely and a transverse progressive
wave travels along the string starting from one end. At the other end the wave is reflected back and the incident and
the reflected identical waves superpose to form stationary waves.
Node and Anti-node
A node is a point along a standing wave where the wave has minimum (zero) amplitude.
The opposite of a node is an anti-node, a point where the amplitude of the standing wave is at maximum. These
occur midway between the nodes.
There are always two nodes at the two ends of the string.
If L be the length of the string, then its simplest mode of vibration, the string vibrates as a whole in one segment.

For this normal mode, the length of the string L  and v, be the frequency of vibration, then
2
v v
1   --------(13)
 2L
T 1 T
But for the transverse waves in a string v   1  --------(14)
m 2L m
Reflection of Sound
Sound gets reflected at the surface of a solid and liquid in the same way as light does. It follows the laws of
reflection. The laws of reflection are as follows.
1. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
2. The incident wave, reflected wave and normal at the point of incidence, they all lie in the same plane.
Echo : The sound that comes to our ear after reflection is called echo of sound.
Eg : Sound we hear after a clap when it is reflected from a cliff.
Sound heard after shouting in a big hall.
The sensation of sound remains in human brain for about 0.1 s. This is called persistance of hearing. It mean for
the echo to be audible the time intervel between the original sound and echo must be at least 0.1 s.
As we know the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s. The distance travelled by sound in 0.1 s will be 34.4 m. It
means to hear the echo properly, the minimum distance of the reflecting surface should be half of this distance
58
34.4
  17.2 m
2
Reverberation
When echo is heard multiple times due to repeated and multiple reflection of sound from different reflecting
surfaces. It causes persistence of sound. This is called reverberation.
Example 15 : A boy blows a whistle and its echo from a distant wall is heard after 1.8 seconds. How far is the wall
from him? (Velocity of sound in air at room temperature is 340 ms–1)
Solution : If d be the distance of the wall from the boy, then sound travels a distance d to the wall and back to the
boy.
So total distance travelled by sound is 2d.
Time taken by sound to go to the wall (reflection of sound) and back.
Dis tan ce
t
Velocity
2d
t
v
2d
1.8  , 2d = 340 × 1.8 = 612 m
340
612
 d  306 m
2
Wave Front
The imaginary surface drawn at any instant in a medium such that the phases of oscillation of all the particles are
the same is called the wave front.
OR
Locus of all the particles of the medium oscillating in the same phase is called the wave front.
The wave front of a wave is always perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Hence the line
drawn perpendicular to the wave front, represents the direction of propagation of wave. This is called ray.
There are three types of wave fronts:
(a) Plane wave front
(b) Spherical wave front
(c) Cylindrical wave front
(a) Plane wave front :
If the waves are propagating in the medium in only one direction, the particles of medium in the wave front
drawn at any instant oscillate in the same phase. In this state wave front is plane and the rays are parallel to each
other.
59
(b) Spherical Wave front :

The waves produced from a point source propagate in all the directions. Hence, the particles of medium on a
spherical surface are in the same phase. In this position the wave front will be spherical and the rays are radial lines.
(c) Cylindrical wave front :

If the source is in the form of a slit, then the particles of medium of the cylindrical surface drawn, taking source
as the axis, oscillate in the same phase. In this case, the wave front is cylindrical.
DOPPLER EFFECT IN SOUND

The phenomenon of the apparent change in the frequency of sound produced by a source as heard by a listener
whenever there is relative motion between the source and the listener is called Doppler effect.
+ve
v
S L
vS vL
Note:
Velocities in the direction in which the sound travels in order to reach the listener are taken positive; while those
in the opposite direction are taken negative. Apparent frequency of sound as heard by the listener is given by
60
Relative velocity of sound with respect to the listener v

  
Apparent wavelength 
 v  vL 
i.e.,      ---------(15)
 v  vs 
vs - velocity of source.
vL - velocity of listener
v - velocity of sound.
 - apparant frequency
QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. The longitudinal waves can propagate only in
A) Solids B) Liquids C) Gases D) All the above
2. The linear distance between the compression and the adjacent rarefaction is 0.8 m. The wavelength of the
longitudinal wave is:
A) 0.8 m B) 1.6 m C) 0.4 m D) 3.2 m
3. Which of the following does not require medium to propagate?
A) Radio-waves B) Water-waves C) Sound-waves D) Waves in string
4. In a transverse mechanical wave, the oscillations are
A) Perpendicular to direction of propagation of the wave
B) In the same direction as that of the propagation of wave
C) In all directions
D) Circular
5. The transverse mechanical waves can propagate only in
A) Liquids B) Gases C) Solids D) Vacuum
6. A transverse wave consists of
A) crests and troughs in the medium B) compression and rarefaction in the medium
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B)
7. Which is true for a wave? (here n = frequency, T = time period)
n
A) nT = 1 B) 2
T
C) n = T D) nT = 2
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8. Waves on water surfaces are:

A) longitudinal B) transverse
C) combination of longitudinal and transverse D) none of these
9. Time period of a sound wave having the wavelength 0.2 m and frequency 10 Hz will be:
A) 2 s B) 0.2 s C) 0.1 s D) 0.02 s
10. SI unit of frequency is ........
A) Metre B) Second C) Hertz D) ms–1
11. When a wave travels from one medium to another, which quantity does not change?
A) Frequency B) Wavelength C) Velocity D) Amplitude
12. In the following table, match the column B according to column A.
Column A Column B
(i) Pitch (a) waveform
(ii) Quality (b) frequency
(iii) Loudness (c) amplitude
A) (i) - (b), (ii) - a, (iii) - c B) (i) - (a), (ii) - b, (iii) - c
C) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - (a) D) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - a
13. The frequency of a wave is 5 Hz. It refers to (types of waves)
A) Ultrasonics B) Microwaves C) Infrasonic D) Radiowaves
14. The distance between two consecutive crests or two consecutive troughs is called .......
A) Velocity B) Wavelength C) Frequency D) Amplitude
15. The distance between two consecutive compressions is 1.4 m. The wavelength of the wave is
A) 2.8 m B) 1.4 m C) 0.7 m D) 4.2 m
16. A broadcasting station transmits waves of frequency 71 × 10 Hz with a speed of 3 × 108 m/s. The wavelength
4
of the wave is
A) 418.8 m B) 324.6 m C) 208.4 m D) 422.5 m
17. Velocity of sound is minimum in among the following is
A) Nitrogen B) Hydrogen C) Air D) Carbondioxide
18. Sound waves in air are ........
A) Radio waves B) Electromagnetic waves C) Longitudinal waves D) Transverse waves
19. Which of the following sound waves cannot be heard by human?
A) 21 Hz B) 500 Hz C) 15 Hz C) 1500 Hz
20. Sound energy is basically
A) Mechanical Energy B) Electromagnetic Energy
C) Potential Energy D) Electrical Energy
62
21. The speed of sound waves in a medium is

A) directly proportional to its frequency B) inversely proportional to its frequency
C) directly proportional to square of its frequency D) independent of frequency
22. In which of the following media will sound travel the fastest.
A) solid B) both solid and liquid C) liquid D) gas
23. The minimum distance between the source and the reflector so that the echo is heard is approximately equal to
........... m
A) 10 B) 13 C) 17 D) 20
24. Echo is produced due to
A) Reflection of sound B) Refraction of sound
C) Resonance D) Change in temperature of the medium
LEVEL II
1. Which of the following is not the transverse wave?
A) X-rays B)  -rays C) Visible light wave D) Sound wave in a gas
2. If vibrations of a string are to be increased by a factor of two, then tension in the string must be made
A) Half B) Four times C) Twice D) Eight times
3. If the wavelength of a wave is decreased by 20% then its frequency will become
A) 25% more B) 25% less C) 20% more D) 20% less
4. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in a string is 5 cm. If two complete
waves pass through any point per second, the velocity of wave is
A) 15 cm/sec B) 10 cm/sec C) 5 cm/sec D) 2.5 cm/sec
5. The frequency of a sound wave is n and its velocity is v. If the frequency is increased to 4n, the velocity of wave
will be
v
A) 2v B) v C) 4v D)
4
6. Maximum value of the wavelength of ultrasonic waves is
A) 1.85 cm B) 20 cm C) 33 cm D) 1.65 cm
7. The temperature at which the speed of sound in air becomes double of its value at 27oC is
A) 54oC B) 327oC
C) 927oC D) –123oC
8. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased by 600 K, the velocity of sound in the gas becomes 3
times the initial velocity in it. The initial temperature of the gas is
A) –73 oC B) 27 oC
C) 127 oC D) 327 oC
63
9. A string is stretched by a weight of 10 kg. (Take g = 10 ms–2). The mass of one metre of string is 10g. The
velocity of transverse wave in the string is
A) 10 km s–1 B) 1 km s–1 C) 100 ms–1 D) 10 ms–1
10. Two tuning forks when sounded together produce 4 beats/sec. The frequency of one fork is 256 Hz. The
number of beats heard increases when the fork of frequency 256 Hz is loaded with wax. The frequency of the
other fork is
A) 260 Hz B) 252 Hz C) 520 Hz D) 504 Hz
11. In a stationary wave, the two consecutive nodes are separated by
   2
A) B) C) D)
4 3 2 3
12. If velocity of sound in air is 300 m/s, then the distance between the two successive nodes of a stationary wave
of frequency 1000 Hz is
A) 10 cm B) 20 cm C) 15 cm D) 30 cm
13. Two waves of wave lengths 50 cm and 51 cm produce 12 beats per second. The velocity of sound is
A) 340 m/s B) 331 m/s
C) 306 m/s D) 360 m/s
14. Two tuning forks produce 2 beats in the time interval of 0.4 sec so that beat frequency is
A) 5 Hz B) 8 Hz C) 2 Hz D) 10 Hz
15. Maximum beat frequency which can be heard by a human being is
A) 10 B) 4 C) 20 D) 6
16. Two sound waves of wavelengths 5 m and 6 m formed 30 beats in 3 sec. The velocity of sound is
A) 300 ms–1 B) 310 ms–1 C) 320 ms–1 D) 330 ms–1
17. The tension in a string is increased by 69%. If its frequency of vibration is to remain unchanged, its length must
be increased by
A) 31% B) 62%
C) 30% D) 20%
18. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is
the splash heard at the top? (Given g = 10 ms–2 and speed of sound = 340 ms–1)
A) 10 s B) 11.47 s C) 1.10 s D) 20 s
19. Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon
A) Frequency of the wave produced
B) Distance between source and listener/observer
C) Velocity of the source
D) Velocity of the listener/observer
20. An observer approaches a stationary source such that the pitch is halved. If velocity of sound is denoted by v,
velocity of observer will be
v v
A) 2v B) v C) D)
2 4
64
21. A source of sound of frequency 450 cycle/sec is moving towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If
the speed of sound is 340 m/s then the apparent frequency will be
A) 410 cps B) 550 cps C) 500 cps D) 450 cps
LEVEL III
More than one correct answer type.

1. The speed of sound in a gas is not affected by the change in
A) Wavelength of wave B) Amplitude of wave
C) Pressure D) Temperature
2. Sound can travel through .....................
A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) Vacuum

3. Choose the correct statement.
A) The time taken for one complete oscillation is called the time period of the sound wave.
B) The amplitude of sound wave is the height of the crest or tough.
C) With high frequency, sound has high pitch.
D) When frequency is low, sound has low pitch.
4. Light can travel through ...............
A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) Vacuum
5. Choose the correct unit.
A) The S.I. unit of frequency is Hertz. B) The S.I. unit of wavelength is metre.
C) The S.I. unit of time is hour. D) The S.I. unit of time is second.
Passage Comprehension.
Passage I
The time taken to complete one vibration is called time-period, measured in second and the number of complete
waves produced in one second is called frequency of the wave, measured in hertz and they are related as
1
f , where f is frequency of the wave and T is time period of the wave. The distance travelled by a wave in
T

one second is called velocity of the wave, measured in m/s and it is related to time period as v  , where v
T
is velocity of wave,  is the wavelength of wave in cm and T is time-period of the wave.
6. A source is producing 1500 sound waves in 3 seconds. The distance between compression and an adjacent
rarefaction is 34 cm. What will be the frequency of the wave?
A) 200 Hz B) 300 Hz
C) 400 Hz D) 500 Hz
65
7. From the above question, find the wavelength of the wave?

A) 25 cm B) 56 cm C) 68 cm D) 82 cm
8. From the above question, find the velocity of the wave?
A) 250 m/s B) 340 m/s C) 330 m/s D) 300 m/s
Passage II
We can hear the original sound and the reflected sound (echo) separately only if there is a time interval of at
1
least th of a second between them. By knowing the minimum time interval required for an echo to be heard
10
and the speed of sound in air, the minimum distance from a sound reflecting surface which is necessary to hear
an echo can be calculated.
9. A man claps his hand near a mountain and hears the echo after 4 seconds. If the speed of sound under these
conditions be 330 m/s, what is the distance of mountain from the man?
A) 660 m B) 440 m C) 330 m D) 550 m
10. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s. How far away from an under-sea rock should a deep sea diver be so
that he can hear his own echo?
A) 60 m B) 44 m C) 57 m D) 75 m
11. An echo is simply a ...........
A) Refracting sound B) Reflecting sound C) Reverberation D) all of the above
Matrix match type.
12. Choose the correct S.I. unit.
Column I Column II
A) Amplitude p) Second
B) Time period q) Hertz
C) Frequency r) Metre
D) Wavelength s) Metre
A) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s B) A - s, B - r, C - q, D - p
C) A - q, B - p, C - r, D - s D) A - s, B - p, C - q, D - r
13. Choose the correct symbol.
Column I Column II
A) Compression p) 
B) Rarefaction q) C
C) Frequency r) 
D) Wavelength s) R
A) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s
B) A - q, B - s, C - p, D - r
C) A - q, B - p, C - r, D - s
D) A - s, B - p, C - q, D - r
66
14. Choose the correct code.

Column I Column II
A) Compression p) Soft sound
B) Rarefaction q) Loud sound
C) Big amplitude r) Low pressure
D) Small amplitude s) High pressure
A) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s
B) A - s, B - r, C - q, D - p
C) A - q, B - p, C - r, D - s
D) A - s, B - p, C - q, D - r
15. Match the following columns:
Column I Column II
A) In a progressive wave p) Vibration of particles are along the
direction of wave propagation.
B) In a transverse wave q) Amplitude of vibration does not vary with
time.
C) In a stationary wave r) Vibrations of particles are perpendicular
to the direction of wave propagation.
D) In a longitudinal wave s) Amplitude of vibration varies with
position.
A) A - q, B - r, C - p, D - s
B) A - r, B - q, C - s, D - p
C) A - q, B - r, C - s, D - p
D) A - q, B - s, C - r, D - p
16. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A) Change in apparent frequency due to relative motion p) Beats
between source and listener is
B) Intensity of sound varies with time in q) Transverse
C) Sound waves in air are r) Doppler effect
D) Light wave are s) Longitudinal
A) A - r, B - p, C - q, D - s
B) A - p, B - r, C - q, D - s
C) A - r, B - s, C - p, D - q
D) A - r, B - p, C - s, D - q
67
Integer answer type.
17. A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5m. What is the velocity of sound
waves in km h–1?
18. The time period of a vibrating body is 0.5 s. What is the frequency of waves that it emits?
19. A bat can hear sound of frequencies up to 115 kHz. Determine the minimum wave length (in mm) of sound
which it can hear. Speed of sound in air to be 345 m/s.
20. A wave pulse of frequency 160 Hz, on a string moves a distance 8 m in 0.05s. Calculate the wavelength of
wave on string.
21. If velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s and frequency is 4250 Hz. What will be the wavelength in cm?
Reasoning Type.
22. Statement I : Wave on a string are always transverse in nature
Statement II : The velocity of a transverse wave propagating along a string is independent of the frequency
of the propagating wave
23. Statement I : Beat frequency between two tuning forks A and B is 4 Hz. Frequency of A is greater than the
frequency of B. When one of them is loaded with wax, beat frequency may increase or
decrease.
Statement II : When a tuning fork is loaded with wax its frequency decreases.
24. Statement I : The frequency of ultrasonic waves is greater than 20,000 Hz.
Statement II : The range of audible sound is 20 to 20,000 Hz.
25. Statement I : To hear beats, the difference in the frequencies of the two sources should be less than ten.
Statement II : More the number of beats, more difficult it to hear them.
26. Statement I : When a simple pendulum is made to oscillate on the surface of the moon, its time period
increases.
Statement II : The moon is much smaller as compared to the earth.
27. Statement I : Compression and rarefaction involve changes in density and pressure.
Statement II : When particles are compressed, density of medium increases and when they are rarefied,
density of medium decreases.
68
28. Statement I : The velocity of sound in the air increases due to presence of moisture in it.
Statement II : The presence of moisture in air lowers the density of air.
1. If the velocities of sound in steel, water and vacuum are v1, v2 and v3 respectively the correct relation is:
(2006)
A) v1 < v2 < v3 B) v1 < (v2 + v3) C) v1 = v2 = v3 D) v1 > v2; v3 = 0
2. The speeds of sound in air and sea-water are given to be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s respectively. A ship sends a
strong signal straight down and detects its echo after 1.5 secs. The depth of sea at that point is : (2013)
A) 2.16 kms B) 1.08 kms C) 0.51 kms D) 0.255 kms
3. Voice of which of the following is likely to have maximum frequency? (2013)
A) man B) cow C) bird D) Dog
4. For the wave shapes shown in figures the wave of maximum frequency will be : (2007)
5. Velocity of sound is maximum in : (2013)

A) Water B) Oil
C) Air D) Iron
6. Four pendulums P, Q, R and S are suspended from same elastic supports as shown in figure. Out of these P
and R are of the same length. Q is smaller than P and S is longest. If the pendulum P is displaced to give small
vibration. (2014)
A) amplitude of vibration for S is maximum B) amplitude of vibration for R is maximum

C) amplitude of vibration for Q is maximum D) amplitude of vibration for all for same
69
7. Sound with frequency more than 20 KHz is known as (2014)

A) Audible Sound B) Ultra sonic C) Inaudible sound D) None of these
8. The frequency of a source of sound is 50 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in one minute? (2015)
A) 50 B) 300 C) 3000 D) 30000
9. In the phenomenon of propagation of sound in air: (2014)
A) Temperature remains constant B) Heat remains constant
C) Pressure remains constant D) Both (A) and (B)
10. Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest the suitable word for the fourth place.
Loudness : Amplitude, Quality : (2014)
A) Frequency B) Wave length C) Intensity D) Wave form
11. The ratio of velocity of sound in hydrogen to the velocity of sound in oxygen is : (at constant temperature)
(2014)
A) 4 : 1 B) 16 : 1 C) 2 : 1 D) 8 : 1
12. A pundubbi sends a sonar signal to locate a body and receives the echo after 5 s. If the velocity of the sound
is 340 m/s. What is the distance of the body? (2014)
A) 0.85 km B) 1.7 km C) 0.425 D) 4.25 km
13. ........... identifies quality of sound in human ear. (2015)
A) Nerve impulse B) Pinna C) Cochlea D) Ear drum
14. Which branch of science is associated with the use of X-ray and gamma rays for the diagnosis and treatment?
(2015)
A) urology B) radiology
C) histology D) pathology
15. A simple pendulum perform 18 oscillation per second the mechanical wave produced by it be: (2015)
A) sound wave B) ultrasonic wave
C) Infrasonic wave D) none of these
16. A stone is dropped into a well 44.1 m deep. The sound of splash is heard 0.13 seconds after the stone hits the
water. What should be the velocity of sound in air? (2015)
A) 319 m/s B) 339 m/s 359 m/s D) 369 m/s
17. A person sees a jet plane flying from east to west. When the plane is just above his head, the sound of plane
appears to reach him at 60o with horizontal. If the velocity of sound is v, then velocity of jet plane is (2015)
v v
A) 2 v B) v C) D)
2 2
18. In air the speed of sound is 340 m/s. This means that in one second: (2015)
A) Sound source moves 340 m
B) Listener moves 340 m
C) Air disturbance moves 340 m
D) Air moves 340 m
70
19. Which of the following is carried by waves from one place to another? (2015)
A) mass B) velocity C) wavelength D) energy
20. The vibrations are amplified several times in the middle ear to the bones known as: (2015)
A) Anvil B) Stirrup
B) Hammer D) All of the above
21. A musical instrument has tones of frequencies 256 Hz, 502 Hz, 1020 Hz and 1280 Hz. The frequencies of the
fundamental and its harmonic are given by: (2015)
A) 256 Hz and 502 Hz respectively
B) 256 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively
C) 502 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively
D) 256 Hz and 1280 Hz respectively
22. A sound wave has a wavelength of 3.0 m. The distance from a compression centre to the adjacent rarefaction
centre is: (2015)
A) 0.75 m B) 1.5 m
C) 3.0 m D) 6.0 m
23. A sound wave has a frequency of 10 kHz and wavelength 3 mm. How much time will it take to travel 3 metre?
(2018)
A) 0.1 sec B) 1 sec C) 10 sec D) 0.01 sec
24. A car approaches a hill with constant speed. When it is at a distance of 0.96 km., it blows horn whose echo
is heard by the driver 6 second later. If the speed of sound in air in 300 m/s, calculate the speed of the car.
(2017)
A) 100 m/s B) 20 m/s C) 50 m/s D) 70 m/s
25. A person fired a gun standing at a distance of 55 m from a wall. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, the time for
an echo heard is (2019)
A) 0.33 s B) 0.45 s C) 0.52 s D) 0.61 s
26. A boy in a hill station calls his mum but she could not guess from where her ward calls due to reverberation.
This is because of the distance between the boy and the hill is less than (2019)
A) 34 m B) 27 m C) 17 m D) 5 m
27. The speed of sound in air at NTP is 332 m/s. If air pressure becomes four times the normal then the speed of
sound waves will (2019)
A) double
B) quadruple
C) remain the same
1
D) become of the original value
4
28. For the wave shown in figure, calcualte the frequency and wave length of the wave if its speed is 320 ms–1.
Y
X
20 cm (2019)
O
A) 80 cm, 4000 Hz B) 8 cm, 4000 Hz

C) 80 cm, 400 Hz D) 8 cm, 40 Hz
71
29. A man standing between two parallel cliffs fires a gun. If he hears first and second echoes after 1.5 seconds
and 3.5 seconds respectively, then the distance between two cliffs is ...
(Take velocity of sound in air as 340m/s)
A) 1190 m B) 850 m C) 595 m D) 510 m
30. The characteristic of sound that would result in an increase in loudness of the sound is .......
A) Amplitude B) Speed C) Pitch D) Quality
31. Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and frequency of human heart beat is based on the principle
of
A) SONAR B) Reverberation C) Multiple reflection D) Echo
32. In which of the following media, the speed of sound will be maximum?
A) Glass B) Ethanol C) Air D) Vacuum
72
CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER - 01
STUDY OF GAS LAWS
1.0 INTRODUCTION
The gaseous state is the simplest state of matter. This is due to the fact that the forces of interaction between
gas molecules is negligible. Properties of gases like pressure, volume, temperature and mass are very important
because relationships between these variables describe the state of the gas. Interdependence of these variables
led to the formulation of gas laws.
The gas laws are the result of research carried out for several centuries on the physical properties of gases. The
first reliable measurement on properties of gases was made by Anglo Irish scientist Robert Boyle in 1662.
Later on, attempts to fly in air balloons motivated French scientists, Jacques Charles and Joseph Louis Gay
Lussac to formulate additional gas laws. Contribution from Italian scientist Amedeo Carlo Avogadro, Scottish
scientist Thomas Graham, Dutch scientist J.D. van der Waals and others provided a lot of information about
the gaseous state.
Gas laws are rules which the gases obey when subjected to changes in volume, temperature or pressure. Any
change in one of these variables affects the other two variables. For example, if the pressure of a gas undergoes
some significant change, its volume and temperature also change.
1.1 PRESSURE, VOLUME AND TEMPERATURE
a) Pressure. Pressure is defined as force per unit area.
Units of pressure:
1) 1 atmosphere (atm) = 760 mm Hg = 760 torr = 76 cm of Hg = 1.01325 bar
2) 1 Pascal (Pa) = 1 Nm–2 = 1 kg m–1 s–2
3) 1 bar = 105 Pa (Nm–2) = 0.987 atm
b) Volume. Gases always occupy the complete volume of the container, therefore, the volume of a gas is
always equal to the volume of the container.
Units of Volume:
i) 1 millilitre (1 mL) = 1 cm3 (1 cc)
ii) 1L = 103 cm3 = 1 dm3 = 10–3 m3= 1000 cc = 1000 ml
c) Temperature. The average kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
If the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases, its temperature rises and vice versa.
Units of temperature:
i) Degree Celsius = oC
ii) Kelvin = K
iii) Temperature in Kelvin = 273.15 + Temperature in oC or K = 273.15 + oC
For example, 100oC should be written as (273.15 + 100) 373.15 K (not 373.15o K)
73
2.1 BOYLE’S LAW (PRESSURE - VOLUME RELATIONSHIP)

Robert Boyle (1662) studied the relationship between volume and pressure of a fixed mass of gas at constant
temperature. He found that on increasing pressure, the volume of the gas decreases and vice versa.
At constant temperature, volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to pressure.
This generalisation is called Boyle’s law.
Let ‘V’ be the volume of an enclosed gas and ‘P’ is its pressure at constant temperature then,
1
V (at constant T)
P
1
V  K (K is constant of proportionality)
P
PV = K
It means that at constant temperature, the product of pressure and volume of a fixed quantity of gas is constant.
If a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature T occupying volume V1 at pressure P1 undergoes expansion
so that volume becomes V2 and pressure becomes P2, then according to Boyle’s law.
P1V1 = K .....(i)
P2V2 = K .....(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii), we have P1V1 = P2V2 = constant
The above relation is called Boyle’s law equation. From the above equation, Boyle’s law may be defined as:
For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the product of pressure and volume is constant.
P1 V2

P2 V1
The table given below shows the experimental data for the validity of Boyle’s law. The data are also plotted on
graph to illustrate change in volume with change in pressure at constant temperature.
Pressure (P) (cm of Hg) Volume (V) (in litres) P×V
10 2 20
20 1 20
30 0.67 20 (approx)
40 0.5 20
Figure - 01 Plot of change in volume with pressure at constant pressure
74
Figure - 02 (a) Plot of PV against pressure (b) Pressure vs 1/V at different temperatures
Isotherm. A curve plotted between P and V at constant temperature is known as isotherm.
Example. The size of a weather balloon keeps on increasing as it rises to higher altitudes because the external
pressure (i.e., atmospheric pressure) on the balloon goes on decreasing with altitude.
Qn.1: A gas occupies 2500 cm3 at pressure of 740 mm of mercury. At what pressure will its volume become
1250 cm3 if temperature remains constant?
Sol: Initial volume of gas (V1) = 2500 cm3 ; Initial pressure of gas (P1) = 740 mm of Hg
Final volume of gas (V2) = 1250 cm3 ; Final Pressure of gas (P2) = ?
By Boyle’s law, P1V1 = P2V2
P1V1 740  2500

 P2    1480 mm of Hg
V2 1250
Qn. 2: A gas occupies a volume of 950 cm3 at a pressure P. If the pressure is changed to 3.1 atm, the volume
of the gas changes to 700 cm3. Calculate the initial pressure.
Sol.: V1 = 950 cm3, P2 = 3.1 atm, V2 = 700 cm3 ; Initial pressure P1 = ?
By Boyle’s law: P1V1 = P2V2
3.1 700
 P1  950  3.1 700  P1   2.28 atm
950
Qn. 3: At constant temperature, a gas is at a pressure of 1050 mm Hg. At what pressure will its volume
decrease by 35%?
Sol.: Initial pressure of gas P1 = 1050 mm of Hg ; Final pressure of gas P2 = ?
Let initial volume of gas = V1 ;
35V
 35% of initial volume   0.35 V
100
 Final volume of gas (V2) = V – 0.35 V = 0.65 V
By Boyle’s law : P1V1 = P2V2

P1V1 1050  V
 P2    1615.38 mm of Hg
V2 0.65V
75
Qn. 4: At constant temperature, the volume of a gas is 1000 cm3 at 745 mm Hg pressure. Find the volume of the gas
if the pressure is increased by 15%.
Sol.: Initial volume of gas (V1) = 1000 cm3 ; Final volume of gas (V2) = ?
Initial pressure of gas (P1) = 745 mm of Hg
15
Increase in pressure  745   111.75 mm of Hg
100
 Final pressure of gas (P2) = 745 + 111.75 = 856.75 mm of Hg
P1V1 745  1000
 V2    869.56 cm3
P2 856.75
Qn. 5: A vessel of capacity 25 L, contains nitrogen gas at a pressure of 380 cm of Hg. If the vessel is
connected to an evacuated vessel of 10 L capacity, what will be the pressure of nitrogen in both vessels, if
temperature remains constant?
Sol.: Given : V1 = 25 L ; V2 = 25 + 10 = 35 L ; P1 = 380 cm of Hg ; P2 = ?
P1V1 380  25
 P2    271.43cm of Hg
P2 35
2.2 CHARLES’ LAW
In 1787, French Scientist Jacques Charles studied the relationship between volume of a gas and temperature
and put forward a relationship known as Charles law. It states that at constant pressure, volume of a fixed
mass of gas increases by 1/273 of its volume at 0oC for every 1oC rise in temperature.
Thus, if volume of the gas at 0oC and at ToC are V0 and Vt respectively, then
Vt  V0  
 t   t   273  t 
 V0 or Vt  V0  1   or Vt  V0  
 273   273   273 
For example, if the initial volume of a gas is 273 mL, at 0oC, then its volume for 1oC rise in temperature will be
1
Volume at 1 o C  273   273  274 mL
273
1
Volume at 1 o C  273   273  272 mL
273
2.2.1 CONCEPT OF ABSOLUTE ZERO (KELVIN ZERO) TEMPERATURE
British scientist Lord Kelvin (William Thomson), on applying Charles’ law to calculate the volume of a fixed
mass of gas at constant pressure, observed that
1
Volume of gas at 273 o C  273   273  273  0 mL
273
Thus, when the temperature of an enclosed gas at 0oC is lowered to –273oC, its volume becomes zero.
However, this is not possible since gas is one of the states of matter and it must have definite mass and volume.
Lord Kelvin himself offered a solution to the riddle by suggesting that –273oC is the lowest limit of temperature,
which cannot be reached and hence, an enclosed gas will never reach zero volume.
The lowest limit of temperature was named absolute zero by Lord Kelvin. However, in order to honour Lord
76
Kelvin, the absolute zero was renamed as Zero Kelvin.

(a) Definition of Absolute Zero (Zero Kelvin)
It is the lowest limit of temperature, where the volume of a given mass of enclosed gas at constant pressure
becomes zero. Its theoretical value is –273 oC. It is also defined as theoretical temperature at which the
molecules of an enclosed gas at constant pressure have zero kinetic energy.
(b) Absolute Scale (Kelvin Scale) of Temperature
The temperature scale with its zero at –273oC, such that each degree on it is equal to 1 degree on the celsius
scale is called absoulte scale or Kelvin scale.
i) The temperature scale, with Kelvin zero as starting point, is called Kelvin scale.
ii) All temperatures on Kelvin scale are positive.
iii) Temperature on Kelvin scale = 273 + temperature in oC. K = 273 + oC
iv) Temperature on Kelvin scale is not expressed in degrees. For example, 100oC is 373 K.
(c) Definition of Charles’ Law Based on Kelvin Scale
Pressure remaining constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in
Kelvin. Thus, if V is the volume of an enclosed mass of gas and T is the temperature in Kelvin, then
V
V  T [at constant pressure] or  K [K is the constant of proportionality]
T
If V1 is the volume of gas at T1(K) and V2 the volume at T2(K), such that pressure of the given mass of gas
remains constant, then
V1 V
V1  T1 and V2  T2 or K ; 2 K
T1 T2
V1 V2
 
T1 T2
This is called Charle’s law equation.
A graph between the volume and temperature in Kelvin for a fixed mass of gas at a constant pressure is shown
below:
The volume of a gas at 100 K, increases four times when heated to 400 K.
Figure - 03 Plot of temperature vs volume at constant pressure
77
Isobar. A curve plotted between V and T at constant pressure is known as isobar.
Figure - 04 Plot of V against T (oC) for a gas at different pressures

2.2.2 CONCEPT OF STANDARD TEMPERATURE AND PRESSURE
From Boyle’s law and Charles’ law, it is clear that the volume of a given mass of enclosed gas depends on
i) the pressure of the gas and
ii) the temperature of the gas in Kelvin.
In order to express the exact volume of a given mass of enclosed gas, we should specify a standard temperature
and pressure. Thus, to compare the mass or density of gases having the same volume, we must specify the
standard temperature and pressure at which the volumes are measured.
Standard temperature is taken as 0oC or 273 K.
Standard pressure is taken as 76 cm or 760 mm of Hg or one atmosphere.
Standard temperature and pressure, is written as S.T.P.
Qn.6: 500 cm3 of a gas at 65oC is cooled to standard temperature, at constant pressure. Calculate the volume
of the gas.
Sol.: Initial temperature (T1) = 65oC = (273 + 65) K = 338 K ; Initial volume of gas (V1) = 500 cm3
Final temperature of gas (T2) = 0 oC = (0 + 273) = 273 K ; Final volume of gas (V2) = ?
V1 V2 500 V2 500  273
By Charle’s law : T  T   V2   403.85 cm3
1 2 338 273 338
Qn.7: A dry gas occupies a volume of 1500 dm3, at a temperature of –50 oC. At what temperature will its
volume becomes 5216 dm3 when the pressure remains constant ?
Sol.: Initial volume of gas (V1) = 1500 dm3 ; Initial temperature (T1) = –50oC = (–50 + 273) K = 223 K
Final volume of gas (V2) = 5216 dm3 ; Final temperature of gas (T2) = ?
V1 V2 1500 5216 5216  223
By Charle’s law : T  T  223  T  T2 
1500
 775.44 K
1 2 2
Qn.8: A gas is enclosed in a vessel at standard temperature. At what temperature the volume of enclosed gas
is 1/9 of its initial volume, pressure remaining constant ?
Sol.: Let initial volume of gas (V1) = x ; Inital temperature of gas (T1) = 0oC = 273K
x
Final volume  V2   ; Final temperature of gas (T2) = ?
9
V1 V2 x x 273  x
By Charle’s law : T  T  
273 9  T2
T2   30.33 K = 30.33 - 273 = – 242.67oC
1 2 9x
78
2.3 GAY-LUSSAC’S (AMONTON’S) LAW OR PRESSURE - TEMPERATURE LAW

According to Gay Lussac’s law, at constant volume, pressure of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
the absolute temperature.
P  T (at constant V for a fixed amount of gas)
P P P
or  constant or 1  2
T T1 T2
This relationship can be derived from Boyle’s and Charles’law.
Isochore. Pressure versus temperature (K) graph at constant molar volume is called isochore.
2.4 CONCEPT OF GAS EQUATION-PERFECT GAS EQUATION
It has been found that the pressure, volume and temperature of an enclosed gas change simultaneously, when
any of the variables are altered.
A mathematical equation for calculating the volume when the temperature, pressure and amount of a gas
changes simultaneously is called gas equation.
Combining Boyle’s law and Charles’ law.
Consider an enclosed dry gas of volume V at pressure P and temperature T kelvin.
1
By Boyle’s law V  (at constant temperature) ..... (i)
P
By Charles’ law V  T (at constant pressure) ..... (ii)
Combining (i) and (ii)
1 T
V   T or V  K  (K = constant)
P P
PV
or K
T
If the initial volume of an enclosed dry gas is V1 at pressure P1 and temperature T1(K) and the final volume is
V2 at pressure P2 and temperature T2(K), then
P1V1
K (constant) ..... (iii)
T1
P2 V2
 K (constant) ..... (iv)
T2
P1V1 P2 V2
Combining (iii) and (iv) T  T
1 2
Initial pressure  Initial volume Final pressure  Final volume

or 
Initial temperature in kelvin Final temperaturein kelvin
79
Qn.9: 2.5 dm3 of dry nitrogen gas is at a pressure of 740 mm of Hg when the temperature is 35oC. Find the
volume of gas at S.T.P.
Sol.: P1 = 740 mm of Hg ; P2 = 760 mm of Hg ; V1 = 2.5 dm3 ; V2 = ?
T1 = (273 + 35) K = 308 K T2 = 273 K
P1V1 P2 V2
By equation : T  T
1 2
P1V1 T2 740  2.5  273

Volume at S.T.P., V2     2.16 dm 3
T1 P2 308  760
Qn.10: Carbon dioxide occupies a volume of 750 cm3 at S.T.P. Find its volume at 27oC and pressure 730 mm
Hg.
Sol.: P1 = 760 mm Hg ; P2 = 730 mm Hg ; T1 = 273 K ; T2 = 273 + 27 = 300K ; V1 = 750 cm3 ; V2 = ?
P1V1 P2 V2
By equation: T  T
1 2
P1V1 T2 760  750 300

V2      858.05 cm3
T1 P2 273 730
Qn.11: A gas occupies a volume of 730 cm3 at 0oC and 760 mm pressure. If the Kelvin temperature of the gas
is increased by one third and its pressure is doubled, calculate its final volume.
Sol.: P1 = 760 mm ; P2  P1  2  (760  2)  1520 mm ; V1 = 730 cm3 ; V2 = ?
 273 
T1  0o C  273K ; T2   273   K  364 K
 3 
P1V1 P2 V2 P V T 760  730  364
By equation: T  T  V2  1 1  2 
T P 273 1520
 486.67cm3
1 2 1 2
2.5 AVOGADRO’S LAW (VOLUME - AMOUNT RELATIONSHIP)
In 1811, Italian scientist Amedeo Avogadro combined conclusions of Dalton’s atomic theory and Gay Lussac’s
law of combining volumes to form Avogadro’s law. According to this law, equal volumes of all gases under
similar conditions of pressure and temperature contain equal number of molecules.
V  N A (at constant P and T) or V  n
where, NA and n are number of molecules and moles of gas respectively.
The number of molecules in one mole of gas has been determined to be 6.022×1023 and is known as Avogadro’s
constant.
2.6 IDEAL GAS EQUATION
Boyles law, Charles law and Avogadro law can be combined together in a single equation which is known as
ideal gas equation.
Boyle’s law : V  1/ P  ..... (i)
Charle’s law : V  T ..... (ii)
Avogadro’s law : V  n ..... (iii)
Combining equations (i), (ii) and (iii)
nT
V or PV  nT or PV = nRT T ..... (iv)
P
where R is known as universal gas constant or molar gas constant or ideal gas constant.
80
The term ideal gas refers to one which obeys the ideal gas equation at all temperatures and pressures. However,
since no gas obeys this equation rigidly, they are named as real or non-ideal gases.
Real gases behave almost ideally at low pressure and high temperature.
2.6.1 NATURE OF MOLAR GAS CONSTANT (R)
Ideal gas equation for one gram mole, PV = RT
P  V Pressure  Volume
or R 
T Temperature
Force Force
Pressure   and Volume = (Length)3
Area  Length 2
Force
  Length 
3
 Length  Force  Length

2
Work
Therefore, R   
Temperature Temperature Temperature
Thus, the value of R should be expressed in units of work per Kelvin per mole.
Numerical vlaues of R
The value of R depends on the units in which pressure and volume are measured.
a) In litre atmosphere : R = 0.0821 litre atm K–1 mol–1
1bar  22.7 dm 2
Taking P = 1 bar so that V = 22.7 dm3, R   0.083bar dm 2 K 1 mol1
1mol  273K
b) In C.G.S. system: R = 8.314 × 107 erg K–1 mol–1
c) In S.I. system : R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 (107ergs = 1joule)
d) In calories : R = 1.987 calorie K-1 mol-1 (4.184 joules = 1 calorie)
Qn.12: Calculate the temperature at which 56 g N2 gas occupy a volume of 20 L at 2.5 atmospheres.
Sol.: 56 g of N2 = 2 moles of N2
By ideal gas law PV=nRT
PV 2.5 atm  20 L
T   304.5K
nR 2mole  0.0821L atm K 1mol1
2.7 GRAHAM’S LAW OF DIFFUSION
Diffusion and Effusion of Gases. Diffusion is the phenomenon by which two gases in contact with each
other readily intermix without the aid of any external agency. Such a phenomenon of intermixing of two or more
gases, irrespective of density and without the help of external agency is called diffusion.
Effusion is a process in which a gas escapes from high pressure region to low pressure region through
microscopic holes or pinholes.
Volume of gas diffused / effused
Rate of diffusion/effusion 
Time taken
According to Graham’s law of diffusion, the rate of diffusion of a gas at constant pressure and temperature is
inversely proportional to the square root of its density or molar mass.
81
1 1
r or r  (at constant P and T)
d M
The rates of diffusion/effusion of two different gases at similar conditions of temperature and pressure are
inversely proportional to the square root of their densities or molar masses. For two gases having densities d1
and d2 and rates of diffusion r1 and r2 under similar conditions of temperature and pressure,
1 1 r1 d2 r1 M2
r1  and r2    or  (at constant P and T)
d1 d2 r2 d1 r2 M1
The rates of diffusion of two gases under different pressures is given by
r1 P1 d 2 P1 M2
 
r2 P2 d1 P2 M1 (at constant T)
Volume diffused  V  Moles diffused  n  Distance travelled in a narrow tube  d 

Further, r   =
Time taken Time taken Time taken
(i) Rates of diffusion at constant P and T.
r1 V1 / t1 V1  t 2 d2 M2
   
r 2 V2 / t 2 V2  t1 d1 M1
when V1 and V2 are the volumes diffused in time t1 and t2
(ii) when n1 and n2 are the number of moles diffused in time t1 and t2
r1 n1 / t1 n1  t 2 d2 M2
   
r 2 n 2 / t 2 n 2  t1 d1 M1
(iii) when l1 and l2 are the distances travelled by molecules through a narrow tube in time t1 and t2
r1 l /t l t d2 M2
 1 1  1 2  
r 2 l2 / t 2 l 2  t 1 d1 M1
Importance of Graham’s Law of Diffusion
(i) In the separation of gases having different densities or molecular masses.
(ii) In the separation of isotopes of elements, e.g., mixture of 235UF6 and 238UF6.
(iii) To determine density/molecular mass of unknown gas by comparing its rate of diffusion with a known gas.
Qn.13 : Which will diffuse faster, ammonia or carbon dioxide? What is their relative rates of diffusion?
(mol. mass of NH3 = 17, mol. mass of CO2 = 44)
1 1
Sol.: Rate of diffusion of NH3    0.2425
M 17
1 1
Rate of diffusion of CO 2    0.1507
M 44
Rate of diffusion will be greater for ammonia.
rNH3 M CO2 44
Relative rates     1.609
rCO2 M NH3 17
82
Qn.14: Equal volume of two gases A and B diffuse in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. If molar mass of A = 80,
calculate the molar mass of B.
Sol.: Suppose the volume of each gas diffused = VmL, then according to Graham’s law
rA v / 20 MB 10 MB 1 MB
    ;  or M B  20g mol1
rB v /10 80 20 80 2 80
Qn.15: 50 cm of CO2 diffuses through a porous plug in 110 seconds. What volume of O2 will diffuse under
3
similar conditions in 80 seconds?

Sol.: V1 = 50 cm3 ; V2 = V ; t1 = 110 sec ; t2 = 80 sec ; M1 = 44 ; M2 = 32
V1 t 2 M2 50 80 32
      V  42.64 cm3
t1 V2 M1 110 V 44
Qn.16: One mole of nitrogen gas at 1.1 atm takes 45 seconds to diffuse through a pinhole, whereas one mole
of an unknown compound at 1.5 atm takes 74 seconds to diffuse through the same hole. Calculate molecular
mass of the compound.
Sol.: M1 = 28 ; M2 = ? ; P1 = 1.1 atm ; P2 = 1.5 atm ; t1 = 45 s ; t2 = 74 s ; n1 = n2 = 1
r1 M 2 P1 n1 t 2 M 2 P1 1 74 M 1.1
        
r2 M1 P2 t1 n 2 M1 P2  45 1 28 1.5
 M  140.79 u
2.8 DALTON’S LAW OF PARTIAL PRESSURES

A mixture of gases that do not react with one another behave like a single gas. For example, air can be treated
as a single gas when we use the gas laws to predict its properties.
Daltons law of partial pressures states that the total pressure exerted by a gaseous mixture is equal to the sum
of the partial pressures of the components present in the mixture. Thus,
PM  P1  P2  P3  ..... ..... (i)
where PM is the total pressure and P1, P2, ..... are the partial pressures of the individual gases.
Partial pressure is the pressure of that component gas if it alone occupied the entire volume of the original
mixture at the same temperature. Thus, partial pressure of an individual gas is equal to the total pressure
multiplied by the mole fraction of that gas.
Let n1, n2, n3, ....., nn are moles of gases 1, 2, 3,..... filled in a container of volume V at temperature T, then,
n RT
P1  1 (R is gas constant) ..... (ii)
V
n RT
P2  2 ...... (iii)
V
n RT n 2 RT
 PM  P1  P2  P3  .....  1   .....
V V
RT
or PM   n1  n 2  ..... ..... (iv)
V
P1 n1  n1 

PM  n 1  n 2  ....    mole fraction 
 n1  n 2  ..... 
 P1  PM  mole fraction of 1 , i.e.
Partial pressure of any constituent gas = Total pressure × Mole fraction of that constituent.
83
Qn.17: Two gases A and B of molecular weights 63u and 36u respectively are enclosed in a container. The
weight of A is 0.50g and that of B is 0.32 g. The total pressure of the mixture is 760 mm Hg. Calculate the
partial pressure of the two gases.
Sol.: Given : Weight of A = 0.50 g ; Weight of B = 0.32 g ; Mol. weight of A = 63 ; Mol. weight of B = 36; PM
= 760 mm, PA = Partial pressure of A and Pb = Partial pressure of B
By Dalton’s law, PA = PM × mole fraction of A
0.5 / 63
PA  760   358.49 mm Hg
 0.5 0.32 
  
 63 36 
 PB  PM  PA  760  358.49  401.51mm Hg

2.9 THE KINETIC THEORY OF GASES
In order to explain the observed behaviour of gases, a theoretical model was put forward by Bernoulli in 1738.
This model was further developed by Clausius, Maxwell, Kroning, Boltzmann and others. In the final complete
form of the model was put forward by Clausius in 1857 and is known as ‘Kinetic molecular theory of gases’.
It is also called ‘Dynamic particle model, and ‘Microscopic model’.
Postulates of Kinetic Molecular Theory
1. A gas consists of a large number of minute particles, called atoms or molecules. The atoms or molecules are
so small that their actual volume is negligible when compared to the empty space between them. They are
considered as point masses. This explains the very large compressibility of gases.
2. The molecules are supposed to be moving continuously in all possible directions with different speeds. If the
particles were at rest and occupied fixed positions, then gas should have fixed shape and geometry and which
is not there.
3. Molecules keep on colliding with one another and with the walls of the vessel. The pressure exerted by a gas
is due to the bombardment of molecules on the walls of the vessel.
4. The distance between the gas molecules being large, there is no effective force of attraction or repulsion
between them.
5. The force of gravitation on the molecules is negligible.
6. The molecular collisions are perfectly elastic so that there is no net loss of energy when gas molecules collide
with one another or against the walls of the vessel.
7. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the
gas.
These postulates are applicable to ideal gases and are only approximately true for real gases.
2.9.1 THE KINETIC GAS EQUATION
Based on the postulates of kinetic theory of gases, a mathematical expression, known as kinetic gas equation
has been derived. It is usually written as
1
PV  mnu 2
3
Where ‘m’ is the mass of the gas molecule, ‘n’ is the number of molecules in given a volume ‘V’ of the gas, ‘u’
is the root mean square speed of the gas molecules and ‘P’ is the pressure exerted by the gas.
Relation between average kinetic energy and absolute temperature.
84
1
From kinetic gas equation PV  mnu 2
3
1 2 1
For 1 mole of a gas, m × n = M. molar mass of gas. Hence, PV  Mu 2   Mu 2
3 3 2
1 2
But Mu 2  E k . Total kinetic energy of 1 mole of the gas. Hence, PV  E k
2 3
2 3
Further, PV = RT for 1 mole of a gas  RT  E k or E k  RT
3 2
3 RT 3
Average kinetic energy per molecule of the gas  E k    kT
2 NA 2
where NA is Avagadros’s number and k the Boltzman constant.
2.9.2 DIFFERENT TYPES OF MOLECULAR SPEEDS
The molecules of a gas are in constant motion and their speeds constantly change due to collisions. For
quantitative description of the behaviour of gases, three different types of molecular speeds are considered.
a) Most Probable Speed
b) Average Speed
c) Root Mean Square Speed
a) Most Probable Speed (ump). Most probable speed of a gas at a given temperature is defined as the speed
possessed by the maximum fraction of the molecules at that temperature.
2RT
Most probable speed (ump) =
M
b) Average Speed (uavg). It is defined as the arithmetic mean of the speeds of different molecules of the gas
at a given temperature. If all the n molecules of the gas are considered to possess different speeds, say
1 ,  2 , 3 ,  n cm / sec . then,
1 ,  2 ,  3 ,  .....   n
u avg 
n
On the other hand, if n1 molecules of the gas have speed 1cm sec 1 , n2 molecules have speed 2 cm / sec and
so on, then,
n11  n 2  2  n 3 3  .....
u avg 
n1  n 2  n 3  .....
Average speed uavg is related to temperature as:
8RT
u avg 
M
c) Root Mean Square Speed (u)
It is defined as the square root of the mean of the squares of the speeds of different molecules of the gas. If all
the molecules are assumed to have different velocities viz, 1 ,  2 ,  3 .....,  n cm/sec then,
12   22   32
u
n
85
On the other hand, if n1 molecules have velocity 1 cm sec–1, n2 molecules have velocity  2 cm sec–1,
n2 molecules have velocity  3 cm sec–1 and so on, then
n112  n 2 22  n 3 32  .....
u
n1  n 2  n 3  .....
Root mean square speed u is related to temperature as:
3RT
u
M
Figure - 05 Molecular speeds versus Fraction of molecules

Distribution of molecular speeds of Cl2 and N2 at 300K
From the above relationships, it is clear that the speed of a gas molecule at a given temperature also depends
on its molecular mass. Lighter the molecules, greater is their speed. Thus, nitrogen which is lighter than chlorine
has greater most probable velocity.
Relationship between different types of molecular speeds
The three different kinds of molecular speeds are related to each other as :
2RT 8RT 3RT

Most probable speed : Average speed : RMS speed :: : :
M M M
8
 2: : 3  1:1.128 :1.224

Qn.18: Calculate the root mean square velocity of a molecule of carbon dioxide at STP. What is its most
probable velocity?
Sol.: Volume of 1 mole of CO2 at STP = 22400 mL; Molecular mass of CO2 = 44 amu
P = 76 × 13.6 × 981 dynes cm–2
3PV 3  76 13.6  981 22400 = 3.935 × 104 cm sec–1

Root mean square velocity, u  
M 44
Most probable velocity = 0.82 × u = 0.82 × 3.935 × 104 = 3.227 × 104 cm sec–1
Qn.19: Calculate the root mean square speed and most probable speed, average speed and most probable
speed of O2 molecules at 27oC.
86
Sol.: R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1; T = (273 + 27) = 300 K; M of O2 = 32 × 10–3 kg mol–1
3RT 3  8.314  300

U rms   3
 483.56 m s 1
M 32 10
8RT 8  8.314  300

Average speed Uavg   3
 445.62 m s 1
M 3.14  32 10
or Uavg = 0.921 × Urms = 0.921 × 483.56 = 445.36 m s–1
Most probable speed Ump = 0.816 × 483.56 = 394.54 m s–1
Qn.20: Calculate the total and average kinetic energy of 1 mole of O2 molecules at 27oC
(R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1).
3 3
Sol.: Total K.E.  nRT  1mol  8.314 J K 1 mol1  300 K = 3741.3 J
2 2
3 RT 3 8.314 J K 1  300 K
Average K.E.    = 6.21 × 10–21 J molecule–1
2 N A 2 6.02  1023 molecular mol1
3 3
or RT mol 1   8.314 J K 1 mol1  300 K  3741.3 J mol1
2 2
Qn.21: The density of a gas is 1.251 g per litre at STP. Calculate the average and RMS velocities of the
molecules.
Sol.: (a) Given : P = 1 atm = 76×13.6×981 dynes cm-2 ; D = 1.251 g/litre  0.001251g / ml
3PV 3P 3  76 13.6  981

RMS velocity, u   u u = 4.931 × 104 cm sec-1.
M D 0.001251
b) Calculation of Average velocity
Average velocity = 0.921 × u = 0.921 × 4.931 × 104 = 4.5429 × 104 cm sec-1
2.10 DEVIATIONS FROM IDEAL BEHAVIOUR
It has been observed that real gases do not obey the gas laws or the ideal gas equation under all conditions of
temperature and pressure. This is because some of the postulates of kinetic theory do not hold good under all
conditions. Two main postulates which need critical examination are the following:
(i) According to kinetic theory, the volume occupied by gaseous molecules themselves is negligibly small
as compared to the total volume occupied by the gas. This postulate holds good only under specific
conditions of temperature and pressure (i.e., at low pressure and high temperature).
At very high pressure, the volume occupied by the gas molecules is not negligible when compared to the total
volume occupied by the gas. This is also true when the temperature is very low.
(ii) According to kinetic theory, the force of attraction between gas molecules is negligible. This postulate
also holds good at high temperatures and low pressures.
When the pressure is high or the temperature is low, the volume becomes very small. The gas molecules come
closer to each other so that the intermolecular forces of attraction become appreciable and cannot be ignored.
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Suitable corrections are applied to ideal gas equation to make it applicable to real gases.
2.10.1 EQUATION OF STATE FOR REAL GASES - VAN DER WAALS EQUATION
To explain the behaviour of real gases, J. D. van der Waals (1873) modified the ideal gas equation by applying
suitable corrections so as to take into account
(i) the volume of the gas molecules, and
(ii) the forces of attraction between the gas molecules.
The van der Waals equation may be written as
 an 2 
 P    V  nb   nRT
 V2 
The constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are known as van der Waals’ constants which are characteristic of the gas and
independent of temperature and pressure. van der Waals equation is obeyed by real gases over a wide range
of temperatures and pressures and hence this equation is called equation of state for real gases.
The temperature at which a real gas behaves like an ideal gas over an appreciable range of pressure is called
Boyle temperature.
2.11 LIQUEFACTION OF GASES AND CRITICAL POINT
A gas may be liquefied either by lowering the temperature (cooling) or by increasing the pressure. The effect of
temperature is more important because there is a temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by
applying pressure. This temperature is known as the critical temperature (Tc).
Thus, the critical temperature (Tc) of a gas may be defined as that temperature above which it cannot
be liquefied howsoever high the pressure may be.
For example, critical temperature of carbon dioxide is 304.10 K. At critical temperature, CO2 can be liquefied
by applying a pressure of 73.9 bar. This pressure is called critical pressure (Pc) for CO2.
Thus, critical pressure (Pc) may be defined as the minimum pressure required to liquefy a gas at its
critical temperature.
The volume of 1 mole of CO2 at critical temperature and critical pressure is 0.0956 dm3. Thus, the critical
volume of CO2 is 0.0956 dm3 mol-1.
The volume occupied by one mole of gas at its critical temperature and pressure is known as the
critical volume (Vc).
Critical temperature, critical pressure and critical volume are together known as critical constants of the gas.
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QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. Which among the following units is used for measuring pressure?
A) atmosphere B) pascals C) bar D) all of these
2. 1 litre is equal to
A) 10 dm3 B) 1 m3 C) 103 dm3 D) 103 cm3
3. Process of converting vapour into liquid is known as
A) condensation B) vaporisation C) freezing D) melting
4. How many of the known elements are gases?
A) 5 B) 16 C) 11 D) 21
5. Use of hot air ballons in sports and meteorological observations is an application of
A) Boyle’s law B) Avogadro’s law C) Dalton’s law D) Charle’s law
6. What changes occur on blowing air into a balloon at constant temperature?
A) pressure increases, volume decreases B) pressure decreases, volume increases
C) both pressure and volume increases D) both pressure and volume decreases
7. Absolute zero can be defined as the temperature at which
A) pressure becomes zero B) volume becomes zero
C) mass becomes zero D) density becomes zero
8. All gases are supposed to occupy zero volume when the temperature is reduced to
A) 273oC B) 300 K C) –273oC D) 0oC
9. According to Gay-Lussac’s law
T T nRT
A) Pt  po B) Vt  Vo C) P  D) None of these
273 273 V
10. For n moles of ideal gas, the equation of state may be written as
A) PT/n = RV B) PV = (RT)2 C) P/T = nR/V D) PV = RT/n
11. The value of gas constant R in SI unit is:
A) 83 erg K–1 mol–1 B) 0.082 litre atm C) 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 D) 0.987 cal mol–1 K–1
12. Value of gas constant R in the ideal gas equation PV = nRT depends upon
A) temperature of the gas B) pressure of the gas
C) units in which P, V and T are measured D) nature of the gas
13. Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal number of particles. This is the
statement of
A) Dalton’s law B) Charles’s law
C) Avogadro’s law D) Graham’s law
14. Rate of diffusion of a gas is
A) directly proportional to its density
B) directly proportional to its molecular mass
C) directly proportional to the square root of its density
D) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass
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15. Kinetic energy of molecules is highest in

A) gases B) liquids C) solids D) solutions
16. Which of the following relation is true about ideal gas?
A) K.E = 3 PV/2N B) K.E = 3/2 RT C) K.E = 3 RT/PV D) K.E = 2/3 KT
17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that tiny particles called molecules:
A) possess average KE proportional to absolute temperature
B) exert no force during collisions
C) exert attractive force on each other D) contain constant KE at all temperature
18. At the same temperatures and pressure, the rate of diffusion of which gas among the following is the same as
that of N2
A) CO2 B) CO C) NO D) CH4
19. The speed possessed by majority of gaseous molecules is:
A) average speed B) most probable speed C) RMS speed D) none of these
20. At constant volume, for a fixed number of mole of a gas, the pressure of the gas increases with rise of
temperature due to:
A) increase in average molecular speed B) increase in number of moles
C) increase in molecular attraction D) decrease in mean free path
pV
21. For ideal gas, the ratio is always
nRT
A) zero B) 1 C) greater than 1 D) less than 1
22. Total energy of one mole of an ideal gas (monoatomic) at 27oC is:
A) 600 cal B) 900 cal C) 800 cal D) 300 cal
23. Kinetic theory of gases proves
A) only Boyle’s law B) only Charle’s law C) only Avogadro’s law D) all of these
24. At any particular time, different particles in the gas
A) have same speed and kinetic energy B) have same speed but different kinetic energies
C) have different speeds but same kinetic energy
D) have different speeds and hence different kinetic energies
25. At constant temperature, for a given mass of an ideal gas
A) the ratio of volume and temperature always remains constant
B) volume always remains constant C) pressure always remains constant
D) the product of pressure and volume always remains constant
26. According to kinetic theory of gases, the collisions between molecules of a gas
A) occur in a zig-zag path B) occur only in one direction
C) change velocity and energy D) are perfectly elastic
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27. Which among the following gases cannot be liquefied

A) inert gases B) ideal gas C) hydrogen D) methane
28. Pressure of air at sea level is
A) one atomosphere B) 76 cm of Hg C) 760 mm of Hg D) All are correct
29. The total pressure of a mixture of two gases is:
A) the sum of the partial pressures B) the difference between the partial pressures
C) the product of the partial pressures D) the ratio of the partial pressures
30. Critical temperature of the gas is the temperature
A) below which it cannot be liquefied B) above which it cannot be liquefied
C) at which it occupies 22.4 L of volume D) at which one mole of it occupies volume of 22.4 L
LEVEL II
1. If the absolute temperature of a gas having volume V cm3 is doubled and the pressure is reduced to half, the
final volume will be
A) 0.25 V B) 0.50 V C) 2 V2 D) 4 V
2. A fixed mass of a gas at NTP occupies 5 litres. The temperature at which the volume becomes double for the
same mass of gas at the same pressure is
A) 273 K B) –273oC C) 273oC D) 546oC
3. A flask of capacity 2 L is heated from 35oC to 45oC. What volume of air will escape from the flask?
A) 10 mL B) 20 mL C) 60 mL D) 50 mL
4. A cylinder is filled with oxygen at –23 C and at a pressure of 3 atm. What is the internal pressure when the
o
temperature 30oC ?
A) 2.64 atm. B) 1.64 atm. C) 1 atm. D) 3.64 atm.
5. Which of the following relationships for various gas law is not correct?
V0 V1 V2 P P P1T1 P2 T2
A) Vt  V0  t B)  (constant P) C) 1  2 (constant V) D) 
273 T1 T2 T1 T2 V1 V2
6. There is 10 litre of a gas at STP. Which of the following new conditions keep the volume constant?
A) 273 K and 2 atm pressure B) 273oC and 2 atm pressure
C) 546oC and 0.5 atm pressure D) 0oC and 0.0 atm pressure
7. Which of the following graphs is true for the given mass of a gas at constant temperature?
A) B) C) D)
8. How many moles of nitrogen will be present in 2.24 L of nitrogen gas at STP?
A) 9.9 B) 0.1 C) 0.001 D) 1.00
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9. A closed container contains equal number of moles of two gases X and Y at a total pressure of 710 mm of Hg.
If gas X is removed from the mixture, the pressure will
A) become double B) become half C) remain same D) become one-fourth
10. The rates of diffusion of O2 and H2 at same P and T are in the ratio:
A) 1:4 B) 1:8 C) 1:16 D) 4:1
11. A gas X diffuses three times faster than another gas Y, the ratio of their vapour densities i.e.,  x :  y is
A) 1/3 B) 1/9 C) 1/6 D) 1/12
12. Four molecules of a gas have speeds of 1, 2, 3, 4 cm s respectively. The root mean square velocity is
–1
A) 7.5 B) 30 C) 30 D) 15
13. Helium atom is two times heavier then a hydrogen molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of a helium
atom is
A) same as that of a hydrogen molecule B) half that of a hydrogen molecule
C) Two times that of a hydrogen molecule D) Four times that of a hydrogen molecule
14. Which of the following has maximum root mean square velocity at the same temperature?
A) SO2 B) CO2 C) O2 D) H2
15. When gases are heated from 20oC to 40oC at constant pressure, then the volume:
A) increase by the same magnitude B) become double
C) increase in the ratio of their molecular masses D) increase but to different extent
16. At 298 K the rms speed of the molecules of a certain diatomic gas is found to be 60 m/s. The gas is:
A) H2 B) F2 C) O2 D) Cl2
17. The ratio of most probable velocity to the average velocity is
A) π/2 B) 2/π C) π /2 D) 2/ π
18. When a gas is compressed keeping temperature constant, it results in
A) increase in speed of gaseous molecules B) increase in collision among gaseous molecules
C) decrease in speed of gaseous molecules D) decrease in collision among gaseous molecules
19. 2.8 g of N2, 2.8 g CO, 4.4 g CO2 are found to exert a pressure of 700 torr. Find partial pressure of N2 gas
in the mixture.
A) 280.8 torr B) 233.3 torr C) 300 torr D) 333.8 torr
20. .................. conditions to liquify a gas?
A) high temperature and high pressure B) low temperature and high pressure
C) low temperature and low pressure D) high temperature and low pressure
LEVEL III
Multiple Correct Answer Type
1. Which of these statements are true?
A) gases have high density B) gases can be compressed more than solids
C) gases have very specific shapes D) gases undergoes diffussion fastest
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2. Which among the following is/are incorrect?
dRT nT
A) density and molar mass : M  B) universal gas constant : R 
P PV
P2 V1 V1T2
C) volume and pressure : V2  D) volume and temperature : V2 
P1 T1
3. Which of the following statements are correct?

A) equal masses of all gases occupy the same volume at STP
B) an ideal gas cannot be liquefied
C) kinetic energy of gaseous molecules is zero at 0oC
D) gases having very low critical temperatures often show near ideal behaviour at room temperature.
4. To which of the following mixtures of gases does the Dalton’s law of partial pressure are applicable?
A) H2 and He B) NH3 and HCl
C) N2 and H2 D) N2 and O2
Numerical Type
5. What will be the volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27oC and 0.821 atmospheric pressure?
6. A gas occupies 3.25 litres at 0oC. What volume will it occupy at –20oC, pressure remaining constant?
Matching Column Type
7. Column I Column II
A) P = p1 + p2 + p3 + …….. p) Boyle's law
B) P 1V1 = P 2V2 = P 3V3 = ... q) Ideal gas equation
 a 
C)  V  b  P   RT
 V 2  r) Dalton's law of partial pressure
D) PV = nRT s) Equation for real gases
8. Column I Column II
8RT
A) Root mean square velocity
p) M
3
B) Average velocity RT
q) 2
2RT
C) Most probable velocity
r) M
3RT
D) KE per mole of a gas
s) M
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Statement Type
Each of these questions contains two statements: Statement 1 and Statement 2. Each of these questions has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is Correct explanation for Statement 1.
B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement 1.
C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
D) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
9. Statement 1 : The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the volume at constant temperature and n.
Statement 2 : The volume of the gas is directly proportional to n at constant temperature and pressure.
10. Statement 1 : The effusion rate of oxygen is smaller than that of nitrogen.
Statement 2 : Molecular size of nitrogen is smaller than that of oxygen.
11. Statement 1 : Different gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure have same root
mean square speed.
Statement 2 : Average K.E. of a gas is directly proportional to temperature in kelvin.
Paragraph
Kinetic theory for gases is a generalization offered by Maxwell, Boltzmann, Clausius, etc., to explain the
behaviour of ideal gases. This theory assumes that ideal gas molecules neither attract nor repel each other.
Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. A gas equation
called kinetic gas equation was derived on the basis of kinetic theory.
1
PV  mNu 2
3
12. Which of the following do not pertain to the postulates of kinetic theory of gases?
A) the molecular collisions are perfectly elastic
B) speed of gas molecules are ever changing
C) pressure exerted by the gas is due to the collision of molecules with the walls of the container
D) kinetic energy of a gas is given by the sum of 273 and temperature in Celsius scale
13. The kinetic energy of 2.8 g of nitrogen gas at 127oC is nearly:
A) 498.84 J B) 400.8 J C) 5 J D) 41 J
Fill in the blanks
14. At constant volume, as the temperature of a system increases, the pressure of the gases...........
1 th
15. At constant temperature, when the volume of a gas is reduced to , the pressure will increase ........... times.
4
16. A gas that follows Boyle’s law, Charle’s law and Avogadro’s law is called .............
17. Gas molecules at higher temperatures have more ............ than at cooler temperatures.
18. The smell of perfume gradually spreads across a room due to ............
19. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas at ......... temperature and ......... pressure.
20. The volume occupied by one mole of a gas at its critical temperature and critical pressure is known as ..........
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BIOLOGY
CHAPTER - 01
DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISM
Biodiversity or Biological Diversity

Biodiversity refers to the variety of living organisms present on a particular region. Eastern Ghats,
Western Ghats, Tropical rain forests, Nilgiri mountain range and Himalayas are Biodiversity rich regions
of India. It is estimated that more than 5 million species are present on earth. Of these about 1.7 to 1.8
million species are known and described. Every year several new species are described and added to the
list. Since study of all organisms is nearly impossible, they are classified into groups for the convenient
study.
Taxonomy
 It is a branch of biology which deals with identification, nomenclature and classification of
organisms. Carolus Linnaeus is called the father of taxonomy.
1. Identification: the method of determining that a species (organism) belongs to a recognized taxon.
The method of nomenclature or naming is merely possible when the organism is described correctly
2. Nomenclature
 System of naming an individual
 Carolus Linnaeus introduced the Binomial nomenclature as a method of naming organisms in
taxonomy.
It consists of two parts.
 The first part is the Genus name which starts with capital letter.
 The second part is the species name, which is not capitalised.
 Scientific name of Human is Homo sapiens.
3. Classification
 The method of arranging organisms into groups or sets on the basis of similarities and differences is
called classification.
 It is a well established fact that all the life forms have evolved from a common ancestor. Scientists
have proved that the life begun on the earth in the form of simple life forms. During the course of time,
complex organism evolved from them. So, classification is also based on evolution.
a) Importance of classification:
 It makes the study of wide variety of organisms easy and in systematic manner.
 It helps to understand how the different organisms have evolved with time.
 It helps to understand the relationships between different groups of organisms.
 It forms a base for the study of other biological sciences, like biogeography.
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Advantages of classification:
(i) Classification facilitates the identification of organisms.
(ii) Helps to establish the relationship among various groups of organisms.
(iii) Helps to study the phylogeny and evolutionary history of organisms.
4. Taxonomic Hierarchy
 It is the frame work by which taxonomic groups are arranged in definite order from higher to lower
categories
 Hierarchical classification was based on the similarities and dissimilarities in the characteristics of
the living organisms. Organisms having similar characteristics were placed in a similar category.
 Linnaeus proposed a classification system by arranging organisms into taxonomic groups at different
levels according to the characteristics they have. The groups or the levels from top to bottom are:
Kingdom
Phylum (for animals) / Division (for plants)
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
 Kingdom is the highest level of classification which consists of a number of phyla or divisions (in
case of plants) with similar characteristics.
 Phylum/Division is a level of classification which consists of a number of classes with similar
characteristics.
 Class: Consists of a number of orders with similar characteristics.
 Order: Consists of a number of families with similar characteristics.
 Family: Consists of a number of Genus with similar characteristics.
 Genus: Consists of a number of species with similar characteristics.
 Species: A species is a group of organisms with similar characteristics and can interbreed to give
rise to a fertile offspring.
 Species is the basic unit of classification.
 Taxon : Any rank or category in the hierarchical order of classification eg., Kingdom, Class
 Carolus Linnaeus: i) Author of the book Systema Naturae and Species Plantarum
ii) Father of Taxonomy
iii) Introduced Binomial nomenclature
iv) Out lined the artificial systems of classification.
v) Introduced two kingdom classification.
 ICBN: International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
 ICZN: International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
4. System of Classification
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Different systems of classification are:

(i) Artificial Classification: based on one or a few easily observable characters of plants, such as habit
(trees, shrubs, herbs, etc.) or floral characters (particularly the number of stamens and carpels
 Earliest systems of classification
 Carolus Linnaeus outlined the artificial system of classification
(ii) Natural Classification
 Based upon overall resemblances, mostly morphology.
 The closely related plants should naturally be grouped together.
 Presented by A. L. de Jessieu in 1789.
 Bentham and Hooker followed natural system of classification
(iii) Phylogenetic Classification
 Based on evolutionary sequences as well as genetic relationship among organisms
 Charles Darwin has given stimulus for the emergence of phylogenetic system of classification.
Classification of Organisms
(i) Two kingdom classifications:
 Introduced by Carolus Linnaeus in 1758.
 Classified the living organisms into two kingdoms as Plant Kingdom and Animal Kingdom.
(ii) Three kingdom classification.
 Given by Earnst Haeckel
 Classified the living organisms into three kingdoms
1) Kingdom Protista 2) Kingdom Plantae 3) Kingdom Animalia
(iii) Four kingdom classification.
 Given by Copeland
 Included kingdom Monera
1) Kingdom Monera 2) Kingdom Protista 3) Kingdom Plantae 4) Kingdom Animalia
(iv) Five kingdom classification: Robert Whittaker (1969) further classified the organisms into five
kingdoms as
1) Kingdom Monera 2) Kingdom Protista 3) Kingdom Fungi
4) Kingdom Plantae 5) Kingdom Animalia.
 He classified organisms on the basis of
1) Complexity of cell structure
2) Complexity of body organization
3) Mode of nutrition
4) Phylogenetic relationships
 The five kingdoms and their key characteristics are given below:
1. Kingdom Monera
 These are prokaryotes; which means nucleus is not enveloped by nuclear membrane. Membrane
bound cell organelles are absent.
 They may or may not have cell wall.
 They can be autotrophic or heterotrophic.
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 All organisms of this kingdom are unicellular.

Examples: Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Blue green algae (cyanobacteria) and Mycoplasma.
Archaebacteria
 Consists of the organisms surviving in extremely adverse conditions like extreme temperatue, high
salinity, in the absence of oxygen etc.
 They are considered to be the most ancient living organism present on the planet.
Eubacteria
 Consists of all the bacteria that survive in a normal environment.
 All the major helpful and pathogenic bacteria we know today fall under this category
 Discovered by Anton von Leeuwenhoek
 They are prokaryotic,unicellular and heterotropic in mode of nutrition
 The cell wall is made up of Peptidoglycan or mucopeptide
 Bacteria are classified into five groups according to their basic shapes: spherical (cocci), rod (bacilli),
spiral (spirilla), comma (vibrios) or corkscrew (spirochaetes). They can exist as single cells, in
pairs, chains or clusters.
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Cyanobacteria
 Cyanobacteria are a group of photosynthetic bacteria,
 Live in a wide variety of moist soils and water either freely or in a symbiotic relationship with plants or
lichen-forming fungi (as in the lichen genus Peltigera)
 Some of which are nitrogen-fixing.
2. Kingdom Protista
 These are eukaryotes and unicellular.
 Some organisms use cilia or flagella for locomotion.
 They can be autotrophic or heterotrophic.
 Examples: Plants like unicellular algae, diatoms, animals like protozoans (Amoeba, Paramecium,
Euglena).
3. Kingdom Fungi
 Fungi are eukaryotic, non-vascular, non-motile and heterotrophic organisms.
 Fungi lack chlorophyll and hence cannot perform photosynthesis.
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 Lack true roots, leaves and stems (Thallus).

 Body of fungus is called mycelium which is made up of tiny filaments called hyphae .
 Mostly multicellular (hyphae) - some unicellular (yeast)
 Cell wall is made up of chitin.
 Food is stored in the form of glycogen
 They reproduce by means of spores.
 Decomposers of ecosystem.
 e.g., Moulds (Rhizopus),Yeast (Saccharomyces), Mushroom (Agaricus)
4. Kingdom Plantae
 These are multicellular and autotrophs.
 Presence of chlorophyll is a distinct characteristic of plants, because of which they are capable of
taking out photosynthesis.
 Cell wall is present.
 They include photosynthetic algae, green plants etc.
5. Kingdom Animalia
 These are eukaryotic, multicellular and heterotrophic organisms.
 Cell wall is absent.
BASIS OF CLASSIFICATION
PLANT KINGDOM
CRYPTOGAMAE PHANEROGAME
THALLOPHYTA BRYOPHYTA PTERIDOPHYTA GYMNOSPERMAE ANGIOSPERMAE
ALGAE
MONOCOT DICOT
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SUB KINDOM : CRYPTOGAMAE

 Lower plants
 Flowerless, Seedless Plants.
 Reproductive organs are hidden till they reproduce
I) Division Thallophyta:
 These are the lowermost plants of the plant kingdom.
 Plant body is thallus. i.e., plant body is not differentiated as roots, stem and leaves.
 No vascular system.
 No embryo formation.
 Dominant phase is gametophytic
 Three classes of Thallophyta are
A) Algae
 Chief characteristics of algae are:
 Mostly aquatic found both in marine and freshwater. Some are terrestrial
 Autotrophic,Photosynthetic containing pigments like chlorophyll ,carotenoids, xanthophyll etc.
 unicellular (Chlamydomonas) colonial (Volvox) filamentous (Ulothrix).
 Cell wall is made up of cellulose.
 Sex organs are unicellular.
 Food is stored in the form of starch.
 Reproduction: Vegetative, Asexual and Sexual reproduction.
 Algae are classified in to several categories namely Green, Brown, Red algae, etc.
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Table: Comparison between Alge and Fungi

Algae Fungi
1 They c ontain photos ynthetic pigm ents. Photos ynthetic pigm ents are absent.
2 Autotrophic. Heterotrophic.
3 Most of them are aquatic in habitat. Mos t of them are terrestrial.
4 The c ell wall is m ade up of Cellulose. The c ell wall is m ade up of chitin.
5 It c ontains starc h as a stored food It contains glycogen and oil as the
m aterial. stored food m aterial.
C) Lichens
The symbiotic association between algae and fungi.
 Algal component is phycobiont.
 Fungal component is mycobiont.
 Algal and fungal components live in a truly intimate symbiotic relationship.
 The main plant body of the lichen is thallus
 the major portion of the thallus is occupied by the fungal component. The fungal component produces
its own reproductive structures.
 The algal partner makes the food by the process of photosynthesis.
 e.g., Parmelia, Usnea
Mycorrhiza
 A mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between a fungus with in the root system of higher plant
 The plant supplies organic molecules such as sugars them to the fungus, and the fungus in turn
provide water and mineral nutrients, such as phosphorus, taken from the soil.
(ii) Division Bryophyta
 known as "amphibians of the plant kingdom" (because water is essential for fertilization).
 Plant body is thallus - like, prostrate or erect.
 They possess hairy - root like structure known as Rhizoids.
 Absence of true roots, stems or leaves.
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 Main plant body of bryophyte is haploid in nature. This is known as gametophyte which produces
gametes.
 Presence of multicellular sex organs.
 Female sex organ is known as archegonium which is flask shaped. It produces egg.
 Male sex organ is known as antheridium which produce male gametes known as antherozoids.
 Fertilization occurs in water.
 Fertilization of egg and antherozoids forms zygote. Zygote matures into sporophyte.
 Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte.
 Bryophytes includes liverworts (Riccia, Marchantia); Horn worts (Anthoceros) and mosses
(Funaria).
TRACHEOPHYTA
 These plants have well developed vascular tissues and divided in to xylem and phloem. Further it is
divided in to three subgroups: Pteridophyta, Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
(iii) Division: Pteridophytes
 Seedless vascular plants, Primitive Tracheophytes or vascular cryptogams.
 They are the vascular plants, that is, with xylem and phloem.
 They do not produce flowers or seeds.
 They have root, stem and leaves (sporophytic phase).
 Sporophytic phase is dominant, independent and autotropic
 Life cycle includes alternation of generation. Both haploid and diploid phases.
 Leaves that bear the sporangia are known as sporophyll. Sometimes sporophylls formed a compact
structure known as strobili or cones.
 Spores on germination forms prothallus.
 Spores formed can be homosporous (spores of similar kind) or heterosporous (spores of
different kind).
 Spores germinate in to gametophyte (prothallus) which bear sex organs .
 Male sex organ is known as antheridium.
 Female sex organ is known as archegonium.
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 e.g., Club moss (Lycopodium), Horse tail (Equisetum), Ferns (Dryopteris, Pteris).
SUB KINGDOM : PHANEROGAMAE

 Phanerogams are the plants that have seeds. They are also known as spermatophytes. The plant
body is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. They have well developed vascular system.
Gymnosperm and angiosperm are categorized under Phanerogams. The seeds are present without
an ovary coat in the modified cones in the gymnosperm while the fully developed seed with ovary is
present in angiosperm.
1) Division : Gymnospermae
 They are flowerless, fruitless but seed bearing vascular plants
 Ovules are not protected by ovary, hence there is no fruit
 Seed producing plants
 Body is differentiated in to root, stem and leaves.
 They have well developed vascular system.
 Xylem lacks vessels and phloem lacks companion cells.
 Secondary growth is present
 Plants are commonly tall trees or shrubs
 Spores are heterosporous. Female spores are known as megaspores whereas male spores are
known as microspores. Megaspores are formed in megasporangia whereas microspores are formed
in microsporangia.
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 The sporangia are borne on sporophylls which are arranged spirally along an axis to form cones.
e.g., Cycas, Pinus etc.
2) Division : Angiosperms
 Angiosperms are vascular plants with stems, roots, and leaves. The seeds of the angiosperm are
found in a flower. These make up the majority of all plants on earth. The seeds develop inside the
ovary of flower and form fruit. Hence, they are also known as flowering plants.The angiosperms
comprise 80% of earth's plant life. They are also a major source of food for humans and animals.
Characteristics of Angiosperms
 Angiosperms have diverse characteristics. The important characteristics of angiosperms are mentioned
below:
1. All plants have flowers at some stages in their life. The flowers are the reproductive organs for the
plant.
2. The sporophyte is differentiated into stems, roots and leaves.
3. The sporophytes are diploid.
4. The vascular system has true vessels in the xylem and companion cells in the phloem.
5. Angiosperms are heterosporous, i.e., produce two kinds of spores, microspore (pollen grains) and
megaspores.
6. The stamens (microsporophyll) and the carpels (megasporophyll) are organized into a structure
called the flower.
7. The ovules are enclosed in the ovary.
8. The pollen grains transfer from the anther to stigma and reproduction takes place by pollination.
9. The flowers undergo double fertization and triple fusion which leads to the formation of a diploid
zygote and triploid endosperm.
10. Angiosperms can survive in a variety of habitats, including marine habitats.
Classification of Angiosperms
 The classification of angiosperms is explained below:
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Class: Dicotyledons
 The seeds of these plants have two cotyledons.
 They contain tap roots,
 The leaves are dorsiventral with reticulate venation.
 The flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous and the vascular bundles are organized in rings.
 For eg.,Mango, Peepal, Pea etc.
Class: Monocotyledons
 The seeds have a single cotyledon.
 The leaves are isobilateral with parallel venation.
 This group contains Fibrous root system.
 Each floral whorl has three members.
 It has closed vascular bundles and large in number.
 For e.g.,Rice, wheat, banana, sugarcane, Coconut etc.
ANIMAL KINGDOM
Animals are classified on the basis of common fundamental features like the cellular arrangement,
symmetry of the body, presence or absence of the coelom, specific features of the digestive, circulatory
and reproductive system.
A. LEVEL OF ORGANISATION
Cellular level : cells arranged as loose aggregates, present in Porifera (sponges).
Tissue level : cells performing the same function form tissues, present in coelenterates.
Organ level : tissues grouped together to form an organ, which performs particular function,
e.g., Platyhelminthes.
Organ system level : few organs coordinatively perform a certain physiological function,
e.g., Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms and Chordates.
B. SYMMETRY
• On the basis of symmetry animals are of two types:
i. Asymmetrical: When body cannot be divided in two similar parts from any direction. e.g., Amoeba
snails, certain sponges.
ii. Symmetrical : When body can be dividied into two similar parts which are mirror images of each
other by one or more planes. On the basis of planes of division, symmetry in animals is of three types.
• Spherical or Universal symmetry: When body can be dividied into two similar parts by any plane
passing through the centre of body. e.g., Volvox.
• Radial symmetry: Body can be divided in two similar parts by any plane along oral-aboral axis of body.
e.g.,sponges, coelenterates, ctenophores and echinoderms.
• Bilateral symmetry : Body can be divided into similar parts by only one plane along longitudinal axis
of body e.g., all the vertebrates.
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C. GERM LAYERS
• The layers of gastrula from which all the bodyorgans are formed, are called germlayers. Based on
germ layers animals are of two types.
i. Diploblastic animals: In sponges and coelenterates, gastrula is with two layers, outer ectoderm and
inner endoderm, so are called diploblastic animals.
ii. Triploblastic animals: From flatworms to mammals, gastrula is with three germ layers, outer ectoderm,
middle mesoderm and inner endoderm. So these are called triploblastic animals.
D Coelom (Body cavity)
• It is the space between body wall and gut wall. It helps in classification of animals. On the basis of
nature of coelom, animals are divided into the following categories.
i. Acoelomates: Among invertebrates upto flatworms, there is no coelom and they are called acoelmates.
ii. Pseudocoelomates: In Aschelminthes (round worms e.g., Ascaris), coelom is present but is not
lined by mesoderm layer and is called psuedocoel or falsecoelom, so the roundworms are
psuedocoelomates.
(a) Coelomate (b) Pseudocoelomate (c) Acoelomate

iii. Eucoelomates : From annelids to mammals, body cavity is lined by mesodermal peritoneal layers. It
is called true coelom, so these are called true coelomates or eucoelomates.
iv. Haemocoelomates: In arthropods and molluscs, true coelom is reduced and body cavity is a
pseudocoel with blood and is called haemocoel and animals are called haemocoelomates.
E. CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
It transports the materials inside the body. It is of two types:
i. Open circulatory system : In this types, blood comes out of blood vessels in spaces called sinuses.
It found in arthropods, most of molluscs and leeches.
ii. Closed circulatory system : In this type, blood remains inside the blood vessels (arteries). It is found
in most of annelids and all vertebrates.
ANIMAL KINGDOM IS DIVIDED INTO DIFFERENT PHYLA
1. PHYLUM PROTOZOA
Characters:
• They are unicellular, eukaryotes.
• These are the simplest and the most primitve animals.
• Their body organization is of “Protoplasmic level”. They are of different shapes i.e., irregular, elongated
or rounded.
• They have different types of locomotory organs like cilia, flagella, pseudopodia (false feet) etc.
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• Nutrition is of different types like holozoic, holophytic, mixotrophic.

• Digestion is intracellular and it takes place in food vacuole.
• Excretion and respiration occurs through general body surface by the process of simple diffusion.
• Reproduction may be sexual or asexual. Alternation of generation is found.
• Plasmodium vivax is a malarial parasite. It is a digenetic sporozoan found as endoparasite in the
liver cells, RBCs of man (primary host) and in the stomach and salivary glands of female Anopheles
mosquito (secondary or intermediate host). It is triphasic : Schizogony, gamogony and sporozoites.
Sporozoites is infective stage of plasmodium.
E.g., Amoeba, Entamoeba, Plasmodium, Euglena, Paramecium
2. PHYLUM PORFIFERA
Characters:
• These are pore bearing organisms i.e., with porous body.
• Presence of canal system. Aquatic, mostly marine.
• These are sessile and sedentary (attached to substratum)
• Occur in different shapes i.e., vase - like, rounded, sac like etc.
• Body perforated by numerous pores called ostia which opens into a canal system having canals and
chambers lined with choanocytes or collar cells (flagellated) and have a large sized water outlet
called oscula.
• Their cavity is called spongocoel.
• Endoskeleton is made of needle like spicules made of calcium carbonate and silica or spongin.
• Hermaphrodite (bisexual), asexual reproduction by budding. e.g., Sycpha (Sycon), spongilla (fresh
water sponge), Euplectella (Venus flower basket), Euspongia (bath sponges), cliona (boring
sponge), chalina (dead man’s finger)
3. PHYLUM - COELENTERATA OR CNIDARIA

Characters
• They have a body cavity called gastrovascular cavity or coelenteron.
• It has single opening for ingestion and egestion both.
• Aquatic, mostly marine.
• Presence of cnidoblast.
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• Multicellular, diploblastic, radially symmetrical.

• They have special organs called tentacles, cnidoblast or nematocyst cells. They are specialised for
stinging.
• They paralyse the prey by releasing poison.
• These are polymorphic i.e., they occur in two forms.
(i) Polyp is asexual, cylindrical, sedentary and diploid.
(ii) Medusa is sexual, umbrella shaped, free swimming and diploid. They show alternation of generation
or metagenesis.
• Asexual reproduction by budding and sexual reproduction by gametes.
• Some of them have exoskeleton of CaCO3. They are called Corals, they live in colonies and when
they die they form coral reefs, or islands.
• e.g., Hydra, Aurelia (Jelly fish), Pennatula (Sea pen), Gorgonia (sea fan). Meandrina (brain coral),
Physalia (portuguese man of war). Metridium (sea-anemone).
4. PHYLUM CTENOPHORA
Characters
• Body is transparent with radial symmetry. They possess comb plates (locomotion) that are ciliated
and eight in number. They also possess tentacles.
Marine, solitary and free swimming. e.g., Cestum (venus’s girdle), Pleurobrachia (sea gooseberry).
5 PHYLUM PLATYHELMINTHES : (Platy - Flat; helminth - worm)
Characters:
• Generally called as flatworms.
• Bilaterally symemmtrical, triploblastic, dorsoventrally flattened.
• Acoelomates.
• Their digestive cavity has a single opening with mouth only and anus is absent.
• They possess hooks and suckers.
• They have flame cells or protonephridia for excretion. Mode of nutrition is parasitic.
• Reproduction is of both types i.e., asexual and sexual.
• These are hermaphrodite. e.g., Planaria (dugesia), Fasciola (liver fluke) and Taenia solium
(tapeworm), schistosoma (Blood fluke)
6 PHYLUM - NEMATODA (Aschelminthes)
Characters:
• Also called as roundworms.
• BIlaterally symmetrical, unsegmented triploblastic.
• These are pseudocoelomate.
• Their alimentary canal is tubular having both mouth and anus.
• Most are free living, some live in moist soil, some are fresh water while some are marine.
• Some are parasites on plants and animals.
• They lack circulatory system.
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• Reproduction is sexual and sexes are separate.

• e.g., Ascaris (round worm), Wuchereria (Filarial worm), Enterobius (pin worm), Dracunculus (guinea
worm)
7 PHYLUM - ANNELIDA (Annulus - ring; segments)
Characters:
• Their body is triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, soft, elongated, cylindrical and dorsoventrally
flattened. Body is metamerically segmented. Head is formed by joining of some anterior body segments.
• Exoskeleton is absent, body is covered by thin cuticle.
• Eucoelomata i.e., they have true body cavity which first appeared in this phylum.
• Well developed alimentary canal is present.
• They have closed circulatory system.
• Locomotion is with the help of chitinous projections called chaetae (setae).
• Excretion by nephridia.
• Nervous system has dorsal brain.
• Most are aquatic, marine or fresh water. Some are terrestrial. Leech has a special botryoidal tissue
or conenctive tissue.
• They reproduce sexually, e.g., Pheretima (Earthworm), Hirudinaria (Leech) and Aphrodite (Sea
mouse), Nereis (calm worm or sand worm).
8 PHYLUM - ARTHROPODA (Arthors - jointed, poda - legs)

• These are the organisms with joined appendages.
• This is the largest phylum in animal kingdom.
• Body triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and metamerically segmented.
• They have an exoskeleton made up of protein and chitin.
• They have a complete alimentary canal with mouth and anus.
• Respiration occurs through general body surface, gills, trachea and book lungs.
• They have open circulatory system with dorsal heart and arteries.
• Body cavity is called haemocoel.
• Excretion by coelom ducts, malphigian tubules, green glands, coxal glands.
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• Sexes are separate.

• Each segment has paired lateral and jointed appendages. e.g., Palaemon (prawn), Cancer (crab),
Periplaneta (cockroach), Anopheles (mosquito), Aranes (spider) Apis (honey bee), Charaxes
(butterfly), Palamnaeus (scorpion), Lepisma (silver fish) and Microtrema (termite), centipede,
millipede, etc.
9. PHYLUM - MOLLUSCA
Characters:
• It is the second largest group of animals, body soft unsegmented, bilaterally symmetrical and without
appendages.
• Body divided into a head, foot and visceral mass. A thin skin covering the body is called as mantle,
which secretes a calcareous shell.
• Body cavity is haemocoel.
• Respiration by gills (Ctenidia) in aquatic forms but in terrestrial forms space between mantle and
body wall called as mantle cavity act as lungs.
• For ingestion they have tongue like structure “radula” they also possess a digestive gland called
hepatopancreas.
• Open circulatory system.
• Excretion by metanephridia present near heart.
• Reproduction is sexual and sexes are separate. e.g., Chiton (8 Calcareous pieces), Pila, Melix
(torsion, univalve), Dentalium (tusk like shell). Unio, Mytilus (Bivalve), Octopus (Devil fish) and
Pinctada (Pearl Oyster), Cypraea (cowrie), Aplysia (sea here).
10, PHYLUM - ECHINODERMATA

Characters:
• These are marine animals, their body is triploblastic, eucoelomata, unsegmented. Their body has
spines arising from exoskeleton of calcium. Adults are radially symmetrical while larvae are bilaterally
symmetrical.
• Head is absent, oral and aboral surfaces have five radial ambulacra.
• Excretory organs are absent.
• A complex system of water containing tubes passing through pores of skin called water vascular
system is present. From this, tube like structure arise, these tubes look like feet and are called as
tube feet that helps in locomotion.
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• Reproduction can be asexual, sexual or by regeneration. e.g., Asterias (star fish), Echinus (sea
urchin), Holothuria (sea cucumber), Antedon (feather star).
11. PHYLUM - HEMICHORDATA
Characters:
• They are placed in between invertebrates and chordates as they possess some characters of both.
• They include worm like, unsegmented, bilaterally symmetrical animals which are exclusively marine.
• Their body is divided into three regions proboscis, collar and trunk.
• They do not possess notochord, which is a flexible, rod like structure running through the length of the
body, above the alimentary canal.
• They possess gill slit or gill cleft which is meant for respiration.
• They possess nerve cord in collar region but it is not a true dorsal nerve cord. E.g. Balanoglossus
(tongue worm).
PHYLUM - CHORDATA
• Characters
Animals belonging to phylum chordata are fundamentally characterised by the presence of a
notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord and paired pharyngeal gill slits. They are triploblastic,
bilaterally symmetrical and coelomate animal.
• Notochord : It is solid unjointed rod like structure present on dorsal side between alimentary canal
and nervous system in same animal. It is derived from mesoderm and act as primary axial skeleton.
• In higher chordates i.e. vertebrates, the notochord is replaced by vertebral column.
• A set of gill slits is also present at certain stage of life, also called as pharyngeal gill clefts.
• Tail is also present behind the anal aperture that is post anal tail. They also possess a proper circulatory
system.
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Flow Chart : Classification of Chordata
Protochordata Vertebrata
[These are called as [These are called as
lower Chordates higer Chordates
Urochordata Cephalochordata
Agnatha Gnathostomata
Cyclostomata
Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes Amphibia Reptilia Aves Mammalia

SUB PHYLUM : PROTOCHORDATA
• Characters :
• They are termed as lower chordates. They do not possess brain, cranium, vertebral column, jaw and
paired appendages.
• Notochord is present at least in some stages along with other diagnostic chordate characters (dorsal
hollow nerve cord, gill slits, post anal tail).
• They are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, enterocoelomic.
• They show organ level of organization.
• They are marine animals.
• Protochordates are further divided into two groups :
I. Subphylum : Urochordata
Characters :
• They are exclusively marine animals. They are commonly known as tunicates.
• The notochord is present in the tail of the larva and disappears in the adult.
• The dorsal hollow nerve cord is present in the larva only. It is replaced by a dorsal ganglion in the adult.
• The pharynx has gill slits.
The larva (tadpole) undergoes retrogressive metamorphosis, i.e., changes from a better developed
larva to a less developed adult. E.g. Herdmania (sea squirit), Doliolum, Pyrosoma.
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ii. Subphylum : Cephalochordata

• Characters
• Animals are fish like without a head. They possess all the characters of chordates i.e.,
• A notochord which extends upto the entire length of the body and persists throughout the life.
A nerve cord (without a distinct brain).
• Numerous well developed gill slits.
• A post anal tail throughout life. E.g. Branchiostoma (Amphioxus or Lancelet).
SUB PHYLUM : VERTEBRATA OR CRANIATA
• Majority of chordates are included in this phylum.
• Characters : They are advanced animals, having a cranium (brain box) around the brain. Nervous
system is well developed.
• Notochord is replaced by a vertebral column (backbone) in the adults. Endoskeleton is highly
developed.
• There are two pairs of limbs or appendages.
• Head is well differentiated.
• The heart is situated ventrally. The circulatory system is closed consisting of blood vascular system
and lymphatic system. Haemoglobin (Red coloured pigment) is present in red blood corpuscles.
• Respiratory organs may be gills (in aquatic animals), skin, buccopharyngeal cavity (in amphibians)
or lungs (in land animals).
• Excreation occurs through kidneys.
Flow Chart : Classification of Vertebrata
Agnatha Gnathostomata
(Jawless vertebrates) (Vertebrates with well
developed jaws)
1. Cyclostomata
2. Chondrichthyes
3. Ostelchthyes
4. Amphibians
5. Reptiles
6. Aves
7. Mammals
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i. CLASS CYCLOSTOMATA
• (Gr.Cyclos = circular, Stome = mouth ; the circular mouthed fishes). These are the most primitive
vertebrates.
Characters :
• Animals are jawless and possess a circular mouth.
• They are ectoparasites on fish and use mouth to stick to fish ; the mouth is therefore suctorial.
• Notochord is present in the form of a cylindrical rod.
• Head and brain are poorly developed.
• Cartilagenous endoskeleton is present.
• Respiration occurs through gills.
• Heart is two-chambered consisting of one auricle and one ventricle.
• Gonad is single and fertilization is external. E.g. Petromyzon (lamprey), Myxine (hag fish).
ii. CLASS CHONDRICHTHYES

• (Gr. Chondros - cartilage ; ichthys - fish, the cartilagenous fish).
Characters :
• Skeleton is cartilagenous, hence the name Chondrichthyes is given.
• The body is either laterally compressed and spindle shaped, or dorso ventrally flattened and disc
shaped.
• Mouth is ventral in position, jaws are well-developed.
• Respiration occurs through gills.
• The skin is covered with placoid scales (exoskeleton).
• Heart is two chambered, consisting of an auricle and a ventricle.
• Air bladder is absent.
• They reproduce by laying eggs (oviparous) or produce eggs which hatch inside the mother’s body
(ovoviviparous).
• Fertilization is internal.
• Mostly marine and large sized (upto 10-20 meters long). E.g. Sharks and rays. Scoliodon (Indian
shark, dog fish), Torpedo (electric ray), Trygon (sting ray), chimarea (rabbit fish).
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iii. CLASS OSTEICHTHYES

Characters :
• Skeleton is cartilagenous in the embryonic stage, but is replaced by bones in adult form (bony
endoskeleton), hence the name osteichthyes is given.
• Body is generally spindle shaped.
• The exoskeleton, if present, consists of cycloid or ctenoid scales.
• The mouth is terminal (anterior) on the head.
• Gills are covered by bony flap called as the operculum.
• A swim bladder (or air bladder) is usually present. It helps in floating.
• Fertilization is mostly external.
• They live both in fresh and sea water.
• In size, they vary from 10 mm to 4 meters. E.g. Labeo, Hippocampus (sea horse), Anabas (climbing
perch), Protopterus (lung fish), exocetus (flying fish).
iv. CLASS AMPHIBIA :
(Gr.amphi - both, bios - life. The amphibians are the first land vertebrates.
Characters :
• They are amphibious in nature ; found in fresh water and moist places.
• Skin is smooth or rough, rich in glands which keep it moist; skin with pigmented cells, i.e.,
chromatophores. Body is without scales.
• Endoskeleton is mostly bony, notochord does not persist in adults.
• Head and trunk are distinct ; neck and tail may or may not be present.
• They are tetrapods (four - limbed), pentadactyl type (five - fingered). Respiration occurs by lungs,
skin or buccal lining, gills are present at least during larvel stage for respiration.
• Heart three chambered with two auricles and a ventricle, red blood corpuscles are large, biconvex,
oval and nucleated.
• Brain is not much developed, cranial nerves are 10 pairs.
• Sexes are separate, i.e., dioecious.
• Eggs with gelatinous covering, usually laid in water. Fertilization is external.
• Developments is indirect with a tadpole larva which undergoes metamorphosis to become adult. E.g.
Salamanders, newts, frogs and toads. Salamandra (Salamander), Necturus (mud puppy), Rana
(frog), Bufo (toad).
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(v) CLASS REPTILIA

• L.repere = to creep; creeping vertebrates). These are first truly terrestrial animals living in warmer
regions.
Characters :
• Body is divisible into head, neck and trunk. Tail is well developed in some, while it is reduced in
others.
• Two pairs of pentadactyl limbs are present; but in snakes limbs are reduced or absent.
• Body is covered with epidermal horny scales.
• Skin is dry, impermeable and devoid of glands.
• Respiration takes place by lungs only. Gills are absent.
• Heart is incompletely four - chambered, having two auricles and incompletely divided ventricle. In
crocodile, heart is completely four chambered. Sexes are separate.
• Fertilization is internal (characteristics of land animals).
• There is no larval stage in development. E.g. Testudo (tortoise), Chelone (turtle) Draco (flying lizard),
Chameleon (Tree lizard), Hemidactylus (wall lizard), Naja (cobra) etc.
vi. CLASS AVES
• L. Aves - birds : The birds are described as ‘feathered reptiles’ that have developed the power of
light.
Characters :
• The body is covered with soft feathers (feathery exoskeleton).
• The body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail.
• There are two pairs of limbs. The fore limbs are modified to form wings (in flying birds) or are
reduced (as in non-flying birds). Hind limbs are strongly developed for perching, walking.
• Endoskeleton is light. The bones have got air cavities (pneumatic bones). This makes the bird light
weighted.
• Jaws are modified to form a strong beak.
• Teeth are absent.
• Respiration is by lungs only. Lungs have additional bag like membranous extensions called as air
sacs.
• Heart is completely four chambered.
• Birds are oviparous, i.e. egg laying.
• Fertilization is internal. Fertilized eggs are laid with a yolk (stored food) and with a hard calcareous
shell.
• High degree of parental care is exhibited.
• There is no larvel stage in development. E.g. Columba (pigeon), Pavo (peacock), Corvus (crow),
Passer (sparrow). Struthio (ostrich), Kiwi and Penguin (flightless birds).
viii. CLASS MAMMALIA
(L.mamma - breast ; the mammals) Mammalia is the most evolved group of organisms and are
found in diverse habitats ranging from deserts, polar ice caps, oceans, mountains, forests and
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grasslands. They are named mammals as all of them possess mammary glands (milk producing
glands). Mammals are the only animals which feed their young ones with milk.
Characters :
• Skin is covered with an exoskeleton of hair. Sweat gland is present which help in the regulation of
body temperature. In aquatic mammals, hair being negligible, the subcutaneous layer of fats provides
insulation.
• Mammals have two pairs of pentadactyl limbs.
• The body cavity is unequally divided into two parts by a muscular partition called as diaphragm.
• Eyes are provided with movable lids.
• Ears have fleshy external ears or pinnae.
• Teeth are embedded in sockets (thecodont). Two sets of teeth develop in the life time of a mammals
milk teeth and permanent teeth (diphyodont). Teeth are of different types (heterodont).
• Respiration occurs by lungs.
• Heart is four chambered. R.B.Cs are non nucleated and usually circular.
• Sexes are separate. Gonads are paired. Testes lie commonly in the scrotal sacs outside the abdomen.
Ferilization is internal. Eggs are small, microscopic without shells and are retained in uterus of female
for development. Embryonic membranes (amnion, chorion, yolk sac and allantois) present.
• They give birth to living young ones and are called as viviparous. The young ones are feed on milk
from mammary glands.
(c) Important Groups of Mammals : Mammals are divided into three main groups.
(i) Egg-laying mammals (monotremes) : These mammals show characters of both reptiles and
mammals. They lay hard shelled eggs (oviparous) e.g. Spiny ant eater, Duck - billed platypus.
(ii) Marsupial mammals (pouched mammals) : Pouched or marsupial mammals (Latin marsupium -
pouch). They are viviparous. The young ones are cared in pouch called marsupium present on the
abdomen of mother. In the pouch, they feed on the mother milk e.g. Kangaroo (Macropus).
(iii) Placental mammals (true mammals) : These mammals with true placenta. The embryo is retained
in the uterus. These are the very sucessful group of land animals, occuring in diverse climatic conditions.
E.g., Mole, bat, lion, tiger, camel, giraffe, whale, dolphin, monkey, humans etc.
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QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. The method of arranging organisms into groups or sets on the basis of similarities and differences
A) Hierarchy B) Classification C) Identification D) Nomenclature
2. ICBN is
A) International Code of Biological Nomenclature
B) International Committee of Botanical Nomenclature
C) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
D) International Classification of Botanical Nomenclature
3. Which among following is not a member of Protista?
A) Diatoms B) Anabaena C) Paramecium D) Euglena
4. Eukaryotic filamentous heterotrophic organism
A) Eubacteria B) Alage C) Fungi D) Cyanobacteria
5. Lower plants, Flowerless, Seedless, Reproductive organs are hidden till they reproduce are the
features of
A) Spermatophytes B) Cryptogamae C) Tracheophyta D) Phanerogamae
6. Select the incorrect match.
A) Lichen : Usnea B) Algae : Volvox C) Fungi : Agaricus D) Mycorrhiza : Rhizopus
7. Symbiotic association of a fungus with in the root system of higher plants.
A) Lichen B) Thallus C) Mycorrhiza D) Mycelium
8. Why Bryophytes are known as amphibians of the plant kingdom
A) Soil is essential for its vegetative growth
B) Water is essential for fertilization
C) Water is essential for dehiscence and dispersal of spores
D) Soil and water are essential for propagation and pollination
9. Sporophyll, Cone, Prothallus, Antheridium ,Archegoniumetc are found in
A) Equisetum B) Cycas C) Peepal D) Both A and B
10. Stamens and carpels are modified
A) Mega gametophyte and micro gametophyte
B) Microspore and megaspores
C) Megasporophyll and microsporophyll
D) Microsporophyll and megasporophyll
11. Dissimilarity found in Aves and Mammalia is-
A) Warm Blooded Animal B) Lay eggs
C) Breathe through Lungs D) Four chambered Heart
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12. The example of an egg laying mammal is

A) Bat B) Whale C) Echidna D) Kangaroo
13. Which one of the following cells in sponges catch food?
A) Pinacocytes B) Choanocytes C) Thesocytes D) Archaeocytes
14. Canal system in porifera is not associated with:
A) Respiration B) Nutrition C) Sexual reproduction D) None of these
15. Choanocytes are seen in :
A) Coelenterata B) Porifera C) Mollusca D) Echinodermate
16. Flame cells are :
A) Excretory cells B) Digestive cells C) Absorptive cells D) All of these
17. Sexual dimorphism is found in :
A) Pheretima B) Amoeba C) Ascaris D) All of these
18. Pseudocoelomic organism belong to :
A) Annelids B) Aschelminthes C) Echinodermata D) Amphibian
19. One of the following is not a characteristic of Annelida :
A) Nephridia B) Segmentation C) Pseudocoelom D) Clitellum
20. Hirudinaria and Pheretima are the representatives of the phylum :
A) Cnidaria B) Platyheliminthes C) Annelida D) Aschelminthes
LEVEL II
1. Which among the following is correct?
i) Phylum: is a level of classification which consists of a number of classes with similar
characteristics.
ii) Order: consists of a number of classes with similar characteristics.
iii) Family: consists of a number of species with similar characteristics.
iv) Species: a group of organisms with similar characteristics and can interbreed to give rise to a
fertile offspring
A) i) and iv) correct ii) and iii) wrong
B) ii) and iv) correct i) and iii) wrong
C) iii) wrong and i) ii) and iv) correct
D) ii) , iv) and iii) correct and iv) wrong
2. Find out the correct pair
A) Carolus Linnaeus : Natural system system of classification
B) Robert Whittaker : Four kingdom classification
C) Bentham and Hooker : Artificial system of classification
D) Earnst Haeckel : Three kingdom classification
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3. Which one of the following is not a feature of Monera:

A) All are prokaryotes
B) Sexual reproduction is absent.
C) They can be autotrophic or heterotrophic
D) All organisms of this kingdom are unicellular
4. Dominant gametophytic phase, no vascular system, no embryo formation, plant body is not
differentiated as roots, stem and leaves are the characteristics features of Division
A) Cryptogamae
B) Bryophyta
C) Thallophyta
D) Fungi
5. Food is stored in the form of glycogen, cell walls made of chitin, decomposers of ecosystem are the
features of organism.
A) Moulds(Rhizopus),Yeast(Saccharomyces),Mushroom(Agaricus)
B) Green algae, Brown algae and Red algae
C) Diatoms, animals like protozoans (Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena)
D) Liverworts (Riccia, Marchantia) Horn worts (Anthoceros) and mosses (Funaria).
6. Which of the following features are specific for Green, Brown and Red algae?
A) Plant body is not differentiated as roots, stem and leaves,No vascular system, No embryo formation
and Dominant phase is sporophytic
B) Mostly aquatic , Autotrophic,Cell wall is made up of cellulose and food is stored in the form of
starch
C) Eukaryotic, non-vascular, non-motile and heterotrophic organisms.
D) Water is essential for fertilization, Plant body is thallus-like, prostrate or erect, possess hairy-like
structure known as Rhizoids and Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte.
7. Among the following characters, which one is not considered as a feature of Bryophyte?
A) Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte
B) Water is not essential for fertilization
C) Absence of true roots, stems or leaves
D) Presence of multicellular sex organs.
8. Find out the incorrectly matched option based on the members included in each group
A) Pteridophytes : Club moss(Lycopodium), Horse tail (Equisetum), Ferns (Dryopteris).
B) Bryophytes : Liverworts(Riccia, Marchantia), Horn worts (Anthoceros) and mosses (Funaria).
C) Gymnosperms : Cycas, Pinus, Pteris
D) Angiosperms : Mango, Peepal, Pea
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9. Phanerogams are the plants that have seeds. They are also known as spermatophytes. The plant
body is differentiated into root, stem, and leaves. They have well developed vascular system. Which
of the following are categorized under Phanerogams.
A) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
B) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes
C) Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms
D) Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
10. Identify the plant group coming under in group 1 and group 2.
Group1 Group 2
1. Fibrous root system. 1. They have tap roots
2. Leaves are isobilateral 2. Leaves are dorsiventral
3. Parallel venation. 3. Reticulate venation
4. Closed vascular bundles and large in number. 4. Vascular bundles are organized in rings.
A) Group 1 : Angiosperms, Group 2 : Gymnosperms
B) Group 1 : Gymnosperms , Group 2 : Angiosperms
C) Group 1 : Monocotyledons, Group 2 : Dicotyledons
D) Group 1 : Dicotyledons, Group 2 : Monocotyledons
11. Which one of the following is not the locomotory organs of protozoa?
A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Parapodia D) Pseudopodia
12. Locomotion by tube feet is found in phylum
A) Mollusca B) Coelenterata C) Echinodermata D) Annelida
13. Which group of animals are found only in sea?
A) Mollusca B) Echinodermala
C) Porifera D) Protozoa
14. Match the name of phylym given under column I, with the name of animal given under column II and
state the correct sequence alphabetically.
Column I Column II
i) Protozoa a) Sponge
ii) Porifera b) Apis
iii) Coelenterata c) Amoeba
iv) Arthropoda d) Hydra
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A) a b c d
B) d c b a
C) c a d b
D) b d a c
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15. If a particular animal has shelled egg, hair and teats on the body and has cloaca, then it may be a
connecting link between-
A) Reptila and aves B) Aves and mammal
C) Reptila and mammal D) Mammal and aves
16. Which two of the following animals has coelomic cavity filled with blood?
A) Starfish and Nereis B) Antedon and Starfish
C) Antedon and Starfish D) Nereis and Chiton
17. All the cats in the world belong to same species.
A) Panthera leo B) Panthera tigris
C) Panthera pardus D) Phelis domestics
18. ......................... this animal lays eggs as reptiles but has mammary glands and hair on the skin like
mammals.
A) Duckbill B) Peripatus C) Bear D) Lungfish
19. Match the following
Column I Column II
1) collar cells a) coelentrate
2) diploblast b) porifera
3) closed circulatory system c) echinodermata
4) water vascular system d) Annelida
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d B) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c D) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
20. Canal system is characteristics of :
A) Hydra B) Sea anemone
C) Sponges D) Sea urchin
LEVEL III
1. Identify the correct option
(i) Biodiversity refers to the variety of living organisms present on a particular region
(ii) Identification is the method of determining that a specific (organism) belongs to a recognized
taxon
(iii) Taxon:It is the frame work by which taxonomic groups are arranged in definite order from higher to
lower categories
(iv) Nomenclature - system of naming an individual
A) (i) and (ii) correct (iii) and (iv) wrong
B) (ii) and (iv) correct (i) and (iii) wrong
C) (iii) wrong and (i), (ii) and (iv) correct
D) (ii) , (iv) and (iii) correct and (iv) wrong
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2. Which among following is correct regarding the System of Classification

(i) Artificial Classification - based on one or a few easily observable characters of plants,
(ii) Natural Classification - based upon overall resemblances, mostly morphology
(iii) Phylogenetic Classification - Based on evolutionary sequences as well as genetic relationship
among organisms
A) (i) and (iii) correct (ii) wrong B) (ii) and (iii) correct (i) wrong
C) (i) and (iii) wrong and (ii) correct D) (i), (iii) and (iii) correct
3. Match Column I with Column II, and choose the correct combination from the options given below
Column I Column II
a. Cocci 1. Rod
b. Bacilli 2. Corkscrew
c. Vibrios 3. Spherical
d. Spirochaetes 4. Comma
A) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 B) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
C) a-1, b-4, c-4, d-2 D) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
4. Identify the group of organisms in group 1 and group 2.
Group1 Group 2
1 They contain photosynthetic pigments. Photosynthetic pigments are absent.
2 Autotrophic. Heterotrophic.
3 Most of them are aquatic in habitat. Most of them are terrestrial.

4 The cell wall is made up of Cellulose. The cell wall is made up of chitin.
5 It contains starch as a stored food It contains glycogen and oil as the stored
material. food material.
A) Group 1 : Bryophyta, Group 2 : Pteridophytes

B) Group 1 : Lichens, Group 2 : Mycorrhiza
C) Group 1 : Algae, Group 2 : Fungi
D) Group 1 : Cryptogamae, Group 2 : Phanerogamae
5. Which of the following statements are correct for plants like unicellular algae, diatoms; animals like
protozoans (Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena)
(i) These are eukaryotes and unicellular.
(ii) Some organisms use cilia or flagella for locomotion.
(iii) All are autotrophic.
(iv) members of kingdom protista
A) (i) and (iv) correct (ii) and (iii) wrong B (i), (ii) and (iii) wrong) and (iv) correct
C) (iii) wrong and (i), (ii) and (iv) correct D) (i), (ii) and (iii) correct and (iv) wrong
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6. Select the incorrect match.

A) liverworts : Riccia, Marchantia
B) Horn worts:Anthoceros
C) Mosses : Funaria
D) Horse tail : Lycopodium
7. Select the wrong statement of pteridophyte from the following.
A) Sporophytic phase is dominant ,independent and autotropic
B) They are the vascular plants, that is, with xylem and phloem.
C) Male sex organ is known as archegonium and Female sex organ is known as antheridium
D) Spores on germination forms prothallus.
8. Match Column I with Column II, and choose the correct combination from the options given below
Column I Column II
a) Seedless vascular plants 1) Gym nosperm s
b) Seed bearing vascular plants 2) Pteridophytes
c) Flowerless, fruitless but seed bearing vas cular plants 3) Tracheophytes
d) Vascular plants 4) Angiosperm s
A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 B) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

C) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 D) a- 4, b-3, c-2, d-1
9. Which among the following is false with respect to gymnosperms?
A) Ovules are not protected by ovary, hence there is no fruit
B) Secondary growth is absent
C) Xylem lacks vessels and phloem lacks companion cells.
D) Spores are heterosporous
10. Which among following is correct regarding the characteristic features of angiosperms?
(i) Sporophyte is differentiated into root, stem, and leaves
(ii) Homosporous
(iii) Having double fertization and triple fusion
A) (i) and (iii) correct (ii) wrong
B) (ii) and (iii) correct (i) wrong
C) (i) and (iii) wrong and (ii) correct
D) (i), (iii) and (iii) correct
11. Preen gland is present in
A) the body of pigeon B) the body of prawn
C) the body of rohu fish D) in cactus plant
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12. Match the items given in Column and Column B, and identify the correct alternative listed below.
Column A Column B
a) Flying fish i) Draco
b) Flying lizard ii) Echidna
c) Egg laying mammal iii) Exocoetus
d) Flightless bird iv) Struthio
A) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
13. According to paleontological evidences, identify the correct sequence of animal devolvement
A) Fish . Reptiles . Amphilibians . Birds . Mammals
B) Fish . Reptiles . Birds . Amphilibians . Mammals
C) Fish . Amphilibians . Birds . Reptiles . Mammals
D) Fish . Amphilibians . Reptiles . Birds . Mammals
14. Which of the following is a group of hermaphrodites?
A) Earthworm, hydra, leech B) Cockroach, earthworm, hydra
C) Earthworm, flatworm D) Ascaris, cockroach, hydra
15. Regeneration is found in
A) tapeworm B) leech C) hydra D) ascaris
16. The animals with bilateral symmety in larval stage and radial symmetry in the adult stage, belongs to
the phylum :
A) Cnidaria B) Echinodermata C) Annelida D) Mollusca
17. Fish which eradicate mosquito larva is:
A) Rohu B) Anabas C) Clarius D) Gambusia
18. Ichthyophis belongs to the class
A) Amphibia B) Reptilia C) Chondrychthyes D) Mammalia
19. Radial symmetry is found in
A) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes B) Coelenterata and Echinodermata
C) Arthropoda and Mollusca D) Porifera and Coelenterata
20. Cnidaria is characterized by
A) Tissue level of organization B) Nematoblasts
C) Coelenteron D) All
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CHAPTER - 02
ADAPTATION
Definition
Adaptation is any characteristic of the organism (morphological, physiological, and behavioural) that
enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Many adaptations have evolved over a
long evolutionary time and are genetically fixed.
Adaptation in Plants
Hydrophytes Mesophytes Xerophytes Halophytes

[Aquatic environment] [Average water & [Dry habitats] [Saline]
Average temperature]
Free floating
Rooted with floating leaves Ephemerals
Submerged floating Succulents
Submerged rooted Non-succulents
Rooted emergent
Rooted Amphibious
(1) Aquatic Adaptation
Aquatic adaptations are the changes or adjustments in behaviour, physiology or structure of an organism
which enable them to live in an aquatic environment. Organisms get their mineral requirements from
the type of water in which they live.
Aquatic adaptation in Plants
Hydrophytes: Plant which grows only in or on water/ plants which live completely or partially submerged
in fresh water. They have developed mechanisms for the removal of extra water from their cells.
Morphologically hydrophytes are classified into
(a) Free floating hydrophytes
They remain in contact with water and air, but not with soil. They float freely on the water surface.
Root system is not developed.
Example:
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Eichhornia (Water hyacinth): It is an exotic species (Native is South America). The leaves and stems
are swollen and spongy. A mass of dark roots grows below the plant, hanging unrooted in the water. Water
hyacinth may become rooted to soil, if it becomes stranded on a bank, but usually it is free-floating.
(b) Rooted hydrophytes with floating leaves
Roots are fixed in mud, but leaves have long petioles which keep them floating on water surface.
Example: Nelumbo (Lotuses), Nymphaea (Water Lilly) (Ambal - Malayalam)
 These plants possess stomata on their upper surface of leaves, which helps in exchange of gases
between them and the atmosphere.
 The waxy coating on the upper surface prevent wetting and clogging (block)of stomata.
(c) Sub merged floating hydrophytes (Non- rooted)
 Plants which grow below the water surface, non-rooted (devoid of roots) and not in contact with
atmosphere.
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Example:
(d) Submerged rooted hydrophytes
 Completely submerged in water and rooted in soil.
Example:
(e) Rooted emergent hydrophytes
Grow in shallow water. Rooted in soil and the shoot are partially or completely exposed to air.
Example: Ranunculus:- It has branching thread-like underwater leaves and toothed floater leaves
(Heterophylly - occurance of more than one type of leaves on the same plant). The flowers are white
petaled with yellow centres and are held a centimetre or two above the water.
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(f) Rooted Amphibious

Grow in shallow water and the shoot extended above water surface. These plants develop root hairs in
their adventitious roots, when water is low. So they have capability to grow as mesophytes (Grow in
average water and temperature)
Example: Polygonum (knot weed): Occasionally eaten by humans, and are used as food plants by
the larvae of some insects.
Morphological Adaptation in Hydrophytes

Roots
 In hydrophytes roots do not play an important role in water absorption.
 Roots are either completely absent (Ceratophyllum, Utricularia, Wolffia) or poorly developed (Hydrilla).
 Root pockets are present instead of root caps (Eichhornia, Lemna, Pistia).
 Floating roots present in addition to normal adventitious roots (Jussiaea repens).
 Roots are fibrous, reduced, unbranched.
Stem
 The stem is long, slender, spongy and flexible (Hydrilla, Potamogeton)
 The stem may float horizontally on water surface (Azolla) or may be thick, short and stoloniferous
(Eichhornia).
 May be attached to the bottom of the pond by a rhizome (Nymphaea).
Petiole
 Long, slender and delicate petioles are present in hydrophytes with their leaves floating on water surface
(Nymphaea/Nelumbo).
 In some plants petiole is swollen to form a bulb like structure to help the plants to float on water
(Eichhornia).
Leaves
 In submerged hydrophytes the leaves are thin, long and in the shape of a ribbon, (Vallisneria) or finely
dissected (Ceratophyllum).
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 Floating leaves are large, entire and flat, broad and thick (Nymphaea/Nelumbo).
 Floating leaves have a coat of wax (Oily covering)
 Air spaces in leaves present
 The leaves may also have hairs ( Salvinia).
 Heteropylly: [The occurrence of more than one type of leaves on the same plant is called
heterophylly.] is common in partially submerged plants (Ranunculus)
 The leaves of emergent and amphibious hydrophytes are heterophyllous, (The leaves below the water
are long, narrow and dissected while those outside the water are entire and broad. This is also termed
as dimorphism of leaves(Ranunculus,)
Anatomical Adaptation in Hydrophytes
 Cuticle is either absent or poorly developed
 Epidermis is meant for absorption (Not for protection)
 The cortex is wide and bear large air space
 Mechanical tissues (Sclerenchyma/collenchyma) poorly developed or absent
 Vascular tissue is poorly developed
 Stomata are generally absent in submerged organs (If present functionless). In floating leaves
stomata are usually restricted on upper surface, helps in exchange of gases between them
and the atmosphere. (Nymphaea/Nelumbo)
 In amphibian plants (Polygonum) & emergent hydrophytes (Ranunculus) dimorphism exhibited in leaves
(Heterophylly)
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Physiological adaptation
 Water and mineral nutrients are absorbed through general body surface
 Osmotic concentration of cells is equal to or slightly higher than external water
AQUATIC ADAPTATION IN ANIMALS
Possess stream lined body (boat shaped), helps to cut through water and gives least resistance to
swim in water. e.g., Fish
 Locomotion by webbed feet - e.g, Ducks, Frogs; or by Fins - e.g., Fish
 Respiration - By Gills [Branchial respiration] - e.g., Fish; Tadpole
 Some fish & Water insects possess Air bladder (Swim bladder) - For Buoyancy (Float on water). But
shark don’t have. That’s why the shark is always in motion. Otherwise it sinks to bottom.
 Hair, sweat glands and Sebaceous glands absent.
(2) Terrestrial Adaptations [Land adaptation]
Habitat on land becomes discontinuous as it is interrupted by streams, rivers, oceans, mountains etc.
Land provides variety of physical factors such as soil, temperature, humidity, wind, light etc. Organisms
that live on land get enough oxygen and light. But they get wide fluctuation of temperature and availability
of water is not uniform. Terrestrial plants are usually divided into root, stem and leaves and well adapted
for water absorption and photosynthesis. Terrestrial animals possess lungs for breathing, and well
developed nervous system with sense organs for responding to various environmental changes. Their
body is covered with scales or hairs. Based on the availability of water and temperature terrestrial
habitat is classified into..
(A) Xeric Adaptation (Desert Adaptation) in Plants (Arid condition)
 Plants that live in xeric condition (desert) or scarcity of water are known as xeric adaptation. These are
Xerophytes.
 Possess thick waxy cuticle on leaf surface
 Possess sunken stomata
 Stomata open during night and shut during day - to reduce water loss by transpiration.
 Leaves are reduced to spine/needle like to escape from grazing animals and to minimize evaporation/
transpiration
 Xerophytes can be grouped into .....
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(i) Ephemerals: These are drought escaping rather than drought resistant plants. Short-lived plants,
growing only for favourable periods (as and when adequate moisture is available) and passing the
unfavourable periods in the form of seeds.
Example: Argemone mexicana: It is poisonous due to the presence of an alkaloid in its sap and it is
also unpalatable due to this yellow cell sap. It protects itself with sharp needle spines present in the
leaves, stems and fruits.
Solanum xanthocarpum (Chundanga): Used widely in the treatment of cough/cold/asthma. It improves

digestion/body strength/immunity/nourishment
(ii) Succulents [Drought avoiding]
 The stem is, joined, flattened and green structure called phylloclade, meant for photosynthesis and
becomes fleshy due to storage of water. The stored water is used throughout the unfavorable periods.
e.g., Cactus/Opuntia
 The stem possess abundant mucilage, which helps in retaining water.
 Leaves are reduced to spines/bristles in order to avoid the water loss through transpiration & also to
escape from grazing animals - Defense
 Stomata remain closed during day time to minimize the water loss due to transpiration.
 The carbon dioxide released during respiration is utilized for photosynthesis internally. e.g., Euphorbia,
Opuntia
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(iii) Non-succulents [Drought resistant]

 These are true xerophytes because they experience dryness both internally and externally.
 These are perennials (plants that live more than two years)
 Possess extensive root system
 Possess waxy coating on leaves, sunken stomata, reduced leaf blades, thin leathery, rigid or scaly,
rolling and folding leaves to reduce transpiration
Example: (1) Nerium (Arali): Leathery leaf, waxy coatings on leaves, sunken stomata
(2) Acasia- Spines (modification of stipules) used for defence.
Morphological Adaptation in Xerophytes

 Extensive, well developed and penetrating deep root system to draw water from long distance. Root
hairs and root caps are very well-developed
 Stem is modified to form large, fleshy green structure called phylloclade (Opuntia/Cactus, Euphorbia)
OR Cladode (Asparagus) - For photosynthesis/retaining water
 The petiole may be modified into flattened leaf like structure, called Phyllode, for photosynthesis (Acacia)
OR Leaf may be succulent (Aloe Vera)
 Possess fleshy leaves (Aloe Vera) and fleshy stem (Opuntia) are called Malacophyllous.
Anatomical Adaptation in Xerophytes
 Plant parts are covered with wax/hairs & covered with thick cuticle
 Possess sunken stomata only to lower side of leaf and covered with hairs (Nerium)
 The upper surface of leaf is shining because of waxy cuticle and the shininess helps reflect the sunlight,
which reduces evaporation
 Mucilage cell may be present (Bryophyllum-medicinal plant)
 Possess latex producing tubes for defence (Calotrpis, Euphorbia)
 Generally possess specialised mechanical tissue
 Water storing parenchyma, conducting tissue (vascular tissue) & mechanical tissue(collenchyma and
sclerenchyma) are well developed.
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Physiological adaptation
 Osmotic pressure (OP) of cell sap is high. (Water moves from lower OP to higher OP)
 Show less transpiration & has mucilage to hold water
(B) XERIC ADAPTATION IN ANIMALS
Animals live in Desert are called Xerocole
Kangaroo rat
 Nocturnal to avoid the day temperature

 Conserves water by excreting solid urine and can live from birth to death without drinking water.
 It obtains water from its own metabolic oxidation / internal fat oxidation.
 Life span is short, 2 to 5 years
 They are of light brown color with white under belly
 Do not use water to regulate body temperature
 Possess thick coat to minimize desiccation
 Eat mostly dry seeds
Camel
 accumulates fat in its hump rather than all over the body. So heat flow away from the body very fast. Its
thick coat prevents the flow of heat from outside to inside of the body [prevents desiccation]
 Camel can break its fat into water and energy when nourishment is not available
 They can drink large amounts of water - up to 70 liters of water at a time.
 Excretes concentrated urine
 Its feet has two toes each with fleshy pad below which spread the load on sand enable it to move on hot
and slippery sand
 Its long eye lashes and muscular nostrils with long hairs can be closed for protection from wind-blown
sand.
 Body temperature fluctuates with the atmosphere which reduces the water loss through sweating.
 Camel can store water in RBC (Blood stream)
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 Bees, snails, earthworms, salamanders, frogs, crocodiles, desert tortoise:- Undergo Aestivation
(Summer sleep)
 Snakes, Spiders, Scorpion: Possess poison glands /stings for defense.
 Desert rabbit & wood rat: Derive water by eating succulent plants.
 Desert animals generally active when water is available.
 Rats & Snakes: Dig holes and burrows in sand and live within and come out at night.
 Desert lizards: Bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below and move
to shade when the ambient temperature starts increasing.
 Archaebacteria (Thermophile): These microbes can live in hot water springs and deep sea
hydrothermal vents, where temperatures far exceed 100oC, because these organisms contain
specialized thermo-resistant enzymes, which carry out metabolic functions that do not get destroyed
at such high temperatures.
 Many fish: Can live in extremely cold water like Antarctica (where temperature is below zero) can
produce a special kind of antifreeze (Glycoprotein) in their blood, that circulate the blood and prevent
it from freezing.
 Phrynosoma (Horned toad / lizard)
 Possess horns all over the body, to escape from the enemies and avoid water loss
 Squirt blood from their eyes to threaten their enemies. (Self defence)
Mesophytes
 These are terrestrial plants that live in an average supply of water & with average temperature.
 Well-developed root system, branched with root cap
 Well organized shoot system, generally aerial, branched, straight, thick and hard stem.
 Thin, dark green leaves broad in middle.
 Sufficient amount of stomata at lower side. e.g., Garden plants.
Polar region Adaptation (Arctic region):-
 Characterized by heavy and snowy winters and temperature as low as –37oC
(i) In plants:
 Plants with short height and close together to resist the effects of snow - Tundra
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 Shallow root and easy to remove.

 Small leaves help the plants to retain moisture.
 Can grow under the layer of snow, and carry out photosynthesis in extremely cold temperature.
 Lichens can survive on bare rocks.
(ii) Polar region adaptation in animals:
 Possess two layers of white fur - for Camouflage - Match the color with snow, to escape from enemies,
helps in catching the prey and protect them from extreme cold
 Stored fat in their body during summer and consumed in winter and also protect them from cold.(Acts
as insulator)
 Undergo hibernation (winter sleep) - reduce metabolic activities to minimum
 Possess short limb, ears, tail (to reduce surface area) thus prevents the loss of heat- Allen’s rule
 Their wide and large paws help them to walk on snow and to swim in water
 They have strong sense of smell which helps them to catch the prey
 Aquatic mammals of polar seas have a thick layer of fat (blubber) beneath the skin. It prevents the loss
of heat from their body. So blubber acts as insulator
Penguin
 Flightless bird with white colored body so that they are not easily visible in snow
 Possess thick skin and lot of fat to protect them from cold.
 They grouped (huddled) together to warm
 Possess streamlined body and webbed feet which help them to swim in water.
 Possess brood pouches for incubation of egg.
Amphibious adaptation in animals
 Animals which live both on land and water are called amphibians
 They live on land, but they go to water for laying eggs. The eggs hatch out to form tadpole larva leads to
aquatic life. Larva metamorphosed into adult e.g., Frog
 These animals possess moist and slimy skin for breathing while in water (Cutaneous respiration).
Also respire through lungs while on land (Pulmonary respiration)
 They are cold blooded animals (Poikilotherms / Ectotherms)
 They show hibernation (winter sleep) to escape from harsh cold condition. e.g., Frogs, toads
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Adaptation in Halophytic plants
 Plants (shrub or small trees) which grow in saline habitats/brackish area are called halophytes and
are seen in tropical and sub-tropical regions.
 Halophytes forming Mangrove forests. (Avicenia, Rhizophora)
 In mangroves because of excessive salt contents and reduced oxygen, seeds fail to germinate.
 Plants grow in oxygen deficient soil.
 Possess shallow root system.
These possess following characteristics
(1) Pneumatophores (Breathing roots/Aerial roots)
 Negatively geotropic roots arise from sub merged horizontal roots. They possess numerous pores
(lenticels) for exchange of gases. Hence respiratory in function.
(2) Vivipary
 In Rhizophora seed germinates inside the fruit while the fruit attached to parent plant.
 The parent tree supplies water and necessary nutrients.
 The hypocotyl elongates and pushes the radicle out of seed and fruit and makes the seedling heavy.
Thus it breaks connection with the fruit and falls down vertically in the salt rich marshy habitat in such
a way that the plumule remains outside the salty water. The radicle then produces roots quickly and
fixes the seedling.
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(3) Succulency
 They store water and mucilage.
 Leaves are highly cutinized.
Adaptation in Birds:
Flightless birds (Ratite):-
 Possess large and heavy strong legs
 Possess reduced wings and curly feathers
Example:
Ostrich
 Fastest runner, gives largest egg. Possess large and strong legs, feet with 2 toes.
 Have reduced wings and curly feathers.
Emu
 Long necks and legs, long feet with 3 toes.
Kiwi
 Hair like feathers, short and stout legs, feet with four toes.
 Using their nostrils at the end of their long beak to detect prey before they ever see it.
Penguin
 Wings modified to form swimming paddles (Flippers).
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 Lives in cold sea water of south pole.

 Most penguins do not build nest, incubate eggs in fold of skin between their feet.
 Penguins have webbed feet for powerful swimming.
 They have thick skin and lots of fat (blubber) under their skin to keep warm in cold weather.
 The dark coloured feathers of a penguin's back surface absorb heat from the sun, so helping them to
warm up too.
Flying birds (Carinatae)
 Adapted for areal mode of life.
 Fore limbs are modified into wings.
 Streamlined body covered with feathers.
 Possess lungs for breathing (Pulmonary respiration).
 Long bones are light, hollow, spongy and contain many air cavities for flying called pneumatic bones.
 Well-developed nervous system and sense organs.
 Possess air sacs - helps in respiration - to increase oxygen exchange capacity and efficiency. e.g., -
Eagle, sparrow, pigeon etc.
 Smallest flying bird - Humming bird
Important points to remember
 Habitat: A habitat is a place where an organism makes its home. It includes both biotic and abiotic
components. [Address of an organism].
 Cryophytes: Plants that can live in tundra and on ice and snow. Reproduce during summer.
e.g., Grasses, algae, herbs, certain mosses, bacteria, lichens, trees are absent in Tundra.
 Oxylophytes: Plants growing on acidic soil. e.g., Crow berry, certain mossess.
 Chasmophytes: Plants growing in rock cervices, where soil or organic matter accumulates.
 Lithophytes: Plants growing on rocks. e.g., Orchids, ferns.
 Heliophytes: (Sun loving plants): Plants growing in bright light, called sun plants. e.g., Coconut, mango,
Sugar cane.
 Sciophytes: (Shade loving plants) Plants grow in low intensity light or in partial shade. e.g., Black
pepper, Cocoa, coffee
 Pyrophilous: Plants growing on burnt soil. e.g., Certain fungi.
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 Psammophytes: Plants which grow on sand.

 Thermophyte: Plants can tolerate to high temperature.
 Hygrophyte: Plants grow in high humidity. e.g., Lichens, mosses, orchids.
 Phylloclade: The stem of xerophyte is modified into flattened, large, fleshy(Succulents), green,
photosynthetic structure is called phylloclade. It has many nodes and inter nodes. Its function is
photosynthesis and it can store water also. e.g., Opuntia/Cactus.
 Phyllode: The petiole may be modified into flattened leaf like structure, called Phyllode for photosynthesis.
e.g., Acacia (See diagram above).
 Cladode: It is flattened or cylindrical stem with one or two inter nodes. Its function is Photosynthesis.
e.g., Asparagus (Shathavari).
 Hibernation (winter sleep):-Period of dormancy during winter season, to reduce all bodily activities
e.g., Polar bear.
 Aestivation (summer sleep): Period of dormancy during summer, so as to escape from scorching
(extreme) heat of sun. e.g., Bees, snails, earthworms, salamanders, frogs, crocodiles, tortoise
 Diapause: Diapause is a period of suspended development (reduced the metabolic activity), in certain
lower animals, during unfavourable environmental conditions. e.g., Insects, Zooplankton
 Migration: Is a pattern of behaviour in which animals travel from one habitat to another in search of
food, better conditions, or reproductive needs.
 Camouflage (Cryptic appearance): Ability to blend with surroundings, to escape from enemies.
e.g.,Praying mantis, Stick insects, Calotes and Leaf insects
 Mimicry: Resemblance of one species with another in order to escape from enemies. e.g., Palatable
(tasty) butterfly mimics on non-palatable (non-tasty/bitter) butterfly (Monarch butterfly). Some non-
poisonous snakes mimics on poisonous cobra by spreading hood.
 Arboreal: Living in or often found in trees. e.g., Monkey, Chameleon.
 Branchial respiration: Respire by gills. e.g., Fish, Tadpole.
 Cutaneous respiration: Respire by moist skin. e.g., Earthworm, Frog.
 Pulmonary respiration: Respire by lungs. e.g., Amphibian, Reptiles, birds and Mammals
 Frog: Cutaneous respiration(While in water) & Pulmonary and bucco pharyngeal (On land)
 Allen’s rule:-Warm blooded animals (Birds & Mammals) of colder climate have shorter limbs, ears
and tail than the equivalent animals from warmer climates. Thus, the decreasing the surface area
helps to avoid dissipating heat. e.g., Jack rabbit - long ear, legs and face. Arctic hare - short ears, legs
and small face.
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 Bergman’s Rule:- Birds and mammals in cold regions have been observed to be bulkier than individuals
of the same species in warm regions. Larger animals have a lower surface area to volume ratio than
smaller animals. So they radiate less body heat per unit mass and therefore stay warmer in cold
climates.
Explanation:
Warm area (Small animal) Cold area (Large animal)
 Surface area = Large = 10  Surface area = small = 5
 Volume = Small = 5  Volume = Large = 10
 Surface area to volume ratio = 10/5 = 2 (High)  S.A to Vol: ratio = 5/10 = 0.5 (Low)
 Heat lost = Faster  Heat lost = Slower
 So small animals suitable for hot climate  So large animal suit for cold climate
 Allen’s rule & Bergman’s rule are applicable to Homoeotherms (Birds & Mammals)
 Altitude sickness & Acclimatization: Whenever we are going to high altitude (where atmospheric
pressure is low), experience nausea, fatigue and heart palpitation because at low atmospheric pressure
doesn’t get enough oxygen.
 But gradually we physiologically compensate the problem and get acclimatized and stop altitude sickness.
The low oxygen availability is compensated by
 Increasing RBC production
 Increased breathing rate
 Decreasing the binding affinity of hemoglobin
 Many people live in high altitude of Himalayas has more number of RBC than people of plain
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QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. Xerocoles are
A) Animals adapted to live in tundra B) Animals adapted to live in deep sea
C) Animals adapted to live in deserts D) Animals adapted to a nocturnal life styles
2. Xerophytes generally do not possess
A) A thick cuticle B) spongy parenchyma
C) Specialised mechanical tissue D) Well developed conducting tissue
3. Mimicry is
A) An evolved resemblance between two species
B) An adaptation made for finding mates
C) An adaptation for surviving temperature fluctuations
D) An evolved resemblance of an organism with an object
4. Praying mantis is a good example of:
A) Mimicry B)Warning colouration C) Social insects D) Camouflage
5. Kangaroo rats
A) Have a generalized diet B) Avoid eating fats
C) Do not need to drink water D) Are insensitive to heat
6. Migration is what kind of adaptation?
A) Physiological B) Behavioural C) Biochemical D) Physical
7. Thick and fleshy stem of cactus can store
A) Water B) Food C) Seed D) Minerals
8 Many adaptations of an organism have evolved over a long duration of evolution and are
A) Genetically unstable B) Genetically fixed
C) Genetically Disadvantageous D) Genetically spontaneous
9. The main reason behind building burrows in soil by burrowing animals in desert is
A) To escape from predators
B) To derive nutrition parts of plants from Underground
C) The mode of evolution chose burrows as a specific habitat.
D) To hide and escape from the above ground heat.
10. Altitude sickness is compensated by
A) RBC production increases B) Breathing rate increases
C) Binding affinity of haemoglobin increases D) Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
11. Animals live in or often found on trees belong to which habitat
A) Cursoreal B) Nocturnal C) Arboreal D) Diurnal
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12. Pneumatic bones are the characteristic feature of

A) Frog B) Snake C) Tortoise D) Pigeon
13. Flippers are the characteristic feature of
A) Emu B) Kiwi C) Penguin D) Ostrich
14. Viviparity is found in
A) Rhizophora B) Nerium C) Cactus D) Aloe Vera
15. Non- succulent xerophyte is
A) Opuntia B) Nerium C) Euphorbia D) Aloe Vera
16. Phylloclade is the modified
A) Leaf of Opuntia B) Stem of Opuntia C) Petiole of Opuntia D) Leaf of Aloe Vera
17. The occurrence of more than one type of leaves on the same plant is called
A) Ornithophily B) Entamophily C) Hydrophily D) Heterophylly
18. Match the column I with column II and write the correct option.
Column I Column I I
(p) Hydrilla (i) Sub merged non rooted floating hydrophyte
(q) Eichhornia (ii) Rooted emergent hydrophyte
(r) Nelumbo (iii) Rooted hydrophyte with floating leaves
(s) Ceratophylum (iv) Sub merged rooted hydrophytes
(t) Ranunculus (v) Free floating hydrophyte
A) p-iv; q-ii; r-i; s-iii; t-v B) p-iv; q-ii; r-iii; s-i; t-v
C) p-iv; q-v; r-iii; s-i; t-ii D) p-ii; q-iv; r-i; s-iii; t-v
19. Branchial respiration is seen in
A) Fish B) Tadpole C) Frog D) Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
20. Mammals of colder climate have shorter limbs, ears and tail, to avoid dissipating heat. It is in accordance
with which rule
A) Bergman’s rule B) Allen’s rule
C) Gause’s exclusion principle D) Commensalism
LEVEL II
1. The feature of the xerophytic plant leaves are
(i) Leathery surface (ii) Waxy cuticle (iii) Large surface area (iv) Sunken stomata
A) ii & iii B) i, ii & iv C) i, iii & iv D) i & iv
2. The waxy surface of floating leaves of the hydrophytes prevents
A) Respiration B) Photosynthesis C) Transpiration D) Clogging of stomata
3. Resemblance of one species with another in order to escape from enemies
A) Cryptic appearance B) Camouflage C) Mimicry D) Mutualism
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4. Xerophytic plants do not have

A) Sunken stomata B) Air cavities C) Needle like leaves D) Very long root
5. Frogs are generally not observed in summer because they reduce their metabolic activities during
this period is called
A) Aestivation B) Hibernation C) Migration D) Diapause
6. Plants growing in places of moderate water supply is called
A) Mesophyte B) Ephemerals C) Halophyte D) Hygrophyte
7. Xerophytes which are drought escaping rather than drought resistant called
A) Succulents B) Ephemerals C) Non-succulents D) Mesophyte
8. Animal which squirt blood from their eyes to threaten their enemies
A) Desert snake B) Chameleon C) Phrynosoma D) Desert scorpion
9. Halophytes plants do not have
A) Succulency B) Vivipary C) Breathing roots D) Deep root system
10. Pneumatophores are the characteristic feature of
A) Hydrilla B) Mangroves C) Cactus D) Aloe Vera
11. Hair like feathers, short and stout legs, feet with four toes, nostrils at the end of their long beak are the
characteristic features of
A) Emu B) Kiwi C) Penguin D) Ostrich
12. Match the column I with column II and write the correct option
Column I Column II
(p) Oxylophyte (i) Shade loving plants
(q) Cryophyte (ii) Plants grow on burnt soil
(r) Sciophyte (iii) Plants grow on sand
(s) Psammophyte (iv) Plants grow on acidic soil
(t) Pyrophillous (v) Plants grow in tundra
A) p-iv; q-ii; r-i; s-iii; t-v B) p-iv; q-ii; r-iii; s-i; t-v
C) p-iv; q-v; r-i; s-iii; t-ii D) p-ii; q-iv; r-i; s-iii; t-v
13. Leaves of cactus are adapted to reduce water loss by turning into
A) Needles B) Spines C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ D) flowers
14. Acacia and Cactus show which kind of defences?
A) Biochemical B) Biomolecular C) Morphological D) Behavioural
15. Symptoms of altitude sickness include all except
A) Nausea B) Fatigue C) Heart palpitation D) Hyperoxia
16. Monarch butterfly escapes from predators by
A) Foul smell B) Bitter taste C) Colour combination D) Rough skin
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17. Resemblance of one organism with its surroundings for protection and hiding is
A) Mimicry B) Predation C) Adaptation D) Cryptic appearance
18. Very small animals are rarely found in polar region mainly because:
A) Smaller animals have a relatively slower heart rate
B) Smaller animals have a more surface area relative to their volume
C) Smaller animals are invariably herbivores
D) Smaller animals rely on diffusion for exchange of gases with the environment
19. Among the following which plant has the stomata on the upper side of leaf
A) Hydrilla B) Utricularia C) Ceratophyllum D) Nelumbo
20. Plants growing in saline habitats are called
A) Xerophyte B) Mesophyte C) Halophyte D) Hydrophyte
LEVEL III
1. Ravi who lived at sea level had around 5 million RBC/mm3 of his blood. Later when he lived at an
altitude of 18000 feet, tests showed around 8 million RBC/mm3 of blood. This is an adaptation because
A) At high altitude he ate more nutritive food.
B) He had pollution free air balance for breath
C) At high altitude body does not get enough oxygen. Hence more RBC were required to get enough
Oxygen.
D) At high altitude there is more UV radiation which enhances RBCs production
2. Which of the following statement explains Allen’s rule.
A) Mammals of colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs
B) Polar seas aquatic mammals of polar seas have thick layer of fat below their skin
C) Kangaroo rat excrete solid urine
D) Larger Mammals of colder region have a lower surface area to volume ratio than smaller animals.
3. Pick out the incorrect statements among the following
A) Adaptation is an attribute of the organism that enables them to reproduce in its habitat
B) In the absence of an external source of water, the Kangaroo rat in desert is capable of meeting all
its water requirement through metabolic oxidation.
C) Many fish thrive in Antarctic waters where the temperature is always above zero
D) Archaebacteria can live in deep sea hydrothermal vents, where temperatures far exceed 100°C,
because these organisms contain specialized thermo-resistant enzymes.
4. Opuntia lose very little water through ............. Leaves are modified to form ............. . Photosynthesis
is Carried out by ............. The stem is covered with ............. layer to retain .............
A) Transpiration, Spines, Flowers, waxy, water
B) Respiration, Spines, stem, waxy, Renin
C) Transpiration, Spines, stem, waxy, Water
D) Transpiration, Spines, stem, Chitin, water
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5. Which of the following statement is false with respect to adaptations?

A) Many xerophytic plants have thick cuticle on leaf epidermis, sunken stomata
B) Stomata open during night and shut during day – to reduce water loss by transpiration
C) Opuntia has spines (modified leaves), photosynthetic phylloclade (stem)
D) Adaptations are not genetically fixed
6. Which of the following statements are true for Camel in desert adaptation
(i) Excrete concentrated urine
(ii) Fat accumulates all over the body, so heat flow away from the body very fast
(iii) Camel’s hump store large amount of water
(iv) Long eyelashes protects their eyes from wind-blown sand
(v) Can drink large amount of water at a time and can fluctuates their body temperature
A) i, ii & iii B) i, iii & v C) i, iv & v D) i, ii & v
7. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the given plant.
(1) ‘X’ is xerophyte while ‘Y’ is hydrophyte

(2) In both ‘X’ & ‘Y’ stem is modified to form photosynthetic structure
(3) Both ‘X’ & ‘Y’ possess sunken stomata
(4) Both ‘X’ & ‘Y’ possess deep root system to draw water from the distance
A) 2, 3 & 4 B) 3 & 4 C) 2 & 4 D) 1, 2 & 3
8. Consider the following four conditions (I-IV) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to
environment in desert lizards. The conditions:
I. Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
II. Excrete dilute urine
III. Bask in sun when temperature is low
IV. Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
A) (I) and (III) B) (II) and (IV) C) (I) and (II) D) (III) and (IV)
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9. Read the following statements and fiind out which is incorrect regarding hydrophytes
A) Vascular tissues are poorly developed in these plants
B) Heterophylly is common in partially submerged plants
C) Epidermis of hydrophytes are covered with a well developed cuticle
D) Roots of hydrophytes do not play a role in water absorption.
10. Which among the following plants is predominant in scanty rain fall area
A) Utricularia B) Opuntia C) Salsola D) Rhizophora
11. The leaf like structures present in Acacia melenoxylon are
A) Phylloclade B) Cladode C) Phyllode D) None of these
12. Find out the wrong statement among the followings
A) In xerophytes root system is extensive, root hairs and root caps are well developed.
B) Mechanical tissues are poorly developed in hydrophytes
C) Prominent root caps are present n the root tips of Lemna
D) Eichhornia is a free floating exotic plant.
13. Opuntia has spine like leaves which help in
A) Reducing the rate of transpiration B) Increasing the rate of transpiration
C) Increasing the rate of photosynthesis D) Reducing the rate of photosynthesis
14. Lamina of a palm tree is dissected so as to adapt to
A) Intense light B) High wind velocity
C) Scarcity of moisture D) High temperature
15. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
a. Ceratophyllum i. free floating hydrophytes
b. Ephemerals ii. sub merged floating hydrophytes
c. Lemna iii. Xerophyte
d. Sunken stomata iv. Drought escapers
A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv B) a-ii, b-iii, c- iv, d-i C) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii.
16. Study the following statements and select the correct ones from the following codes
i) Vivipary is a method of seed germination seeing in hydrophytes
ii) Acacia spines are the modification of stipules
iii) The thick epidermal cell walls of xerophytes help them to reduce evaporation and to reflect the sunlight
iv) Heterophylly can be seen in the partially submerged plants
Codes:-
A) i and ii B) ii and iii C) i and iv D ) ii and iv.
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17. In Asparagus photosynthetic structure is called

A) Phyllode B) Phylloclade C) Leaves D) Cladode
18. Kangaroo and desert rat that live in conditions of water scarcity are capable of meeting all their water
requirements by
A) having a thick coat to minimise evaporate desiccation
B) Oxidising stored fat to produce water as by product
C) Producing very concentrated urine and solid faeces
D) All of these
19. Which of the following is an incorrect match
A) Bacteria - Thick walled resting spores
B) Lizard - Aestivation.
C) Zooplanktons - Diapause
D) Bear - Hibernation
20. According to Allen’s rule, the mammals from colder climates have
A) Shorter ears and longer limbs B) Longer ears and shorter limbs
C) Shorter ears and shorter limbs D) Longer ears and longer limbs
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CHAPTER - 03
IMPROVEMENT OF FOOD RESOURCES
INTRODUCTION
As the human population is increasing steadily there is an urgent requirement to rise the production of
food materials to feed the ever increasing population of the world. Animal husbandry and plant breeding
have to play a major role to this purpose.
Food is the combination of various organic and inorganic substances which is capable of providing
(i) energy for the various metabolic activities.
(ii) materials for repair / replacement of worn-out tissues in the body.
(iii) materials for growth and reproduction.
(iv) regulatory substances, body secretions and metabolic activities etc.
(a) Branches of Botany:
(i) Agriculture: It is the applied biological science which deals with the production of plants and raising of
animals useful to man, involving soil cultivation, breeding and management of crops and livestock.
(ii) Horticulture: It is the branch of agriculture and the science of growing vegetables, fruits and ornamental
plants.
(iii) Silviculture: Cultivation of wood and trees. e.g., Pine, teak wood.
(b) Crop Season: Different types of crops require different climatic conditions like:
(i) Temperature
(ii) Photoperiod (duration of light)
(iii) Completion of life cycle
Depending upon the growing season, there are two groups of crops:
Karif crop / Rainy season crop Rabi crop / Winter season crop
(i) They are grown during monsson / rainy (i) They are grown during winter season
season
(ii) They require warm and wet weather. (ii) They require cold and dry weather
(iii) They are sown in June/July and (iii) They are sown in October / November
harvested in September/October and harvested in March / April
(iv) E.g., Rice, Jowar, Bajra, Cotton, (iv) e.g., Wheat, Barley, Gram, Mustard,
Pea, Groundnut, Urad, Moong etc. Potato etc.
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IMPROVEMENT IN CROP YIELD

(i) Varietal improvement of crop through genetic manipulation.
(ii) Crop production management.
(iii) Crop protection management.
The various practices that are followed at various stages of production are as follows:
 Preparation of soil.
 Sowing.
 Application of manures and fertilizers.
 Irrigation.
 Weed control
 Crop protection.
 Harvesting, threshing and winnowing
 Storage
 Crop improvement
 Rotation of crops, mixed and multiple cropping.
VARIETAL IMPROVEMENT OF CROPS THROUGH GENETIC MANIPULATION
Main Aims are:
(A) Developing high yielding varieties
(B) Improved quality
(C) Early and uniform maturity
(D) Insensitivity to light and temperature
(E) Wider adaptability
(F) Lodging - resistant varieties
(G) Desirable agronomic characters
Plant breeding
The technique of producing improved varieties of crop plants by the introduction of several desired
characters into them is called as plant breeding. Scientists concerned with the improvement of crop
varieties are called as plant breeders.
Aims of plant breeding: New varieties of crop plants having:
(A) Higher yield.
(B) Resistance to heat, frost, drought etc.
(C) Early maturing varieties
 India is mainly an agriculture country. Agriculture accounts for approximately 33% of India’s GDP and
employs nearly 62% of total population.
 During the period of 1960 to 2000, wheat production increased from 11 million tonnes to 75 million
tonnes, while rice production increased from 35 million tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes. This was due to
the development of semi-dwarf varieties of wheat and rice.
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Green Revolution: In the mid 1960s, there was a dramatic increase in the food production of India was
occurred due to the development of several high yielding varieties of wheat and rice. This phase is often
referred to as the Green revolution.
The semi dwarf varieties of rice were derived from IR8, developed at international rice research institute
( IRRI) Philippines and Taichung Native-1 from Taiwan .The derivatives were introduced to India in 1966.
Later high yielding semi dwarf varieties like Jaya and Ratna were developed in India.
 Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is known as the father of green revolution. He stressed the need of breeding
programmes in 1967, he developed a high yield dwarf variety of wheat Sharbati Sonara.
Plant breeding techniques
Several methods are there for the genetic improvement of crop plants like introduction, selection,
hybridization, mutation breeding and new technologies, tissue culture.
(A) Introduction: It refers to the taking of superior varieties of crop plants from the place of their natural
cultivation to the place where they were never grown earlier.
e.g., Sonalika and Kalyan sona are the high yielding wheat varieties introduced to India from Mexico in
1963.
(B) Selection: It is the process in which economic plants having best desired characters are picked up
from the given population and seeds of such plants are used for future cultivation. e.g., Maize and
Cabbage are represented by their cultivated varieties only.
Natural - Survival of the fittest
Selection can be
Artificial - Based on the human needs and interests
(C) Hybridization: It means the process of crossbreeding of two genetically dissimilar varieties of crop
plants (each having a specific and better characteristics) to obtain a new crop plant having both the
desired characteristics is called as hybridization.
Parent 1 Parent 2
(with a desired character, (with a desired character,
like high-yield) like disease - resistance)
x
Hybrid variety
(High - yielding and disease-resistance)
Crop plants produced in this way are called as hybrid varieties of high yielding varieties.
Inter varietal - Between two different varieties
Hybridization may be Inter specific - Between two species of same genus
Inter generic - Between plants belonging to different genera

 Mutation breding: It is possible to induce mutations artificially through use of chemicals (EMS) or
radiations like gamma radiations, and selecting and using thep lants that have the desirable character
as a source in breeding this process is called mutation breeding.
e.g., Mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by mutation.
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 Tissue Culture: It is the cultivation of plant cells, tissues or organs on a specially modified nutrient
media. It is an important technology for the production of disease - free, high quality planting materials
and the rapid production of many uniform plants.
II. CROP PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT
In order to improve and manage our crop production system, we have to focus on cheaper and farmer
friendly approaches. As there is direct co-relationship between the higher yields and input applications.
Successful crop production depends upon: Understanding how crops develop and grow. How various
factors affect the growth and development of crops and How each factor can be modified and managed.
Approaches for crop production includes:
(a) Nutrient management
(b) Irrigation
(c) Cropping patterns (Mixed cropping; Inter cropping and Crop rotation)
(A) Nutrient Management: Plant nutrients are the mineral elements needed by the plants for their growth,
development and maintenance. Plants absorb a large number of elements from soil, besides water
and air from nature., Out of 40 elements present in plant ash only 16 elements are considered as
essential nutrients for plants,. They are: Carbon, Iron, Hydrogen, Manganese, Oxygen, Boron, Nitrogen,
Zinc, Phosphorous, Copper, Potassium, Molybdenum, Magnesium, Chlorine, Sulphur and Calcium.
(a) Sources of plant nutrients: The plants obtain their nutrients mainly from the soil. Out of the total 16
nutrients, as many as 13 are absorbed from the soil.
(b) Characteristics of an essential plant nutrient: In the absence of such element, the plant is not able
to complete its life cycle. Such element must have a direct influence on the plant nutrition and
metabolism. The requirement of such element must be specific and cannot be replaced by another
element. Deficiency of such element can be corrected or prevented only by supplying that nutrient.
(c) Classification of plant nutrients:
Macronutrients Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen,

Phosphorus, Potassium, Calcium,
Magnesium, Sulphur
Micronutrients Iron, Manganese, Copper, Zinc, Boron,
Molybdenum, Chlorine
Besides these, carbon, oxygen and hydrogen are called framework elements.
(d) Manure: A manure is a mixture of various decomposed organic substances like dead leaves, city
garbage, agricultural wastes, animal dung, crop residue etc. through the action of microbes. Manure
increases the fertility and productivity of crops, as they contain plenty of organic compounds and almost
all the essential elements required by the plants.
Types of Manure:
1. Farm yard: Partially decomposed mixture of cattle excreta (dung and urine) along with litter (bedding
material) and left over organic matter.
2. Compost: It is prepared by a biological decomposition of farm and town refuse (vegetable and animal
refuse).
3. Green manure: It is prepared by growing, ploughing and mixing of young and green crops of leguminous
and non-leguminous plants.
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(e) Fertilizers: These are commercially manufactured inorganic salts or an organic compound containing
one or more essential plant nutrients like Nitrogen, Phosphorous or Potassium which are used for
increasing soil fertility. Fertilizers usually contain higher amount of nutrients than manures hence required
in small quantities.
Types of Fertilizers
Nitrogenous Phosphatic Potassium Mixed

Contains nitrogen Phosphorus as Potassium as Potassium as
as principal nutrient principal nutrient principal nutrient More than one nutrient
(NPK)
Potassium
ammonium
phosphate
Disadvantages of fertilizers:
(A) Fertilizers can change the chemical composition of soil and thus deteriorate the soil quality.
(B) They can cause water pollution and eutrophication in near by water bodies. Hazards of using fertilizers:
Though use of fertilizers has brought about significant increase in crop yields, however, the continued
use affects soil quality and brings about pollution of water bodies.
Application of fertilizers: Fertilizers are applied before sowing, during irrigation or sprayed on standing
crops. But fertilizers are never applied directly to soil if the crop is standing. It would bring about wilting
of crop due to exosmosis because of increase in the osmotic pressure around the roots of the plants.
Only urea is an organic compound.
TABLE: DIFFERENCES BETWEEN MANURES AND FERTILIZERS
Sl.No. Manures Fertilisers

1 Manures are organic natural substances Fertilisers are inorganic or organic substances
derived from the decomposition of
biological materials (Plants and animal
2 Manures contain organic matter in large Organic matter is not present
quantities
3 Manures contain nutrients in small Fertilisers contain much higher amount of
quantities, and are needed in large nutrients and are required in very small
quantities quantities.
4 They are not nutrient - specific These are nutrient - specific.
5 They are prepared in fields and villages These are manufactured in factories
6 Manures are bulky substances. So, these These are available in concentrated form. So
are inconvenient to store, use and transport these are easy to store, use and transport.
7 Manures do not cause pollution They cause water pollution
(f) Vermicomposting: Composting with the help of earthworms is called vermicomposting. Earthworms
help in breakdown of wastes. This activity along with the excreta of the worms makes the compost rich
in nutrients.
(g) Biofertilizers: Biofertilizers are micro-organisms (like bacteria, algae and fungi used singly or in
combination) or biologically active products which are used to enrich soil fertility. Some of the biofertilizers
are given:
Rhizobium (Bacteria) - symbiosis with Leguminous plants
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Anabaena (Cyanobacteria) - symbiosis with Azolla

Azotobacter - Free living Bacteria in soil
Anabaena, Nostoc - Both are cyanobacteria
Mycorrhiza - (symbiotic association of fungi with roots of higher plants).
(h) Organic Farming: Cultivation of land without conserving soil fertility and soil structure would lead
ultimately to the development of deserts. Excessive and indiscriminate use of pesticides, fungicides
and herbicides as is done in present day agriculture could lead to changes in biological balance of
nature and affect the population of soil organisms. It also increases the occurrence of cancer and other
diseases.
Ecological farming or organic farming is a farming system in which chemical fertilisers, herbicides or
pesticides are minimally used or not used at all. Instead of manures recycled farm wastes and
biofertilisers are used in place of chemical fertilisers. Neem leaves or turmeric are used as biopesticides
specifically in case of stored food grains.
Advantages of organic farming:
(1) Natural ecosystem is not disturbed, as organic farming is in harmony with the natural ecosystem.
(2) Soil fertility is preserved.
(3) Harmful effects of chemicals on the living organisms are avoided.
(4) Pollution of air, water and soil does not take place. The basic objective of cropping is to achieve insurance
against total crop failure under poor rainfall conditions and there by minimizing risk and monetary loses.
(B) Irrigation: Process of supplying water to crop plants growing in the field by means of canals, reservoir,
wells, tube-wells etc. is known as irrigation. Water requirements or irrigation of crop plants depends on
two factors.
Crop-based irrigation: Water requirement of different crop plants varies at different stages of their
growth and maturation e.g. paddy crop is transplanted in standing water and also requires continuous
water supply whereas this much water is not required for wheat, gram, cotton, maize etc.
Soil-based irrigation: Irrigation also depends on the nature of soil in which crop is grown, e.g., if two
wheat crops are grown together one in sandy and another in clay soil, then in sandy more frequent
irrigation is needed than clay soil.
Irrigation systems: Recently used irrigation systems in our country are as follows:
(A) Sprinkler Irrigation system: It is water efficient system and is being introduced in the canal irrigated
areas of Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. A device having perforated ring or small stand with
a revolving nozzle to which a base is attached is used for watering crop plants. This system spreads
water uniformly over crop plants and fields, required quantity of water is supplied.
(B) Drip-Irrigation system: Modern system being encouraged in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh,
Orissa and Tamil Nadu for fruit crops. Fertigation is an innovative method for applying fertilizers through
drip irrigation to maximize farm productivity with available water.
(C) Cropping patterns:
(A) Mixed cropping: It is the practice of growing two or more types of crops simultaneously on the same
piece of land. Different crops to be grown are selected in such a way that products and wastes from
one crop can stimulate the growth of other crop.
(B) Intercropping: Improved version of traditional mixed cropping in which two or more crops are grown
simultaneously in the same field but in a definite row pattern is called intercropping.
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Advantages: Productivity is increased. It economises space and time of cultivating two or more crops at a
time . It helps to maintain soil fertility.
(C) Crop rotation: Practice of growing different crops on a piece of land in a preplanned succession
depending upon the duration.
Crop rotation confirms following benefits:
(A) All crops do not require the plant nutrients in the same proportion. By growing crops in rotation, the
fertility of the soil is utilised more evenly. So the soil is not depleted in a particular nutrient.
(B) When different crops are grown, the operations concerned with the preparation of soil, manuring, sowing,
harvesting and other operations are spread throughout the year, thereby reducing the work pressure at
any particular time.
(C) When different crops are grown on the field one after another, the yields of product obtained are greater
than when the same crops are grown year after year.
(D) The incidences of weeds, pests and diseases are reduced.
III. CROP PROTECTION MANAGEMENT
It includes eradication of pests, pathogens, weeds and other organisms that causes harm to the crop
plants.
 Pests: These are the organisms like insects, rats, mites, weeds, fungi etc. which damage or destroy
cultivated plants or plant products and can even make them unfit for human consumption.
 Pathogens: These are disease causing organisms and include bacteria, fungi, virus etc.
 Weeds: These are unwanted plants that grow and live at the expense of main crop.
Effective methods to control pests:
(A) Pesticides or biopesticides: Chemicals (poisons) used to kill pests of plants such as insects, mites,
rats, etc. are known as pesticides. They are of following types:
Fungicide : To kill fungi
Weedicide : To kill weeds
Rodenticide : To kill rodents like rats, moles
Nematicide : To kill nematodes
(B) Insect - pest control: Some insects are serious pests of crop plants such as:
(1) Chewing insects: Locust, grasshopper, caterpillar larva etc., which destroy all sorts of crop plants.
Control: By immixing chlorophyriphos in the soil.
(2) Sucking Insects: Aphids, leaf hopper suck cell sap from various plant parts. Control: By spraying
Malathion.
(3) Borer insects: Sugarcane borer, pod borer, grain weevil, cotton boll worm. Internal feeders, live
inside the parts of crops plants. Control: By the spray of Metasystox.
Weeds: The small-sized unwanted plants which grow along with a cultivated crop in a field are called
weeds. They also affect the crop yield due to following ill effects.
 The ill effects of weed is that they harbour pests and spread crop pests and crop diseases, since they
act as alternate host to insects and microorganisms.
 Some types of weeds produce toxic substances which may interfere with crop growth or which may
poison the crop produced.
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(A) Types of weeds: Infestation of weeds is more during kharif season than in ‘rabi’ season. Based on the
morphology of plants, weeds can be classified into narrow-leaf weeds and broadleaf weeds.
Some of the important weeds of kharif season are the following:
Narrow leaf weeds: Nutgrass or Motha, Wild sorghum or Jangli jowar.
Broad leaf weeds: Chauli, Saathi,
Some of the important weeds of ‘rabi’ season which infest wheat crop are the following.
Broad leaf weeds: Bathua, Hirankhuri.
(B) Weeds control: It can be controlled by following ways:
1. Mechanical methods - By weeding, removing weeds from crop fields by harrow, interculture ploughing,
burning and flooding.
2. Chemical method - Using chemicals called herbicides or weedicides e.g., 2, 4-D, Nitrofen, Atrazine.
3. Biological method - Employ living organisms to destroy weeds .e.g., Cassia plant prevents the growth
of parthenium weed, herbivorous fish feed on aquatic weeds and can be used to control growth of
weeds.
Advantages of biological method: It does not cause pollution. Organisms are harmless to the main crop.
STORAGE OF GRAINS
Food grains in our country are lost due to inadequate and improper storage. Factors responsible for
such a great loss during storage are as follows:
(i) Biotic (living): Insects, rodents, birds, mites etc. Insect-pests Common insect-pests include weevils,
beetles, locusts, mites, aphids, grasshoppers, bugs and termites. Insect-pests damage/harm the plants
in following ways. They cut root, stem and leaves. They suck the cell sap from various plant parts. They
bore into stems and fruits.
They eat stored grains.
(ii) Abiotic (non-living) factors responsible for loss of stored grains: Temperature, Moisture, Humidity,
Material of container in which grains are stored.
(A) Preventive Measures:
(i) Drying before storage
(ii) Maintenance of hygiene
(iii) Plant - product treatment
(iv) Improved storage structures
(B) Control Measures: Pests are controlled by the use of chemicals called pesticides. Fumigation is the
most convenient and effective method of pest control in stored grains inside godowns. Fumigants are
volatile (gaseous) chemicals that quickly vaporize and the resultant fumes kill the insects without affecting
the grains. Utmost care has to be taken in handling of pesticides as these are equally harmful to
humans and domestic animals.
ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
• Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising live stock like cows, buffaloes,
pigs, horses, sheep, goats, etc, that are useful to man.
• It is the management and care of farm animals for profit, in which genetic qualities and behaviour
considered to be advantageous to humans are further developed.
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• Provides methods to produce good quality, high yielding breeds of domestic animals.
• Plays a vital role in supplementing family income and generating employment.
• It also includes poultry farming, and fisheries.
• Most important livestock of India are buffaloes and cows.
• More than 70% of the world livestock population is present in India and China.
• The contribution of India to the world farm produce is 25%, ie, productivity per unit is very low.
• NDRI – National Dairy Research Institute was established during the first five year plan at Karnal in
Haryana.
• NDDB – National Dairy Development Board. Its founder chairman is Dr. Varghese Kurien.
• White revolution - For the production of milk and its products
• Green revolution - For the enhanced production of agricultural products.
• Blue revolution - For the production of fish and its products
• Silver revolution - For the production of eggs
• Yellow revolution - For the production of oil rich seeds
• Golden revolution - For the production of fruits / honey / horticulture development
• Brown revolution - For the production of leather products
• Father of white revolution - Dr. Varghese Kurien
• Father of green revolution in the world - Norman E Borlaug (An American agronomist , was awarded
the Nobel Prize in 1970)
• Father of green revolution in India - Dr. M S Swaminathan
DAIRY FARM MANAGEMENT
• It is the rearing and management of cattle for milk and its products, for human consumption.
• Dairy farm management deals with the processes and systems that are needed to increase the yield
and improve the quality of milk.
• It includes
• Milk yield is primarily dependent on the quality of breeds in the farm. Selection of good breeds having
high yielding potential (under the climatic conditions of the area), combined with resistance to
diseases is very important.
• For the yield potential to be realised the cattle have to be well looked after – they have to be housed
well, should have adequate water and be maintained disease free.
• The feeding of cattle should be carried out in a scientific manner – with special emphasis on the quality
and quantity of fodder.
• Stringent cleanliness and hygiene (both of the cattle and the handlers) are of paramount importance
while milking, storage and transport of the milk and its products.
• Nowadays, of course, much of these processes have become mechanised, which reduces chance of
direct contact of the produce with the handler.
• Ensuring these stringent measures would of course, require regular inspections, with proper record
keeping.
• It would also help to identify and rectify the problems as early as possible.
• Regular visits by a veterinary doctor would be mandatory.
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BREEDS OF COW
• Cows can be broadly categorized into two types of breeds namely Indigenous breeds and Exotic
breeds
Indigenous breeds – They are the native breeds of cows, ie, those found mostly in India. They are of
three types.
Milch breed
• High milk yielding breeds
Eg. Vechur breed ( Kerala – shortest cow breed in the world), Sahiwal breed (Punjab), Red Sindi
breed, Gir breed (Gujarat)
Draught breed
• Used mainly for transportation or to do work.
Eg. Nagori, Malir
General utility breed / Dual purpose breed
• Used for milk and transportation.
Eg. Ongole, Tharparkar, Dangi, Kankrej
Exotic breeds : They are the breeds of cows that are introduced in India from abroad.
Example
• Jersey - England
• Swiss Brown - Switzerland
• Red Dane - Denmark
• Holstein Fresian (HF) - Holland, it is a cross breed, highest milk yielding breed in the world. Aver
age milk production 40 - 45 litres per day
• Ayrshire cattle – Scotland
BREEDS OF BUFFALOES
• Murrah - Punjab
• Surti - Gujarat
• Mehsana - Gujarat
CATTLE DISEASES
No. Dise ase Causativ e age nt Symptoms
1 Anthrax Bacillus anthracis fever, vom iting, diarrhea, loss of
appetite, abdom inal pain
2 Mastitis Corynebacterium inflam m ation of udder tissue
3 Foot and Mouth disease Aptho virus blis ters in m outh and feet
4 Bovine spongiform Prion disease Brain disorder in cows (can
encephalopathy (A prion is a type of spread to hum ans by
(BSE) or Mad cow protein that can trigger consum ption of infected m eat)
disease norm al proteins in the
brain to fold abnorm ally).
POULTRY
• It is the rearing and management of domestic fowls for meat and eggs.
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• Poultry typically includes hens, ducks, geese, turkey, etc.

• They are classified as:
Broilers : These are meat yielding birds
Layers : These are egg laying birds
Management of poultry farm includes
• Selection of disease free and suitable breeds
• Proper and safe farm conditions
• Proper feed and water
• Hygiene and health care
BREEDS OF FOWLS
Indigenous breeds
• They are hardy, disease resistant but are small, slow growing and lay very few and small eggs.
Examples : Aseel, Giriraj, Chittagong, Cochin, Ghagus, etc.
Exotic breeds
• They are high egg yielding and larger birds.
Examples
• White leghorn - Italy
• Minorca hen - Spain
• Sussex - England
• Rhode island red - USA
• Plymouth rock - USA
• New Hampshire - USA
POULTRY DISEASES
No. Disease Causative agent

1 Avian flu / Bird flu H5 N1
2 New Castle’s disease / Ranikhet disease Paramyxovirus
3 Coccidiosis Coccidia (protozoa)
4 Aspergillosis Aspergillus (fungus)
PISCICULTURE
• It is the rearing and management of fishes in an aquatic body under controlled conditions.
• Our fresh water edible fish include catfishes such as Wallago, mystus etc.
• Indian major carps include Catla, Rohu, Mrigal (Cirrhina).
• Exotic varieties include Silver carp and Grass carp.
• Catla is the fastest growing carp of great economic significance.
Marine fisheries : India’s marine fishery resources include 7500 km of coastline and the deep seas
beyond it.
• Popular marine fish varieties are pomphret, mackerel, tuna, sardines and Bomby duck.
• Yield are increased by locating large schools of fish in the open sea using satellites and echo-
sounders.
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• Some marine fish of high economic value are also farmed in seawater.
• This includes finned fishes like mullets, bhetki and pearl spots, shellfish such as prawns, mussels and
oysters as well as seaweed.
• Marine fish culture is called mariculture.
Inland fisheries : Fresh water resources include canals, ponds, reservoirs and rivers.
• Catlas are surface feeders.
• Rohus feed in middle zone of the pond.
• Mrigals and common Carps feed on the weeds.
Composite Fish Culture : The combination of six species is used in this system. Out of the six
species, three are of Indian origin (Catla, Rohu, Mrigal) and three are exotic (from China). The exotic
species are silver carp, grass carp and common carp. This combination is highly advantageous
because :
1. These fishes do not compete for food because they have different types of food habits.
2. The food available in all the zones (parts) of the pond is utilized due to their food habits. For example,
catla is surface feeder, rohu feeds in middle zone of the pond (column feeder) and mrigal and common
carp feed at the bottom. Grass carp feeds on aquatic weeds.
Blue revolution refers to increase in the fish production.
Mariculture : Farming of aquatic organisms in a marine environment
Edible fresh water fishes
• Labeo rohitha (Rohu)
• Catla
• Clarias (Magur /Catfish)
• Cyprinus carpio (Carp)
Edible marine fishes
• Sardinella (Sardines)
• Mackerel – National fish of India
• Pomfret
• Hilsa
APICULTURE
• It is the rearing of honey bees and the maintenance of their hive for the production of honey and
beeswax.
• Honey has high nutritive value and is also useful in the indigenous system of medicine.
• Beeswax is used in the manufacture of cosmetics, polishes, etc.
• Honey bees are also good pollinators, they pollinate many important species of plants like apples,
sunflower, Brassica, etc.
• Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases pollination efficiency and improves
the yield – beneficial both from the point of view of crop yield and honey yield.
• An apiary is the place (artificial hive) where honey bees are reared.
Species which can be reared are
• Apis indica - Indian bee.
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It is the most common species of honey bee in India. It can be reared in artificial hives.
• A. dorseta - Rock bee
• A. florea - Little bee
• A. mellifera - Italian / European bee. It is an exotic variety of honey bee
Colony of honey bee
• Honey bees exhibit polymorphism and there are three types of bees in a hive. They are:
Queen bee
• Diploid fertile female
• A single queen in a hive
• Responsible only to lay eggs (2000 eggs per season)
• The queen copulates only once in her lifetime.
Worker bees
• Diploid sterile female
• They are responsible for building the hive, taking care of the eggs, larvae and the queen, they procure
nectar and pollen grain.
• They feed the larvae and queen with royal jelly
• Royal jelly is digested honey and pollen mixed with glandular secretions.
• Beeswax is secreted from 8 wax secreting glands in the abdominal segments of the worker bees.
Drones
• Haploid fertile males that develop from unfertilized eggs by parthenogenesis.
• Responsible for mating with the queen.
METHODS OF BEE-KEEPING
Bee-keeping can be practiced in any area where there are sufficient bee pastures of some wild shrubs,
fruit orchards and cultivated crops. There are several species of honeybees which can be reared. Of
these, the most common species is Apis indica. Beehives can be kept in one’s courtyard, on the
verandah of the house or even on the roof. Bee-keeping is not labour-intensive. Bee-keeping though
relatively easy does require some specialised knowledge and there are several organisations that
teach bee-keeping.
The following points are important for successful bee-keeping:
i. Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
ii. Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives.
iii. Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees).
iv. Management of beehives during different seasons, and
v. Handling and collection of honey and of beeswax.
• Bees are the pollinators of many of our crop species such as sunflower, Brassica, apple and pear.
Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases pollination efficiency and improves
the yield-beneficial both from the point of view of crop yield and honey yield. Bees are reared in artificial
hives. Indian standard institute has standardised the hives of small and big sized frames of 21 × 14.5
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and 31 × 20.4 cm, respectively. The modern beehive is made up of a series of square or oblong boxes
without tops or bottoms, set one above the other. This hive has the floor at the bottom and a crown
board at the top and a roof over all. Inside these boxes, wooden frames are vertically hung paralled to
each other.
• The wooden frames are filled with sheets of wax foundation on which the combs are built by the bee.
The only entrance to the hive is below the large bottom box (brood chamber). The queen is usually
confined to the brood chamber. The boxes termed supers are used for storage of honey.
• The queen is prevented from going to the supers by the queen excluder that allow only the workers to
move. Collected swarm is trasferred to the hive to build up the colony and produce honey. Honey is
stored in combs of super frames. It is extracted from the comb by a simple machine called honey
extractor.
Typical movable beehive

Products of bees
• Bees are raised to obtain following products.
i. Honey
• It is white to black in colour and very sweet in taste. The smell of honey is variable depending upon
juices collected from different flowers.
• 2.1 g honey provides about 68 kcal energy. About 200 g of honey provides as much energy as 11.6 L of
milk. The average pH of honey is 3.9, but can change range from 3.4 - 6.1.Honey contains many kinds
of acids (both organic and amino) and vitamin-B1, B2 nicotinic acid (B3), pantothenic acid (B5). A number
of ayurvedic medicines are taken with honey. Honey is a good blood purifier and it works as a curative
for ulcers on tongue and alimentary canal. It is also used in making bread cake and biscuits.
Chemical composition of honey is
a. Ash 01.00%
b. Enzyme and pigments 02.21 %
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c. Maltose and other sugar 08.81%

d. Water 17.20%
e. Dextrose 21.28%
f. Levulose 38.90%
g. Iron, calcium and sodium
ii. Beeswax
• It is a yellowish to greyish-brown coloured waxy byproduct of beekeeping. Bee wax is a secretory
product of hypodermal glands (wax glands) of the abdomen (ventral side of second to fifth abdominal
segment) of worker bee. It is insoluble in water, but completely soluble in organic solvents such as
ether.
Uses of beeswax are
a. In the manufacture of face cream, paints, insulators, ointments, carbon paper, polishes, candles and
many other lubricants.
b. In biology lab, for block preparation for microtome sectioning.
iii. Bee venom
• It is used in the treatment of arthritis and snake bite.
COMMUNICATION OF HONEY BEES
• Karl von Frisch was awarded the Nobel prize in 1969 for decoding the honey bee’s communication
language.
• The communication is by Bee dance, which is of two types.
Round dance
• It is performed by the worker bees when the source of food is within 70m from the hive.
• In such a dance the direction of food is not indicated.
• Tail wagging dance:
• It is performed by the worker bees when the source of food is more than 70m away from the hive.
• This dance conveys the direction of food from the sun.
POINTS TO NOTE
• Heterosis / Hybrid vigour : It is the superiority of offsprings over their parents.
• Free Martin : A female calf that is born as a twin with a male and is sterile as a result of exposure to the
male hormones produced by the male twin.
• Stilbesterol : It’s a hormone used to induce lactation in sterile and immature cows.
• Kashmiri Pashmina : It is a fine type of wool obtained from Kashmiri goats.
• Angora wool : It is the wool produced by Angora rabbits that are found in countries such as China and
Chile.
• Culling : It is the separation and elimination of sick and non productive birds in poultry farming.
• Fish meal : Produced from non edible fish parts like fins, tail, etc. Rich source of proteins for cattle,
poultry, etc.
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QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. Green revolution in India occurred during
A) 1960’s B) 1970’s C) 1980’s D) 1950’s
2. Father of Indian Green Revolution.
A) M.S. Swaminathan B) Normen Borlaug C) Malthus D) Ramdeo Misra
3. Green revolution in India was possible due to
A) Better Irrigation, fertilizers and pesticide facilities
B) Exploitation of high yielding varieties
C) Intensive cultivation
D) All of the above
4. Credit for bringing green revolution to India goes to
OR
Scented basmati rice is the contribution of
A) B.P. Pal B) Norman Borlaug C) M.S. Swaminathan D) K.C. Mehta
5. Which of these is not allowed in organic farming
A) Vermicompost B) Cover crops C) Sewage sludge D) Crop rotation
6. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of
A) Wheat B) Rice C) Millet D) Tobacco
7. High yielding dwarf genes from Taiwan in rice are
A) Norin-10 B) Dee-geo-woo-gen C) nif genes D) None of these
8. Organic farming is important because
A) it is less harmful to environment B) It increases soil structure
C) No harmful chemical is used D) All of the above
9. Aims of plant breeding are to produce
A) Disease - free varieties B) High yielding varieties
C) Early maturing varieties D) All of the above
10. Which among the following is a narrow leaf weed.
A) Chenopodium B) Amaranthus C) Convolvulus D) Wild sorghum
11. Read the following statements:
a. Apis indica is the most common species of honey bee in India and can be reared in artificial hives.
b. Best silk is obtained from Bombyx mori
c. Common carp is an example of a type of shell fish
d. Foot and mouth disease is a common viral disease seen in birds
Of the above statements
A) Four are false B) Three are false C) Two are false D) Only one is false
12. Which of the following industry is devoted to the catching, processing or selling of fish, shellfish or
other aquatic animals?
A) Mariculture B) Pisciculture C) Inland fishery D) Apiculture
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13. Stage of silkworm from which silk is obtained:

A) Cocoon B) Adult C) Caterpillar D) Egg
14. Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
A) Honey B) Oil C) Wax D) Royal jelly
15. Ranikhet is a disease of
A) Poultry B) Fish C) Cattle D) Bees
16. Match the items in column I with that of column II
Column I Column II
a) Silver revolution i) milk production
b) Green revolution ii) fish production
c) Blue revolution iii) egg production
d) White revolution iv) crop production
A) a- iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i B) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
C) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii D) a - i, b - iv, c - ii, d - iii
17. Which among the following is the real product of honey bees?
A) Beeswax B) Honey C) Pollen D) All
18. Which one of the following is a marine fish?
A) Rohu B) Hilsa C) Catla D) Common Carp
19. Workers of honey bees are:
A) Fertile males B) Fertile females C) Sterile females D) Sterile males
20. Birds reared for meat are called
A) Layers B) Broilers C) Roosters D) Chickens
LEVEL II
1. Biofertilizers are
A) some bacteria and cyanobacteria
B) fertilizers formed by ploughing in barseem
C) fertilizers obtained by decay of dead organisms
D) fertilizers prepared by mixing cattle dung with crop residues
2. Triticale is a man-made cereal which has been developed through hybridization between:
A) Wheat and oat B) Wheat and Rice C) Wheat and Gram D) Wheat and Rye
3. Compost manure is produced from:
A) Farmyard manure and green manure
B) Farm refuse and household refuse
C) Organic remains of biogas plants
D) Rotted vegetables and animal refuse
4. Desired improved varieties of economically useful crops are raised by
A) Migration B) Biofertilizer C) Hybridization D) Natural selection
5. Selection is the method of
A) Plant physiology B) Plant breeding C) Genetics D) Cytology
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6. Improved Indian variety of wheat, carrying genes of dwarfness and higher percentage of protein and
lysine is
OR
Which was first Indian dwarf amber grained variety of wheat made from Sonora 64 by  -rays (gamma
rays)
A) Lerma safed B) Kalyan C) Sharbati sonora D) Sonalika
7. Which of the following is an organic farming particle that helps maintain soil health?
A) Sewage sludge B) Synthetic fertilizers C) Monoculture D) Crop rotation
8. The dwarf varieties of wheat brought from Mexico to India were
A) Lerma safed B) Kalyan C) Sharbati sonora D) Sonalika
9. The shifting cultivating method called jhum belongs to the category of
A) Industrial forestry B) Agro forestry
C) Commercial forestry D) Social forestry
10. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A) Rhizobium - Parasite in the roots of leguminous plants
B) Mycorrhizae - Mineral uptake from soil
C) Yeast - Production of biogas
D) Azospirillum - Symbiotic N2 - fixing bacterium
11. Royal jelly is composed of
A) Digested pollen alone
B) Honey and pollen
C) Digested honey and pollen with glandular secretion
D) Mucus
12. White leghorn is related to
A) Apiculture B) Dairy farming C) Pisciculture D) Poultry
13. Honeybee makes honey from
A) pollen B) petals C) nectar D) bud
14. Below are names of some animals.
(i) Cow (ii) Sheep (iii) Horse (iv) Ox
Which of the above are sources of milk for human beings?
A) (i) and (iii) B) (i) and (ii) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (iii) and (iv)
15. Match the following
A B
i. Broiler chicken a. Indian bee
ii. Jersey cow b. For meat
iii. Bombay duck c. Exotic breed
iv. Apis indica d. Marine fish
A) i - b, ii - c, iii - a , iv - d B) i - d, ii - a, iii - c , iv - b
C) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a D) i - a, ii - b, iii - c , iv - d
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16. Cattle husbandry is done for the following purposes

(i) Milk Production (ii) Agricultural work (iii) Meat production (iv) Egg production
A) (i), (ii) and (iii) B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) C) (iii) and (iv) only D) (i) and (iv) only
17. What is the basic root of any breeding programme?
A) Mutation B) Green revolution
C) Genetic variability D) Genetic similarity
18. Inland fisheries are
A) Deep sea fishing B) Capturing fishes from sea coast
C) Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water D) Oil extraction from fish
19. Exotic breeds of poultry are
A) White leghorn and Rhode Island Red B) Rhode island red and Aseel
C) Plymouth and Aseel D) White leghorn and aseel
20. Queen Bees are
A) Sterile females B) Fertile males C) Fertile females D) Sterile males
LEVEL III
1. Production of plant without fertilization is done by
A) Vegetative propagation B) Transplantation
C) Grafting D) None of these
2. Fungicides and antibiotics are chemical that
A) Enhance yield and disease resistance
B) Kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria respectively
C) Kill all pathogenic microbes
D) Kill pathogenic bacteria and fungi respectively
3. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column I Column II
a) Green revolution i) Milk production
b) Pisciculture ii) Crop plants
c) White revolution iii) Fish production
d) Blue revolution iv) Rearing of fishes
A) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) B) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)
C) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i) D) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
4. The main problem caused by the use of pesticide is
A) Their residues persist in water and other components of the environment
B) Mosquitoes have become resistant to DDT
C) They kill silk worm
D) They deform the gills of some fishes
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5. Tissue culture technique can produce infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The
economic importance of the technique is in raising
A) Genetically uniform population identical to the original parent
B) Homozygous diploid plants
C) Development of new species
D) Variants through picking up somaclonal variations
6. Which of the following combinations is generally recommended for composite fish farming in India?
A) Catla, Labeo and Cirrhinus B) Catla, Cyprinus and Clarius
C) Clarius, Channa and Cyprinus D) Cirrhinus, Cyprinus and Channa
7. Murrah, Mehsana, Jaffarbadi are breeds of
A) Buffalo B) Cow C) Cattle D) Horse
8. Select the correct match.
Column I Column II
a) Rock bee i) Apis indica
b) Little bee ii) Apis dorsata
c) European bee iii) Apis florea
d) Indian bee iv) Apis mellifera
A) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) B) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
C) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
9. The aquaculture involves the production of useful
A) aquatic plants B) shrimps and prawns C) fishes and oysters D) All of these
10. Honey has high content of
A) levulose B) glucose C) sucrose D) fructose
11. Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
A) Honey B) Oil C) Wax D) Royal jelly
12. In honeybees, the drones develop from
A) fertilised egg B) unfertilised egg C) schisogony D) asexual reproduction
13. It is estimated that more than 70 percent of the world livestock population is in
A) India and Pakistan B) India and Nepal C) India and China D) India and America
14. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty
acids?
A) Mrigala B) Mackerel C) Mystus D) Magur
15. Composite fish farming is called :
A) Polyculture B) Pisciculture C) Monoculture D) None of these
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CHAPTER - 04
NATURAL RESOURCES AND ITS MANAGEMENT
NATURALRESOURCES
It indicates the potential wealth of a country. The substances that man gets from earth and nature to meet
his basic needs are called natural resources.
Natural resources are living and non-living.
Types of Natural Resources:
(i) Based on availability: The natural resources are categorized into two types.
(a) Inexhaustible natural resources.
(b) Exhaustible natural resources.
Inexhaustible Exhaustible
Resources that are in unlimited Resources that are in limited quantity
quantity
Resources that are not likely to be Resources that is likely to be exhausted by
exhausted by human activity or activities.
their use
Examples : Air, Water & Solar
Radiations
Non-Renewable Renewable
Cannot replenish Can replenish
themselves by recycling themselves by quick
& replacement recycling and
replacement within a
reasonable time
These may be Not likely to be
exhausted. exhausted
Examples : Minerals, Examples: Soil, Forest
Fossil fuels and Wild life
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(ii) Based on origin: On the basis of their origin resources may be biotic (organic) or abiotic (inorganic).
Biotic (organic) Abiotic (inorganic)

Biotic resources are obtained from the Resources composed of nonliving
biosphere inorganic matter
Examples: Forest and forest products, Examples: Land, water and minerals like
crops, birds, animal, fish and other iron, copper, lead and gold
marine life forms
Coal and mineral oil also belong to
this category since they originate
fromOrganic matter.
Some biotic resources like forest and
livestock are renewable, whereas coal
and oil are non-renewable
(iii) Based on utility: Every resource has some utility. For example, some are used as food, some as raw
materials and others as sources of energy.
AIR OR ATMOSPHERE
The multi-layered, transparent and protective envelope of gases surrounding the planet earth is called
atmosphere. About 95% of total air is present up to the height of 20 km above earth's surface; remaining
5% is up to the height of 280 km.
Composition of Air:
Gas Relative percentage / volume
Nitrogen 78.08%
Oxygen 20.94%
Argon 0.90%
Carbon dioxide 0.03%
He, Ne, Kr, Xe in trace amounts
Also possesses water vapour, industrial gases. dust, smoke
particles, microorganisms, pollen grains, fungal spores
DIFFERENT REGIONS OF ATMOSPHERE
Sl. Range of Density of

Region Importance
No Distance Air
1 Troposphere 11 kms from the Highest Most of the atmospheric airis present here. It
Surface of earth is a medium for locomotion of flying animals,
helps in dispersal of seeds and fruits; region
of cloud formation.
2 Stratosphere 50 kms from the Less than Contains ozone layer that traps most of UV
surface of earth troposphere rays and cosmic rays of the Sun
3 Mesosphere 80 kms from the Low
surface of earth
4 Thermosphere 100 kms upwards Extremely Reflect radio waves back to earth, Artificial
low satellites are present here
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Role of Air or Atmosphere:

 It acts as medium for movement of insects, birds etc.
 It protects the life on earth from harmful ultraviolet rays.
 It is a source of oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen required for various metabolic activities of living
beings.
 It heips in dispersal of spores, pollen grains etc.
 It maintains temperature on earth required for life.
 It transmits sound for communication.
 Ionosphere reflects the radio waves back to earth for long distance communication due to presence
of ions and free electrons.
 Burning (combustion) takes place in presence ofoxygen and produces carbon dioxide.
 Specific climatic conditions and water cycle maintained due to circulation of air.
 Eukaryotic cells and many prokaryotic cells require O2 for breaking down of glucose to get energy
through respiration. They release CO2.
WATER (HYROSPHERE):
It is a renewable resource which is essential for sustainance of life.
 It covers 3/4th of the earth's surface.
 Of the total water present in hydrosphere 97% is present in oceans which is not utilizable by living
beings.
 Only 3% water is fresh water. Among this 3%, 02. 0% in ice caps, 0 68% in Ground Water, 0.009%
in Freshwater lakes, 0.009% in Salt lakes and 0. 0019% in Atmosphere is present.
(a) Types of Water Resources :
(i) Fresh water resource: It consists of ponds, lakes, large rivers. It can be recycled. It is essential for life
on earth as well as for survival. It can be obtained by three different types of natural resources. ;
(A) Rain water: India receives 3 trillion m3 of water from rainfall or precipitation. Its intensity is different
in different zones.On this basis zones are classified as:
 Wet zone: with very high rainfall.
 Intermediate zone: with heavy rainfall.
 Semi-arid zone: with moderate rainfall
 Arid zone:with low rainfall.
B) Surface water:
There are major river systems with plenty of lakes & ponds etc.
C) Ground water:
 It is the water which percolates into the ground. There is a certain level below the soil surface
where the rocks are saturated with water and this level is known as the zone of saturation.
 The upper level of the zone of saturation is called the water table. However, the vertical distance
from the surface of a region to the water table is called the water level.
(ii) Salt water resource: It consists of oceans, seas etc. It cannot be used by living beings for drinking.
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(b) Role of Water or Hydrosphere:

 Water is the main constituent of protoplasm.
 It is the universal solvent. Through which mineral salts are transported from one part of the plant
to the other. Various metabolic reactions take place in the medium containing water.
 It acts as a reactant in numerous metabolic reactions.
 During photosynthesis, water releases oxygen.
 Turgidity of the growing cells is maintained with water.
 Various movements of plant organs like movements in sensitive plant (touch-me-not) are
controlled by water. The growth of the cells during elongation phase mainly depends upon absorption
of water.
 Metabolic end product of respiration is water.
 It acts as a temperature buffer as its specific heat is highest (only exception - liquid ammonia).
 It shows the properties of cohesion and adhesion which account for the capillary action vat
water.
LITHOSPHERE
Lithosphere is the main life supporting system. Top layer of earth is called soil. It is the main natural resource
(essential for survival and development)
(a) Structure and Formation of Soil:
Soil is formed due to interaction between weathering of rocks, rain, wind, temperature (physical components)
and plants, animals and microbes(biological components).
It is formed by combined action of climatic factors such as temperature, rainfall, light etc. and biotic factors
such as plants and microbes on earth crust.
(b) Constituents of Soil :
Soil contains :
(a) Inorganic constituents of parent rocks
(b) Organic products of living organisms
(c) Living organisms including microorganisms
(d) Air in the pores,
There are four important components of soil. They are
(i) Mineral matter:50-60%
(ii) Organic matter: 10%
(a) Living organisms (b) Decomposed matter
(iii) Soil water: 25-35 %
(iv) Soil air: 15-25 %
(c) Types of Soil
On the basis of its nature and composition, soil is mainly of six types -
(i) alluvial soil : rich in loam and clay.
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(ii) Black soil : which has clay

(iii) Red soil: sandy to loam.
(iv) Mountain soil: stony and sandy soil
(v) Desert soil: sandy.
(vi) Laterite soil: porous Clay.
Outer most layer of earth is called crust. Many types of minerals are found in crust. They provide many
types of nutrients to living beings.
BIOGEOCHEMICAL CYCLE
These are the cyclic pathways through which chemical elements move from environment to organisms and
back to the environment. Such cycling is essential as the earth and its environment. With reference to these
elements, it is considered as a closed system and there is no inflow of such elements from outside the
earth and their amount is limited.
Two types of biogeochemical cycles are :
(i) Gaseous cyclese. g. water, Nitrogen, Carbon, oxygen cycles.
(ii) Sedimentary cyclese. g. Phosphorus, Sulphur Cycles.
(a) Water Cycle: Water is the most abundant (60-90%) component of protoplasm. It acts as a habitat for
hydrophytes and many aquatic animals, a good ionizer, good solvent, temperature buffer and performs
transportation of materials. It also helps in digestion of organic compounds and in photosynthesis of plants.
(b) Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is an essential component of amino acids, proteins, enzymes & nucleic
acids of the protoplasm. Reservoir pool of nitrogen in the atmosphere contains about 78.08% of nitrogen
ingaseous state. But it cannot be used directly and is changed into nitrites and nitrates and then utilized.
Steps of Nitrogen Cycle

1) Nitrogen fixation: It is a process by which atmospheric nitrogen is converted into the usable form -
ammonia (NH3) or nitrite or nitrate
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Types of Nitrogen Fixation

A) Atmospheric nitrogen fixation: A natural phenomenon when lightning occurs, the high temperature
and pressure convert nitrogen and water into nitrates and nitrites which get dissolved in water and are
readily used by aquatic plants and animals.
B) Industrial nitrogen fixation: Is a man-made alternative that aids in nitrogen fixation by the use of
ammonia. Ammonia is produced by the direct combination of nitrogen and hydrogen and later, it is
converted into various fertilisers such as urea.
C) Biological nitrogen fixation: Molecular nitrogen is converted into Ammonia (NH3) or nitrates or nitrites
by living organisms such as.
i) Rhizobium: These bacteria have nitrogenase enzyme which has the capability to combine gaseous
nitrogen with hydrogen to form ammonia. Rhizobium present in the root nodules of legumes
(Symbiotic nitrogen fixation).
ii) Azotobacter: Bacterium in the soil.
iii) Azospirillum: Bacterium in loose association with the roots of Maize, sorghum etc.
iv) Nitrogen fixing blue green algae: Anabaena and Nostoc.
B) Ammonification: Conversion of proteins in to ammonia.
When plants or animals die, the protein present in the organic matter is released back into the soil. The
decomposers, namely bacteria (Bacillus ramosus) or fungi present in the soil, convert the organic
matter back into ammonium.
C) Nitrification: Conversion of ammonia into nitrite(NO2-) and nitrate(NO3-)
In this process, the ammonia is first oxidized into nitrate by the presence of Nitrosomonas bacteria in
the soil.
Later, nitrites are converted into nitrates by Nitrobacter. This conversion is very important as ammonia
gas is toxic for plants.
The reaction involved in the process of Nitrification is as follows:
2NH4  3O2 
 2NO2  4H  2H2O
2NO2  O2 
 2NO3
D) Assimilation: Primary producers (plants) take in the nitrogen compounds from the soil with the help of
their roots, which are available in the form of ammonia, nitrite ions, nitrate ions or ammonium ions and
are used in the formation of the plant and animal proteins. This way, it enters the food web when the
primary consumers eat the plants.
E) Denitrification: is the process in which the nitrogen compounds makes its way back into the
atmosphere by converting nitrate (NO3-) into gaseous nitrogen (N). This process of the nitrogen cycle
is the final stage and occurs in the absence of oxygen. Denitrification is carried out by the denitrifying
bacterial species- Thiobaccillus denitrificans, Clostridium and Pseudomonas.
(c) Carbon Cycle: Carbon is the basic component of all the organic compounds like
carbohydrates,proteins,lipids,enzymes and nucleic acids of the protoplasm. In atmosphere, it is present
as carbon dioxide. It involves two types of processes, one involving CO2, utilization and another involving
Co2 production. They are expressed as follows :
(1)Co2 utilization : Carbon dioxide is utilized by the photosynthetic organisms like green plants, photosynthetic
bacteria, diatoms and blue green algae during photosynthesis. It occurs in the presence of chlorophyll and
radiant energy of sunlight. Glucose synthesized in photosynthesis |s used to synthesize other organic
compounds.
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(i) CO2 production ;

CO2 is released
 during respiration of both producers and consumers.
 during decomposition of organic compounds of dead bodies.
 during burning of fossil fuels like wood, coal, petroleum, etc.
 Volcanic eruptions and hot springs.
 during weathering of rocks by acids produced by microorganisms and roots of higher plants.
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(d) Oxygen Cycle: Oxygen is present in water and forms 20% of air in atmosphere. All living beings need
it for respiration. Oxygen content of atmosphere has remained constant for the last several million years.
Most of O2, lost is replenished by photosynthesis. During photosynthesis CO2 is used by plants to form food
along with release of oxygen. The oxides can be reduced both chemically and biologically to produce oxygen.
Microbial oxidation can also occur. Due to burning of materials, oxygen form carbon dioxide. When oxygen
combines with nitrogen, it forms oxides of nitrogen,amino acids, proteins etc.
MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
 We often hear or read about environmental problems. These are often global-level problems and we
feel helpless to make any changes.
 There are international laws and regulations and they there are our own national laws and acts for,
environmental protection.
 There are national and international organizations also working towards protecting our environment
 The multi crore project of Ganga Action Plan came about in 1985 because the quality of water in the
Ganga was so poor.
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
 It is the development which can be maintained for a long time without undue damage to the environment.
 The objective of sustainable development is to provide the economic wellbeing of the present and the
future generations and to maintain a healthy environmentand life support system.
 It encourages forms of growth that meet current basic human needs, thus sustainable development
implies a change in all aspects of life.
 It depends upon the willingness of the people to change their perceptions of the socio economic
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environmental conditions and use of natural resources,

Three R's to save the environment:
(i) Reduce: This means 'to use less'. We can save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and
fans. We can save water by repairing leaky taps.
(ii) Recycle: This means that we can collect plastic, paper, glass and metal items and recycle these
materials to make required things instead of synthesizing or extracting fresh plastic, paper, glass or
metal.
In order to recycle, we first need to segregate our waste so that the material that can be recycled is not
dumped along with other waste.
(iii) Reuse: This is actually even better than recycling because the process of recycling uses some energy.
In the 'reuse' strategy, we can simply use things again and again.
Need to Manage Our Resources:
Our natural resources are limited with the rapid increase in human population.
 Due to improvement in health care, the demand for all resources is also increasing. Management of
natural resources requires long term perspective to meet the needs and aspirations of future generations.
 Natural resources should be managed in such way that everyone in the society is benefitted from its
development.
 The waste generated from exploration of natural resources should be disposed off safely. For instance,
mining causes pollution due to discard of large amount of slag during metal extraction.
FORESTS AND WILD LIFE
 It is the existence of a wide variety of species of plants,animals and microorganisms in a natural habitat
within a particular environment.
 Biodiversity of an area is the number of species or range of different life forms found there.
 Forests are biodiversity hotspots.
 One of the main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.
 The loss of biodiversity may lead to a loss of ecological stability.
WASTE AND ITS MANAGEMENT
Waste is any substance which is discarded as worthless, defective or of no use. Ever since the human
society has been evolving with huge population growth, there has been ever-increasing demand for the
primary needs of food, shelter and clothing, etc. This has led to the rapidly increasing size and number of
towns, cities, large agricultural fields, storage godowns, factories, interconnecting roads, railways and so
on. With these, there has also been increasing use of electricity, firewood, petroleum and even nuclear
energy. All this is leading to more and more human body wastes, livestock wastes, discarded equipments,
agricultural wastes, etc. Efficient methods of their disposal are being continuously improved.
Categories of Waste
Broadly there are five major categories of waste:
(i) Domestic wastes given out from homes
(ii) Industrial wastes given out from factories, thermal plants, etc.
(iii) Agricultural wastes that are left behind after obtaining the consumable parts,
(iv) Municipal wastes which include the overall wastes given out from the township.
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(v) e-waste (electronic waste) from electrical and electronic equipment.

(i) Domestic Waste: An average home produces the following types of wastes:
 Kitchen waste: Several items such as:
 Peelings of vegetables and fruits,
 Shells taken off from ground nuts and other dry - fruits,
 Washing of pulses, rice, etc. before cooking,
 Any stale or rotten non-usable food items,
 Any left overs in the food dishes.
 Plastics: Plastic packings and wrappings
 Discarded used and broken plastic objects including toys
 Glass: Broken glass utensils, mirrors, containers, window panes, electric bulbs.
 Rags: A huge variety of waste pieces of cloth, torn towels, handkerchiefs, etc. Old bed sheets, blankets,
cushions.
 Discarded worn out clothing and footwear, curtains.
 Paper: The daily newspapers and magazines are avery common waste (which are generally sold off
to"raddiwalas" who pass them on for a variety of use).
 Such waste paper is even recycled for their reuse in some way in paper industry.
(ii) Industrial Waste: There is a huge variety of industries producing different types of materials and articles.
All of these use raw materials and give out a lot of waste. Some of these are as follows:
 Mining operations: There are hundreds of mines in India alone and thousands in the world, which
extract copper, silver, gold. zinc, iron, coal, etc. Huge quantities of waste are produced while processing
them. Such waste is usually called mine tailing(the leftover). The mine tailing mixed with other materials
can be used for making ties, masonry cement, etc.
 Cement industries: The wastes given out may be solid, liquid and gaseous.
 The solid wastes are used in construction activities or dumped in land-fill.
 The liquid wastes including wash-offs are treated to remove harmful substances and then released
into the rivers, ponds, lakes, or sea.
 The gaseous wastes include the flyash which consists of fine solid particles of non-combustible ash
carried out of a bed of solid fuel by a draft. It can be used for making a variety of building materials like
bricks, concrete, roofing sheets.
 Oil refineries: While refining crude oil a lot of poisonous gaseous and liquid wastes are produced.
 A Gaseous waste is cleaned by passing through cleaners and purified part is released into the
atmosphere.
 The liquid wastes are processed and suitably dumped.
 Construction units: These produce huge quantities of waste stones, pebbles, broken bricks, wood
waste, etc. Mostly these are dumped in landfills. This is particularly a huge waste in large towns and
one sees heaps of landfills in the suburbs.
(iii) Agricultural Waste: Agriculture is the art of cultivating the soil, producing crops and raising livestock
(from animals). The agricultural waste mainly includes:
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 Agricultural residues: The plant parts left after obtaining the usable portions. Much of this is used as
animal feed.
 Bagasse is the plant residue (as of sugar cane after extracting the sugarcane juice). These are used
as fire wood or in paper industry.
 Pesticides and fertilizers collect into the soil and are washed off with the irrigation and rain water
leading to river and pond pollution. Strict precautions have to be taken in their use.
 Animal wastes include cow dung and other faecal matter which is used in making manure.
(iv) Municipal Waste: Municipal waste includes the following:
 Household discharge of excreta (faecal matter from toilets) and kitchen washings.
 Discharge from public toilets, hospitals, hotels, restaurants, offices, etc. All this sewage is separated
into:
 (i) The degradable (capable of being broken down chemically into non-toxic parts) and
 (ii) The non-degradable portions:
 Septic tanks are used to degrade the degradable parts. The non-degradable part is dumped or buried
at safe places.
(v) e-WASTE: e-waste is the abbreviation of electronic waste. It consists of the discarded appliances
using electricity, such as old computers, TVs, refrigerators, radios, cell (mobile) phones, fluorescent
tubes, toys, medical instruments, acid batteries, etc. e-waste may contain harmful substances as well
as some valuable reusable material :
 Harmful substances: Lead, Cadmium, Mercury etc.
 Valuable materials: Gold, Silver, Copper etc...
 Generation of e-waste: The e-waste is mostly generated in large cities, but as the living standards
are fast improving, even the smaller cities and towns are getting flooded with electronic gadgets and
thus contributing to e-waste.
 Disposal of e-waste; the rag pickers and waste dealers obtain the discarded electronic gadgets. They
remove the usable components or extract the secondary raw materials. But these recycling processes
are harmful causing health problems including cancers. Burning of printed wiring boards give out harmful
fumes if inhaled and certain residues which may unknowingly enter food chains via the crops cause
body alignments.
 Recycling: Most electronic devices contain a variety of materials, including metals which can be
recovered for future use, but it needs to be done very carefully under skilled supervision.
SCIENCE TEACHING AND RESEARCH, LABORATORIES WASTES
As the country is progressing, more and more teaching institutes and research laboratories are coming
up. Their waste material is of varied nature - broken or discarded glass apparatus, condemned machines,
waste chemicals, animal and plant wastes from biology laboratories, and from their culture rooms. All such
waste needs to be properly disposed off either in deeply dug out pits or burnt in special enclosures. Disposal
of discarded radioactive material needs special care. Any carelessness in it can be threat to human health.
A well-known case was recently reported in Delhi, when the radioactive cobatt-60 found to have been passed
on to waste dealers who had dumped it in the open in a well-inhabited colony, Some affected humans badly
suffered from it.
METHODS OF SAFE DISPOSAL OF WASTES
The wastes are of so many types. Their disposal also requires different suitable methods. These methods
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mainly include: segregation, dumping, composting drainage, treatment of effluents, incineration, scrubbers,
electrostatic precipitors, etc.
Segregation: Segregation means separating the refuse mainly into three categories: reusable, degradable
and non-degradable parts.
Reusable waste includes items such as Paper(newspaper, old books, discarded exercise books, etc.).
Can you imagine the bulk of examination answer books piling up into tons and tons of weight. All such paper
can be recycled;the metallic components also can be separated and reused.
Degradable such as organic wastes (vegetable and fruit peelump, etc.) can be decomposed into useful
manure.
Non-degradable parts such as certain plastics can be dumped.
Dumping: The non-degradable waste can be put at certain places in specially dug up pits away from
human habitations.
Composting: Composting means putting the waste organic matter to decay so that it can be used for
fertilizing the agricultural land.
Method of preparing compost:
 A trench of about 5 m long, 1.5 m wide and 1.5m deep is dug.
 A layer of wall mixed refuse and waste is spread in it for about 30 cm thickness
 This layer is fully wetted with watery mixture of cow dung& some mud.
 A second layer of mixed reuse is spread over the first layer till the heap rises to project above the
ground level by about half a meter.
 The setup is left as such for about 3 months. Then the trench is opened, its material is taken out and
rearranged in conical heaps and covered by earth. About 50-60 days later the mass called compost is
ready for application in the cultivation fields or in garden flower beds, etc. Such town refuse compost is
becoming quite popular. For example, in Delhi what is known as "Okhla Khad" is mainly from garbage
(food waste} and human sewage (night-soil).
Drainage: A proper system of drains is required to carry away all kinds of fluid wastes other than sewage.
If not so done, the watery fluids would accumulate in pits and puddles and will become the breeding places
for mosquitoes and other harmful insects.
Treatment of Effluents:The industrial and municipal waste waters are treated in Effluent Treatment Plants
before disposing them off into water bodies. This is done in three parts:
1) Primary treatment: Separation of large debris by sedimentation in tanks.
2) Secondary treatment: The waste water is pumped into oxidation ponds, where microorganisms
(bacteria, algae, etc.) oxidise the organic matter releasing CO2 and asolid precipitated material sludge
is produced that can be used as manure.
3) Tertiary treatment involves removal of dissolved chemicals, metals or even pathogens and then the
waste water is discharged into natural waters or is used for irrigation.
Incineration: is the disposal of waste by burning. Incineration serves three main purposes:
 It reduces the volume of wastes.
 Reduces weight of the waste.
 Renders toxic wastes into less toxic or even nontoxic wastes.
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Impact of Incineration:
 Releases fumes and harmful substances.
Precautions:
 Incineration should be carried out at very high temperatures:
 Should be equipped with pollution control devices.
 Incinerators should be installed away from residential areas. The left over after incineration contains
about 25 % of waste residue as an ash. The ash should be deposited in landfills,
Advantages of incineration:
 The ash left over occupies much less landfill.
 The residual bottom ash can is used for the recovery of some metals in it.
 Electricity can be generated from the heat released during burning.
Scrubbers: The scrubbers are devices to remove gaseous and particulate air pollutants. In these, the air is
passed through a dry or wet packing material. Theair passing out of the scrubber is dust-free clean, as well
as free of certain gaseous pollutants which get dissolved in the wet packing.
Electrostatic Precipitators: The dirty air containing particulates is passed through a chamber containing
electrically charged plates. The particles may be naturally electrically charged and as they pass through the
charged plates of the precipitators they get collected on the plates carrying opposite charge and the clean
gas passes out. The electrostatic precipitators can remove upto 90% of particulate matter from thermal
plants.
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QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. Petroleum is a:
A) Non-renewable source B) Renewable source
C) A synthetic product D) Inexhaustible
2. Which among the following is Inexhaustible resource.
A) Soil B) Fossil fuel C) Water D) Wild life
3. Density of Air is highest in
A) Mesosphere B) Stratosphere C) Thermosphere D) Troposphere
4. Of the total water present in hydrosphere ----- is present in oceans and ----- water is fresh water
A) 85% and 15% B) 97% and 3% C) 90% and 10% D) 95% and 5%
5. Outer most layer of earth is called
A) Mantle B) Lithosphere C) Crust D) Soil
6. Biogeochemical cycling means cycling of
A) Water B) Energy in an ecosystem
C) Nutrients in an ecosystem D) Gases between plants and atmosphere
7. Which one of the following is sedimentary cycle.
A) Oxygen cycle B) Nitrogen cycle
C) Hydrogen cycle D) Phosphorus cycle
8. The bulk of nitrogen in nature is not fixed by
A) Lightening B) Chemical industries
C) Nitrifying bacteria D) Symbiotic bacteria
9. Oxygen content of atmosphere has remained constant for the last several million years.
A) True
B) False
C) Changed after Industrial revolution
D) Can't be measured
10. Mining causes pollution due to discard of large amount of ------ during metal extraction
A) Fly ash B) Mine tailing C) Slag D) Both B and C
11. The number of species or range of different life forms of an area
A) Hotspots B) Biodiversity
C) Biome D) Ecological Niche
12. The most rapidly increasing and much harmful waste of today is
A) Household waste B) Paper
C) municipal sewage D) electronic waste
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13. Which one of the following is a non-degradable waste.

A) Vegetable waste B) Fruit peel
C) Plastics D) Rags
14. Which one from those given below is a plant residue
A) Pesticides B) Fertilizers
C) Bagasse D) Dung
15. Among the following material, which one is not considered as biodegradable material
A) Aluminium foil B) Animal bone C) Wood D) Cotton
16. Identify the material which is not awaste product from Science Teaching and Research, Laboratories
A) Condemned machines
B) flyash
C) broken or discarded glass apparatus
D) waste chemicals
17. Methods of safe disposal of wastes, includes
A) Dumping
B) Composting
C) Drainage
D) All of these
18. Removal of dissolved chemicals, metals or even pathogens during treatment of effluents is coming
under
A) Primary treatment
B) Secondary treatment
C) Tertiary treatment.
D) Quaternary treatment.
19. Incineration is the disposal of waste by burning. Which of the following is not an advantage of
Incineration?
A) The residual bottom ash can is used for the recovery of some metals in it..
B) Electricity can be generated from the heat released during burning.
C) Releases fumes and harmful substances.
D) The ash left over occupies much less landfill.
20. The device which is used to remove gaseous and particulate air pollutants by passing the air through
a dry or wet packing material
A) Incinerator
B) Scrubber
C) Electrostatic Precipitators
D) Cyclone separator
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LEVEL II
1. Select the Renewable resource from following
A) Wildlife B)Water C) Coal deposits D) Minerals
2. Ecological backlash (ecological boomerang) is
A) Heat emission due to bomb explosion
B) Production of adverse ecological effect by a previously useful chemical
C) Production of useful ecological effect by a previously useful chemical
D) none of the above
3. Match Column I with Column II, and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
a)Troposphere 1) Contain ozone layer
b) Stratosphere 2) Artificial satellites are present here
c) Mesosphere 3) Region of cloud formation
d) Thermosphere 4) 80 kms from the surface of earth
A) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 C) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1 D) a-2 b-1, c-3, d-4
4. Identify the Fresh water resource?
A) Rain water B) Surface water C) Ground water D) All the above
5. Which among the statements given below, is wrong in relation with the Water.
A) Turgidity of the growing cells is maintained with water.
B) Acts as a temperature buffer
C) Various movements of plant organs like movements in sensitive plant (touch-me-not) are controlled
by water.
D) Metabolic end product of photosynthesis is water
6. On the basis of its nature and composition, soil is ofdifferent types. Which of the following is the
correctly matched?
A) Alluvial soil: rich in loam and clay
B) Black soil: stony and sandy soil
C) Red soil: porous Clay
D) Laterite soil:sandy to loam.
7. Identify the feature which is not related with biogeochemical cycles
A) Cyclic pathways B) Open syste
C) Natural phenomenon D) Amount is limited.
8. Which property of water is most important for living organism.
A) It is odorless B) It is liquid at most temperature on earth
C) It does not conduct electricity D) It is tasteless
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9. Among the following process, which one is not a part in Nitrogen cycle
A) Ammonification B) Nitrification C) Nitrogen fixation D) Weathering
10. Denitrification is carried out by the denitrifying bacterial species namely
A) Azotobacter B) Bacillus ramosus
C) Thiobaccillus denitrificans D) Nitrosomonas
11. Select the correct process where CO2 is released during Carbon cycle
A) During Volcanic eruptions and hot springs
B) During weathering of rocks by acids produced by microorganisms and roots of higher plants.
C) During photosynthesis of both producers
D) Both A and B
12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding oxygen cycle
A) Oxygen content of atmosphere is changing from time to time
B) During photosynthesis CO2 is used by plants to form food along with release of oxygen
C) Most of O2 lost is replenished by photosynthesis
D) The oxides can be reduced both chemically and biologically to produce oxygen.
13. The development which can be maintained for a long time without undue damage to the environment
is
A) Management B) Sustainable
C) Exploration D) Perspective
14. Three R's to save the environment:
A) Reducir, Reutilizar, Reciclar
B) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
C) Refuse, Rethink, Repurpose
D) Reutilize, Refuge, Response
15. Plastics are difficult to recycle, because
A) It is very hard
B) Different sizes of plastics
C) It is very adhesive in its nature
D) Different types of polymer resin
16. Which among the following is not coming under domestic waste
A) Peelings of vegetables and fruits,Shells taken off from ground nuts and other dry - fruits, washing
of pulses, rice, etc. before cooking, any stale or rotten non-usable food items etc.
B) Plastic packings and wrappings, discarded used and broken plastic objects including toys etc
C) The daily newspapers and magazines
D) Bagasse
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17. Select the correctly matched pair from the following

A) Municipal waste: bagasse B) Industrial waste : oil refineries
C) Laboratories waste : Rags D) Domestic waste ; Refrigerators
18. What is meant by mine tailing?
A) Is the plant residue (as of sugar cane after extracting the sugarcane juice).
B) Discharge from public toilets, hospitals, hotels, restaurants, offices, etc.
C) Waste that are produced while processing copper, silver, gold. Zinc, iron, coal, etc.
D) Different types of materials and articles produced from industries
19. Incineration is the disposal of waste by burning. Which of the following is not a main purpose of
Incineration
A) Releases fumes and harmful substances.
B) It reduces the volume of wastes.
C) Renders toxic wastes into less toxic or even nontoxic wastes.
D) Reduces weight of the waste.
20. Scrubber used in devices used to
A) Remove gaseous and particulate air pollutants
B)Water purification
C) Soil filtration
D) All of the above
LEVEL III
1. Select the correct option from the following
(i) Inexhaustible: Resources that is likely to be exhausted by activities.
(ii) Exhaustible: Resources that are not likely to be exhausted by human activity or their use
(iii) Renewable: These may be exhausted
(v) Non-Renewable: Can replenish themselves by quick recycling and replacement within a reasonable
time
B i), ii) and iii) wrong) and iv) correct
C) iii) and iv) wrong i) and ii) correct
D) i), ii), iii) and iv) are wrong
2. Which among the following is false based on the origin of resources
A) Forest and forest products, crops, birds, animal, fish and other marine life forms are Biotic (organic)
resources
B) Land, water and minerals like iron, copper, lead and goldare abiotic (inorganic) resources
C) Biotic resources like forest and livestock are non-renewable
D) Coal and mineral oil are belongs to biotic (organic) resources
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3. Identify the correct option of percentage of gases from the table below.
Gas Relative percentage / volume
1 78.08%
2 20.94%
3 0.90%
4 0.03%
A) 1) Oxygen 2) Argon 3) Nitrogen 4) Carbon dioxide
B) 1) Nitrogen 2) Oxygen 3) Argon 4) Carbon dioxide
C) 1) Carbon dioxide 2) Argon 3) Oxygen 4) Nitrogen
D) 1) Oxygen 2) Nitrogen 3) Argon 4) Carbon dioxide
Column I Column II
a)Troposphere 1) 80 kms from the Surface of earth
b) Stratosphere 2) 100 kms upwards
c) Mesosphere 3) 11 kms from the surface of earth
d) Thermosphere 4) 50 kms from the surface of earth
A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 C) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1 D) a-2 b-1, c-3, d-4
5. Which among the following is the role of air or atmosphere
A) Act as medium for movement B) Dehiscence of spores
C) Transmits sound for communication D) Maintained water cycle
6. India receives 3 trillion m3 of water from rainfall or precipitation. Its intensity is different in different
zones. Which of the following is the correct combination?
Column I Column II
Wet zone with moderate rainfall
Intermediate zone With low rainfall
Arid zone With very high rainfall
Semi-arid zone With heavy rainfall
A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
C) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1 D) a-2 b-1, c-3, d-4
7. There are four important components of soil. Which of the following is correct composition of soil
component.
A) Mineral matter: 50-60%: Organic matter: 10% : Soil water: 25-35%: Soil air: 15-25 %
B) Mineral matter: 10%: Organic matter: 50-60% : Soil water: 15- 25%: Soil air: 25-35 %
C) Mineral matter- 25-35%: Organic matter: 15-25 : Soil water: 50-60%: Soil air: %10%
D) Mineral matter:25-35%: Organic matter: 15-25 %: Soil water:10%: Soil air: 50-60%:
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Column I Column II
a) Gaseous cycles 1) water Cycle
b) Sedimentary cycles 2) Phosphorus Cycle
3) Carbon Cycle
4) Sulphur Cycle
A) a-3, b-4, b-1, a-2 B) a-1, b-2, a-4, b-3 C) a-1, b-4, a-3, b-2 D) a-2, b-1, b-3, b-4
9. Water is the most abundant (60-90%) component of protoplasm .Select the option which is not a
property of water
A) Temperature buffer B) Good solvent
C) Bad ionizer D) Helps in digestion of organic compounds
10. Molecular nitrogen is converted into Ammonia (NH3) or nitrates or nitrites by living organisms. Which
of the following is the correct combination?
Column I Column II
a) Azotobacter i) Loose association with the roots of
Maize, sorghum
b) Azospirillum ii) Bacterium in the soil.
c) Rhizobium iii) Nitrogen fixing Blue green algae
d) Anabaena and Nostoc iv) Symbiotic nitrogen fixation
A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
C) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1 D) a-2 b-1, c-3, d-4
11. The function of Nitrosomonas bacteria in nitrogen cycles is to:
A) Oxidises ammonium salts into nitrites B) Oxidise nitrites into nitrates
C) Oxidise nitrites into ammonium salt D) Oxidise nitrates into nitrites.
12. Select the wrong statement with respect to carbon cycle
A) Carbon is the basic component of all the organic compounds like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids,
enzymes and nucleic acids of the protoplasm
B) Relative percentage of carbon dioxidein the atmosphere is 0.9 %
C) Carbon dioxide is utilized by the photosynthetic organisms like green plants, photosynthetic bacteria,
diatoms and blue green algae during photosynthesis.
D) CO2 is released during respiration of both producers and consumers
13. Sustainable development is the development which can be maintained for a long time without undue
damage to the environment. The objective of sustainable development is to.
A) Provide the economic wellbeing of the present and the future generations
B) Maintain a healthy environment and life support system.
C) Change people perceptions of the socio economic environmental conditions and use of natural
resources
D) All the above
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14. Which one of the following statements is not valid for forests and wild life
(i) It is the existence of a wide variety of species of plants, animals and microorganisms in a natural
habitat within a particular environment.
(ii) Forests are biodiversity hotspots
(iii) They are Non Renewable resources:
(v) One of the main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.
B) i), ii) and iii) wrong) and iv) correct
C) i), ii) and iv) correct and iii) wrong
D) i), ii) iii) and iv) are Correct
15. Our natural resources are limited with the rapid increase in human population.
Due to improvement in health care, the demand for all resources is also increasing. Management of
natural resources requires long term perspective to meet the needs and aspirations of future
generations. Which of the following statement is correct based on the management of natural resources.
A) Everyone in the society is benefitted from its development.
B) The waste generated from exploration of naturalresources should be disposed off safely.
C) There are national and international organizations working towards protecting our environment.
D) All the above
16. Which of the following are the major categories of waste
A) Discharge from public toilets, hospitals, hotels, restaurants, offices, etc.
B) Old computers, TVs, refrigerators, radios, cell (mobile) phones, fluorescent tubes, toys, medical
instruments, acid batteries, etc.
C) Domestic, Agricultural, Industrial,Municipal waste etc.
D) Plastics, Glass, Rags, Paper, etc.
17. Which of the following are the items are not coming under Kitchen waste
A) Peelings of vegetables and fruits
B) Bagasse
C) Any stale or rotten non-usable food items
D) Any left overs in the food dishes.
18) The industrial and municipal waste waters are treated in Effluent Treatment Plants before disposing
them off into water bodies. Which among the following is the wrong treatment method.
A) Primary treatment: Separation of large debris by sedimentation in tanks.
B) Secondary treatment: The waste water is pumped into oxidation ponds, where microorganisms
(bacteria, algae, etc.) oxidise the organic matter releasing CO2 and a solid precipitated material
sludge is produced that can be used as manure.
C) Tertiary treatment involves removal of dissolved chemicals, metals or even pathogens
D) Quaternary treatment: Treatment with Alum or KMnO4
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19. Which is the suitable method of safe disposal of wastes

A) Segregation and dumping
B) Composting drainage and treatment of effluents
C) Incineration, scrubbers and electrostatic precipitors
D) All the above
20. Select the correct option regardin ge-waste
i) Even the smaller cities and towns are getting flooded with electronic gadgets and thus contributing
to.
ii) Waste dealers remove the usable components or extract the secondary raw materials
iii) Recycling processesof e-waste are harmful causing health problems
iv) Burning of printed wiring boards give out harmful fumes if inhaled and certain residues which may
unknowingly enter food chains via the crops cause body ailments.
A) i) and iv) correct ii) and iii) wrong B i), ii) and iii) wrong) and iv) correct
C) iii) and iv) wrong i) and ii) correct D) i), ii) iii) and iv) are correct
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MATHEMATICS
CHAPTER - 01
QUADRILATERALS & CIRCLES
QUADRILATERAL
A quadrilateral is a four sided closed figure
Let A, B, C and D be four points in a plane such that:

(i) No three of them are collinear.
(ii) The line segments AB, BC, CD and DA do not intersect except at their end points, then figure
obtained by joining A, B, C & D is called a quadrilateral.
Convex and Concave Quadrilaterals:
(i) A quadrilateral in which the measure of each interior angle is less than 180o is called a convex
quadrilateral. In figure, PQRS is convex quadrilateral.
(ii) A quadrilateral in which the measure of one of the interior angles is more than 180o is called a
concave quadrilateral. In figure, ABCD is concave quadrilateral.
193
Special Quadrilaterals:
(i) Parallelogram: A parallelogram is a quadrilateral in which both pairs of opposite sides are parallel.
In figure, AB DC,AD BC therefore, ABCD is a parallelogram.
Properties:
(a) A diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into two congruent triangles
(b) In a parallelogram, opposite sides are equal
(c) The opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal
(d) The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other
(ii) Rectangle: A rectangle is a parallelogram, in which each of its angle is a right angle. If ABCD is a
rectangle then A  B  C  D  90o , AB  CD, BC  AD and diagonals AC= BD
(iii) Rhombus: A rhombus is a parallelogram in which all its sides are equal in length. If ABCD is a
rhombus then, AB = BC = CD = DA
The diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular to each other.
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(iv) Square: A square is a parallelogram having all sides equal and each angle equal to right angle. If
ABCD is a square then AB=BC=CD=DA, diagonal AC=BD and A  B  C  D  90o
The diagonals of a square are perpendicular to each other

(v) Trapezium: A trapezium is a quadrilateral with only one pair of opposite sides parallel. In figure,
ABCD is a trapezium with AB DC
(vi) Kite: A kite is a quadrilateral in which two pairs of adjacent sides are equal. If ABCD is a kite then
AB=AD and BC=CD
(vii) Isosceles trapezium: A trapezium is said to be an isosceles trapezium, if its non-parallel sides
are equal. Thus a quadrilateral ABCD is an isosceles trapezium, if AB DC and AD=BC
In isosceles trapezium A  Band C  D
195
PROPERTIES
Theorem 1: The sum of the four angles of a quadrilateral is 360o
Theorem 2: A diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into two congruent triangles
Theorem 3: In a parallelogram, opposite sides are equal
Theorem 4: The opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal
Theorem 5: The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other
Theorem 6: Each of the four angles of a rectangle is a right angle
Theorem 7: Each of the four sides of a rhombus is of the same length
Theorem 8: Each of the angles of a square is a right angle and each of the four sides is of the same
length
Theorem 9: The diagonals of a rectangle are of equal length
Theorem 10: The diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular to each other
Theorem 11: The diagonals of a square are equal and perpendicular to each other
Theorem 12: Parallelogram and Triangles on the same base (or equal bases) and between the
same parallels, then area of parallelogram is twice the area of triangle.
A quadrilateral become a parallelogram when:
(i) Opposite angles are equal
(ii) Both the pair of opposite sides are equal
(iii) A pair of opposite side is equal as well as parallel
(iv) Diagonals of quadrilateral bisect each other
 REMARK:
(i) Square, rectangle and rhombus are all parallelograms
(ii) Kite and trapezium are not parallelograms
(iii) A square is a rectangle
(iv) A square is a rhombus
(v) A parallelogram is a trapezium
Ex.1 In the parallelogram, find the value of “x’”.
0
sol. A  C  80 (Opposite angle of a parallelogram)
 FEB  x  A (Exterior angle of a triangle is equal to interior opposite angle)
 1500  x  80  x = 700
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Ex.2 In the figure below, P and Q are the mid-points of the sides AB and BC of the rectangle ABCD
If the area of the triangle APQ is 1 square centimeter, what is the area of the whole rectangle ?
Sol.
In QAB , QP is median
So, ar. QAB  2 area APQ = 2 × 1 = 2 cm2

In ABC , AQ is median
Area ABC  2 area ABQ = 2 × 2 = 4 cm2
Area of rectangle ABCD = 2 ar. ABC = 2 × 4 = 8 cm2

Ex.3 In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and the bisector of A bisect BC at X. Prove that
AD = 2AB.
Sol. ABCD is a parallelogram.

 AD  BC and AX cuts them.
1
 BXA  DAX  A [Alternate interior angles]
2
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1
 2  A
2
1
Also, 1  A
2
 2  1
 AB = BX
1
 AB  BC
2
1
 AB  AD
2
 AD = 2AB.
MID-POINT THEOREM
In a triangle, the line segment joining the mid-points of any two sides is parallel to the third side and is
half of it.
i.e., In a triangle ABC in which P is the mid-point of side AB and Q is the mid-point of side AC.
1
then, PQ is parallel to BC and is half of it. i.e, PQ  BC and PQ  BC .
2
Converse of the mid-point theorem :
The line drawn through the mid-point of one side of a triangle parallel to the another side; bisects the
third side.
i.e., A triangle ABC in which P is the mid-point of side AB and PQ is parallel to BC.
Then, PQ bisects the third side AC i.e., AQ = QC.
198
REMARK :
In quadrilateral ABCD, if side AD is parallel to side BC; ABCD is a trapezium.
1
Now, P and Q are the mid-points of the non-parallel sides of the trapezium; then PQ   AD  BC  . i.e.
2
The length of the line segment joining the mid-points of the two non-parallel sides of a trapezium is
always equal to half of the sum of the lengths of its two parallel sides.
Ex.4 ABCD is a rhombus and P, Q, R and S are the mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
Prove that the quandrilateral PQRS is a rectangle.
Sol.
1
In ABC, PQ  AC and PQ  AC ....(i) [By mid-point theorem]
2
1
In ADC, SR  AC and SR  AC ....(ii) [By mid-point theorem]
2
 PQ = SR and PQ  SR [From (i) and (ii)]

 PQRS is a parallelogram
Now, PQRS will be a rectangle if any angle of the parallelogram PQRS is 900.
PQ  AC [By mid-point theorem]
QR  BD [By mid-point theorem]

But, AC  BD
[Diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular to each other]
 PQ  QR
[Angle between two lines = angle between their parallels]
 PQRS is a rectangle. Hence proved.
199
Ex.5 In the given figure, E and F are respectively, the mid-points of non-parallel sides of a trapezium ABCD.
Prove that :
1
(i) EF  AB (ii) EF   AB  DC 
2
Sol. Join BE and products it to intersect CD produced at point P. In AEB and DEP, AB  PC and BP is
transversal.
ABE  DPE [Alternate interior angles]
AEB  DEP [Vertically opposite angles]
And AE = DE [E is mid-point of AD]
So, AEB  DEP [By ASA congruency]
BE = PE [By CPCT]
And AB = DP [By CPCT]
Since, the line joining the mid-points of any two sides of a triangle is parallel and half of the third side,
Therefore, in BPC ,
E is mid-point of BP [As, BE = PE]
and F is mid-point of BC [Given]
1
 EF  PC and EF  PC
2
1
 EF  DC and EF   PD  DC 
2
1
 EF  AB and EF   AB  DC  [As, DC  AB and PD  AB ] Hence proved.
2
1
Ex.6 AD and BE are median of ABC and BE  DF. Prove that CF  AC.
4
Sol.
200
In BEC , DF is a line through the mid-point D of BC and parallel to BE intersecting CE at F. Therefore,

F is the midpoint of CE. Because the line drawn through the mid point of one side of a triangle and
parallel to another sides bisects the third side.
Now, F is the mid point of CE
1
 CF  CE
2
11 
 CF   AC 
2 2 
1
 CF  AC
4
AREA OF A PARALLELOGRAM
(a) Base and Altitude of a parallelogram:
(i) Base: Any side of a parallelogram can be called its base.
(ii) Altitude: The length of the line segment which is perpendicular to the base from the opposite side
is called the altitude or height of the parallelogram corresponding to the given base.
gm
(i) DL is the altitude of ABCD, corresponding to the base AB.
gm
(ii) DM is the altitude ABCD, corresponding to the base BC
Theorem: A diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into two triangles of equal area.

Theorem: Parallelograms on the same base and between the same parallels are equal in area.
gm
i.e., if two ABCD and ABEFare on the same base AB and between the same parallels AB and FC
then, ar( gm
ABCD)  ar( gm
ABEF)
Theorem: The area of parallelogram is the product of its base and the corresponding altitude.
201
gm
i.e., In a ABCD in which AB is the base and AL is the corresponding height.
then, area  gm

ABCD  AB  AL
Ex.7 ABCD is a trapezium with AB  DC. A line parallel to AC intersects AB at X and BC at Y. Prove that
ar  ADH   ar  ACY 
Sol.
Join CX, DX and AY.

Clearly, triangles ADX and ACX are on the same base AX and between the parallels AB and DC.
 ar  ADX   ar  ACX  ....(i)
Also, ACX and ACY are on the same base AC and between the parallels AC and XY..
 ar  ACX   ar  ACY  ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get
ar  ADX   ar  ACY 
AREA OF A TRIANGLE
Theorem: Two triangles on the same base (or equal bases) and between the same parallels
are equal in area.
i.e., if two triangles ABC and PBC are on the same base BC and between the same parallel lines BC
and AP. then, ar( ABC)  ar( PBC)
Theorem: The area of a trapezium is half the product of its height and the sum of the parallel
sides
202
i.e., In a trapezium ABCD in which AB DC, AL  DC,CN  ABand AL  CN  h(say),AB  a, DC  b.
1
then, ar (trapezium ABCD) = h  (a  b)
2
Theorem: Median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of equal area.
i.e., In a ABC in which AD is the median.
1
then, ar(ABD)  ar(ADC)  ar(ABC)
2
Ex.8 ABC is a triangle in which D is the mid-point of BC and E is the mid-point of AD. Prove that the area of
1
BED  area of ABC.
4
Sol. Given : A ABC in which D is the mid-point of BC and E is the mid-point of AD.
1
To prove : ar  BED   ar  ABC  .
4
Proof :  AD is a median of ABC.
1
 ar  ABD   ar  ADC   ar  ABC  ....(i)
2
203
[ median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of equal area]

Again,
1
 BE is a median of ABD .  ar  BEA   ar  BED   ar  ABD 
2
[  median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of equal area]
1
And ar  BED   ar  ABD 
2
1 1
  ar  ABC  [From (i)]
2 2
1
 ar  BED   ar  ABC  Hence proved.
4
CIRCLES
DEFINITIONS
 Circle: The collection of all the points in a plane, which are at a fixed distance from a fixed point in the
plane, is called a circle.
The fixed point is called the centre of the circle and the fixed distance is called the radius of the circle.
in figure, O is the centre and the length OP is the radius of the circle. So the line segment joining the
centre and any point on the circle is called a radius of the circle.
 Chord: If we take two points P and Q on a circle, then the line segment PQ is called a chord of the
circle.
 Diameter: The cord which passes through the centre of the circle, is called diameter of the circle.
204
A diameter is the longest chord and all diameters of same circle have the same length, which is equal
to two times the radius, AOB is a diameter of circle.
 Arc: A piece of a circle between two points is called an arc. The longer one is called the major arc PQ
 and the major
and the shorter one is called the minor arc PQ. The minor arc PQ is also denoted by PQ
 . When P and Q are ends of diameter, then both arcs are equal and each is called a
arc PQ by QP
semi circle.
 Circumference: The length of the complete circle is called its circumference.

Segment: The region between a chord and either of its arcs is called a segment of the circular region
or simply a segment of the circle. There are two types of segments which are the major segment and
the minor segment (as in figure).
Sector: The region between an arc and the two radii, joining the centre to the end points of an arc is
called a sector. Minor arc corresponds to the minor sector and the major arc corresponds to the
major sector. When two arcs are equal, then both segments and both sectors become the same and
each is known as a semicircular region
Theorem: Equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre.

Given: AB and CD are the two equal chords of a circle with centre O.
To Prove: AOB  COD
205
Proof: In AOBand COD

OA = OC [Radii of a circle]
OB = OD [Radii of a circle]
AB=CD [Given]
 AOB  COD[BySSScongruency]
 AOB  COD [By SSS congruency]

Converse:
If the angles subtended by the chords of a circle at the centre are equal, then the chords are
equal. Theorem: The perpendicular from the centre of a circle to a chord bisects
the chord.
Given: A circle with centre O. AB is a chord of this circle, OM  AB

To Prove: MA = MB
Construction: Join OA and OMB
Proof: In right triangles OMA and OMB,
OA = OB [Radii of a circle]
OM = OM [Common]
OMA  OMB [90o each]
 OMA  [ByRHS]
 MA  MB [By cpctc]
Hence proved
Converse:
The line drawn through the centre of a circle to bisect a chord is perpendicular to the chord.
Theorem: There is one and only one circle passing through three given non-collinear points
Proof: Take three points A, B and C, which are not in the same line, or in other words, they are not
collinear [as in figure]. Draw perpendicular bisectors of AB and BC say, PQ and RS respectively. Let
these perpendicular bisectors intersect at one point O. (Note that PQ and RS will intersect because
they are not parallel] [as in figure]
206
 O lies on the perpendicular bisector PQ and AB.

 OA = OB
[ Every point on the perpendicular bisector of a line segment is equidistant from its end points]
Similarly,
 O lies on the perpendicular bisector RS of BC.
 OB=OC
[ Every point on the perpendicular bisector of a line segment is equidistant from its end points]
So, OA=OB=OC
i.e., the points A, B and C are at equal distances from the point O.
So, if we draw a circle with centre O and radius OA it will also pass through B and C. This shows that
there is a circle passing through the three points A, B and C. We know that two lines (perpendicular
bisectors) can intersect at only one point, so we can draw only one circle with radius OA. In other
words, there is a unique circle passing through A, B and C. Hence proved
Ex.1 The radius of a circle is 13 cm and the length of one of its chords is 10 cm. Find the distance of the
chord from the centre.
Sol. Let O be the center of the circle of radius 13 cm and AB is the chord of length 10 cm.
AB 10
OC  AB ; AC   5
2 2
[Line perpendicular from centre to chord bisect the chord]
In AOC
 OC    AC    AO 
2 2 2
 OC   13   5 
2 2 2
OC  12cm
207
  AC
Ex.2 In figure, AB  and O is the centre of the circle. Prove that OA is the perpendicular bisector of BC.
  AC
Sol.Given : In figure AB  and O is the centre of the circle.
To Prove : OA is the perpendicular bisector of BC.

Construction : Join OB and OC
  AC
Proof:  AB  [Given]
 chord AB  chord AC
[ If two arcs of a circle are congruent, then their corresponding chords are equal]
 AOB  AOC ........  i 
[ Equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre]

In OBD and OCD
DOB  DOC [From  i ]
OB =OC [Radii of the same circle]

OD = OD [Common]
 OBD  OCD [By SAS congruency]

 ODB  ODC ......  ii  [By CPCT]
And, BD = CD ..........(iii) [By CPCT]

But BDC  180o
ODB  ODC  180o
 ODB  ODB  180o [From equation  ii ]
 2ODB  180o ;  ODB  90o
 ODB  ODC  90o .......  iv  [From  ii ]
So, by (iii) and (iv), OA is the perpendicular bisector of BC.

Theorem: Equal chords of a circle (or of congruent circles) are equidistant from the centre (or
centres)
208
Given: A circle have two equal chords AB&CD. ie. AB=CD and OM  AB,ON  CD.
To prove: OM=ON
Construction: Join OB & OD
Proof: AB=CD(Given)
[ The perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle to a chord bisects the chord]
1 1
 AB  CD
2 2
 BM  DN
In OMB& OND
OMB  OND  900 [Given]

OB=OD [Radii of same circle]
BM=DN [Proved above]
OMB  OND [By R.H.S. congruency]
 OM=ON [By CPCT]
 REMARK:
Chords equidistant from the centre of a circle are equal in length
Ex.3 AB and CD are equal chords of a circle whose centre is O. When produced, these chords meet at E.
Prove the EB = ED.
Sol. Given : AB and CD are equal chords of a circle whose centre is O. When produced, these chords meet
at E.
To Prove: EB = ED.
Construction : From O draw OP  AB and OQ  CD.
Join OE.
Proof :  AB = CD [Given]
 OP  OQ
[ Equal chords of a circle are equidistant from the centre]
209
Now in OPE and OQE,
OPE  OQE [Each 90o ]
OE  OE Common 
OP  OQ [Pr oved above]
 OPE  OQE [By RHS congruency]
 PE  QE [By CPCT]
1 1
 PE  AB  QE  CD
2 2  AB  CD  Given 
 PE  PB  QE  QD
 PE  PB  QE  QD
 EB  ED Hence Pr oved
 REMARK:
Angle Subtended by an Arc of a Circle:
In figure, the angle subtended by the minor arc PQ and O is POQ and the angle subtended by the
major arc PQ at O is reflex angle POQ
Theorem: The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it at
any point on the remaining part of the circle.
Given: An arc PQ of a circle subtending angles POQ at the centre O and PAQ at a point A on the
remaining part of the circle.
To Prove: POQ  2PAQ
Construction: Join AO and extend it to a point B
210
Proof: There arises three cases:-

(A) arc PQ is minor
(B) arc PQ is a semi - circle
(C) arc PQ is major
In all the cases,
BOQ  OAQ  AQO     (i)
[ An exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the two interior opposite angles]
in OAQ ,
OA = OQ [Radii of a circle]
 OQA  OAQ     (ii)
[Angles opposite equal sides of a triangle are equal] From (i) and (ii)
BOQ  2OAQ     (iii)
Similarly
BOP  2OAP     (iv)
Adding (iii) and (iv), we get
BOP  BOQ  2(OAP  OAQ)
 POQ  2PAQ     (v)

 NOTE:
For the case (C), where PQ is the major arc, (v) is replaced by reflex angles.
Thus, reflex POQ  2PAQ
Theorem: Angles in the same segment of a circle are equal
Proof: Let P and Q be any two points on a circle to form a chord PQ, A and C any other points on the
remaining part of the circle and O be the centre of the circle. Then,
211
POQ  2PAQ     (i)
And POQ  2PCQ     (ii)

[Angle subtended at the centre is double than the angle subtended by it on the remaining part of the
circle] From equation (i) & (ii)
2PAQ  2PCQ
 PAQ  PCQ Hence Proved

Theorem: Angle in the semicircle is a right angle
Proof:  PAQ is an angle in the segment, which is a semicircle
1 1
 PAQ  POQ   180o  90o
2 2
[ POQ is straight line angle or POQ  180o ] ; If we take any other point C on the semicircle, then
again we get
1 1
PCQ  POQ   180o  90o
2 2
Ex.4 A chord of a circle is equal to the radius of the circle, find the angle subtended by the chord at a point on
the minor arc and also at a point on the major arc.
Sol.
212
Let AB be a chord of the circle with centre at O such that OA = OB = AB.

OAB is equilateral.
 AOB  60o
1
 ACB  AOB  30o
2
Consider arc ACB.
Clearly, it makes 360o  60o  300o at the centre O.
Ex.5. In the given, figure, the chord ED is parallel to the diameter AC. Find CED
Sol. CBE  1 [Angles in the same segment]
1  50o i  CBE  50o 
AEC  90o  ii 
[Angle in a semicircle is a right angle]
Now, in AEC, 1  AEC  2  180o
 50o  90o  2  180o
 2  180o  140o  40o
213
Thus 2  40o  iii 

Also, ED ||AC  Given 
 2  3  Alternate angles
 3  40o
Hence, CED  40o

Cyclic Quadrilateral
A quadrilateral ABCD is called cyclic if all the four vertices of it lie on a circle
Theorem: The sum of either pair of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is 180o
Given: A cyclic quadrilateral ABCD
To Prove : A  C  B  D  180o
Construction : Join AC and BD
Proof : ACB  ADB ......  i 

And BAC  BDC ........ ii 
[Angles of same segment of a circle are equal ]

Adding equation (i) & (ii)
 ACB  BAC  ADB  BDC
ACB  BAC  ADC
Adding ABC to both sides, we get
214
ACB  BAC  ABC  ADC  ABC
 ADC  ABC  180o
i.e., D  B  180o
 A  C  360o    B  D   180o
 A  B  C  D  360o 
Ex.6 If a side of a cyclic quadrilateral is produced, then the exterior angle is equal to the interior opposite
angle.
Sol. Let ABCD be a cyclic quadrilateral inscribed in a circle with centre O. The side AB of quadrilateral
ABCD is produced to E. Then, we have to prove that
CBE  ADC
Since the sum of opposite pairs of angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is 180o
 ABC  ADC  180o
But ABC  CBE  180o
 ABCandCBEfrom a linear pair 

 ABC  ADC  ABC  CBE
 ADC  CBE or CBE  ADC

Ex.7 Find the value of a & b
Sol. In ADC
215
AD = DC
DAC  DCA  x  say 
130o  x  x  180o
[Opposite angles in a cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary]
130o  ABC  180o
ABC  50o
b  90o  Angle in semicirle
a  180o  ABC  b  180o  50o  90o
a  180o  140o  40o
So, a  40o and b  90o

Ex.8 If the nonparallel side of a trapezium are equal, prove that it is cyclic.
Sol. Given : ABCD is a trapezium whose two non- parallel sides AD and BC are equal.
To Prove: Trapezium ABCD is a cyclic
Construction: Draw BE||AD.
Proof :  AB || DE [Given] and AD || BE [By construction]
 Quadrilateral ABED is a parallelogram.
BAD  BED .....  i  [Opp. angles of a ||gm ]

And, AD  BE .....  ii  [Opp. sides of a ||gm ]
But, AD = BC ....... (iii) [Given]

From (ii) and (iii)
BE = BC
 BCE  BEC .......  iv   Angles opposite to equal sides 
BEC  BED  180o  Linear Pair Axiom

 BCE  BAD  180o [From (iv) and (i)]
 Trapezium ABCD is cyclic.

[ If a pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral is 180o, then the quadrilateral is cyclic]
216
Ex.9 In figure, O is the centre of the circle. Prove that x  y  z
1 1
Sol. EBF  EOF  z
2 2
[ Angle subtended by an arc of a circle at the centre is twice the angle subtended by it any point of the
remaining part of the circle]
1
 ABF  180o  z  i   Linear Pair Axiom
2
1 1
EDF  EOF  z
2 2
[ Angle subtended by any arc of a circle at the centre is twice the angle subtended by it at any point
of the remaining part of the circle]
1
 ADE  180o  2 ....... ii 
2
[Linear Pair Axiom]
BCD  ECF  y  Vertically Opp. Angles
BAD  x
In quadrilateral ABCD
ABC  BCD  CDA  BAD  2  180o
1 1
 180o  z  y  180o  z  x  2  180o
2 2
 x  y  z
Ex.10 AB is a diameter of the circle with centre O and chord CD is equal to radius OC. AC and BD produced
meet at P. Prove that CPD  600 .
Sol. Given : AB is a diameter of the circle with centre O and chord CD is equal to radius OC. AC and BD
produced meet at P.
217
0
To prove : CPD  60
Construction : join AD.
Proof : In OCD,
OC = OD ....(i)
[Radii of the same circle]
OC = CD ....(ii) [Given]
From (i) and (ii),
OC = OD = CD
 OCD is an equilateral triangle.
 COD  600
1 1
 CAD  COD   600  300
2 2
 
[ angle subtended by any arc of a circle at the centre is twice the angle subtended by it at any point
of the remaining part of the circle]
 PAD  300 ....(iii)
And, ADB  900 ....(iv) [Angle in a semi-circle]
 ADB  ADP  1800 [Linear pair axiom]
 900  ADP  1800 [From (iv)]
 ADP  900 ....(v)
In ADP ,
APD  PAD  ADP  1800
 APD  300  900  1800 [From (iii) and (v)]
 APD  1200  1800
 APD  1800  1200  600

218
 CPD  600 Hence proved.
THEOREM
A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Given: A circle C(O,r) and a tangent AB at a point P.

To prove: OP  AB
Construction: Take any point Q, other than P on the tangent AB. Join OQ, suppose OQ meets the
circle at R.
Proof: Among all line segments joining the point O to a point on AB, the shortest one is perpendicular to
AB. So, to prove that OP  AB , it is sufficient to prove that OP is shorter than any other segment
joining O to any point of AB.
Clearly OP = OR (Radius)
Now, OQ=OR+RQ
 OQ  OR
 OQ  OP ( OP  OR)
Thus, OP is shorter than any other segment joining O to any point of AB
Hence, OP  AB
THEOREM
Lengths of two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal
Given: AP and AQ are two tangents drawn from a point A to a circle C (O, r)
To prove: AP=AQ
Construction: Join OP, OQ and OA
Proof: In AOQ and APO
OQA  OPA [Tangent at any point of a circle is perp. to radius through the point of contact]
219
AO=AO [Common]
OQ=OP [Radius]
So, by R.H.S. criterion of congruency AOQ  AOP
AQ  AP [By CPCT]

RESULTS:
(i) If two tangents are drawn to a circle from an external point, then they subtend equal angles at the
centre. QOA  POA[By CPCT]
(ii) If two tangents are drawn to a circle from an external point, they are equally inclined to the segment,
joining the centre to that point OAQ  OAP[ByCPCT]
Ex.11 In figure, a circle touches all the four sides of a quandrilateral ABCD with AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm and
CD = 4 cm. Find AD.
Sol. PB = BQ, CR = CQ, DR = DS, AP = AS

[ Length of tangents drawn from external point are equal]
Add
PB + CR + DR + AP = BQ + CQ + DS + AS
(PB + AP) + (CR + DR) = (BQ + CQ) + (DS + AS)
AB + CD = BC + AD
AD = AB + CD - BC
AD = 6 + 4 - 7
AD = 3 cm.74
Ex.12 Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove that
PTQ  2OPQ.
Sol. We know that lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
TP = TQ
 TPQ is an isosceles triangle.
 TPQ  TQP
220
In TPQ, we have
 TPQ  TQP  PTQ  1800
 2TPQ  1800  PTQ
1
 TPQ  900  PTQ
2
1
PTQ  900  TPQ ....(i)
2
Since,
OP  TP
OPT  900
OPQ  TPQ  900
OPQ  900  TPQ ....(ii)
1
PTQ  OPQ
2
 PTQ  2OPQ
SEGMENTS OF A CHORD
Let AB be chord of a circle, and let P be a point on AB inside the circle. Then, P is said to divide AB
internally into two segments PA and PB
THEOREM
If two chords of a circle intersect inside or outside the circle when produced, the rectangle formed by
two segments of one chord is equal in area to the rectangle formed by the two segments of another
chord.
221
Given: Two chords AB and CD of a circle C(O, r) intersecting at P, inside in fig. (i) and outside in fig. (ii)
To prove: PA. PB=PC.PD
Construction: Join AC and BD
Proof:
Case 1. When AB and CD intersect at P inside the circle
In  's APCand BPD
APC  BPD
PAC  PDB [Angles in the same segment]
 APC  BPD
PA PC
Hence, 
PD PB
 PA  PB  PC  PD
Case 2. When AB and CD when produced intersect at P outside the circle
In PBD and PAC, PBD  ACP
[ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and exterior angle is equal to the interior opposite angle]
PDB  CAP
[ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and exterior angle is equal to the interior opposite angle]
 PBD  PCA
PB PD
Hence, 
PC PA
 PA  PB  PC  PD
THEOREM
If PAB is a secant to a circle intersecting the circle intersecting the circle at A and B and PT is a tangent
segment, then PA×PB=PT2
Given: A circle with centre O: PAB is a secant intersecting the circle at A and B and PT is a tangent
segment to the circle.
To prove: PA×PB = PT2
Construction: Join OA, OP and OT. Draw OD  AB
222
Proof: Since OD  chord AB
 AD  DB
Now PA×PB = (PD–AD)(PD+DB)
= (PD – AD) (PD+AD) [ AD  DB]
= PD2–AD2
= (OP2 – OD2) –AD2
[From right angled ODP ]
= OP2–(OD2+AD2)
= OP2–OA2
[From right - angled ODA ]
=OP2–OT 2  OA  OT[Radii]
[From right - angled ODA ]
Hence, PA×PB=PT2
Ex.13 Two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect each other at O internally. If AB = 11 cm, CO = 6 cm and
DO = 4 cm, find OA and OB.
Sol.
Let OA = x cm, then OB = (11 - x) cm

We have, AO × OB = CO × OD
  x   11  x   6  4  24
 11x  x 2  24
 x 2  11x  24  0
  x  3 x  8   0
x = 3 or 8
So, if x = 3 then OA = 3 cm, OB = 8 cm
but if x = 8 then OA = 8 cm, OB = 3 cm
ANGLES IN THE ALTERNATE SEGMENTS
Let PAQ be a tangent to a circle at point A and B be a chord. Then, the segment opposite to the angle
formed by the chord of a circle with the tangent at a point is called the alternate segment for that
angle.
223
Theorem
A line touches a circle and from the point of contact a chord is drawn. Prove that the angles which the
chord makes with the given line are equal respectively to angles formed in the corresponding alternates
segments.
Given: A circle with centre O and PAT is a tangent to the circle at A. A chord AB is drawn. Let C and D
be the points on the circumference on opposite sides of AB.
To prove: BAT  ACB and BAP  ADB
Construction: Draw the diameter AOE and Join EB.
Proof: Since AE is the diameter.
 ABE  90o [Angle in semi circle]
 BEA  EAB  90o     (i)

[Remaining s of BEA ]
But since EA  AT
[ Radius is  to the tangent]
 EAB  BAT  90o -----(ii)

Hence from (i) and (ii)
BEA  EAB  EAB  BAT     (iii)
 BEA  BAT
But BEA  ACB [Angles in the same segment]
ACB  BAT
i.e. BAT  ACB
This proves the first part.
Again, since ADBC is a cyclic quadrilateral.
 ACB  ADB  180O

Also BAT  BAP  180o [linear pair]
ACB  ADB  BAT  BAP [ ACB  BAT]

 ADB  BAP
224
 BAP  ADB
Hence, BAT  ACBand BAP  ADB
Ex.14 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and PQ is a tangent to the circle at C. If BD is a diameter and DCQ  400
and ABD  600 ; find the measure of the following angles:

(i) DBC (ii) BCP (iii) ADB
Sol.
Since BD is a diameter of the circle.
 BAD  900
and also BCD  900
(i) DBC  DCQ  400
S is the alternate segments

(ii) BCP  BCD  DCQ  1800
 BCP  900  400  1800
 BCP  500
(iii) Similarly from BAD,600  BAD  ADB  1800
 600  900  ADB  1800
ADB  300
Ex.15 In a right ABC, the perpendicular BD on the hypotenuse AC is drawn. Prove that
(i) AC × AD = AB2 (ii) AC × CD = BC2
Sol. We draw a circle with BC as diameter. Since BDC  900 .
 The circle on BC as diameter will pass through D.

Again
 BC is a diameter and AB  BC
225
 AB is a tangent to the circle at B

Since AB is a tangent to the circle at B
Since AB is a tangent and ADC is a secant to the circle.
 AC × AD = AB2 This proves (i)

Again
AC × CD = AC × (AC - AD) = AC2 - AC × AD
= AC2 - AB2 [using (i)]
= BC2  ABC is a right triangle

Hence, AC × CD = BC2. This proves (ii).
Ex.16 Two circles touch externally at P and a common tangent touches them at A and B. Prove that
(i) the common tangent at P bisects AB.
(ii) AB subtends a right angle at P.
Sol. let PT be the common tangent at any point P. Since the tangent to a circle from an external point are
equal,
 TA = TP, TB = TP  TA = TB
i.e. PT bisects AB at T
TA = TP gives TAP  TPA (from PAT )
TB  TP gives TBP  TPB [from PBT]
 TAP  TBP  TPA  TPB  APB
 TAP  TBP  APB  2APB
 2APB  1800 Sum of s of a   1800 

 
 APB  900 Hence proved

226
COMMON TRANGENTS TO TWO CIRCLES

Definition: A line which touches the two given circles is called common tangent to the two circles.
Let C(O, r1)C(O2, r2) be two given circles. Let the distance between centres O1 and O2 be d i.e.,
O 1O 2=d.
(a) In fig. (i) d  r1  r2 i.e. two circles do not intersect. In this case, four common tangents are possible.
The tangent lines I and m are called direct common tangents and the tangent lines p and q are called
indirect (transverse) common tangents
(b) In fig (ii) d=r1+r2. In this case two circles touch externally and there are three common tangents
(c) In fig. (iii) d<r1+r2. In this case two circles intersect in two distinct points and there are only two
common tangents.
227
(d) In fig (iv) d=r1–r2(r1>r2), in this case, two circles touch internally and there is only one common
tangent.
(e) In fig (v), the circle C(O2, r2) lies wholly in the circle C(O1, r1) and there is no common tangent.
Ex.17 Two circles of radii R and r touch each other externally and PQ is the direct common tangent. Then
show that PQ2 = 4rR
Sol.
Draw O 'S  PQ ,
 O 'SPQ is rectangle
O'S  PQ, PS  QO'  r
OO '  R  r
OS = OP - PS = R - r
In O 'OS
 O'S2   OO'2   OS2

PQ2 = (R + r)2 - (R - r)2
PQ2 = R2 + r2 + 2 Rr - (R2 + r2 - 2 Rr)
PQ2 = R2 + r2 + 2 Rr - R2 - r2 + 2 Rr
PQ2 = 4rR
228
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
TYPES OF QUADRILATERAL AND THEIR PROPERTIES
1. One side of a parallelogram has length 3, and another side has length 4. Let a and b denote the
lengths of the diagonals of the parallelogram. Which of the following quantities can be determined
from the given information?
I) a + b II a2 + b2 III a3 + b3
A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only I and II
2. A figure is an equiangular parallelogram if and only if it s a:
A) rectangle B) rhombus
C) square D) trapezium
3. The consecutive angles of a trapezium form an arithmetic sequence. If the smallest angle is 75o, then
the largest angle is:
A) 1000 B) 1050 C) 1100 D) 1150
4. A rhombus is inscribed in triangle ABC in such a way that one of its vertices is A and two its sides lie
along AB and AC, where AC=6, AB=12 and BC=8, the side of the rhombus is:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
5. The greatest angle of a quadrilateral is double the least. If the angle are in arithmetic series [a, a+d,
a+2d , a+3d]the other two angles are:
 2 5 6 4  5 4 3
A) , B) , C) , D) ,
3 3 9 9 9 9 4 4
6. Which of the following statements is true?
A) All the angles of a parallelogram can be acute
B) If the diagonals of a quadrilateral are at right angles, it is a rhombus
C) If the diagonals of a quadrilateral are at right angles the figure formed by joining the mid-points of
adjacent sides is a rectangle
D) If one pair of opposite sides is parallel and the other pair of opposite sides is equal in a quadrilateral
then the quadrilateral is a parallelogram.
MID POINT THEOREM
7. In the trapezium shown, AB DC, and E and F are the midpoints of the two diagonals. If DC=60 and
EF=5 then the length of AB is equal to:
A) 40 B) 45 C) 50 D) 55
229
8. Suppose the triangle ABC has an obtuse angle at C and let D be the midpoint of side AC. Suppose E
is on BC such that the segment DE is parallel to AB. Consider the following three statements.
(i) E is the midpoint of BC
(ii) The length of DE is half the length of AB
(iii) DE bisects the altitude from C to AB
A) only (i) is true
B) only (i) and (ii) are true
C) only (i) and (iii) are true
D) all three are true
9. The line joining the mid points of the diagonals of a trapezium has length 3. If the longer base is 97,
then the shorter base is:
A) 94 B) 92 C) 91 D) 90
AREA OF PARALLELOGRAM AND TRIANGLES
10. Through a point on the hypotenuse of a right triangle lines are drawn parallel to the legs of the triangle
so that the triangle is divided into a square and two smaller right triangles. The area of one of the two
small right triangles is m times the area of the square. The ratio of the area of the other small right
triangle to the area of the square is:
1 1
A) B)
4m 2m  1
1
C) m D)
8m 2
11. Given that the lines l and m are parallel. Which of the three triangles has the greatest area?
A) ABC B) ABC
C) AEC D) All triangles have the same area
12
12. ABCD (in order) is a rectangle with AB  CD  and BC=DA=5. Point P is taken on AD such that
5
BPC  90o . The value of (BP+PC) is equal to:
A) 5 B) 6 D) 7 D) 8
230
13. In the diagram, ABCD is a rectangle and point E lies on AB. Triangle DEC has DEC  90o , DE=3 and
EC=4. The length of AD is:
A) 2.4 B) 2.8
C) 1.8 D) 3.2
14. In the figure PQRS is a rectangle, which one is true?
A) Area of APS = area of QRB

B) PA = RB
C) Area of APS = area of QRS
D) All of these
15. In the given figure, the area of trapezium PQFE is half of the area of trapezium EFRS. If
SR EF PQ,SR and PQ is 7cm and 10cm respectively, then EF=?
A) 9cm
B) 83cm
C) 4 6cm
D) 87cm
231
PROBLEM BASED ON CHORDS

16. In the circle shown AB = 24, and the perpendicular chord CD bisects AB. If DM is 4 times as long as
CM then the length of BD, is
A) 8 5 B) 12 5
C) 16 5 D) 20 5
17. Let P be a point on the circumference of a circle. Perpendiculars PA and PB are drawn to points A and
B on two mutually perpendicular diameters. If AB = 36 cm, the diameter of the circle is :
A) 16 cm B) 24 cm C) 36 cm D) 72 cm
18. A semicircle is drawn with AB as its diameter. From C, a point on AB, a line perpendicular to AB is
drawn meeting the circumference of the semicircle at D. Given that AC = 2 cm and CD = 6 cm, the
area of the semicircle is :
A) 32 B) 50 C) 40 D) 36
19. The circle and the square have the same centre and the same area. If the circle has radius 1, the
length of AB, is :
A) 4   B) 4  2  C) 2   D) 4
20. In the circle with centre ‘O’ as shown, chord AB and CD intersect at P and are perpendicular to each
other. If AP = 4, PB = 6 and PC = 2, then the area of the circle is
A) 45 B) 49
C) 50 D) 41
232
21. In the figure given above, A and B are the centers of the two congruent circles with radius 17 units. If
AB = 30 units, the length of the common chord DC is :
A) 25 units B) 18 units C) 10 units D) 16 units

PROBLEM BASED ON ANGLES
22. In the diagram the circle contains the verticles A, B, C of triangle ABC. Now ABC is 300 and the
length of AC is 5. The diameter of the circle is :
A) 5 3 B) 8 C) 10 D) 5 5
23. Find the measure of angle y in the figure if P is the centre of the circle :
A) 990 B) 1050 C) 900 D) 1090
24. In the given circle ABCD, O is the centre and BDC  42o. The ACB is equal to:
A) 48o B) 45o C) 42o D) 60o
233
25. In the given figure, CAB  80o , ABC  40o . The sum of DAB  ABD is equal to:
A) 80o B) 100o C) 120o D) 140o
LEVEL - II
1. The sides of rectangle are all produced in order, in such a way that the length of each side is increased
1
by ‘k’ times itself. The area of the new quadrilateral formed becomes 2 times the area of the original
2
rectangle. Find the value of ‘k’.
1 5 3
A) B) C) D) None of these
2 2 2
2. PQRS is a parallelogram and M, N are the mid-points of PQ and RS respectively. Which of the
following is not true ?
A) RM trisects QS
B) PN trisects QS
C) PSN  RQM
D) MS is not parallel to QN
3. In the figure, the area of square ABCD is 4 cm2 and E any point on AB, F, G, H and K are the mid point
of DE, CF, DG, and CH respectively. The area of KDC is
1 2 1 2 1 1
A) cm B) cm C) cm2 D) cm 2
4 8 16 32
234
4. Angle at A in trapezium ABCD if AB = 18 cm, BC = 10 cm, CD = 12 cm, DA = 8 cm, AB  CD , will be:

A) 800 B) 450 C) 900 D) None of these
5. If the sum of all angles except one of a convex polygon is 21800, then the number of sides of the
polygon is :
A) 19 B) 17
C) 15 D) 13
6. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB  CD. If ADC  2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the
length (in cm) of AB is :
a
A)  2b B) a + b
2
2 2
C) ab D) a  b
3 3
7. E is the midpoint of diagonal BD of a parallelogram ABCD. If the point E is joined to a point F on DA
1
such that DF  DA, then the ratio of the area of DEF to the area of quandrilateral ABEF is :
3
A) 1 : 3 B) 1 : 4 C) 1 : 5 D) 2 : 5
8. ABCD is a quandrilateral whose diagonals intersect each other at the point O such that
OA = OB = OD. If OAB  300 , then the measure of ODA is :
A) 300 B) 450 C) 600 D) 900
9. In the figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and PBQR is a rectangle.
If AP : PB = 1 : 2 = PD : DR, what is the ratio of the area of ABCD to the area of PBQR ?
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1 C) 1 : 1 D) 2 : 3
10. To construct rhombus uniquely it is necessary to know atleast –––––– of its parts.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5
11. In the given figure, AB=BC=CD, if BAC  25o , then value of AED is:
A) 50o B) 60o
C) 65o D) 75o
235
  CD
12. If AB  , then:
A) 1  2 B) 3   4 C)  2  3 D) None of these
13. A, B and C are three points on the circle whose centre is O. If
BAC  x, CBO  BCO  y, BOC  t reflex BOC  z, then :
B) x  y  90
o
A) x  y  90o C) t  2yo  90o D) None of these
14. Find the value of a + b, if b = 2a.
A) 400 B) 800 C) 1200 D) 1600

15. In figure, if PQR is tangent to a circle at Q whose centre is O, AB is a chord parallel to PR and
BQR  700 , then AQB is equal to :
A) 200 B) 400 C) 350 D) 450

16. In the given figure value of ‘a’ is :
A) 300 B) 400 C) 600 D) 900

17. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral inscribed in a circle with the centre O. Then OAD is equal to :
A) 300 B) 400 C) 500 D) 600
236
18. In figure, O is centre, then BXD 
A) 650 B) 600 C) 700 D) 550

PROBLEM BASED ON SECANTS AND TANGENTS
19. The three circles in the figure centered at A, B and C are tangent to one another and have radii 7, 21
and 6 respectively. The area of the triangle ABC, is
A) 54 B) 64 C) 74 D) 84
0
20. Triangle PAB is formed by three tangents to circle O and APB  40 , then angle AOB
A) 450 B) 500 C) 600 D) 700

21. On a plane are two points A and B at a distance of 5 unit apart. The number of straight lines in the plane
which are at distance of 2 units from A and 3 units from B, is :
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
22. In the figure, assume that the circle are mutually tangent and that the circle with centre at A has radius
1. The lines AB and AC are tangent to the circle at O in the points B and C respectively. If the area of the
shaded region is  4 , the radius of the circle centered at O, is
A) r  2  1 B) r  2  2 C) r  1  2 D) 2  2
237
23. Let C be a circle O. Let T be a point on the circle, and P a point outside the circle such that PT is
tangent to C. Assume that the segment OP intersects C in a point Q. If PT = 12 and PQ = 8, the radius
of C, is :
A) r = 40 B) r = 5 C) r  4 5 D) r  4 13
24. Two circles of radii 4 cm and 14 cm have a common external tangent of length 24 cm. The distance
between the centres of these circles (in cm) is :
A) 24 B) 25 C) 26 D) 27
25. In a triangle ABC, AB = 130, AC = 200 and BC = 260. Point D is choosen on BC so that the circles
inscribed in triangle ABD and ADC are tangent to AD at the same point. Length of BD is equal to :
A) 105 B) 95 C) 90 D) 85
26. Three circles are mutually tangent externally. Their centres form a triangle whose sides are of lengths
3,4 and 5. The total area of the three circles (in square units) is :
A) 9 B) 16 C) 21 D) 14
27. Circles with centres O, O' and P each tangent of the line L and also mutually tangent. If the radii of
circle O and circle O' are equal and the radius of the circle P is 6, then the radius of the larger circle is
:
A) 22 B) 23 C) 24 D) 25
28. Two circle touch other externally at C and AB is a common tangent to the circles. Then, ACB 
A) 600 B) 450 C) 300 D) 900
29. ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at B such that BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm. A circle with
centre O is inscribed in ABC. The radius of the circle is :
A) 1 cm B) 2 cm C) 3 cm D) 4 cm
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30. AB and CD are two common tangents to circles which touch each other at C. If D lies on AB such that
CD = 4 cm, then AB is equal to :
A) 4 cm B) 6 cm C) 8 cm D) 12 cm
LEVEL - III
1
1. ABCD is a parallelogram. DEC is drawn such that BE = AE . Sum of the areas of ADE and BEC
3
is:
1
A) area of parallelogram ABCD
3
1
B) area of parallelogram ABCD
2
2
C) area of DEC
3
1
D) area of DEC
2
5x 0 7x 0
2. A quandrilateral ABCD has four angles x 0 ,2x 0 , and respectively. What is the difference
2 2
between the value of biggest and the smallest angles.
A) 400 B) 1000
C) 800 D) 200
3. ‘O’ is any point inside the rectangle PQRS, then
A) OP2 + OR2 = OQ2 + OS2 B) OP2 + OQ2 = OR2 + OS2
C) OP2 + OS2 = OQ2 + QR2 D) None of the above
4. If the following figure of triangle ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD. The ratio of areas of the triangles
ABC and BED is
A) 1 : 4 B) 3 : 4
C) 4 : 1 D) 4 : 3
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5. In the diagram O is the centre of a circle. AE + EB = CE + ED. OP  AB and OQ  CD, then teue
relation between OP and OQ is :
1
A) OP > OQ B) OP < OQ C) OP  OQ D) OP = OQ
2
6. The centre of a circle is at O. AB and CD are two chords of length d and  respectively. If P is the
mid point of CD, then the length OP is :
A) d2  2 B) d2  2
1 2 2 1 2 2
C) d  D) d 
2 2
7. Two circles of equal radius touch each other externally at point C. AB is their common tangent. Value
of CAB is
A) 300 B) 400
C) 450 D) 600
240
8. BC is the diameter of a circle. Points A and D are situated on the circumference of the semi circle
ABD  350 and BCD  600 , ADB equals to :
A) 200 B) 250 C) 300 D) 1150

9. One of the side of a triangle is divided into line segment of lengths 6 cm and 8 cm by the point of
tangency of the incircle of the triangle. If the radius of the incircle is 4 cm, then the length (in cm) of the
longer of the two remaining sides of the triangle is :
A) 12 B) 13 C) 15 D) 16
10. The circumference of the circumcircle of the triangle formed by x-axis, y-axis, and graph of
3x + 4y = 12 is :
A) 3 units B) 4 units C) 5 units D) 6.25 units
11. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle are 6 cm and 8 cm. If the smaller chord is at distance
4 cm from the centre, then the distance of the other chord from the centre is
A) 5 cm B) 4 cm C) 3 cm D) 2 cm
12. In the figure, BC is a chord of the circle with centre O and A is a point on the minor are BC. Then
BAC  OBC is equal to
A) 300 B) 600 C) 800 D) 900
13. In the figure O is the centre of the circle and POR  800 . Then RQS is
A) 300 B) 400 C) 1400 D) 500
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14. In the figure, the semicircle centered at O has a diameter 6 cm. The chord BC is parallel to AD and BC
1
= AD. The area of the trapezium ABCD in cm2, is :
3
A) 4 B) 4 2 C) 8 D) 8 2
15. In the figure, the radius of the larger circle is 2 cm and the radius of the smaller circle is 1 cm and the
larger circle passess through the centre of the smaller circle. The length (in cm) of the chord AB is :
15 3 5 34
A) B) 2 C) D)
2 2 17
16. In the following figure O is the centre of circle and ACB  x 0 , OBA  y 0 then the value of x0 + y0 is
A) 900 B) 1200 C) 1500 D) 1800

Numerical
17. In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle. The value of x is :
242
18. In the following figure, if PA = 12 cm, PC = 15 cm and CD = 7 cm, then the value of AB is :
19. In the figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is the tangent at P such that QPT  700 .
Then the measure of PRQ is equal to :
20. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle and OABC is rectangle :
What is the length of AC ?

21. In a circle, a 16 unit long chord is at a distance 6 units away from the centre. Find the distance of a 12
unit long chord from the centre.
Match the column
22. Column - I Column - II
A) Number of common tangents of two intersecting circles p) 0
B) Number of common tangents of two externally touching circles q) 1
C) Number of common tangents of two internally touching circles r) 2
D) Number of common tangents of two non-touching non intersecting s) 3
circles, one of which lies inside the other
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CHAPTER - 02
LINES, ANGLES AND TRIANGLES
LINE
A line has length but no width and no thickness
ANGLE
An angle is the union of two non-collinear rays with a common initial point. The common initial point is
called the ‘vertex’ of the angle and two rays are called the ‘arms’ of the angles
 REMARK
Every angle has a measure and unit of measurement is degree
One right angle = 90°
1  60  minutes 
1  60  seconds 
Angle addition axiom: If X is a point in the interior of BAC, then mBAC  mBAX  mXAC
a) Types of Angles:
(i) Right angle: An angle whose measure is 90° is called a right angle
244
(ii) Acute angle: An angle whose measure is less than 90° is called an acute angle
0  BOA  90
(iii) Obtuse angle: An angle whose measure is more than 90° but less than 180° is called an obtuse
angle.
90  AOB  180

(iv) Straight angle : An angle whose measure is 180° is called a straight angle
(v) Reflex angle: An angle whose measure is more than 180° is called a reflex angle
180  AOD  360

(vi) Complementary angles: Two angles, the sum of whose measures is 90° are called
complementary angles
245
AOC & BOC are complementary as their sum is 90°

(vii) Supplementary angles: Two angles, the sum of whose measures is 180°, are called the
supplementary angles
AOC & BOC are supplementary as their sum is 180°

(viii) Angle Bisectors: A ray OX is said to be the bisector of AOB , if X is a point in the interior of
AOB , and AOX  BOX
(ix) Adjacenet angles: Two angles are called adjacent angles, if

A) they have the same vertex
B) they have a common arm
C) non common arms are on either side of the common arm
AOX and BOX are adjacent angles, OX is common arm, OA and OB are non common arms and
lies on either side of OX
(x) Linear pair of angles: Two adjacent angles are said to form a linear pair of angles, if their non
common arms are two opposite rays
(xi) Vertically opposite angles: Two angles are called a pair of vertically opposite angles, if their
246
arms form two pairs of opposite rays
AOC & BOD form a pair of vertically opposite angles. Also AOD & BOC form a pair of vertically
opposite angles
If two lines intersect, then the vertically opposite angles are equal i.e.
AOC  BODand BOC  AOD
(b) Angles Made by a Transversal with two Parallel Lines”
Transversal : A line which intersects two or more given parallel lines at distinct points is called a
transversal of the given liens
(i) Corresponding angles : Two angles on the same side of a transversal are known as the
corresponding angles if both lie either above the two lines or below the two lines, in figure
1& 5, 4 & B, 2 & 6, 3 & 7 are the pairs of corresponding angles. If a transversal
intersects two parallel lines then the corresponding angles are equal i.e.
1  5, 4  8, 2  6 and 3  7
(ii) Alternate interior angles : 3 & 5, 2 & 8 are the pairs of alternate interior angles
If a transversal intersects two parallel lines then the each pair of alternate interior angles are equal i.e.
3  5 and 2  8
(iii) Co-interior angles: The pair of interior angles on the same side of the transversal are called
pairs of consecutive or co-interior angles. In figure 2 & 5, 3 & 8 are the pairs of co-interior
angles. If a transversal intersects two parallel lines then each pair of consecutive interior angles are
supplementary i.e. 2  5  180 and 3  8  180
Ex.1. Find the measure of an angle, if six times its complement is 12° less than twice its supplement
Sol. Let the measure of the required angle be x°. Then, measure of its complement =  90  x 
o
Measure of its supplement = 180  x 


247
 6  90  x   2 180  x   12
 540  6x  360  2x  12
 4x  192
 x  48
Hence, the required angle is 48°
Ex.2. In the adjoining figure, ABC  100, EDC  120 and AB||DE. Then, find BCD
Sol.
Produce AB to meet CD at F
BFD  EDF  120 alternate interior s 
 BFC  180  120   60
 CBF  180  100   80
 BCF  180   60  80   40
POLYGON
A closed plane figure bounded by line segments is called a polygon
A polygon is named according to the number of sides it has
No. of
3 4 5 6 7 8 10
sides
figure Triangle Quadrilateral Pentagon Haxagon Heptagon Octagon Decagon
In general, a polygon having n sides is called ‘n’ sided polygon

 Diagonal of Polygon:
Line segment joining any two non-consecutive vertices of a polygon is called its diagonal
248
 Convex Polygon
If all the interior angles of a polygon are less than 180°, it is called a convex polygon
 Concave Polygon
If one or more of the interior angles of a polygon is greater than 180° i.e. reflex, it is called a concave
polygon
 Regular Polygon
A polygon is called a regular polygon if all its sides have equal length and all the angles have equal
measure
 REMARKS
(1) The sum of the interior angles of a convex polygon of n sides is (2n-4) right angles or (2n-4) 90°
(2) The sum of the exterior angles of a convex polygon is 4 right angles or 360°
 2n  4   90
(3) Each interior angle of a n-sided regular polygon is 
n
 360 
(4) Each exterior angle of a regular polygon of n sides   
 n 
n  n  3
(5) If a polygon has n sides, then the number of diagonals of the polygon 
2
Ex.3 If the sum of interior angles of a polygon is 1620°, find its number of sides
Sol. We know that sum of all interior angles of a n sided polygon =  2n  4  right angles
  2n  4  90
249
but given sum of interior angles = 1620°
  2n  4  90  1620
1620
 2n  4 
90
 2n  4  18
 2n  22
 n  11
TRIANGLE
A plane figure bounded by three lines in a plane is called a triangle. Every triangle have three sides and
three angles. If ABC is any triangle then AB, BC& CA are three sides and A, B and C are three
angles
 Types of triangles
A. On the basis of sides we have three types of triangle
1. Scalence triangle - A triangle in which no two sides are equal is called a scalene triangle
2. Isosceles triangle - A triangle having two sides equal is called an isosceles triangle
3. Equilateral triangle - A triangle in which all sides are equal is called an equilateral triangle
B. On the basis of angles we have three types
1. Right triangle - A triangle in which any one angle is right angle is called right triangle
2. Acute triangle - A triangle in which all angles are acute is called an acute triangle
3. Obtuse triangle - A triangle in which any one angle is obtuse is called an obtuse triangle
 SOME IMPORTANT THEOREMS
Theorem: The sum of interior angles of a triangle is 180°
Theorem : If the bisectors of angles ABC and ACB of a triangle ABC meet at a point O, then
1
BOC  90  A
2
Exterior Angle of a Triangle:
If the side of the triangle is produced, the exterior angle so formed is equal to the sum of two interior
opposite angles
Corollary: An exterior angle of a triangle is greater than either of the interior opposite angles
Theorem: The sides AB and AC of a ABC are produced to P and Q respectively. If the bisectors of
250
1
PBC and QCB intersect at O, then BOC  90  A
2
Ex.4 In figure, TQ and TR are the bisectors of Q and R respectively. If QPR  80 and
PRT  30 , determine TQR and QTR
Sol. Since the bisectors of Q and R meet at T
1
QTR  90  QPR
2
1
 QTR  90   80
2
 QTR  90  40  130
In TQR  QTR  TRQ  180 In QTR, we have
 TQR  130  30  180  TRQ  PRT  30
 TQR  20
Thus, TQR  20 and QTR  130

CONGRUENT FIGURES
The figures are called congurent if they have same shape and same size. In other words, two figures
are called congruent if they are having equal length, width and height
Fig.(i) Fig.(ii)
In the above figures fig.  i  and fig.  ii  both are equal in length, width and height, so these are
congruent figures
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(a) Congruent Triangles:

Two triangles are congurent if and only if one of them can be made to superimposed on the other, so
as to cover it exactly
If two triangles ABC and DEF are congurent then A  D, B  E, C  F and
AB  DE,BC  EF, AC  DF
If two ABC &  DEF are congurent then we write ABC  DEF we can not write as
ABC  DFE or ABC  EDF
Hence, we can say that “two triangles are congurent if and only if there exists a one-one correspondence
between their vertices such that the corresponding sides and the corresponding angles of the two
triangles are equal.
(b) Sufficient conditions for congruence of two triangles:
(i) SAS congruence criterion
Two triangles are congruent if two sides and the included angle of one are equal to the corresponding
sides and the included angle of the other triangle
(ii) ASA congruence criterion
Two triangles are congruent if two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to the
corresponding two angles and the included side of the other triangle
252
(iii) AAS congruence criterion
If any two angles and a non included side on one triangle are equal to the corresponding angles and
side of another triangle, then the two triangles are congruent
(iv) SSS Congruence Criterion
Two triangles are congruent if the three sides ofn one triangle are equal to the corresponding three
sides of the other triangle
(v) RHS congruence criterion
Two right triangles are congurent if the hypotenuse and one side of one triangle are respectively equal
to the hypotenuse and one side of the other triangle
 NOTE
If two triangles are congruent then their corresponding sides and angles are also congruent by CPCT
(corresponding parts of congruent triangles are also congruent)
Theorem: If the bisector of the vertical angle bisects the base of the triangle, then the triangle is
isosceles
Ex.5 In figure, line m is the bisector of an angle A and O is any point on m. OQ and OP are
perpendiculars from O to the arms of A . Prove that
253
(i) AOQ  AOP (ii) OQ =OP
Sol. (i) In AOQ and AOP
OAQ  OAP  line m is the bisector of A 
AQO  APO  90 [Given]
and AO  AO Common
By AAS congruency
 AOQ  AOP
(ii) OQ  OP
Ex.6 If D is the mid-point of the hypotenuse AC of a right
1
triangle ABC, prove that BD  AC
2
Sol. Given: ABC is a right triangle such that B  90 and D is mid point of AC
1
To prove : BD  AC
2
Construction: Produce BD to E such that BD=DE and join EC
Proof :
In ADB and CDE

AD = DC [Given]
BD  DE [Byconstruction]
And, ADB  CDE [Vertically opposite angles]

 By SAS criterion of congruence we have
ADB  CDE
 EC  AB and CED  ABD....(i) [By CPCT]
But CED& ABD are alternate interior angles
CE||AB
 ABC  ECB  180 [Consecutive interior angles]
254
 90  ECB  180
 ECB  90
Now, In ABC & ECB we have
AB  EC [By (i)]
BC  BC [Common]
And, ABC  ECB  90

 By SAS criterion of congruence
ABC  ECB
 AC  EB [By CPCT]
1 1
 AC  EB
2 2
1
 BD  AC
2
SOME INEQUALITY RELATIONS IN A TRIANGLE
In triangle ABC, AB = c, BC=a & CA = b then
(i) The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than its third side. i.e. in ABC
A) a+b>c B) b  c  a C) a  c  b
(ii) If two sides of a triangle are unequal, then the longer side has greater angle opposite to it
i.e in ABC , if AB>AC then C   B
(iii) Of all the line segments that can be drawn to a given line, from a point, not lying on it, the perpendicular
line segment is the shortest. i.e. in PMN
A) PM <PN
(iv) The difference between any two sides of a triangle is less than its third side. i.e. in ABC
A) a  b  c B) b  c  a C) a  c  b
255
(v) In a right angle triangle the sum of squares of two smaller sides is equal to the square of its third
side. i .e In ABC,a 2  b2  c 2
(vi) If sum of squares of two smaller sides is greater than the square of its third side then that triangle
is acute angled triangle
i.e in ABC,a 2  b2  c 2
(vii) If sum of squares of two smaller sides is lesser than the square of its third side then that triangle
is obtuse angled triangle
i.e. In ABC,a 2  b2  c 2
Ex.7 From which given triplet we can make the sides a triangle
(i) 15,7,8 (ii) 3.5,4.5,5.5
Sol. As we know sum of two sides is always greater then third side
(i) we can not make the triangle because here the sum of two side is equal to third side i.e. 7+8=15
(ii) We can make the triangle because sum of two sides is always greater then third side
3.5 + 4.5 > 5.5
3.5 + 5.5 > 4.5
4.5 + 5.5 > 3.5
Ex.8 Prove that any two sides of the triangle are together greater than twice the median drawn to the
third side.
Sol. Given: ABC and AD is the median
To prove : AB  AC  2AD
Construction: Produce AD to E such that AD = DE.. Join EC

Proof:In ADB and CDE
AD = DE [By construction]
BD = DC [AD is the median]
ADB  CDE [Vertically opposite angles]
ADB  CDE [By SAS congruency]
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So, by CPCT
AB = EC
In AEC
AC  EC  2AD
[Sum of two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third side]
So, AC  AB  2AD  As EC  AB

SIMILAR TRIANGLES
Two triangles ABC and DEF are said to be similar if their
(i) Corresponding angles are equal
i.e. A  D, B  E, C  F
And,
(ii) Corresponding sides are proportional
AB BC AC
i.e.  
DE EF DF
(a) Characteristic Properties of Similar Triangles
(i) (AAA Similarity) If two triangles are equiangular, then they are similar
(ii) (SSS Similarity) If the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional, then they are similar
(iii) (SAS Similarity) If in two triangles, one pair of corresponding sides are proportional and the included
angles are equal then the two triangles are similar.
(b) Results Based Upon Characteristic Properties of Similar Triangles
(i) If two triangles are equiangular, then the ratio of the corresponding sides is the same as the ratio of
the corresponding medians
(ii) If two triangles are equiangular, then the ratio of the corresponding sides is same as the ratio of the
corresponding angle bisector segments
(iii) If two triangles are equiangular then the ratio of the corresponding sides is same as the ratio of the
corresponding altitudes.
(iv) If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of another triangle and the bisectors of these equal
angles divide the opposite side in the same ratio, then the triangles are similar
(v) If two sides and a median bisecting the third side of a triangle are respectively proportional to the
257
corresponding sides and the median of another triangle, then two triangles are similar
(vi) If two sides and a median bisecting one of these sides of a triangle are respectively proportional to
the two sides and the corresponding median of another triangle, then the triangles are similar
THALES THEOREM (BASIC PROPORTIONALITY THEOREM)
Statement: If a line is drawn parallel to one side of triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct
points then the other two sides are divided in the same ratio. i.e., In ABC in which a line parallel to
AD AE
side BC intersects other two sides AB and AC at D and E respectively. Then, 
DB EC
Corollary:
If in a ABC , a line DE||BC, intersects AB in D and AC in E, then
DB EC AB AC AD AE AB AC DB EC
(i)  (ii)  (iii)  (iv)  (v) 
AD AE AD AE AB AC DB EC AB AC
Converse of Basic Proportionality Theorem

Statement: If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, then the line must be parallel
to the third side
Some Important Results and Theorems
(i) The intemal bisector of an angle of a triangle divides the opposite side intemally in the ratio of the
sides containing the angle
(ii) In a triangle ABC, if D is a point on BC such that D divides BC in the ratio AB: then AD is the bisector
of A
(iii) The external bisector of an angle of a triangle divides the opposite sides externally in tthe ratio of
the sides containing the angle
(iv) The line drawn from the mid-point of one side of a triangle parallel to anoter side bisects the third
side
258
(v) The line joining the mid-points of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side
(vi) The diagonals of a trapezium divide each other proportionally
(vii) If the diagonals of a quadrilateral divide each other proportionally, then it is a trapezium
(viii) Any line parallel to the parallel sides of a trapezium divides the non-parallel sides proportionally
(ix) If three or more parallel lines are intersected by two transversals, then the intercepts made by
them on the transversals are proportional
Ex.9. In a trapezium ABCD, AB ||DC and DC = 2AB. EF drawn parallel to AB cuts AD in F and BC in E
BE 3
such that  . Diagonal DB intersects EF at G. Prove that 7FE = 10AB
EC 4
Sol. In DFG and DAB
1  2 [Corresponding s AB||FG
FDG  ADB [Common]
DFG  DAB [By AA rule of similarity]
DF FG
  .........(i)
DA AB
Again in trapezium ABCD EF||AB||DC
AF BE AF 3  BE 3 
  ;  
DF 4  EC  4  given  
DF EC  
AF 3
 1  1
DF 4
AF  DF 7
 
DF 4
AD 7 DF 4
  ;   .....(ii)
DF 4 AD 7
FG 4 4
 i.e,FG  AB....(iii)
AB 7 7
In BEG and BCD , we have
259
BEG  BCD Corresponding angle  Eg||CD
GBE  DBC [Common]
 BEG  BCD [By AA rule of similarity]
BE EG
 
BC CD
3 EG
 
7 CD
 BE 3 EC 4 EC  BE 4  3 BC 7 
 EG  7 i.e., BE  3  BE

3
 
BE 3 

3 3
 EG  CD   2 AB   CD  2AB  given 
7 7
6
 EG  AB ....(iv)
7
Adding (iii) and (iv), we get
4 6 10
FG  EG  AB  AB  AB
7 7 7
10
 EF  AB i.e.,7EF  10AB
7
1 1 1
Ex.10 In the given figure, PA, QB and RC are each perpendicular to AC. Prove that x  z  y
Sol. In PAC , we have BQ||AP
BQ CB
   CBQ  CAP 
AP CA
y CB
  ....(i)
x CA
In ACR , we have BQ||CR
BQ AB
   ABQ  ACR 
CR AC
y AB
  .....(ii)
z AC
Adding (i) and (ii) we get
260
y y CB AB
  
x z AC AC
y y AB  BC
  
x z AC
y y AC
  
x z AC
y y
  1
x z
1 1 1
  
x z y
AREAS OF SIMILAR TRIANGLE

Statement: The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their
corresponding sides i.e, In 2 triangles ABC and PQR such that ABC  PQR [Shown in the figure]
ar  ABC 
2 2 2
 AB   BC   CA 
     
ar  PQR   PQ   QR   RP 
Properties of Areas of Similar Triangles

(i) The areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the squares of corresponding altitudes
(ii) The areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the squares of the corresponding medians
(iii) The area of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the squares of the corresponding angle bisector
segments
Ex.11 Prove that the area of the equlateral triangle described on the side of a square is half the area of
the equlateral triangle described on its diagonal
Sol. Given: A square ABCD. Equilateral triangles BCE and ACF have been described on side BC
and diagonal AC respectively
261
1
To Prove : Area  BCE   .Area  ACF 
2
Proof : Since BCE and ACF are equilateral. Therefore, they are equangular (each angle being
equal to 60°) and hence BCE  ACF
 ABCDis a square 
 
Diagonal  2  side  
 
  AC  2BC 
Area  BCE  BC2

 
Area  ACF  AC2
Area  BCE  BC2 1

  
Area  ACF 
 
2
2BC 2
Area  BCE  1
 
Area  ACF  2
PYTHAGORAS THEOREM
Statement: In a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the
other two sides i,e. In a right triangle ABC, right angled at B
Then, AC 2  AB2  BC2

Converse of Pythegoras Theorem
Statement: In a triangle, if the square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two
sides, then the angle opposite to the first side is a right angle
Some Results Deduced From Pythagoras Theorem
(i) In the given figure ABC is an obtuse triangle, obtuse angled at B. If AD  CB
262
then AC 2  AB2  BC 2  2BC.BD
(ii) In the given figure, if B of ABC is an acute angle and AD  BC , then AC 2  AB2  BC 2  2BC.BD
(iii) In any triangle, the sum of the squares of any two sides is equal to twice the square of half of the
third side together with twice the square of the median which bisects the third side
(iv) Three times the sum of the squares of the sides of a triangle is equal to four times the sum of the
squares of the medians of the triangle
Ex. 12 In an equilateral triangle ABC, the side BC is trisected at D. Proove that 9 AD2 = 7AB2
1
Sol. ABC be an equilateral triangle and D be point on BC such that BD  BC  Given 
3
Draw AE  BC, Join AD
BE  EC (Altitude drown from any vertex of an equlateral triangle bisects the opposite side)
BC
So, BE  EC 
2
In ABC
AB2  AE 2  EB2 ....(i)
263
AD2  AE 2  ED 2 ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
AB2  AD 2  ED2  EB2
BC 2 BC2
 AB2  AD 2  
36 4
 BC BC BC BC 
BD  DE  2  3  DE  2  DE  6 
 
BC2 BC2  BC 
 AB2    AD 2  EB  2 
36 4  
AB2 AB2
 AB2    AD 2  AB  BC
36 4
36AB2  AB2  9AB2

  AD2
36
26AB2
  AD2  7AB2  9AD 2
36
264
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. In the given diagram, PT is parallel to QR. Size of PQR is
A) 116° B) 138° C) 144° D) 120°

2. In the diagram if ABC and PQR are equilateral. The CXY equals
A) 35° B) 40° C) 45° D) 50°

3. In the figure shown, BEA  100 . Point F is chosen inside BEA so that line FA bisectss EAB
and line FB bisects EAB . The measure of BFA ,is
A) 140° B) 145° C) 150° D) 155°

4. In the figure shown, the value of CAB , is (Here x is measured in degree in the figure)
A) 108° B) 120° C) 144° D) 162°

5. The altitudes of triangle are 12, 15 and 20 units. The largest angle in the triangle is
A) 75° B) 90° C) 120° D) 135°
265
6. As shown in the figure, AC = CD, CAB  ABC  30 . Then BAD has a measure of
A) 15° B) 30° C) 20° D) (22½°)

7. In the figure given, ABC is a right isosceles triangle with right angle at C. CD is parallel to AB and
BD =BA. The degree measure of DBC equals
A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25
8. Given triangle PQR with RS bisecting R,PQ extended to D and n a right angle, then
1 1 1 1
A) m   p  q  B) m   p  q  C) d   q  p  D) d  m
2 2 2 2
9. The interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds the exterior angle by 132°. The number of sides in the
polygon is
A) 7 B) 8 C) 12 D) 15
10. One angle of a seven sided polygon is 108° and each of the other six angles is x°. The value of x is
A) 114° B) 121° C) 131° D) 132°
11. In the figure, PQ||ST , then QRS is equal to
A) 30° B) 40° C) 20° D) 60°

266
12. In the given figure, AB = AC and BAC  20 . Find the sum of angle ADC and angle DAC
A) 55° B) 80°
C) 70° D) 60°
13. For given figure, which one is correct
A) ABC  DEF B) ABC  FED

C) ABC  DFE D) ABC  EDF
14. In AOC and XYZ, a  X, AO  XZ, AC  XY , then by which congruence rule is AOC  XZY
A) SAS B) ASA C) SSS D) RHS
TRIANGLE INEQUALITIES
15. The sides of a triangle with positive area have lengths 4,6 and x. The sides of a second triangle with
positive area have length 4,6 and y. The smallest positive number that is not the possible value of
x  y is (x and y are integers)
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
16. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 4:6:11. Which of the following words best described the triangle?
A) Obtuse B) Isosceles
C) Acute D) Impossible
17. In the given diagram B  C  65 and D  30 , then the true statement is
A) BC = CA B) CA>CD
C) BD > AD D) AC = AD
267
SIMILAR TRIANGLES
18. The triangle ABC has sides a = 13, b = 14 and c = 15 as shown in the figure. Line N bisects angle B
and crosses side b at P. The distance from A to P, is
A) 3 7 B)7 C) 7 2 D) 7.5
19. The height of an equllateral triangle of side ‘a’ is given by
a 2 a 3 a 3 a 2
A) B) C) D)
2 2 4 3
MISCELLANEOUS
AB
20. Right triangle ABC with A  90 has M as the midpoint of BC. If   2 then equals
AC
1 1
A) B) 3 C) 1 D)
2 3
21. In an obtuse triangle ABC which one of the following pairs of points w.r.t the triangle ABC must is
outside the triangle?
A) Centroid and orthocentre
B) Incentre and circumcentre
C) Orthocentre and circumcentre
D) Centroid and circumcentre
22. Which single pair of descriptors of a triangle is not possible?
A) isosceles and equilateral B) acute and scalene
C) right and isosceles D) obtuse and equilateral
23. In an isoceles triangle ABC (AB=AC) the altitude to the base and to a lateral side are equal to 10cm
and 12cm respectively. The length of the base is
A) 12.5 B) 15 C) 16 D) 18
268
24. In the figure, DB is diagonal of rectangle ABCD and line through A and line m through C divide DB in
three equal parts each of length 1 cm and are perpendicular to DB. Area (in cm2) of rectanlge ABCD
is
A) 2 2 B) 2 3 C) 3 2 D) 3 3
25. In the following figure ACB  90 and CD  AB . If AD  4 cm and BD  9cm then the ratio
BC : AC is
A) 3:2 B) 2:3 C) 16:81 D) 81:16
LEVEL - II
1. In the figure, the value of x equals
A) 12° B) 15° C) 18° D) 21°

2. Lines PS, QT and RU intersect at a common point Q, as shown P is joined to Q, R to S and T to U, to
form triangles. The value of P  Q  R  S  T  U is
A) 270° B) 360° C) 450° D) 540°
269
3. In the diagram AMN

QRM and PRN are all straight lines. The value of    is
A) 70° B) 55° C) 90° D) 75°

4. Triangle ABC and ADC are isosceles with AB = BC and AD = DC. Point D is inside ABC, ABC  40
and ADC  140 . The degree measure of BAD , is
A) 20 B) 30
C) 40 D) 50
5. In a right triangle ABC, AD = AE and CF=CE as show. If DEF  x degrees then the value of x equals
A) 30° B) 45°
C) 60° D) 75°
6. Triangle ABC is isosceles with AB = AC. The measure of angle BAD is 30° and AD = AE. The measure
of angle EDC, is
A) 5° B) 10° C) 15° D) 20°
270
7. In a rectangle ABCD, as shown in figure, a point P is taken on the side CD such that PC = 9, BP=15
and AB=14 then the correct relation between angles of APB is
A)      B)      C)      D)     
8. In the figure, ADC is
A) 30° B) 60° C) 70° D) 80°

9. In the given figure AB  BC  CD  EG  GA and CAD  25 . Then
A) BCD  80 B) CDA  60 C) GEA  50 D) ACD  125

10. In the figure , AB=BC=CD=DE=EF=FG=GA, then DAE is equal to
180
A) 24° B) 25° C) 27° D)
7
11. In a right angled triangle ABC, P is mid point of AC. Which one is true?
AC AC
A) PA  B) PB 
2 2
C) PA  PB D) All of these
12. The corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 2 to 3. If the area of the smaller triangle
is 12, the area of the larger is
A) 24 B) 27 C) 18 D) 8
271
13. In ABC,PQ||BC , area of quadrilateral PBCQ= 42 sq.cm. If AP:PB=2:3, then find the area of APQ
56
A) 28 sq.cm B) sq.cm
3
C) 8 sq.cm D) 33.6 sq.cm
14. If CD = 15, DB=9, AD bisects A, ABC  90 , then AB has length
A) 32 B) 18 C) 7 D) 24
15. In a right angle triangle, if the square of hypotanuse is equal to twice the product of the other two sides,
then one of the acute angle of the triangle is
A) 30° B) 45° C) 60° D) 75°
16. The sides of an equilateral triangle ABC are 12 cm each. D is the foot of the perpendicular from A to
BC and E is the mid-point of AD. BE is
A) 4 3cm B) 6 2cm
C) 63cm D) none of these

17. In parallelogram ABCD, the length AB and CD are both 4, the length of diagonal AC = 4, and the length
of diagonal BD =6. The length AD equal to
A) 10 B) 12
C) 15 D) 20
18. Line  2 intersects  1 and line  3 is parallel to f1. The three lines are distinct and lie in a plane. The
number of points equidistant from all the three lines is
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4
272
19. In the figure, z =
2xy xy
A) x  y B) xy C) x2  y2 D)
2
20. In triangle ABC, CA=CB. On CB a square BCDE is constructed away from the triangle. If x is the
number of degrees in angle DAB, then
A) x depends upon the angles of the triangle ABC
B) x is independent of the angles of the triangle ABC
C) x may equal angle CAD
D) x is greater than 45° but less than 90°
21. In a given figure in trapezium ABCD if AB||CD then value of x is
29 8 1
A) B) C) 20 D)
8 29 20
22. In a given figure PQ||ST, PQR  110, RST  130 then value of QRS is
A) 20° B) 50° C) 60° D) 70°
area  ABC 16
23. ABC  PQR and 
area  PQR 9 . If PQ = 18 cm and BC = 12 cm, then AB and QR are
respectively
A) 9cm, 24cm B) 24cm, 9 cm C) 32 cm, 675 cm D) 135 cm, 16cm
24. In ABC, A  100, B  50, AH  BC,BM is a median and MH is joined. Then MHC 
A) 15° B) 30° C) 45° D) 60°
273
25. In the figure, ABC is similar to EDC . If we have AB = 4 cm, ED = 3 cm, CE = 4.2 cm and CD =
4.8 cm, then the values of CA and CB respectively are
A) 6 cm, 6.6 cm B) 4.8 cm, 6,6 cm

C) 5.4 cm, 6.4 cm D) 5.6 cm, 6.4 cm
26. In the quadrilateral ABCD
A) x  y,a  z B) x  z,a  y C) x  z,a  y D) x  y,a  w
27. In the figure, ABC is a triangle in which AD bisects A, AC  BC, B  72 and CD  1cm , length of
BD (in cm) is
1 5 1 3 1
A) 1 B) C) D)
2 2 2
28. In the given figure ABCD is a trapezium in which AB||DC and AB:DC=3:2, The ratio of the areas of
AOB and AOB IS
A) 3:2 B) 2:3
C) 4:9 D) 9:4
274
29. In the figure given below, equilateral triangle EDC surmounts square ABCD. Find the angle DEB
represented by x
A) 60° B) 15° C) 30° D) 45°
LEVEL - III
1. In the given figure AC = CB, PCA  QCB and PBC  QAC , then the true statement is
A) PB  QA B) CPB  CQA
C) PC  QC D) PCB  QCA
2. The median AD of ABC meets BC at D. The internal bisectors of ADB and ADC meet AB and
AC at E and F respectively. Then EF
A) is perpendicular to AD B) is parallel to BC
C) divides AD in the ratio of AB:AC D) none of these
3. A square DEAF is constructed inside a 30°–60°–90° triangle ABC with the hypotenuse BC = 4, D on
side BC, E on side AC and F on side AB. The length of the side of the square is
A) 3  3 B) 3  2 C) 2 D) 1.5
4. Three squares have the dimensions indicated in the diagram. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD is
21 15 42
A) B) C) D) data not sufficient
4 4 4
5. Let XOY be a right angled triangle with XOY  90 . Let M and N be the midpoints of legs OX and
OY, respectively. Given that XN = 19 and YM = 22, the length XY is equal to
A) 24 B) 26 C) 28 D) 34
275
6. In a right triangle with sides a and b, and hypotenuse c, the altitude drawn on the hypotenuse is x. Then
which one of the following is correct?
1 1 1 1 1 1
A) ab  x 2 B)   C) a 2  b2  2x 2 D) 2
 2 2
a b x x a b
7. In the right triangle shown the sum of the distances BM and MA is equal to the distances BC and CA.
If MB = x, CB = h and CA = d, then x equals
hd
A) B) d  h
2h  d
C) h  d  2d D) h2  d 2  h
8. Consider ABC, the medians AD & CF intersect at right angles at G. If BC = 3cm and AB = 4 cm, then
the length of AC is (in cm)
A) 12 B) 3.5 C) 5 D) 7
9. If all possible diagonals from a vertex of an n-sided polygon are drawn, then the number of triangles
formed will be
A) n-1 B) n-2
C) n-3 D) n-4
1 1
10. In the figure AD  DB, BE  EC and CF  AF . If the area of ABC  120cm2 , the area (in cm2) of
2 3
DEF is
A) 21 B) 35
C) 40 D) 45
276
LEVEL - IV
Numerical type
1. A square board side 10 centimeters, standing vertically, is tilted to the left so that the bottom-right
corner is raised 6 centimeters from the ground
BY what distance is the top-left corner lowered from its original position?
2. The number of triangles with any three of the lengths 1,4,6 and 8 cm, are
3. In the diagram ABC is right angled at C. Also M,N and P are the mid points of sides BC, AC and AB,
respectively. If the area of APN is 2 sq. cm, then the area of ABC , in sq. cm is
4. In the given figure, BEDC parallelogram. If the area of ADC = 8, area of BDC =3 and DAB  90 ,
then the area of AEB is
5. E and F are respectively, the mid points of the sides AB and AC of ABC and the area of the quadrilateral
BEFC is k times the area of ABC . The value of k is
Matrix match
Column I Column II
1. The number of dimensions, a line has a) Any polygon
2. Boundaries of surfaces are b) either intersect or parallel
3. Through two points c) a unique line can be drawn
4. Two distint lines d) curve
5. A pyramid is a solid figure, the base of which is e) 1
277
Column I Column II
1. The things which are double of the same thing are a) 40
2. Which of the following needs a proof b) 60
3. An exterior angle of triangle in 105° and its two interior
opposite angles are equal. Each of these angles is c) 108
4. If a wheel has six spokes equally spaced, d) theorem
then the measure of the angle between two
adjacent spokes is
5. Angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:4:3. e) equal
The smallest angle of the triangle is
278
CHAPTER - 03
PERIMETER AND AREA OF PLANE FIGURES
INTRODUCTION
Perimeter : The perimeter of a plane figure is the length of its boundary. The unit of perimeter is same as
the unit of length i.e. cm, etc.
Area : The area of plane figure is the measure of the surface enclosed by its boundary. The unit of area is
cm2, m2, etc.
AREA & PERIMETER OF TRIANGLES
(i) Scalene triangle

Perimeter = a + b + c
1 1
Area   Base  Height  ah
2 2
Heron’s formula:
Area  s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
abc
Where, s  semi  perimeter 
2
(ii) Isosceles triangle
1 1
 equalside   base 
2 2
Area   base  
2 4
(iii) Right-angled triangle
For an right-angled triangle, let to be the base, h be the perpendicular and d be the hypotenuse. Then
279
(A) Perimeter = b + h + d
1 1
(B) Area   Base  Height   bh
2 2
(C) Hypotenuse, d  b 2  h 2 [Pythagoras theorem]
(iv) Isosceles right-angled triangle

For an isosceles right-angled triangle, let a be the equal sides, then
(A) Hypotenuse  a 2  a 2  2a
(B) Perimeter  2a  2a
1 1 1
(C) Area   Base  Height    a  a   a 2
2 2 2
(v) Equilateral triangle
3
 side  , Perimeter = 3 (side)
2
Area 
4
Ex.1 Triangle ABC is isosceles with AB = AC = 7.5 cm and BC = 9 cm. The height from A to BC i.e., AD is 6
cm. Find the area of ABC . What will be the height from C to AB?
So. We have,
1
Area of ABC   BC  AD
2
280
1
  9  6 cm 2  27 cm 2
2
Let CF be the height from C to AB. Then,
1
Area of ABC   AB  CF
2
1
 27   7.5  CF
2
27  2
 CF   CF  7.2 cm
7.5
Ex.2 Find the area of a triangle :
(i) whose height is 6 cm and base is 10 cm.
(ii) whose three sides are 17 cm, 8 cm and 15 cm long
Also, in part (i) of this question; calculate the length of the altitude corresponding to the largest side of the
triangle.
1
Sol. (i) Area of triangle   Base  Height
2
1
  10  6  30 cm 2
2
(ii) Let a  17 cm, b  8 cm and c  15 cm
a bc
 s
2
17  8  15
  20 cm
2
Ao, Area  s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
 20  20  17  20  8 20  15  60 cm2
281
Since, the largest side of the triangle is 17 cm.
1
Area   Base  altitude
2
1
 60   17  altitude
2
60  2
 Altitude   7.06 cm
17
Ex.3 Find the area of an isosceles triangle whose equal sides are 5 cm each and base is 6 cm.
So.
In an isosceles triangle ABC, let AB = AC = 5 cm and BC = 6 cm.

Draw AD perpendicular to BC
Since, the perpendicular from the vertex to the base of an isosceles triangle bisects the base, therefore
1
BD  CD   6  3 cm
2
Applying Pythagoras Theorem in triangle ABD,
AD 2  AB2  BD2
 52  32  25  9
 16
So, AD = 4 cm.
1
 Area of triangle ABC   Base  height
2
1
  BC  AD
2
1
  6  4  12 cm 2
2
Ex.4 The sides of a triangle containing the right triangle are 5x cm and (3x–1) cm. If the area of the triangle is 60
cm3, calculate the lengths of the sides of the triangle.
282
Sol. Since, area of a right angled triangle
1
  product of its sides containing the right triangle
2
1
 60   5x   3x  1
2
 120  15 x 2  5x  15x 2  5x  120  0
8
On solving we get x = 3 and x  
3
8
Since, x   will give negative values of the sides of the triangle, which is impossible; therefore, x = 3.
3
 Length of the sies  2  3  15 cm and  3  3  1  8 cm .
Ex.5 Find the perimeter of an equilateral triangle whose area is equal to that of a triangle with sides 21 cm, 16
cm and 13 cm. Answer correct to 2 decimal places.
Sol. For the given triangle a = 21 cm, b = 16 cm and c = 13 cm.
a bc
 s
2
21  16  13
  25 cm
2
So, Area  s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
 25  25  21 25  16  25  13
 60 3 cm 2
Given :
Area of equilateral triangle = Area of this triangle
3
 side   60 3
2

4
  side   240
2
 side  240  4 15 cm
Perimeter of the equilateral triangle = 3 (side)
283
 3  4 15
 12  3.873
 46.48 cm  Approx.
AREA & PERIMETER OF QUADRILATERALS

1. When one diagonal and perpendiculars to this diagonal from the remaining vertices are given.
In quadrilateral ABCD, the diagonal AC and perpendiculars BX and DY to AC from the remaining verti-
ces B and D respectively are given, then the
Area of quadrilateral ABCD = Ar. of ABC  Ar.of ADC
1 1
 AC  BX  AC  DY
2 2
1
 AC  BX  DY 
2
1
 Area of quadrilateral   one diagonal  sum of the lengths of the perpendiculars drawn on it from
2
the remaining two vertices
2. When two diagonals of a quadrilateral cut each other at right angles.
Area of Quadrilateral ABCD

 Ar.of ABC  Ar.of ADC
1 1
 AC  BX  AC  DX
2 2
284
1 1
 AC  BX  DX   AC  BD
2 2
1
  The product of the diagonals
2
SOME SPECIAL TYPES OF QUADRILATERALS :
1. Rectangle :
Perimeter  2    b 
Area    b
Length of diagonal  d    2  b 2
Ex.6 Find the area of rectangular plot one side of which is 48 m and its diagonal 50 m.
Sol. Let the other side be x metres. Since ABC is a right triangle. Therefore,
AC 2  AB2  BC 2
 502  482  x 2
 x 2   50    48 
2 2
 x 2   50  48  50  48
 x 2  98  2
 x 2  14 2
 x  14
Thus, the other side of the rectangle is 14 cm.
 Area of the rectangle   48  14  m  672 m

2 2
285
Ex.7 A room is 8 m long and 5 m broad. Find the cost of covering the floor of the room with 80 cm wide carpet
at the rate of Rs. 22.50 per meter
Sol. Area of floor of the room = 8×5=40 m2
Let the length of the carpet be  m
 Area of carpet = length × breadth
80 2
  m  0.80  m 2
100
Since, Area of carpet = Area of the floor of the room
 0.80   40
   50 m
 Cost of carpet  50  Rs.22.50  Rs.1125

Ex.8 The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 3 : 2. If the area of the field is 3456 m2, find the
cost of fencing the field at Rs 3.50 per metre.
Sol. Let the length and breadth of the rectangular field be 3x and 2x meters respectively. Then, Area of the
rectangular field   3x  2x  m 2  6x 2 m 2
Also, area of the rectangular field = 3456 m2
 6x 2  3456
3456
 x2 
6
 x 2  576
 x  576  24
 length   3  24  m  72 m breadth   2  24  m  48 m
 Perimeter of the field = 2 (length + breadth)  [2   72  48 ]m  240 m
Rate of fencing = Rs 3.50 per metre

 Cost of fencing = Rs (240×3.50) = Rs 840.
2. Square:
286
Perimeter = 4a
Area = a2
Length of diagonal  a 2
Ex.9 A grassy plot is 80 m  60 m . Two cross paths each 4 m wide are constructed at right angles through the
centre of the field, such that each path is parallel to one of the sides of rectangle. Find the total area used
as path. Also, find the cost of gravelling them at Rs 5 per square meter.
Sol. Let ABCD and EFGH be the cross paths.
We have, AB  80 m and BC  4 m
 Area of path ABCD   80  4  m  320 m

2 2
Again, EF  60 m and FG  4 m
 Area of path EFGH  60  4  m  240 m

2 2
Clearly, are PQRS is common to both the paths.

We have,
Area PQRS   4  4  m 2  16m 2
 Total area used as path = Area of path ABCD + Area of path EFGH – Area PQRS
  320  240  16  m 2  544 m 2
Rate of gravelling the path = Rs 5 per square metre
 Total cost of gravelling the path  Rs  5  544   Rs 2720
3. Parallelogram:
287
Perimeter = 2 (a + b)
A rea = ah1 = bh2
Ex.10 In figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, CM  AB and BL  AD . If AB = 16 cm, AD = 12 cm and CM =

10 cm, find BL,
Sol. We have, base AB = 16 cm and altitude CM = 10 cm.

 Area of parallelogram ABCD = Base × Altitude
 16 10  cm 2  160 cm 2 ......  i 
Now, taking AD as the base, we have

Area of parallelogram ABCD = Base × Altitude
 12  BL  cm 2 .....  ii 
From (i) and (ii), we have

12  BL  160
160
 BL   13.33 cm
12
Ex.11 The base of a parallelogram is thrice its height. If the area is 876 cm2, find the base and height of the
parallelogram.
Slo. Let the height of the parallelogram be x cm. Then, base = 3x cm.
 Area of the parallelogram   x  3x  cm  3x cm

2 2 2
But, area of the parallelogram is given as 867 cm2
 3x 2  867  x 2  289  x 2  172  x  17
Thus, height = 17 cm and base   3 17  cm  51 cm
288
Perimeter  4a  2 d12  d 22
1
Area  d1d 2
2
Ex.12 If the area of rhombus be 24 cm2 and one of the its diagonals be 4 cm, find the perimeter of the rhombus.
Sol. Let ABCD be a rhombus such that its one diagonal AC = 4 cm. Suppose the diagonals AC and BD
intersect at O.
Now, Area of rhombus ABCD = 24 cm2
1
  AC  BD  24
2
1
  4  BD  24
2
 2  BD  24
 BD  12 cm
Thus, we have AC = 4 cm and BD = 12 cm
1 1
 OA  AC  2 cm and OB BD  6 cm
2 2
Since the diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles. Therefore,
AOB is a right triangle, right angled at O.
By pythagoras theorem, we have
AB2  OA 2  OB2
 AB2  2 2  6 2  40  4  10  22  10
 AB  2 10 cm

Hence, perimeter of rhombus ABCD  4  2 10 cm 
 8 10 cm
289
Ex.13 The area of a rhombus is 72 cm2. If its perimeter is 32 cm, find its altitude.
Sol. We have, perimeter of the rhombus = 32 cm
 4  side   32 cm  Perimeter  4  side  
32
 side  cm  8 cm
4
Now, area of the rhombus = 72 cm2
  side  Altitude   72
 8  Altitude  72
72
 Altitude  cm  9 cm
8
Ex.14 If the area of a rhombus be 48 cm2 and one of its diagonal is 12 cm, find its altitude.
Slo. Let ABCD be a rhombus of area 48 cm2 and diagonal
BD  12cm
Now, Area = 48 cm2
1
  AC  BD  48
2
1
  AC 12  48
2
 6  AC  48
48
 AC  cm  8cm
6
Since the diagonal of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles.
1 1
 OA AC  4 cm, OB  BD  6 cm
2 2
Also, AB2  OA 2  OB2 [using pythagoras theorem]
 AB2  42  6 2
290
 AB2  16  36
 AB  52
Since a rhombus is a parallelogram also, therefore, Area of rhombus  AB  Altitude
 48  52  Altitude
48
 Altitude  cm
52
5. Trapezium :
1
Area  h a  b
2
Ex.15 The given figure shows a trapezium ABCD in which AB = 17 cm, BC = 8 cm and CD = 15 cm. Find the
area and perimeter of the trapezium
Sol. Draw BE perpendicular to AD
In rectangle BCDE, BE = DC = 15 cm and DE = BC = 8 cm

In right angled triangle ABE,
291
AE 2  AB2  BE 2
 17 2  152  64
 AE  8 cm
Also AD  AE  DE  8 cm  8 cm  16 cm
1
 Area of trapezium   AD  BC   BE
2
1
 16  8  15  180 cm 2
2
Perimeter  AB  BC  CD  DA
 17  8  15  16  cm  56 cm
Ex.16 Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 25 cm, 13 cm and other sides are 15 cm and 15 cm.
Sol. Let ABCD be the given trapezium in which AB = 25 cm, CD = 13 cm, BC = 15 cm and AD = 15 cm.
Draw CE  AD
Now, ADCE is a parallelogram is which AD  CE and AE  CD
 AE  DC  13 cm
and BE  AB  AE  25  13  12 cm
In BCE , we have
15  15  12
s  21
2
 Area of BCE  s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
 Area of BCE  21 21  15  21  15 21  12 
 Area of BCE  21 6  6  9
 18 21 cm 2 .....  i 
292
Let h be the height of BCE , then
1
Area of BCE   Base  Height 
2
1
  12  h  6h ....  ii 
2
From (i) and (ii), we have,
6h  18 21
 h  3 21 cm
Clearly, the height of trapezium ABCD is same as that of BCE
1
 Area of trapezium   AB  CD   h
2
1
 Area of trapezium   25  13  3 21 cm 2
2
 57 21 cm 2
PERIMETER AND AREA OF A CIRCLE
Circle :
The collection of all points in a plane, which are at a fixed distance from a fixed point in the plane, is called
a circle.
The fixed point is called the centre of the circle and the fixed distance is called the radius of the circle. The
diameter of a circle is twice its radius.
In figure, O is the centre and the length OP is the radius of the circle.
The length of the boundary of a circle is called its circumference or its perimeter. We know that the ratio of
the circumference of a circle to its diameter is always a constant. This constant ratio is denoted by the
greek letter  .
Circumference

Diameter
Circumference   2r  2r  Diameter  2r 

293
The exact value of  is not known, because  is an irrational number. For all practical purposes, the value
22
of  is approximately taken as or 3.14
7
If r is the radius of a circle, then
(i) Circumference  2r or d , where d = 2r is the diameter of the circle.
(ii) Area  r 2
(iii) Area of semi  circle   r  2r

(v) Area enclosed by two concentric circles
 R 2  r 2    R 2  r 2     R  r  R  r 
Where R and r and radii of two concentric circles.
NOTE:
1. If two circles touch each other externally, then the distance between their centres is equal to sum of their
radii.
2. If two circles touch each other internally, then the distance between their centres is equal to difference of
their radii.
3. The distance moved by a rotating wheel in one revolution is equal to the circumference of the wheel
 22 
Ex.17 If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 66 cm, find the diameter of the protractor  Take    .
 7 
Sol. Let the radius of the protractor be r cm.
Then, Perimeter = 66 cm
 r  2r  66
 22 
 r   2   66
7 
 36 
 r    66
 7 
294
66  7
r
36
77
r
6
77
 Diameter  2r  .
3
Ex.18 Two circles touch externally. The sum of their areas is 130  sq.cm. and the distance between their
centres is 14 cm. Find the radii of the circles.
Sol.
If two circles touch externally, then the distance between their centres is equal to the sum of their radii. Let
the radii of the two circles be r1 cm and r2 cm respectively.
Let C1 and C2 be the centres the given circles. Then,
C1C2  r1  r2  C1C 2  14 cm  given  
 14  r1  r2
 r1  r2  14 .....  i 
It is given that the sum of the areas of two circles is equal to 130  cm 2 .
 r12  r22  130 
 r12  r22  130 ......  ii 
Now,  r1  r2   r12  r12  2r1r2

2
 142  130  2r1r2  U sin g  i  and  ii  
 196  130  2r1r2 ...  iii 
 r1r2  33
Now,  r1  r2   r12  r12  2r1r2

2
295
  r1  r2   130  2  33  Using  ii  and  iii  

2
  r1  r2   64
2
 r1  r2  8 ....  iv 
Solving (i) and (iv), we get r1 = 11 cm and r2 = 3 cm. Hence, the radii of the two circles are 11 cm and 3
cm.
Ex.19 A race track is in the form of a ring whose inner circumference is 352 m; and the outer circumference is
396 m. Find he width of the track.
Sol. Let the outer and inner radii of the ring be R metres and r metres respectively.
Then, 2R  396 and 2r  352
22 22
 2  R  396 and 2   r  352
7 7
7 1 7 1
 R  396   and r  352  
22 2 22 2
 R  63 m and r  56 m
Hence, width of the track   R  r  m
  63  56  m  7 m
Ex.20 The diameter of a cycle wheel is 28 cm. How many revolution will it make in moving 13.2 km?
Sol. Distance travelled by the wheel in one revolution
22 28
 2r  2    88 cm
7 2
and the total distance covered by the wheel
 13.2  1000  100 cm
 1320000 cm
 Number of revolutions made by the wheel
296
1320000
  15000
88
Ex.21 A wire is looped in the form of a circle of radius 28 cm. It is re-bent into a square form. Determine the
length of the side of the square.
Sol. We have,
Length of the wire = Circumference of the circle
 22 
Length of the wire   2   28 cm
 7 
Length of the wire = 176 cm ....... (i)
Let the side of the square be × cm.
Then,
Perimeter of the, square = Length of the wire
 4x  176  x  44 cm
Hence, the length of the side of the square is 44 cm.
SECTOR OF A CIRCLE AND ITS AREA
The region bounded by an arc of a circle and its two bounding radii is called a sector of the circle.
If the arc is a minor arc then the corresponding sector is called the minor sector and the remaining part
bounded by the major arc is called the major sector. In figure shaded region OAMB is the minor sector
and the remaining portion OANB is the major sector.
Length of Arc and Area of sector :
Let r be the radius of the circle with centre O and AOB be a sector of the circle such that AOB   .
0    180 , then the arc AB is a minor arc of the circle.
297
Now, if  increases, the length of arc AB is also increases and if  becomes 180°, then arc AB becomes
the circumference of a semi-circle .
When an arc subtends an angle 180° at the centre, then the length of the arc of the semi-circle  r
r r
When an arc subtends angle  at the centre, then length of the arc   
180 180
r
If L be the length of the arc AB, then L 
180
r 2
Again, when an arc subtends angle 180° at the centre then the area of the corresponding sector is .
2
r 2
 When an arc subtends an angle 180° at the centre, then the area of the corresponding sector is .
2
r 2 1 r 2 
 When an arc subtends an  at the centre, then area of the sector    
2 180 360
r 2  r
If A be the area of the sector, then A  and length of an arc L 
3606 180
A r 2  180 r
   
L 360 r 2
Lr
Hence, A 
2
NOTE :
(i) Angle described by minute hand in 60 minutes = 360°
 360 
 Angle described by minute hand in one minute   60   6 .
 
Thus, minute hand rotates through an angle of 6° in one minute.
(ii) Angle described by hour-hand in-12 hours = 360°.
 Angle described by hour hand in one hour
 360  
   30
 12 
 Angle described by hour hand in one minute
0 0
 360   1 
   
 60   2 
298
0
1
Thus, hour hand rotates through an angle of   in one minute.
2
Ex. 22 A sector is cut from a circle of radius 21 cm. The angle of the sector is 150°. Find the length of its arc and
area.
Sol. The length or arc  and area A of a sector of angle  in a circle of radius r are given by

  2r
360

and A   r 2 respectively..
360
Here, r = 21 cm and   150
 150 22 
   2   21 cm  55cm
 360 7 
 150 22 2
and A      21  cm 2
 360 7 
1155 2
 cm  577.5 cm 2
2
Ex.23 In figure, there are shown sector of two concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 3.5 cm. Find the area of the
 22 
shaded region.  Use   
 7 
Sol. Let A1 and A2 be the areas of sectors OAB and OCD respectively. Then,
A1 = Area of a sector of angle 30° in a circle of radius 7 cm
 30 22 2    
 A1     7   U sin g : A   r 2 
 360 7   360 
77 2
 A1  cm
6
A2 = Area of a sector of angle 30° in a circle of radius 3.5 cm.
299
 30 22 2
 A2      3.5  
 360 7 
 1 22 7 7  77 2
 A2        cm
12 7 2 2  24
 Area of the shaded region  A1  A 2
 77 77 
    cm 2
 6 24 
77
   4  1 cm 2
24
77 2
 cm  9.625 cm 2
8
Ex.24 The minute hand of a clock is 10 cm long. Find the area of the face of the clock described by the minute
hand between 9 A.M. and 9.35 A.M.
Sol. We have,
Angle described by the minute hand in one minute = 6°
 Angle described by the minute hand in 35 minutes   6  35   210

0
 Area swept by the minute hand in 35 minutes.

= Area of a sector of angle 210° in a circle of radius 10 cm
 210 22 2
   10   cm 2  183.3 cm 2 .
 360 7 
SEGMENT OF A CIRCLE AND ITS AREA
The region enclosed by an arc and a chord is called the segment of the circle
The segment containing the minor arc is called a minor segment and the remaining segment containing the
major arc is called the major segment.
300
In the figure, the shaded region is the minor segment and the remaining part of the circle is major segment.
Area of a segment of a Circle:
Let r be the radius of a circle with centre O and let AB be an arc subtending an angle  at the centre O. Wee
shall find the area of the shaded segment AMB
Let AP  OB .
Now, area of the segment AMB
= Area of the sector OAMB – area of OAB
r 2  1
   OB  AP
360 2
r 2  1
  r  OA sin 
360 2
 AP 
 From AOP, sin  
OA
 AP  OA sin  

r 2  1 2
  r sin   OA  OB  r 
360 2
Hence, area of the segment
r 2  1 2
  r sin 
360 2
Ex.25 A chord of circle 14 cm makes an angle of 60° at the center of the circle. Find:
(i) area of minor sector
(ii) area of the minor segment
(iii) area of the major sector
(iv) area of the major segment
Sol. Given, r  14 cm,   60
301

(i) Area of minor sector OAPB  r 2
360
60
  3.14  14  14
360
 102.57 cm2
r 2  r 2
(ii) Area of minor segment APB   sin 
360 2
14  14
 102.57  sin 60
2
3
 102.57  98 
2
 17.80 cm 2
(iii) Area of major sector = Area of circle – area of minor sector OAPB   14   102.57
2
 615.44  102.57  512.87 cm 2

(iv) Area of major segment AQB
= Area of circle – Area of minor segment APB
 615.44  17.80  597.64 cm 2

AREAS OF COMBINATIONS OF PLANE FIGURES
In our daily life we come across various plane figures, which are combinations of two or more plane
figures. For example, window designs, flower beds, circular paths etc. In this section, we shall discuss
problems of combinations of plane figures.
Important Formulae:
In any triangle ABC, the circle which pass through the vertex of triangle is known Circumcircle and its
radius is called circumradius.
In any triangle ABC, the circle which touches the sides of triangle is known incircle and its radius is called
inradius.
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Area of triangle = rs,
abc
Area of triangle 
4R
Where a, b and c represent the length of side of Triangle’s represent the semiperimeter of triangle and r, R
represent the in radius and circumradius respectively.
Ex.26 ABCP is a quadrant of a circle of radiusf 14 cm. With AC as diameter, a semicircle is drawn. Find the area
of the shaded portion (figure)
Sol. In right angled triangle ABC,

we have AC2  AB2  BC 2
AC 2  142  142
AC  2  142  14 2 cm
Now required Area
 Area APCQA  Area ACQA  Area ACPA
 Area ACQA   Area ABCPA  Area of ABC 
2
1  14 2   1 1 
     14    14  14 
2
   
2  2  4 2 
1 22 1 22
   7 2  7 2    14  14  7  14
2 7 4 7
 154  154  98  98 cm 2 .
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Ex.27 Find the area of the shaded region in figure, where radii of the two concentric circles with centre O are 7
cm and 14 cm respectively and AOC  40 .
Sol. We have,
Area of ring
   R 2  r 2     142  7 2   462 cm 2
Area of the region ABDC

= Area of sector AOC – Area of sector BOD
 40 22 40 22 
  14  14    7  7  cm 2
 360 7 360 7 
1 1 
   22  14  2   22  7  1 cm 2
9 9 
22 154 2
   28  7  cm 2  cm
9 3
Hence, Required shaded area
 154  2
  462   cm
 3 
1232 2
 cm  410.67 cm 2
3
Ex.28 In an equilateral triangle of side 24 cm, a circle is inscribed touching its sides. Find the area of the remaining
portion of the triangle [Take 3  1.732 ].
Sol. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle of side 24 cm, and let AD be perpendicular from A on BC. Since the
triangle is equilateral, so AD bisects BC.
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 BD  CD  12 cm
The centre of the inscribed circle will coincide with the centroid of ABC .
AD
 OD 
3
In ABD , we have
AB2  AD 2  BD 2 [Using pythagoras Theorem]
 24 2  AD 2  122
 AD  24 2  12 2
  24  12  24  12 
 36  12
 12 3 cm
1 1 
 OD  AD    12 3cm  4 3 cm 
3 3 
Area of the incircle    OD 

2
 22
 
2
   4 3  cm 2
7 
 22 
   48 cm 2
7 
 150.85 cm 2
3
 Side 
2
Area of the triangle ABC 
4
3
 24   249.4 cm 2
4

4
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 Area of the remaining portion of the triangle
  249.4  150.85 cm2  98.55 cm 2
Ex.29 A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one corner by a
rope 21 m long. On how much area can it graze?
Sol. Shaded portion indicates the area which the horse can graze. Clearly, shaded area is the area of a quadrant
of a circle of radius r = 21 m.
1 2
 Re quired area  r
4
 1 22 2
 Re quired area      21  cm 2
4 7 
693 2
 Re quired area  cm  346.5 cm 2
2
Ex.30 In figure, AOBCA represents a quadrant of a circle of radius 3.5 cm with centre O. Calculate the area of
 22 
the shaded portion  Take   
 7 
Sol. We have,
1 2
Area of quadrant AOBCA  r
4
1 22
    3.5 
2
4 7
306
 9.625 cm 2
1
Area of AOD   Base  Height
2
1
  3.5 2   3.5 cm 2
2
Hence, Area of the shaded portion
 Area of quadrant  Area of AOD
  9.625  3.5 cm2  6.125 cm 2
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QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
PERIMETER AND AREA OF TRIANGLES
1. ABC is an isosceles right triangle with area P. The radius of the circle that passes through the point A, B
and C is
P P
A) P B) C) D) 2P
2 2
2. All the 3 sides of a right triangle are integers and one side has a length 11 units. Area of the triangle in square
units lies between
A) 1 and 100 B) 100 and 200 C) 200 and 300 D) More than 300
3. In the figure given PM = 10 cm, MN = 15 cm and PN = 17 cm. Also QM = QX and XR = RN. Perimeter
of the PQR , is :
A) 32 B) 27 C) 25 D) 21
4. A plot of land is in the shape of a right angled isosceles triangle. The length of the hypotenuse is 50 2m .
The cost of fencing it at Rs. 3 per metre will be:
A) less than Rs. 300 B) less than Rs. 400
C) more than Rs. 500 D) more than Rs. 600
5. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is equal to 14 cm, the lateral side is to the base in the ratio 5 : 4. The
area of the triangle is:
1 3
A) 21cm 2 B) 21 cm 2 C) 21 cm 2 D) 2 21 cm 2
2 2
6. ABCD is a rectangle, P lies on AD and Q on AB. The triangles PAQ, QBC and PCD all have the same
area, and BQ = 2. The length of AQ, is :
A) 3  5 B) 2 3
C) 5 1 D) not uniquely determined
7. Three parallel lines 1 ,  2 and  3 are drawn through the vertices A, B and C of a square ABCD. If the
distance between 1 and  2 is 7 and between  2 and  3 is 12, then the area of the square ABCD is:
A) 193 B) 169 C) 196 D) 225
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8. In a trapezium ABCD with bases AB and CD, where AB = 52, BC = 12, CD = 39 and DA =5. The area
of the trapezium ABCD, is:
A) 182 B) 195 C) 210 D) 260
9. ABCD is a rectangle with AB = 12 cm and BC = 7 cm. Point E is on AD with DE = 2 cm. Point P is on AB.
How far to the right of point. A should point P be placed so that the shaded area comprises exactly 40%
of the area of the rectangle?
A) 8 B) 8.4 C) 8.2 D) 8.6
10. The side lengths of trapezium are 4 3, 4 3, 4 3 and 2  4 3 . Its area in the ratio of two relatively prime
positive integers, m and n. The value of (m + n) is equal to :
A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 13
11. A rectangle is inscribed in a square creating four isosceles right triangle. If the total area of these four
triangles is 200. The length of the diagonal of the rectangle is :
A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25
12. A rectangular lawn 60 metres by 40 metres has two roads each 5 metres wide running in the middle of it,
one parallel to length and the other parallel to breadth. The cost of gravelling the roads at 60 paise per sq.
metre is :
A) Rs. 300 B) Rs. 280 C) Rs. 285 D) Rs. 250
13. A circle passes through the three vertices of an isosceles triangle that has sides of length 3 and a base of
length 2. The area of the circle is
9 81 27  5
A) B) C) D)
4 32 16 2
14. Two circles, each with radius 6 , intersect in the two points A and B. For each of the circles diameters
from point A are drawn and the opposite ends C and D connected to point B. If the area of figure ACBD
is 2 11 , then the length of AB may have:
A) two rational values B) only one rational value
C) one irrational and one rational value D) two irrational values
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15. Two circles I and II are externally tangent. A tangent to the circle I passes through the centre of the circle
II. The distance from the point of tangency to the centre of the circle II is three times the radius of the circle
II. The ratio of the circumference of the circle I to the circumference of the circle II.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 16
16. In the given figure, the diameter of the biggest semi-circle is 56 cm and the radius of the smallest circle is 7
cms. The area of the shaded portion is :
A) 482 cm2 B) 462 cm2 C) 654 cm2 D) 804 cm2

17. A wire in the shape of an equilateral triangle encloses an area of S sq. cm. If the same wire is bent to form
of a circle. The area of the circle will be :
S2 3S2 3S 3 3S
A) B) C) D)
9   
18. In the adjoining figure, the radius of the inner circle, if other circles are of radii 1 m, is :
1
A)  
2 1 m B) 2 m C)
2
m D) 2 2m
LEVEL - II
1. In the following figure, if O is the centre of the circle and radius OA = 14 cm, then the area of the shaded
portion is :
A) 7 cm 2 B) 49 cm 2
C) 98 cm 2 D) 196 cm 2
310
2. A thin wire is bent into the form of a circle of radius 7 cm. If a square is made out of this wire, the side of
the square would be:
A) 7 cm B) 14 cm C) 11 cm D) 22 cm
3. As shown in the figure diameter of outer circle is 12 cm. Ratio of shaded area of upper semi circle to that
of the shaded area in the lower semicircle.
A) 1:1 B) 11: 3 C) 4 : 3 D) 8 : 27
4. The area of a rhombus is 28 cm2 and one of its diagonals in 4cm. Its perimeter is:
A) 4 53 B) 36 cm C) 2 53 D) 53 cm
5. The area of a trapezium shaped field is 960 m2 the distance between two parallel sides is 30 m and one of
the parallel side is 20 m. Find the length of other parallel side.
A) 44 m B) 22 m C) 88 m D) 11 m
6. The perimeter of square and circumference of Circle are equal, the area of square is 121 m2, then the area
of circle is:
A) 7  m 2 B) 14  m 2 C) 21  m 2 D) 49  m 2
7. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ cm. The area (in cm2) of a square inscribed in the
circle is :
A) a 2 / 6 B) a 2 / 3 C) 3a 2 / 4 D) a 2 / 12
8. In figure, ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a semicircle is drawn with BC as diameter. The
area of the shaded region is
A) 98 cm2 B) 154 cm2 C) 56 cm2 D) None of these
311
9. In the figure given below, ABC is an equilateral triangle. D, E, F, G, H and I are the trisector points of the
sides as shown. If the side of the triangle ABC is 6 cm, then the area of the regular hexagon DEFGHI is
A) 3 3 cm 2 B) 4 3 cm 2 C) 5 3 cm 2 D) 6 3 cm 2
10. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle whose side is 2 3 cm . A circle is drawn which passes
through the midpoints D, E and F of its sides. The area of the shaded region is
A)
1
4
 
4  3 3 cm 2 B)
1
4
 
2  3 cm 2
C)
1
4
 
  3 3 cm 2 D)
1
4
 
3  3 cm 2
11. In the given figure, AB = 4 and BD = 4 3cm . Then the relation between  [area of triangle ADC] and
S (shaded area bounded by three semicircles) is :
A)   S B)   S C)   S D) None of the above
312
12. A circle with area A cm2 is contained in the interior of a larger circle with area (A+B) cm2 and the radius of
the larger circle is 4 cm. If A, B, A+B are in arithmatic progression, then the diameter (in cm) of the smaller
circle is :
3 4 3 8 3
A) B) C) D) 2 3
2 3 3
13. Each of sides of a triangle is 8 cm less than the sum of its other two sides. Area of the triangle (in cm2) is
A) 8 B) 8 3 C) 16 D) 16 3
14. A sector with acute central angle  is cut from a circle of diameter 14 cm. The area (in cm2) of the circle
circumscribing the sector is:
22  77 77 77 2 
A) sec 2  B) sec 2  C) cos 2  D) sec
7 2 2 2 2 2
15. In the figure PQSO, is a trapezium in which PQ  OS, POS  135 and OSQ  90 points P, Q and
R lie on a circle with centre O and radius 12 cm. The area of the shaded part, in cm2, is
2 5 5 2
A) 61 B) 61 C) 73 D) 73
7 7 7 7
16. In the figure, ABCD is square of side 1 dm and PAQ  45 . The perimeter (in dm) of the triangle PQC
is
A) 2 B) 1  2 C) 2 2  1 D) 1  3
17. Equilateral triangles I, II, III and IV are such that the altitude of triangle I is the side of triangle II, the
altitude of triangle II is the side of triangle III and the altitude o the triangle is the side of triangle IV. If the
area of triangle I is 2 cm2, then the area (in cm2) of triangle IV is :
3 9 27 45
A) B) C) D)
2 16 32 64
313
18. ABC is a right angled triangle with A  90, AB  b cm, AC  a cm, and BC  c cm A circle is
inscribed in this triangle. The radius of the circle, in cm, is :
1 1
A) a  b  c B) a  b  c C) a  b  c D) a 2  b2  c2
2 2
19. Pentagon ABCDE is such that all five diagonals AC, BD, CE, DA and EB lie entirely with in it. If the area
of each of the triangle ABC, BCD, CDE, DEA and EAB is equal to 1 cm2, the area of the pentagon is
5 5 2 3 5 5 5 5 5
A) cm B) cm 2 C) cm 2 D) cm 2
2 2 2 2
20. A cow is tied with a rope of length 12 m at a corner of rectangular field of dimensions 25 m × 45 m. If the
length of the rope is increased to 23 m, then the additional grassy area in which the cow graze is (Take
22
 )
7
A) 300.5 m2 B) 312.5 m2 C) 315.5 m2 D) 302.5 m2
LEVEL - III
1. In this figure, AOB is a quarter circle of radius 10 and PQRO is a rectangle of perimeter 26. The perimeter
of the shaded region is :
A) 13  5 B) 17  5
C) 7  10  D) 7  5 
2. Each of the congruent circles shown is externally tangent to other circles and / or to the side(s) of the
rectangle as shown. If each circle has circumference 16 , then the length of a diagonal of the rectangle, is:
A) 80 B) 40 C) 20 D) 15
314
3. ABCD is a rectangle and lines DX, DY and XY are drawn as shown. Area of AXD is 5, Area of
BXY is 4 and area of CYD is 3. If the area of DXY can be expressed as x where x  N then
x is equal to
A) 72 B) 75 C) 84 D) 96
4. A square with side length 1 is inscribed in a semicircle such that one side of the square is on the diameter
of the semicircle. The perimeter of the semicircle is :
 5
A)  5 B)
2
  5
C) 5   1
2 
D)    1
2
5. A child draws the figure of an aeroplane as given. Here the wings EDCF and AGHB are parallelograms,
the tail ADK is an isosceles triangle, the cockpit BLC is a semi-circle and the portion ABCD is a square.
Let FP  CD & HQ  AB , AB = 6 cms. KD = 5 cms FP = HQ = 2 cms. The area of the figure is:
   3.14
A) 86.14 cm2 B) 7.25 cm2 C) 84.63 cm2 D) 91.56 cm2
NUMERICAL
1. A triangle EFG is inscribed in a unit square ABCD with E on AB, F on DA, G on CD such that
AE  DF  CG  1/ 3 . The area of the triangle EFG is:
2. A triangle of area 9×y cm2 has been drawn such that its area is equal to the area of an equilateral triangle
of side 6 cm. Then, the value of y is:
3. Given an isosceles trapezium ABCD in order with AB = 6, CD = 12 and area 36 sq. units. Length of the
side BC is :
315
4. In the given figure, OPQR is a rhombus, three of whose vertices lie on a circle with centre O. If the area of
rhombus is 32 3 cm 2 . The radius of circle is :
5. In the given figure, AB  4 cm, BC  3cm the area of shaded portion is :
A) 6.25 cm2 B) 7.64 cm2 C) 12 cm2 D) 19.64 cm2

Matrix match
Column I Column II
A) Triangle ABC is isosceles with AB = AC = 7.5 cm and BC = 9 cm. P) 840
The height from A to BC i.e., AD is 6 cm. Find the area of ABC . What
will be the height from C to AB?
B) The sides of a triangle containing the right triangle are 5x cm and (3x–1) cm. Q) 17
If the area of the triangle is 60 cm3, calculate the lengths of the sides of the triangle.
C) The base of a parallelogram is thrice its height. If the area is 876 cm2, R) 8
find the height of the parallelogram.
D) The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 3 : 2.
If the area of the field is 3456 m2, find the cost of fencing the field at Rs 3.50 per metre. S) 7.2
316
CHAPTER - 04
AVERAGE, PROBABILITY & STATISTICS
AVERAGE
The average of n observation is defined as :
Sum of n observations
Average 
No.of observations(n)
Ex.1 Find the average of all prime numbers between 30 and 50
Sol. There are five prime numbers between 30 and 50.
They are 31, 37, 41, 43 and 47
 31  37  41  43  47 
 Required average   
 5 
199
  39.8
5
Ex.2 The average of 25 results is 18. The average of first twelve of them is 14 and of last twelve is 17. Find
the thirteenth result.
Sol. Clearly, thirteenth result = (sum of 25 results) – (Sum of 24 results)
 18  25   14  12   17  12   
 450  168  204   450  372  78

Ex.3 A pupil’s marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for the class
increased by its half. Find the number of pupils in the class.
Sol. Let there be x pupils in the class.
 1 x
Total increase in marks   x   
 2 2
x x
   83  63   20  x  40
2 2
Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x kmph and an equal distance at y kmph. Then the
317
 2xy 
average speed during the whole journey is   kmph
xy
Ex.4 Naresh Kumar drives his car to his office with the speed of 40 km per hour and returns along the same
route with the speed of 60 km per hour. Find his average speed for the entire round trip.
Sol. Here the distance is same therefore average speed
2  s1  s 2 2  40  60
 
s1  s 2  40  60 
4800
  48 km / h
100
The total deviation below the average is equal to the total deviation above the average.
Ex.5 If the average (arithmetic mean) of 57, 54 and x is 70. What is the value of x?
Sol. Since 57 is 13 less than 70 and 54 is 16 less than 70, the total deviation below the average is 13+16
= 29. Therefore, the total deviation above the average must also be 29. Therefore x = 70 + 29 =99.
• Assume that the average of a set of numbers is A. If a number, x, is added to the set and a new
average is calculated, then the new average will be less than, equal to, or greater than A, depending on
whether x is less than, equal to, or greater than A, respectively.
PROBABILITY
EXPERIMENT
The word experiment means an operation, which can produce well defined outcomes. There are
two types of experiment:
(i) Deterministic experiment
(ii) Probabilistic or Random experiment
(i) Deterministic Experiment: Those experiment which when repeated under identical conditions,
produce the same results or outcome are known as deterministic experiment. For example,
physics or chemistry experiments performed under identical conditions.
(ii) Probabilistic or Random Experiment: In an experiment, when repeated under identical
conditions donot produce the same outcomes every time. For example, in tossing a coin, one is not
sure that if a head or tail will be obtained. So it is a random experiment.
Sample space: The set of all possible out comes of a random experiment is called a sample
space associated with it and is generally denoted by S.
Ex.1 In tossing a coin, we have S  T, H
Ex.2 In rolling a die S  1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Ex.3 When two coins are tossed, we have S  HT, TH, HH, TT
Event: Any subset of a sample space is called an event.
Ex.4 In a single throw of a die, the event of getting a prime number is given by E  2, 3, 5 .
Mutually exclusive events : Two events E1 and E2 are said to be mutually exclusive, if E1  E 2  
318
Ex.5 In rolling a dice, we have S  1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 .

Let E1= Event of getting even number on die = {2, 4, 6}
Let E2 = Event of getting odd number on die = {1, 3, 5}
clearly, E1  E 2   , So E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive.
Independent events : Two events are said to be independent, if the occurrence of one does not
depend upon the occurence of the other.
Ex.6 In simultaneous throw of two coins,
Let E1= Event of getting head on first coin and
E2 = event of getting head on second coin. Then E1 and E2 are the independent events.
Favourable Event: Let S be a sample space associated with a random experiment and A be event
associated with the random experiment. The elementary events belonging to A are known as
favourable events to the event A.
For example: In throwing a pair of dice, A is defined by “Getting 8 as the sum”. Then following
elementary events are as out comes: (2, 6), (3, 5), (4, 4) (5, 3), (6, 2). So there are 5 elementary
events favourable to event A.
PROBABILITY
If there are n elementary events associated with a random experiment and m of them are favourable
to an event A, then the probability of happening or occurence of event A is denoted by P(A)
Thus P(A)
Total number of favourableoutcomes m
 
Total number of possibleoutcomes n
And 0  P(A)  1
if, P(A) = 0, then A is called impossible event
if P(A) = 1, then A is called sure event
P(A)  P(A)  1
Where P(A) = probability of occurence of A.
P(A) = Probability of non-occurence of A
Some important point related to Probability
Let A and B are two event and the probability of happening or occurence of event A and B is denoted
by P(A), P(B) respectively.
(i) P(A  B)  P(A)  P(B)  P(A  B)
(ii) If A and B are two mutually exclusive, A  B   then and in this case, P(A  B)  P(A)  P(B)
(iii) If A and B are independent then, P(A  B)  P(A)P(B)
Ex.7 A bag contains 5 white balls, 4 red balls and 3 green balls. A ball is drawn at random. Find the
probability that it is (i) a red ball (ii) a green ball (iii) a coloured ball (iv) a ball which is not green.
Sol. Total number of balls in the bag 5 + 4 + 3 = 12.
We denote the event of getting a red ball as R, that of getting a green ball G, that of getting a
coloured ball as C and that of getting a ball not green as G or not G..
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 Number of outcomes which favour R 

(i) P  R  or not G 
12
4
  4 outcomes favour the event R 
12
1

3
3 1
 ii  P  G   
12 4
(iii) There are 4  3  7 coloured balls, i.e. either red or green.
So, 7 outcomes favour the event C
7
 P C 
12
(iv) There are 5  4  9 balls which are not green i.e. white or red, so there are 9 outcomes that
favour the event not G.
9 3
Therefore, P  not G   
12 4
Ex.8 A dice is thrown once. Find the probability of getting (i) an even number (ii) a prime number (iii) a
number greater than 4(iv) multiple of 2 or 3(v) a number greater than 3
Sol. We know that sample space S on throwing a dice is
S  1, 2, 4, 5, 6
 Total number of cases (possible outcomes)
n  S  6
(i) Event E : getting an even number = {2, 4, 6}
Number of favourable cases = n (E) = 3
n E 3 1
Required probability  P  E    
n  S 6 2 .
(ii) Event E: getting a prime number
E  2, 3, 5
Number of favourable cases = n  E   3
n E 3 1
 P E   
n S 6 2
(iii) Event E : getting a number greater than E  5, 6
Number of favourable cases  n  E   2

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n E 2 1
 P E   
n S 6 3
(iv) An multiple of 2 or 3 is obtained if we obtain one of the numbers 2, 3, 4, 6, as out comes
 Favourable number of elementary events = 4
4 2
Hence, P (Getting multiple of 2 or 3)  
6 3
(v) The event “Getting a number greater than 3” will occur, if we obtain one of number 4, 5, 6 as an
outcome.
 Favourable number of out comes = 3
3 1
Hence, required probability  
6 2
Ex.9 (i) A lot of 20 bulbs contains 4 defective ones. One bulb is drawn at random from the lot. What is the
probability that this bulb is defective.
(ii) Suppose the bulb drawn in (i) is not defective and is not replaced. Now one bulb is drawn at
random from the rest. What is the probability that this bulb is not defective.
Sol. (i) Number of defective bulbs =4
Number of good bulbs (Not defective) = 16
Total number of bulbs = 4+ 16 = 20
4 1
Probability of getting a defective bulb  
20 5
(ii) When a defective bulb drawn is not being replaced, we are left with 19 bulbs. Now probability of
15
not getting a defective bulb  .
19
Ex.10 One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Calculate the probability that the card will be
:
I) a diamond II) an ace III) a black card IV) not a heart
Sol. Total no of cards = 52
 Total number of events = 52
(I) Let E be an event of getting a diamond card n(E) = 13
13 1
 P E  
52 4
(II) Let E be an event of getting an ace n(E) = 4
4 1
 P E  
52 13
(III) Let E be an event of getting not a heart
n  E   52  13  39
39 3
 P E  
52 4
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Ex.11 A die is dropped at random on the rectangular region as shown in figure. What is the probability that
it will land inside the circle with diameter 1m?
Sol. Area of rectangular region  3m  2m  6m 2
Area of circle  r 2
2
1
   
2
 2
 m
4
 Probability that die will land inside the circle
/4 
 
6 24
Ex.12 Fifty seeds were selected at random from each of 5 bags of seeds, and were kept under standardized
conditions favourable to germination. After 20 days the number of seeds which had germinated in
each collection were counted and recorded as follows:
Bag 1 2 3 4 5
Number of seeds
40 48 42 39 41
germinated
What is the probability germination of :
(i) more than 40 seeds is a bag?
(ii) 49 seeds in a bag?
(iii) more than 35 seeds in a bag?
(iv) at least 40 seeds in a bag?
(v) at most 40 seeds in a bag?
Sol. Total number of bags = 5
(i) Number of bags in which more than 40 seeds germinated out of 50 seeds = 3
3
 Probability of germination of more than 40 seeds in a bag 
5
(ii) Number of bags in which 49 seeds germinated = 0
0
 Probability of germination of 49 seeds  0
5
(iii) Number of bags in which more than 35 seeds germinated = 5
5
 Probability of germination of more than 35 seeds  1
5
(iv) Number of bags in which at least 40 seeds germinated = 4
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4
 Probability of germination of at least 40 seeds 
5
(v) Number of bags in which at most 40 seeds germinated =2
2
 Probability of germination of at most 40 seeds 
5
Ex.13 In simultaneous throw of coin and dice then what is the probability of getting head on coin and prime
number on dice.
1
Sol. Let E1 denote the probability of getting head on coin then P  E1  
2
3
Let E2 denote the probability of getting the prime number in a dice then P  E 2  
6
clearly E1 and E2 are independent event so happening of these two event simultaneously
1 3 1
 P  E1  E 2   P  E1  P  E 2    
2 6 4
STATISTICS
INTRODUCTION
Statistics deals with collection of numerical facts i.e., data, their classification & tabulation and their
interpretation.
(a) Collection of Data:
On the basis of methods of collection, data can be divided into two categories
(i) Primary Data: Data which are collective for the first time by the statistical investigator or with help
of his workers is called primary data.
(ii) Secondary data: These are the data already collected by a person or a society and these may
be in published or unpublished form. These are generally obtained from the following two sources.
(A) Published sources
(B) Unpublished sources
(b) Classification of Data:
When the data is complied in the same form and order in which it is collected, it is known as Raw
Data, it is also called Crude Data. For example, the marks obtained by 20 students of class IX in
English out of 10 marks are as follows:
7 4 9 5 8 9 6 7 9 2
0 3 7 6 2 1 9 8 3 8
DEFINITIONS
(i) Variate: The numerical quantity whose value varies in objective is called a variate, generally a
variate is represented by x. There are two types of variate.
(A) Discrete variate: Its magnitude is fixed. For example, the number of teachers in different branches
of a institute are 30, 35, 40 etc.
(B) Continuous variate: Its magnitude is not fixed. It is expressed in groups like 10–20, 20–30,
....etc.
(ii) Range: The difference of the maximum and the minimum values of the variable x is called range.
(iii) Class frequency: In each class the number of times a data is repeated is known as its class
frequency.
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Range
(iv) Class interval 
Number of classes
It is generally denoted by h or i.
(v) Class time: The lowest and the highest value of the class are known as lower and upper limits
respectively of that class.
(vi) Class mark: The average of the lower and the upper limits of a class is called the mid value or
the class mark of that class. It is generally denoted by x. If x be the mid value and h be the class
 h h
interval, then the class limits are  x  , x   .
 2 2
FREQUENCY DISTRIBUTION
The marks scored by 30 students of IX class, of a school in the first test of Mathematics out of 50
marks are as follows:
6 32 10 17 22 28 0 48 6 22
32 6 36 26 48 10 32 48 28 22
22 22 28 26 17 36 10 22 28 0
The number of times a mark is repeated is called its frequency. It is denoted by f.
Marks Marks
Tally Mark Frequency Tally mark Frequency
Obtained obtained
0 II 2 26 II 2
6 III 3 28 IIIII 4
10 III 3 32 III 3
17 II 2 36 II 2
22 I 6 48 III 3
Above type of frequency distribution is called ungrouped frequency distribution. Although this
representation of data is shorter than repesentation of raw data, but from the angle of comparison
and analysis it is quite big. So to reduce the frequency distribution, it can be classified into groups in
following ways and it is called grouped frequency distribution.
Class Frequency
1-10 8
11-20 2
21-30 12
31-40 5
41-50 3
(a) Kinds of Frequency Distribution:

Statistical methods like comparison, decision taken etc. depend on frequency distribution. Frequency
distribution are of three types:
(i) Individual frequency distribution: Here each item or original price of unit is written separately.
In this category, frequency of each variable is one. For example: Total marks obtained by 10 students
in a class given as follows:
S. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Marks
46 18 79 12 97 80 5 27 67 54
Obtained
(ii) Discrete frequency distribution: When number of terms is large and variable are discrete. i.e.
variate can accept some particular values only under finite limits and is repeated then it is called
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discrete frequency distribution. For example the wages of employees and their numbers is
shown in following table.
Monthly No. of
wages employees
4000 10
6000 8
8000 5
11000 7
20000 2
25000 1
The above table shows unground frequency distribution the same facts can be wriiten in grouped
frequency as follows:
No. of
Monthly wages
employees
0-10,000 23
11,000-20,000 9
21,000-30,000 1
Note:
If variable is repeated in individual distribution then it can be converted into discrete frequency
distribution.
(iii) Continuous frequency distribution: When number of terms is large and variate is continuous.
i.e., variate can accept all values under finite limits and they are repeated then it is called continuous
frequency distribution. For example age of students in a school is shown in the following table:
Age (in Year) Class No. of students

Less than 5 year 0-5 72
From 5 and less than 10 year 5-10 103
Classes can be made mainly by two methods:

(i) Inclusive series: In this method value of upper and lower limit are both contained in same class.
In this method the upper limit of class and lower limit of other class are not same. Some time the
value is not a whole number, it is a fraction or in decimals and lies in between the two intervals then
in such situation the class interval can be constructed as follows.
A
Class Frequency
1-10 4
11-20 7
21-30 6
31-40 3
41-50 3
(ii) Exclusive series: In this method upper limit of the previous class and lower limit of the next
class is same. In this method the term of upper limit in a class is not considered in the same class,
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it is considered in the next class.

Conversion of above inclusive frequency distribution into exclusive frequency distribution is as follows:
A
Class Frequency
0.5-10.5 4
10.5-20.5 7
20.5-30.5 6
30.5-40.5 3
40.5-50.5 3
CUMULATIVE FREQUENCY
(i) Discrete frequency distribution: Here we add all previous frequency and get cumulative
frequency. It will be more clear from the following table.
Class Frequency (f) Cumulative (cf) Explanation

4000 10 10 10
6000 8 18 10+8=18
8000 5 23 18+5=23
11000 7 30 23+7=30
20000 2 32 30+2=32
25000 1 33 32+1=33
(ii) Continuous frequency distribution:
Monthly income No. of Cumulative

Explanation
variate (x) employee frequency (cf)
0-5 72 72 72=72
5-10 103 175 72+103=175
10-15 50 225 175+50=225
15-20 25 250 225+25=250
Cumulative
Class
Frequency
Less than 5 72
Less than 10 175
Less than 15 225
Less than 20 250
From this table the number of students of age less than the upper limit of a class,i.e. number of
student whose age is less than 5, 10, 15, 20 year can determined by merely seeing the table but if
we need the number students whose age is more than zero, more than 5, more than 10 or more
than 15, then table should be constructed as follows:
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Age
Class Frequency Explanation
cumulative
0-5 72 More than 0 250=250
5-10 103 More than 5 250-72=178
10-15 50 More than 10 178-103=75
15-20 25 More than 15 75-50=25
Ex.1 The weights (in grams) of 40 oranges picked at random from a basket are as follows :
40, 50, 60, 65, 45, 55, 30, 90, 75, 85, 70, 85, 75, 80, 100, 110, 70, 55, 30, 35, 45, 70, 80, 85, 95, 70,
60, 70, 75, 40, 100, 65, 60, 40, 100, 75, 110, 30, 45, 84.
Construct a grouped frequency table by dividing the variable range into class intervals of equal width
of 10 g, such that the mid - value of the first class interval is 30 g.
Sol. Maximum weight = 110 g
Minimum weight = 30 g
Mid value of 1st class interval = 30 g
Width = 10 g
Range = Maximum weight –Minimum weight
 110  30  80
80
No. of class interval  8
10
But frequency distribution is of exclusive form, so no. of class interval = 8 + 1 = 9
 10   10 
 1st class interval=  30     30  
 2  2
 25  35
Similarly other class interval are :
35  45, 45  55, 55  65, 65  75, 75  85, 85  95, 95  105, 105  115
Weight in g No. of oranges

25  35 3
35  45 4
45  55 4
55  65 5
65  75 7
75  85 7
85  95 4
95  105 4
105  115 2
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Ex.2 The relative humidity (in %) of a certain city for a month of 30 days are as follows:
98.1, 98.6, 99.2, 90.3, 86.5, 95.3, 92.9, 96.3, 94.2, 95.1, 89.2, 92.3, 97.1, 93.5, 92.7, 95.1, 97.2, 93.3,
95.2, 97.3, 96.2, 92.1, 84.9, 90.2, 95.7, 98.3, 98.3, 97.3, 96.1, 92.1, 89.
(i) What is the range of this data?
(ii) Construct a grouped frequency distribution table with classes 84 - 86, 86 - 88 etc.
Sol. (i) Minimum humidity = 84.9
Maximum humidity = 99.2
So, Range = 99.2 – 84.9
=14.3
(ii)
Re lative humidity  %  No. of days
84  86 1
86  88 1
88  90 2
90  92 2
92  94 7
94  96 6
96  98 7
98  100 4
Ex.3 Thirty children were asked about the number of hours they watched T.V. programs in the previous
week. The results were found as folows:
1, 6, 2, 3, 5, 12, 5, 8, 4, 8
10, 3, 4, 12, 2, 8, 15, 1, 17, 6
3, 2, 8, 5, 9, 6, 8, 7, 14, 12
(i) Make a grouped frequency distribution table for this data, taking class width 5 and one of the class
intervals as 5 - 10.
(ii) How many children watched television for 15 or more hours a week?
Sol. (i) Frequency distribution table is as follows:
Class int ervals Frequency

05 10
5  10 13
10  15 5
15  20 2
(ii) Numbers of children that watched 15 or more hours a week = 2 children

Ex.4 The class marks of a distribution are:
47, 52, 57, 62, 67, 72, 77, 82, 87, 92, 97, 102.
Determine the class size and the class limits.
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Sol. (i) Class size = 52–47=5

(ii)  1st class interval   47  2.5   47  2.5
 44.5  49.5
Similarly other class interval are
49.5  54.5, 54.5  59.5, 59.5  64.5, 64.5  69.5,

69.5  74.5, 74.5  79.5, 79.5  84.5, 84.5  89.5,
89.5  94.5, 94.5  99.5, 99.5  104.5
GRAPHICAL REPRESENTATION OF DATA
(i) Bar Graphs
(ii) Histograms
(iii) Frequency polygons
(iv) Frequency curves
BAR GRAPH
A bar graph is a pictorial representation of the numerical data by a number of bars (rectangles) of
uniform width erected horizontally or vertically with equal spacing between them.
While constructing bar graphs the following points should be kept in mind:
(i) The width of the bars should be uniform throughout.
(ii) The gap between one bar and another should be uniform throughout
(iii) Bars may be either horizontal or vertical
Ex.5 Given below is a table which shows the year wise strength of a school. Represent this data by a bar
graph.
Year 2004-05 2005-06 2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10

No. of students 800 975 1100 1400 1625 1800
Ex.6 Given below a table which shows the year wise strength of a school, Represent this data by a bar
graph.
Year 2001  02 2002  03 2003  04 2004  05 2005  06

No. of students 800 975 1100 1400 1625
Sol. Take the year along x-axis and number of students along y-axis.
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All the bar should be of the same width and same space should be left between the consecutive
bars.
Ex.7 Look at the graph given below:
Read it carefully and answer the following questions.

(i) What information does the bar graph give?
(ii) In which subject the student scored highest marks?
(iii) In which subject the student scored lowest marks?
(iv) What is the average of his marks?
Sol. (i) Bar graph gives the information about the marks obtained in different subjects.
(ii) Hindi
(iii) Mathematics
330
60  40  80  50  60
(iv) Average   58
5
HISTOGRAM
Histogram is a rectangular representation of grouped and continuous frequency distribution in which
class intervals are taken as base and height of rectangles are proportional to corresponding
frequencies. To draw the histogram class intervals are marked along x-axis on a suitable scale.
Frequencies are marked along y-axis on a suitable scale, such that the areas of drawn rectangles
are proportional to corresponding frequencies.
Construction of histograms are related with four different kinds of frequency distributions.
(i) When frequency distribution is grouped and continuous and class intervals are also equal.
(ii) When frequency distribution is grouped and continuous but class interval are not equal.
(iii) When frequency distribution is grouped but not continuous
(iv) When frequency distribution is ungrouped and middle points of the distribution are given
Case 1: When frequency distribution is grouped continuous and class intervals are also equal
Ex.8 Draw a histogram to represent the following data:
C.I. 40  60 60  80 80  100 100  120 120  140 140  160 160  180 180  200
Freq. 20 40 30 50 30 20 10 40
CaseII : When frequency distribution is grouped and continuous but class interval are not equal.
Ex.9 Draw a histogram for the marks of students given below:
Marks 0  10 10  30 30  45 45  50 50  60
No.of students 8 32 18 10 6
Sol. Here frequency distribution is grouped and continuous but class intervals are not same. Under such
circumstances the following method is used to find heights of rectangle so that heights are proportional
to frequencies.
(i) Write interval (h) of the least interval, here h = 5
(ii) Redefine the frequencies of classes by the using the following formula.
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Redefined frequency of class

h
  frequency of class interval
class interval
So here the redefined frequency table as obtained as follows:
No. of Adjusted
Marks
Students Frequency
5
0  10 8 84
10
5
10  30 32 32  8
20
5
30  45 18 18  6
15
5
45  50 10 10  10
5
5
50  60 6 63
10
This is the required histogram of the given frequency distribution.

Case II: When frequency distribution is grouped but not continuous.
Ex.10 Construct a histogram for the following frequency distribution:
C.I 5  12 13  20 21  28 29  36 37  44 45  52
Frequency 6 15 24 18 4 9
332
Sol. The given frequency distribution is not continuous. So, first convert it into a continuous frequency
distribution. The difference between the lower limit of a class and the upper limit of the preceding
class is i.e. h = 1. to convert the given frequency distribution into a continuous frequency distribution
h 1 h 1
subtract   0.5 from each lower limit and add   0.5 to each upper limit. The distribution
2 2 2 2
so obtained is as given below:
C.I. Frequency
4.5  12.5 6
12.5  20.5 15
20.5  28.5 24
28.5  36.5 18
36.5  44.5 4
44.5  52.5 9
This is the required histogram of the given frequency distribution.

Difference Between Bar Graph and Histogram
(i) In histogram there is no gap in between consecutive rectangle as in bar graph
(ii) The width of the bar is significant in histogram. In bar graph, width is not important at all.
(iii) In histogram the areas of rectangles are proportional to the frequency, however if the class size
of the frequencies are equal then height of the rectangle are proportional to the frequencies.
FREQUENCY POLYGON
A frequency polygon is also a form of graphical representation of frequency distribution. Frequency
polygon can be constructed in two ways:
(i) With the help of histogram
333
(ii) Without the help of histogram

Case 1: Following procedure is useful to draw a frequency polygon with the help of histogram
(a) Construct the histogram for the given frequency distribution.
(b) Find the middle point of each upper horizontal line of the rectangle
(c) Join these middle points of the successive rectangle by straight lines
(d) Join the middle point of the initial rectangle with the middle point of the previous expected class
interval on the x-axis
Ex.11 The ages (in years) of 360 patients treated in a hospital on a particular day are given below:
Age
10  20 20  30 30  40 40  50 50  60 60  70
(in years)
Number
90 40 60 20 120 30
of patients
Draw a frequency polygon to represent the above data.
Sol. Class Mark Frequency

15 90
25 40
35 60
45 20
55 120
65 30
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Case II: Following procedure is useful to draw a frequency polygon without the help of histogram.
Ex.12 Draw a histogram and frequency polygon on the same graph for the following distribution:
C.I. 1  10 11  20 21  30 31  40 41  50 51  60
Frequency 8 3 6 12 2 7
C.I. Class Marks Frequency

0.5  10.5 5.5 8
10.5  20.5 15.5 3
20.5  30.5 25.5 6
Sol. 30.5  40.5 35.5 12
40.5  50.5 45.5 2
50.5  60.5 55.5 7
MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY

The commonly used measure of central tendency (or averages) are:
(i) Arithmetic Mean (AM) or Simply Mean
(ii) Median
(iii) Mode
Mean: The mean of a number of observation is the sum of the values of all the observations divided
by the total number of observations. It is denoted by the symbol x , read as x bar.
Mean of raw data: If x1, x2, x3........,xn are then n values (or observations) then, A.M. (Arithmetic
means) is
335
x1  x1  ......  x n 
xi
x  i 1
n n
n
nx  sum of observations   x i
i 1
i.e., product of mean & no. of items gives sum of observation

Ex.13 If the mean of 6, 4, 7 P and 10 is 8 find P.
6  4  7  P  10
Sol. 8
5
 P  13
Ex.14 The mean of marks scored by 100 students was found to be 40. Later on it was discovered that a
score of 53 was misread as 83. Find the correct mean.
Sol. n  100, X  40
1
x
n
  xi 
1
 40 
100
  xi 
 Incorrect value of x i  4000
Now, Correct value of x i  4000
x i  4000  83  53  3970
correct value of  x i
 Correct mean 
n
3970
  39.7
100
So, the correct mean is 39.7
Ex.15 The mean monthly salary of 10 members of a group is Rs.1445, one more member whose monthly
salary is Rs. 1500 has joined the group. Find the mean monthly salary of 11 members of the group.
Sol. n  10, x  1445
So, total monthly wages of 10 persons  10 1445
 14450
Monthly salary of one more person who joined the group is Rs. 1500
 Total monthly wages of 11 persons
 Rs.14450  Rs.1500
 Rs.15950
15950
So, average monthly salary of 11 persons 
11  Rs.1450
336
Method for Mean of Ungrouped Data
x1 f1 f1 x 1
x1 f1 f1 x 1
x2 f2 f2x 2
x3 f.3 f.3 x 3
.. ...
.. ... .
. .
f f x
1 i i 
Then mean, x  
fi x i
f i
Grouped Frequency Distribution (Grouped)

(i) Direct Method: for finding mean
mean x 
f x i i
f i
Ex.16 Find the value of p, if the mean of the following distribution whose mean is 20
x 15 17 19 20  p 23
f 2 3 4 5p 6
x f fx
15 2 30
17 3 51
19 4 76
Sol. 20  p 5p 100p  5p 2
23 6 138
 t  15  5p  fx  295  100p  5p 2
x
 fx  295  100p  5p 2
f 15  5p
295  100p  5p 2
 20 
15  5p
 300  100p  295  100p  5p 2

 5p2  5
 p 1
(ii) Deviation Method: (Assumed Mean Method)
In this method, we subtract an arbitrary constant ‘a’ called the assumed mean from each value of x1.
337
The reduced value is xi–a. We denote it by d1

di=xi–a
di is called the deviation of xi from the assumed mean a.
Ex.17 Find the mean for the following distribution by using deviation method:
x 15 20 22 24 25 30 33 38
Frequency 5 8 11 20 23 18 13 2
Sol. Let A 25
xi fi fi di
d i  x i  25
15 5 10 50
20 8 5 40
22 11 3 33
24 20 1 20
25 23 0 0
30 18 5 90
33 13 8 104
38 2 13 28
 fi  100  fidi  77
x  A
f d
i i
 25 
77
 25.77
f i 100
(iii) Step-Deviation Method:
  fi ui 
x a   h
 f
 i 
where
xi  a
a = Assumed mean, u i 
h
h = Width of class interval
Ex.18 Find the mean of following distribution by step deviation method:
Class interval 50  70 70  90 90  110 110  130 130  150 150  170
No. of workers 18 12 13 27 8 22
Sol. Let A = 100

h = 20
xi  A
ui 
h
338
C.I. xi fi ui fi u i
50  70 60 18 2 36
70  90 80 12 1 12
90  110 100 13 0 0
110  130 120 27 1 27
130  150 140 8 2 16
150  170 160 22 3 66
f i  100 f u
i i  61
X A
f u i i
h
f i
61
 100   20
100
 100  12.20
 112.20
So, mean is 112.20
Ex.19 If the mean of following distribution frequency distribution is 188 , find the missig frequencies f1 andf2
C.I. 0  80 80  160 160  240 240  320 320  400 Total

Freq. 20 25 f1 f2 10 100
Sol. Given : Mean = 188
C.I. fi xi fi x i
0  80 20 40 800
80  160 25 120 3000
160  240 f1 200 200 f1
240  320 f2 280 280 f 2
320  400 10 360 3600
Total  f  100  55  f 1  f2  f  7400  200 f 1  280f 2
X
f X i i
f i
7400  200 f i  280 f 2

188 
100
18800  7400  200f1  280f 2
18800  7400  200f1  280f 2
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11400  200 f1  280 f 2
285  5f1  7f 2 .....  i 
Also, f1  f 2  55  100
f1  f 2  100  55
f1  f 2  45 ...  ii 
Solving equation (i) and (ii) f1  15, f 2  30

PROPERTIES OF MEAN
(i) Sum of deviations from mean is zero
n
i.e.,  (x
i 1
i  x)  0
(ii) If a constant real number ‘a’ is added to each of the observation than new mean will be x  a .
(iv) If a constant real number ‘a’ is multiplied with each of the observation then new mean will be ax
x
(v) If each of the observation is divided by a constant no ‘a’ then new mean will be .
a
MERITS OF ARITHMETIC MEAN
(i) It is rigidly, simple, easy to understand and easy to calculate
(ii) It is based upon all the observations
(iii) Its value being unique, we can use it to compare different sets of data
(iv) It is least affected by sampling fluctuations
(v) Mathematical analysis of mean is possible. So, it is relatively reliable
DEMERITS OF ARITHMETIC MEAN
(i) It can not be determined by inspection nor it can be located graphically
(ii) Arithmetic mean cannot be used for qualitative characteristics such as intelligence, honesty,
beauty etc.
(iii) It cannot be obtained if a single observation is missing .
(iv) It is affected very much by extreme values. In case of extreme items, A.M. gives a distorted
picture of the distribution and no longer remains representative of the distribution.
(v) It may lead to wrong conclusions if the details of the data from which it is computed are not given.
(vi) It can not be calculated if the extreme class is open, e.g. below 10 or above 90
(vii) It cannot be used in the study of ratios, rates etc.
Median:
Median of a distribution is the value of the variable which divides the distribution into two equal parts.
Median of ungrouped data
(A) Arrange the data in ascending order
(B) Count the no. of observations (Let there be ‘n’ observations)
th
 n 1
(C) If n is odd then median = value of   observation
 2 
th th
n n 
(D) If n is even then median = value of mean of   observation and   1 observation.
2 2 
340
or
th th
N N 
  observation    1 observation
2
Median =   2 
2
Ex.20 Find the median of the following values:
37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32
Sol. Arranging the data in ascending order, we have
25, 31, 32, 37, 39, 42, 43, 45, 46
Here the number of observations n=9(odd)
th
 9 1 
 Median  Value of   observation
 2 
= Value of 5th observation
= 39.
Ex.21 Following are the lives in hours of 15 pieces of the components of air craft engine.
Find the median:
715, 724, 725, 710, 729, 745, 649, 699, 696, 712, 734, 728, 716, 705, 716, 737
Sol. Arranging the data in ascending order
649, 696, 699, 705, 710, 712, 715, 716, 719, 724, 725, 728, 729, 734, 737, 745
N  16  Even 
So, Median =
th
 16   16 
  observation    1 observation
 2  2 
2
8th Obs.  9th obs.


2
716  719
  717.5
2
Ex.22 The median of the observation 11, 12, 14, 18, x + 2, x + 4, 30, 32, 35, 41 arranged in ascending order
is 24. Find the value of x.
Sol. Here, the number of observations n = 10. Since n is even, therefore
th th
n n 
  observation    1 observation 5th observation  6 th observation
Median   2  2   24 
2 2
 24 
 x  2   x  4  24 
2x  6
2 2
 24  x  3  x  21
341
Hence, x = 21
Median of class-interval data (Grouped)
N
C
Median  l  2 h
f
l =lower limit of median class
N= total no of observation
C= Cumulative frequency of the class preceding the median class
h = size of the median class
f = frequency of the median class
What is median class:
th
N
The class in which   item lie is median class
2
Ex.23 Find the median class of the following data;
Classes 0  10 10  20 20  30 30  40 40  50 50  60 60  70
Fre. 5 10 18 30 20 12 5
Sol. xi fi c.f . Median class

0  10 5 5
10  20 10 15
20  30 18 33
30  40 30 63
40  50 20 83
50  60 12 95
60  70 5 100
N
N  100   50
2
  30, c  33, f  30, h  10
N 
  c
2
Median     h
30
 30 
 50  33 10  30 
170
30 30
 30  5.67
Median = 35.67
342
Ex.27 If the median of the following frequency distribution is 28.5 find the missing frequencies:
C.I. 0  10 10  20 20  30 30  40 40  50 50  60 Total
Freq. 5 f1 20 15 f2 5 60
xi fi c.f .
0  10 5 5
10  20 f1 5  f1
20  30 20 25  f1
Sol. 30  40 15 40  f1 Median class
40  50 f2 40  f1  f 2
50  60 5 45  f1  f 2
Given : Median=28.5
So, Median class = 20– 30
and 45  f1  f 2  60
f1  f 2  15
Here,   20, c  5  f1 , f  20, h  10
N 
 2 c 
So, Median     h
 1 
 
 30  5  f1 
28.5  20     10
 20 
25  f1
8.5 
2
25  f1  17
f1  8
when f1  8.8  f 2  15  f 2  7
So, f1  8 and f 2  7
(ii) Uses of Median:
(A) Median is the only average to be used while dealing with qualitative data which cannot be measured
quantitatively but can be arranged in ascending or descending order of magnitude.
(B) It is used for determining the typical value in problems concerning wages distribution of wealth
etc.
Mode:
343
(i) Mode of ungrouped data (By inspection only):

Arrange the data in an array and then count the frequencies of each variable. The variable having
maximum frequency is the mode
Ex.25 Find the mode of the following array of an individual series of scores 7, 7, 10, 12, 12, 12, 11, 13, 13,
17.
Sol. Arranging the data in the form of a frequency table:
Numbers 7 10 11 12 13 17
Frequency 2 1 1 3 2 1
From the above table it is clear that 12 is occurring most number of times.
 Mode is 12
Mode of continuous frequency distribution
f1  f 0
Mode  l  h
2f1  f 0  f 2
Where l = lower limit of the modal class
f1= Frequency of the modal class i.e., the largest frequency.
fo= Frequency of the class preceding the modal class
f2= frequency of the class succeeding the modal class
h = width of the modal class
Ex.26 The marks in science of 80 students of class X are given below. Find the mode of the marks obtained
by the students in science.
C.I. 0 -10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80 80 - 90 90 - 100
Freq. 3 6 16 12 13 20 5 4 1 1
Sol. xi fi Median class
0  10 3
10  20 5
20  30 16
30  40 12
40  50 13
50  60 20
60  70 5
70  80 4
80  90 1
90  100 1
  50, f 0  13, f1  20, f 2  5, h  10
 f1  f 0 
Mode     h
 2f1  f 0  f 2 
344
 20  13 
 50    10
 40  13  5 
70
 50   50  3.17
22
Merits of Mode:
(i) Uses of mode: Mode is the average to be used to find the ideal size, e.g., in business forecasting
in manufacture of ready-made garments, shoes etc.
Empirical Relation between Mode, Median & Mean:
Mode = 3 median - 2 mean
CUMULATIVE FREQUENCY CURVE OR OGIVE
In a cumulative frequency polygon or curves, the cumulative frequencies are plotted against the
lower and upper limits of class intervals depending upon the manner in which the series has been
cumulated. There are two methods of constructing a frequency polygon or an Ogive.
(i) Less than method
(ii) More than method
Less than method
To construct an ogive by less than method, we follow the procedure given below:
Step 1
Construct the cumulative frequency table by adding class frequencies
Step II
Mark upper class limits along x-axis as a suitable scale
Step III
Mark cumulative frequencies along y-axis on a suitable scale
Step IV
Plot the points (x, f) where xi is the lower limit of a class and fi is corresponding cumulative frequency.
Step V
Join the points obtained in step IV by a free hand smooth curve to get the ogive and to get the
cumulative frequency polygon join the points obtained in step IV by line segments.
Note: When nothing is mentioned, then we generally construct the ‘less than type ogive’.
Ex.27 During the medical check-up of 35 students of a class their weights were recorded as follows:
Weight  in kg  Number of students

38  40 3
40  42 2
42  44 4
44  46 5
46  48 14
48  50 4
50  52 3
Draw a less than & more than type ogive for the given data. Hence, obtain median weight from the
graph.
345
Sol. For the given data, cumulative frequency distribution of the less than type can be computed as
follows.
Number of students
Weight  in kg 
 Cumulative freq.
Less than 40 3
Less than 42 3 2
Less than 44 5 4  9
Less than 46 9  5  14
Less than 48 14  14  28
Less than 50 28  4  32
Less than 52 32  2  35
To draw a less than ogive, we mark the upper class limits of the class intervals on the x-axis and
their corresponding cumulative frequencies on the y-axis by taking a convenient scale.
Now, plot the points corresponding to the ordered pairs [(upper class limit, cumulative frequency)–
i.e.,  40, 3 ,  42, 5 ,  44, 9  ,  46, 14  ,  48, 28  ,  50, 32  ,  52, 35 ] on the graph paper..
Similarly, we can compute the cumulative frequency distribution of the more than type as follows:
Number of students
Weight  in kg 
 Cumulative frequency 
More than 38 35
More than 40 35  3  32
More than 42 32  2  30
More than 44 30  4  26
More than 46 26  5  21
More than 48 21  14  7
More than 50 74 3
Now, to draw a more than ogive, we mark the lower class limits of the class intervals on the x-axis
and thei corresponding cumulative frequencies on the y-axis by taking a convenient scale.
Now, plot the points corresponding to the ordered pairs [(lower class limit, cumulative frequency)–
i.e.,  38, 35  ,  40, 32  ,  42, 30  ,  44, 26  ,  46, 21 ,  48, 7  ,  50, 3 ] on the graph paper..
346
Now, to obtain the median weight from the graph, we draw both ogives on the same graph paper.
They intersect at  46.5, 17.5 . 46.5 kg is the median weight of the given data.
QUARTILES
Quarties are those values of the variate which divide the total set of data in four equal parts.
(i) Lower quartile: When the lower half before the median, is divided into two equal parts, the value of
the dividing variate is called lower quartile and is denoted by Q1.
th th
n  n 1
Lower quartile Q1 =   term or   term, depending whether n is even or odd.
4  4 
For finding quartiles, the given terms (data) are always arranged in ascending order of their magnitudes.
(ii) Upper quartile: When the upper half, after the median, is divided into two equal parts, the value
of the dividing variate is called upper quartile and is denoted by Q3, (Q2 being the median)
th th
 3n   3(n  1) 
Therefore, upper quartile Q3    term of   term, depending whether n is even or odd.
 4   4 
Ex.28 Find the median, lower quartile and upper quartile from the following data : 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19.
Sol. The data is already in ascending order.
Since, n  7  odd 
th
 n 1
 Median    term  4 term  13
th
 2 
th
 n 1 
Lower quartile  Q1     term  2nd term  9
 4 
 3  n  1 
th
Upper quartile  Q3     term = 6th term = 17

 4 
(a) Interquartile range:
The difference between the upper quartile (Q3) and lower quartile (Q3) is called interquartile range.
i.e. interquartile range = Q3– Q1: which is always positive as Q3  Q1
347
Q3  Q1
Semi interquartile range  ; which is also always positive.
2
Ex.29 From the following frequency distribution table, find:
(i) Lower quartile (ii) Upper quartile (iii) Semi-interquartile range
x 5 10 15 20 25 30
f 3 4 6 9 7 3
Sol. First of all construct a cumulative frequency table for the given distribution.
x f cf
5 3 3
10 4 7
15 6 13
20 7 22
25 7 29
30 3 32
Since, n = 32 (even)
th
n
(i) Lower quartile  Q1     term = 8th term = 15
4
th
 3n 
(ii) Upper quartile  Q3     term = 24 term = 25
 4 
Q3  Q1 25  15
(iii) Semi-interquartile range   5
2 2
MEAN DEVIATION
The dispersion of the observations from the mean is called dispersion, i.e., dispersion denoted the
spread of the observation. Mean deviation is a simple measure to find the amount of dispersion.
Definition: The A.M. of absolute values of deviations of all terms from any standard mean is called
deviation and it is denoted by  A .
x1  A  x 2  A  ......  x n  A
Thus,  A 
n

x i A
n
Note:
Here x i  A means the absolute value of the deviation of xi from A which is always positive and
defined as follow:
x i  A  x i  A,ifx i  A  0 ;  (x i  A)or A  x i ,if x i  A  0
348
Particular cases:
(i) Mean deviation from A.M.  x  ;  x 

x i x
, here A  x
n
(ii) Mean deviation from median (M):  M 

x i M
, Here A = M
n
(iii) Mean deviation from mode (z):  z 

x
, Here A = z
i z
n
Ex.30 The runs scored by 8 cricket players in an inning are as follows : 42, 47, 52, 47, 37, 60, 55, 55, 38.
Find (i) Mean deviation(ii) Mean deviation from median and (iii) Mean deviation from origin 40.
Sol. Calculation table of mean deviation :
Run x i xi  x xi  M x i  40
37 10.25 10 3
38 9.25 9 2
42 5.25 5 2
47 0.25 0 7
47 0.25 0 7
52 4.75 5 12
55 7.75 8 15
60 12.75 8 15
x i  378 x i  x  50.50 x i  M  50 x i  40  68
Here
x
x i

378
 47.25
8 8
47  47
And M   47
2
(i) Mean deviation
   
xi  x 50.50
  6.31
x
n 8
(ii) Mean deviation from median
 M   
xi  M 50
 6.25
n 8
(iii) Mean deviation from origin 40
 40   
x i  40 68
 8.5
n 8
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Mean Deviation from Frequency Distribution:

Let value of a variable x are x1, x2....., xnwith frequencies f1, f2,.....fn respectively, then mean deviation
from mean
 x   
fi x i  x
f i
1
or  x   . fi x i  x
N
where N   f i
Similarly mean deviation from median, mode or any origin point can be calculated by taking M or A
respectively in place of x . In such cases
M 
f i xi  M
and  A 
f i xi  A
N N
Ex.31 Find mean deviation from following data:
x 3 9 17 23 27
f 8 10 12 9 5
Sol. Calculation table for mean deviation
xi fi fi x i xi  x fi xi  x
3 8 24 12 96
9 10 90 6 60
17 12 204 2 24
23 9 207 8 72
27 5 135 12 60
N  44 f x
i i  660 f i x i  x  312
Here
x
f x i i

660
 15
N 44
Therefore, mean deviation
   
fi x i  x 312
   7.09  Approx 
x
N 44
Ex.32 For the following distribution, find mean deviation from the origin 20 and from the mode.
x 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24
f 5 8 21 24 18 15 7 2
Sol. Calculation table for mean deviation.
350
xi fi x i  20 f i x i  20 x i  16 fi x i  16
10 5 10 50 6 30
12 8 8 64 4 32
14 21 6 126 2 42
16 24 4 96 0 0
18 18 2 36 2 36
20 15 0 0 4 60
22 7 2 14 6 42
24 2 4 8 8 16
N   fi f i x i  20 f i x i  16
 100  394  258
Here mode i.e. value of maximum frequency = 16

Therefore mean deviation from value 20   20

f i x i  20

394
 3.94
N 100
and mean deviation from mode (z) 16
 z    f
fi x i  z x i  16 258
 i
  2.58
N N 100
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QUESTIONS
LEVEL I
1. The average of 2, 7, 6 and x is 5 and the average of 18, 1, 6, x and y is 10. What is the value of y?
A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 18
2. The average of first 50 natural numbers is :
A) 12.25 B) 21.15 C) 25 D) 25.5
3. The average of ten numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 12, then the average of the new set
of numbers is :
A) 7 B) 82 C) 84 D) 22
4. The average of four consecutive odd numbers is 28. Out of these the greatest odd number is :
A) 33 B) 31 C) 29 D) 25
5. All the three face cards of spades are removed from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. A card is then
drawn at random from the remaining pack. Find the probability of getting black face card.
6 3 5 4
A) B) C) D)
49 49 49 49
6. A bag contains 40 balls out of which some are red, some are blue and remaining are black. If the
11 1
probability of drawing a red ball is and that of blue ball is , then the number of black balls is:
20 5
A) 5 B) 25 C) 10 C) 30
7. If E and F are independent events such that P(E) = 0.7 and P(F) = 0.3 : then P  E  F 
A) 0.4 B) 1 C) 0.21 D) none

8. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is probability of getting exactly two heads?
1 3 2 3
A) B) C) D)
3 4 3 8
9. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most 2 heads?
1 3
A) B)
4 8
7 1
C) D)
8 2
10. What is the probability that a number selected from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,......,16 is a prime
number, is?
1 5 3 7
A) B) C) D)
16 8 8 16
352
11. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability
that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 3?
3 3 2 1
A) B) C) D)
20 10 5 2
12. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is
a king
1 1 3 1
A) B) C) D)
13 52 13 4
13. One card is drawn of random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is
either a red card or a king/
6 1 7 27
A) B) C) D)
13 2 13 52
14. What is the probability that an ordinary year has 53 Sundays?
53 1 2 48
A) B) C) D)
365 7 7 53
15. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 7?
1 7 7 1
A) B) C) D)
6 12 36 4
16. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a doublet?
1 1 3 2
A) B) C) D)
6 4 4 3
17. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11?
7 5 1 1
A) B) C) D)
12 36 6 4
18. Tickets numbered from 1 to 20 are mixed up and a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability
that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 7?
1 1
A) B)
15 2
2 7
C) D)
5 20
19. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the
ball drawn is white?
4 3 4 1
A) B) C) D)
7 4 3 8
353
20. If three coins are tossed simultaneously then the probability of getting at least two heads, is
1 3 1 1
A) B) C) D)
4 8 2 4
LEVEL II
1. A number x is chosen at random from the numbers 3,  2,  1, 0, 1, 2, 3 . The probability that x  2
is:
5 3 2 1
A) B) C) D)
7 7 7 7
2. The odds in favour of an event are 3 : 5. The probability of occurrence of the event is :
3 3 1 1
A) B) C) D)
5 8 3 5
3. A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will not come up either of the time is
35 25 1 11
A) B) C) D)
36 36 36 36
4. A die is thrown twice. The probability of the sum being odd, is
1 1 1 1
A) B) C) D)
2 3 4 6
5. The upper class limit of inclusive type class interval 10 – 20 is.
A) 10.5 B) 20 C) 20.5 D) 17.5
6. Range of 14, 12, 17, 18, 16 and x is 20. Find x  x  0 
A) 2 B) 28 C) 32 D) Cannot be determined
7. The range of 15, 14, x, 25, 30, 35 is 23. Find the least possible value of x.
A) 14 B) 12 C) 13 D) 11
8. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 15 and the class interval is 4. The lower limit of
the class is :
A) 10 B) 12 C) 13 D) 14
9. The number of times a particular item occurs in a given data is called its:
A) variation B) frequency C) cumulative frequency D) None of these
10. The following marks were obtained by the students in a test : 81, 72, 90, 90, 86, 85, 92, 70, 71, 83, 89,
95, 85, 79, 62. Find the range.
A) 9 B) 17 C) 27 D) 33
354
11. If the arithmetic mean of 7, 5, 13, x and 9 be 10, then the value of x is :
A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16
12. The arithmetic mean of the set of observations 1, 2, 3......n is ;
n 1 n  n 1
A) B)   1 C) D)  n  1
2 2  2 2
13. In a monthly test, the marks obtained in mathematics by 16 students of a class are as follows:
0, 0, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 5, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8. The arithmetic mean of the marks obtained is:
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
14. Mean of a certain number of observation is m. If each observation is divided by x  x  0  and in-
creased by y, then the mean of new observation is :
mx  y m  xy
A) mx  y B) C) D) m  xy
x x
15. The mean of a variable x having 50 observations is 45. If a new variable is defined as U  x  45 , the
mean of the new variable is :
A) 45 B) 0 C) 95 D) 90
16. The weighted A.M. of the first n natural numbers whose weights are corresponding numbers is :
 n  1 2n  1 n  n  1 2n  1  2n  1  2n  1
A) B) C) D)
6 6 3 6
17. The mean of a set of observation is a. If each observation is multiplied by b and each product is
decreased by c, then the mean of new set of observation is.
a a
A) c B) ab  c C) c D) ab  c
b b
18. The arithmetic mean of 5 numbers is 27. If one of the numbers be excluded, their mean is 25. The
excluded number is:
A) 28 B) 26 C) 25 D) 35
19. The combined mean of three groups is 12 and the combined mean of first two groups is 3. If the first,
second and third groups have 2, 3 and 5 times respectively, then mean of third group is:
A) 10 B) 21 C) 12 D) 13
n2
20. The mean of first n odd natural numbers is . Find n.
81
21. The arithmetic mean of 12 observations is 15. If two observations 20 and 25 are removed, then the
arithmetic mean of remaining observations is:
A) 14.5 B) 13.5 C) 12.5 D) 13
355
22. A distribution consists of three components with frequencies 45, 40 and 15 having their means 2, 2.5
and 2 respectively. The mean of the combined distribution is:
A) 2.1 B) 2.2 C) 2.3 D) 2.4
23. The median of 21 observations is 18. If two observations 15 and 24 are included to the observation,
then the median of new series is:
A) 15 B) 18 C) 24 D) 16
24. The median of a given frequency distribution is found graphically with the help of:
A) Histogram B) Pie chart C) Frequency curve D) Ogive
25. In a data, 10 numbers are arranged in increasing order. If the 7th entry is increased by 4, then the
median increases by :
A) zero B) 4 C) 6 D) 5
26. The median of the following data 46, 64, 87, 41, 58, 77, 35, 90, 55, 33, 92 is :
A) 87 B) 77 C) 58 D) 64
27. The algebraic sum of the deviations of a set of n values from their mean is :
A) 0 B) n-1 C) 1 D) –1
28. If the quartile deviation of a set of observations is 10 and the third quartile is 35, then the first quartile is
:
A) 24 B) 30 C) 17 D) 15
29. The semi-inter quartile range of the observations 9, 12, 14, 6, 23, 36, 20, 7, 42 and 32 is
A) 12.75 B) 12.5 C) 9.75 D) 9.5
30. The inter-quartile range of the observations 3, 5, 9, 11, 13, 18, 23, 25, 32 and 39 is:
A) 24 B) 17 C) 31 D) 8
LEVEL III
1. The average weight of 10 oarsmen in a boat is increased by 1.8 kg when one of the crew member
whose weighs 53 kg is replaced by a new man. Find the weight of the new man.
A) 75 kg B) 71 kg C) 68 kg D) 80 kg
2. If average of ten students marks are 47. If 11th students marks are also included then average of
eleven students marks becomes 45. Find the marks of 11th student.
A) 35 B) 25 C) 45 D) 40
3. a, b, c are three numbers such that the average of a and b is 4, that of b and c is 5 and that of a and c
is 12. The average of all the three numbers is:
A) 21 B) 12 C) 7 D) 5
4. 4 boys and 3 girls spent Rs.120 on the average, of which boys spend Rs.150 on the average, then the
average amount spent by girls is
A) Rs.80 B) Rs.60
C) Rs.90 D) Rs.100
356
5. An um contains 9 red, 7 white and 4 black balls. A ball is drawn at random. What is the probability
that the ball drawn is not red?
1 9 2 11
A) B) C) D)
11 11 11 20
6. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. A card is drawn at random. What is the probability that it is
neither a heart nor a king?
4 9 2 4
A) B) C) D)
13 13 13 13
7. The probability of occurrence of two events E and F are 0.25 and 0.30 respectively. The probability
of their simultaneous occurrence is 0.14. The probability that either E occurs or F occurs is :
A) 0.31 B) 0.41 C) 0.69 D) 089
8. A point (a, b) in the plane is such that a  4, b  4 , where a, b are integers then what is the
probability that the distance of point from origin is at most two units:
13 15 11 13
A) B) C) D)
81 81 81 64
9. Three-digit number formed by using digits 0, 1, 2 and 5 (without repetition) are written on different on
each slip, and put in a bowl. One slip is drawn at random from the bowl. The probability that the slip
bears a number divisible by 5 is;
5 4 2 1
A) B) C) D)
9 9 3 3
10. 1 play a game in which two dice are thrown together. I win if the product of the two numbers appear-
ing on their tops is odd or a multiple of 5. The probability of my winning is :
1 5 7 1
A) B) C) D)
3 12 18 4
11. Let L be the lower class boundary of a class in a frequency distribution and m be the mid point of the
class. Which one of the following is the upper class boundary of the class?
mL mL
A) m  B) L  C) 2m  L D) m  2L
2 2
12. Consider the table given below:
Marks 0  10 10  20 20  30 30  40 40  50 50  60
Number of students 12 18 27 20 17 6
The arithmetic mean of the marks given above, is :
A) 18 B) 28 C) 27 D) 6
13. The median of the following distribution is :
Class interval 35  45 45  55 55  65 65  70
Frequency 8 12 20 10
A) 56.5 B) 57.5 C) 58.7 D) 59
357
14. Mean of salary of 10 employees is Rs.5000. If salary of employees are Rs. 3000, Rs. 4000, Rs. 5000,
Rs. 6000, Rs.x, Rs. 7000, Rs. 8000, Rs. 3800, Rs. 2200 and Rs. 9000 then value of x is:
A) 2000 B) 3000 C) 4000 D) 5000
Numerical type
5n
1. The mean of first n natural numbers is . Find n.
9
2. If the mean of five observations x, x  2, x  4, x  6, x  8 is 11, then the mean of first three observa-
tions is:
A) 9 B) 11 C) 13 D) None
3. The mode of the observation 2x  3, 3x  2, 4x  3, x  1, 3x  1, 5x  2 (x is a positive integer) can be:
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
4. Find the mean deviation from the median for the following ungrouped data. 20, 25, 30, 18, 15, 40
A) 6 B) 4 C) 7 D) 5
5. If mode of any series is 5 and median is 3 then mean of that series is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Matrix match
Column I Column II
A) If the difference of mode and median of a data is 24, then the P) 20
difference of median and mean is :
B)The arithmetic mean and mode of a data is 24 and 12 respectively, Q) 12
then the median of the data is _______
C) Which of these numbers is the average of the remaining three?
26,39,30,20 R) 8
D) A cricketer has a certain average run for 10 innings. In the 11th inning,
he scores 100 runs, and now his average run is increased by 9 runs. The average of
11 innings is : S) 39
Matrix match
Column I Column II
A) The mean of six numbers is 15. If 2 is taken away from every number, P) 31
the new mean would be:
B) Out of 50 observations the mean of 25 observation is 30 Q) 13
and mean of rest 25 observation is 32, Then mean of 50 observation is :
1 1
C) If the mean of x and is M, then the mean of x2 and 2 is: R) median
x x
D) Positional mean is: S) 2M 2  1
358
PHYSICS
GRAVITATION
LEVEL I
1. D 6. D 11. B 16. B 21. A

2. C 7. A 12. A 17. A 22. A
3. C 8. B 13. B 18. A 23. A
4. C 9. C 14. C 19. C 24. B
5. D 10. A 15. A 20. B
LEVEL II
1. D 6. A 11. D 16. A 21. C

2. D 7. D 12. C 17. D 22. A
3. C 8. C 13. C 18. A 23. C
4. C 9. B 14. B 19. B 24. D
5. C 10. B 15. D 20. B
LEVEL III
1. C, D 5. B 9. 8 13. 8
2. A, C, D 6. D 10. 2 14. C
3. A, B 7. A - q, r; B - t; C - q, s; D - p 11. 6 15. B
4. C 8. A - r, B - p, C - s, D - q 12. 4 16. A
1. D 4. B 7. B 10. B 13. B
2. C 5. D 8. D 11. B 14. B
3. A 6. C 9. A 12. A 15. C
16. B
359
KEY WITH HINTS

LEVEL I
2
4 
G  R 3 
G  m  m    4 22 R 4
 
3
1. D F
 2R 
2 2
4R 3
2. C Centripetal force provided by the gravitational force of attraction between two particles
mv 2 G  m  m  1 Gm
   v
 2r 
2
r 2 r
3. C Since mass M of the bodies is same, so gravitational force is also same.
4. C mass does not vary from place to place.
5. D
6. D At a finite separation, the total kinetic energy of the system of two masses and the force between them
are both finite. Since the two masses are at rest initially and there is no external force, the centre of
mass cannot move.
2 2
g  R   6400 
  g  960.40 cms
2
7. A   
g  R  h   6400  64 
8. B
9. C
10. A They will have same acceleration due to gravity.
3
4 3 3M s Ms R 3e  1  4
11. B As mass, M  R  or      3  330     3.3 10
3 4R 3 e M e R s  100 
1
12. A v if orbital radius becomes 4 times then orbital velocity will becomes half.
r
13. B Orbital velocity v  GM /  R  h  . It is independent of mass of satellite.

14. C The velocity of the spoon will be equal to the orbital velocity when dropped out of the spaceship.
15. A
GM
16. B We know that g  ;
R2
GM / 7 4
on the planet g p   g
R2 / 4 7
4
Hence the weight on the planet = 700   400 gm wt
7
360
17. A When earth stops its motion there is no change of the value of g, so weight of the body does not change.
 2h  2hg g  g 2h 2h R 6400
18. A g  g  1   ; g  g  ;  ;  100  1  h    32
 R  R g R R 200 200
19. C Force acting on a body of mass M at a point at depth d inside the earth is
 d mGM  R  d  GMm
F  mg  mg  1  
 R
 
R2  R 

R3
r  R  d  r
So F  r ; Given F  r n  n 1
20. B T  r 3/2 if r becomes double then time period will become (2) times so new time period will be
3/2
24  2 2 hr i.e.,  48 2
GMm 6.67 1011  7.40  1022  6  1024

21. A U ; 7.79  1028   r  3.8  108 m
r r
2GM 2GM GM GMm

22. A Ve  ; 100  ;   5000 ; P.E.U    5000 J
R R R R
3 2
23. A mg  mg  mR2 or mg  mR2 ; or   2g / 5R
5 5
24. B The escape velocity at the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s. When body is at a height, its gravitational
potential energy is less negative than that on the surface of earth, hence lesser energy is required to take
the body at inifinity from a height than that from the surface of earth.
LEVEL II
1. D
E x (D – x) M
GM E GM M 81M M MM
 
M E  81M N ; 2 ; x 2
D  x
2
D  x
2
x
9 1 9D
 x
x D  x 9D  9x  x ; 9 D = 10 x; 10
361
mG  M /10  4 4 4
2. D Weight on Mars = mg   m g  mg   200  80 N
 R / 2 10 10 10
2
3. C m = 20 g = 20 × 10–3 kg; F = 4 N
F 4
E  3
 200 N kg 1
m 20  10
4. C
1m
(D – x) x
m1 = 105 kg m2 = 103 kg
GM1 GM 2 105 103

 
1  x 
2
x2 ; 1  x 
2
x2
10 1 1
 ; 10 x = 1 – x; 11 x = 1; x m
1 x x 11
 2h 
5. C The acceleration due to gravity at height h will be, g  g 1   . The acceleration due to gravity at
 R 
 d
depth d will be, g  g  1   .
 R
As per question; g  g so
 2h   d
g 1    g  1   or 2h = d
 R   R
2
1 1  GM  m GM m gR 2 mgR
6. A KE  mv02  m      
2 2  RR  2 2R 4 R 4
7. D Work done under centripetal force is always zero because force and displacement are perpendicular to
each other.
A
8. C = a constant .  A  t keplers second law..
t
A SCD t1 2A
    t1  2t 2
ASAB t 2 A
362
9. B T2  r3
2 3 2 3
 T1   R 1   1   R1 
    or       R 2  4R 1  4  104 km
 T2   R 2   8   R2 
2R 1 2R 2
v1   2 104 km h 1 and v 2   10 4 km h 1
T1 T2
v1 v2
R1
S1 S2
R2
In the given situation | v1  v 2 |    10 4 km h 1
10. B T 2  R 3  R 3  kT 2
When there is a small change in R, the corresponding change in T can be deterrmine by differentiating
the equation.
R T T R T  R 
3 2   1.5 ;   100  1.5  100   1.5  4  6%
R T T R T  R 
GMm
11. D Gravitational potential energy at any point at distance x from centre of earth is E  
x
At the surface of earth x = R, so,
GMm
E1   mgR
R
At height 3 R, from surface of earth, x = 4 R
GMm  mgR
So, E 2  
4R 4
 mgR 3
Increase in potential energy   mgR  mgR
4 4
1
12. C Ve  where r is the position of body from the surface
r
V1 r R  7R V
 2   2 2  V2  1
V2 r1 R 2 2
363
2GM
13. C on earth Ve   11.2 kms 1
R
2GM 4 2 2GM 2 11.2

on moon Vm  .    2.5 kms 1
R R 9 R 9
GM
14. D When satellite is orbiting close to earth, its orbital velocity, v0 
R
2GM 1 1 GM
Escape velocity ve  ; Here, K.E., E  mv 02  m
R 2 2 R
1 1  2GM 
K.E. required to escape, E1  mv 2e  m    2E
2 2  R 
 Additional K.E. required = 2E – E = E

15. D A person is safe, if his velocity while reaching the surface of moon from a height h on earth. So
2gh  2gh
gh 9.8  3
or h     15 m
g 1.96
GMm GMm
16. A U or r 
r U
6.67 1011  6  1024  7.4  1022

r  3.8  108 m
7.79  10 28
1
17. B Kinetic energy of satellite, E K  mv 2 ,
2
GM GM m
[where v  ] potential energy of satellite, E P    mv 2
r r
1 1
 Total energy  E K  E P  mv 2  mv 2   mv 2
2 2
18. A The centripetal force is due to gravitational pull of earth on satellite which makes the satellite to move on
a circular orbit. The force on satellite is the gravitational pull F only.
19. B v  GM / r ; Hence
v 1 r 1 1
    1%   % (increase)
v 2 r 2 2
3r v 3
20. B According to law of conservation of linear momentum mvr  m V or 
2 V 2
364
GM
21. C g ; If R decreases then g increases.
R2
Taking logarithm of both the sides;
log g  log G  log M  2 log R
dg 2dR  2  4
Differentiating it we get;  00  2  
g R  100  100
dg 4
 % of increase in g  g  100  100  100  4%
10g 9 R2 9 R2 3 R
22. A g  g   g; g  g or  
100 10 R  h
2
10  R  h 2 or 10 R  h
or h 
 
10  3 R

 
10  3  6400
 345.60 km
3 3
1
mv 2
KE1 2 e ve2
   2
23. C ve  2gR and v0  gR ; KE 2 1 mv 2 v02
0
2
24. D Here, mg = 10 N. True weight at height h where satellite is orbiting is
R2 mg
 mg  mg  ----------- (i)
R  h
2 2
 h
1  
 R
For Geostationary satellite, h = 36000 kms
h 36000 10
  5.63 ; mg   0.23 N
1  5.63
2
R 6400
LEVEL III
1. C, D
The kinetic energy of the comet changes because its speed in the orbit keeps changing. The potential
energy changes because the distance of the comet from the sun keeps changing for an elliptical orbit.
2. A, C, D
Work done is independent of the path chosen and depends only on the initial and final positions of the
object. Also the work done on any closed path in a gravitational field will be zero. Since every point on
the surface of the earth is at the same potential, no work is done for points on the surface of the earth.
365
3. A, B
GmM
Total energy E   .
2r
Passage I
4. C ve  2gR
5. B
6. D
Matrix Match.
7. A - q, r; B - t; C - q, s; D - p
A) Kinetic energy of a body projected from the surface of earth at large distance may be zero (body
momentarily comes to rest) or positive.
B) Gravitational potential energy of a bound system must be negative.
C) Change in potential energy at a point mass if left free to itself, with time may be zero (point mass on
horizontal surface) or negative (point mass falling freely vertically)
D) Change in areal velocity of earth as earth moves from apogee towards perigee is zero as areal
velocity remains constant according to Kepler’s second law.
8. A - r, B - p, C - s, D - q
Acceleration
Mass kg Radius m g/g earth
differents m/s2
Sun 1.99 1030 6.96  108 274.13 27.95
Mercury 3.18 1023 2.43 106 3.59 0.37
Venus 4.88  10 24 6.06  106 8.87 0.90
Earth 5.98 1024 6.38 106 9.81 1.00
Moon 7.36  10 22 1.74  106 1.62 0.17
Mars 6.42 1023 3.37 106 3.77 0.38
Jupiter 1.9 1027 0.99  10 7 25.95 2.65
Saturn 5.68 1026 6.99 107 11.08 1.13
Uranium 8.68  1025 2.33  10 7 10.67 1.09
Neptune 1.03 1026 2.21107 14.07 1.43
Integer Type.
GM m
GM e GM m gm R 2m M R2
g ; gm    m 2e
9. 8 2
Re R 2m ; g GM e Me R m
2
Re
M m  R e2 1 20
g    2   10  4 ;
2
gm   Weight of 20 N on mars = 4 8 N
Me  R m
2
10 10
366
Gm1m 2
10. 2 F ; when one mass is double
r2
G2m1  m 2
m11  2m1 ; F   force will be doubled.
r2
11. 6 Radial acceleration = centripetal acceleration
10   6300 
2
v 2 GM gR 2
  2    6 m/s 2
 R  h   6300  1800 
2 2
r r
2r 2r 3/ 2
12. 4 Time period of satellite, T  
GM / r GM
2/3
r  256 
i.e., T  r or r  T , so   4 or r  4 R
3/ 2 2/3

R  32 
3/ 2
R 
 1 4 
3/ 2
13. 8 Tc  Ts  c   8 days  Ts  1 day
 Rs 
Reasoning Type.
M
14. C Since g  G , it does not depend on the mass of the object on which it is acting. It is not a constant
R2
quantity but depends on the value of M and R. For example, it has different value on the equator and
the poles because R is different in the two cases. M may change due to variation in the density of the
earth at different places.
15. B The centripetal force necessary to keep the spaceship in the orbit around the earth is provided by the
gravitational force between the earth and the spaceship. Thus, the only force of gravity than an astronaut
in the space-ship experiences is that which is due to the gravitational force, exerted by the space-ship.
Since the space-ship is small and not very massive, this force is negligibly small. Hence, the astronauts
do not experience may gravity.
16. A Since the earth’s mass is much more than that of the moon, the gravitational force exerted by the earth
on moon, the gravitational force exerted by the earth on the spaceship is much greater than that exerted
 

by the moon. The work done F . ds is much greater.. 
1
M
Gm 16 M
GM g  2  G. 2 G  8g
1. D g 2 ; R 1 2 2 R2
R  R
4
367
4
2G  R 3
2GM 3 4
2. C ve    2G  R 2 ;  v e  R , when radius is doubled.
R R 3
v p  2  11.2  22.4 km/s
2
3. A T   GMR

 when the value of G decreases, the period increases. So the length of the year increases.
4. B Acceleration due to gravity is maximum on the surface of earth.
5. D
4 3
6. C V R , when volume increases to 8 times.
3
GM
R 13  8R 3 R1 = 2R; g
R2
gR 2 g
g  
 2R 
2
4
GM 4 R 3 4
7. B g  G.  R.G  g  R
R2 3 R2 3
When R is doubled g will be doubled.
8. D Weight depends on acceleration due to gravity. At different places g may vary.
1
9. A Acceleration due to gravity on moon is that of earth
6
g 9.8
  1.63  weight of 15 kg on moon = 1.63 × 15 = 24.5 N
6 6
GM g M
10. B g , 
R2 G R2
2 2
GM g M R 2 M  R   1
11. B g 2  2     80     20
R g R M M   R  2
g 9.8
g    0.49
20 20
vorb gR
12. A vorb  gR , vesc  2gR ;  , v0 : vl  1: 2
vescape 2gR
Gm g  G.2m  GM . 2  9.8  2  2.18 m/s

13. B g ;
 3R  R 9
2 2
R2 9
 Weight of 5 kg in this planet is W  mg  5  2.18  10.88 N
368
14. B Orbital Radius = 6400 + 3600 = 10,000 km.

Circumference of the orbit = 2R  2  104 km
Distance 2 104

Time taken to travel this path t    2 104 s
Velocity 3.14
1 
A11  A 2 2 ; r1   r22 2 ;
2
15. C Sector area produced by in both cases are the same.;
360 360
r12 1 160
r   r 2 ; r2 
2 2
 140 106  560 106 km
1 1 2 2 10
4 3
R 
16. B GM 3 ;  g   , when 1  2 , g A  g g
g 2 G
R R2
369
FLUIDS
LEVEL I
1. C 5. A 9. C 13. B 17. A
2. B 6. A 10. A 14. C 18. D
3. D 7. D 11. C 15. A 19. C
4. A 8. B 12. D 16. A 20. A
LEVEL II
1. D 6. A 11. B 16. D 21. C
2. D 7. B 12. C 17. B 22. D
3. D 8. A 13. B 18. C 23. A
4. A 9. B 14. A 19. A 24. B
5. C 10. A 15. A 20. A 25. A
26. B
LEVEL III
1. A, B, D 8. C 15. 6
2. A, B, D 9. C 16. C
3. A, B, C, D 10. B 17. B
4. B, C 11. A - p, q; B - q, r; C - r; D - r, s 18. A
5. A, B 12. A - r; B - p; C - s; D - t; E - q
6. B, C 13. 3
7. B 14. 5
1. A 4. B 7. B 10. C 13. A
2. B 5. D 8. C 11. B 14. A
3. C 6. B 9. A 12. D 15. C
16. D
17. D
370
KEY WITH HINTS

LEVEL- I
1. C Among sea water, petrol, fresh water and alcohol, sea water has more density.
 At a given depth sea water has more pressure. Since P  hg
2. B h11  h 2 2 but 2  21
h11 h11 h1 76
 h2     cm  38 cm
2 21 2 2
3. D Pressure in a fluid P  hg
 P  h, p   and ‘P’ is equal in all directions at a point.

4. A A sudden fall in atmospheric pressure by a large amount indicates a storm.
5. A If the rise in the level of mercury in the arm of the manometer which is not connected to the gas container
is 2 cm, the depression in the level of mercury in the other arm that is connected to the gas container is
also 2 cm. Thus the difference in the levels of mercury in both the arms = 2 + 2 = 4 cm
 the pressure of the gas = the atmospheric pressure + pressure due to 4 cm of Hg
= 76 cm of Hg + 4 cm of Hg = 80 cm of Hg.
6. A Total cross-sectional area,
A  2  10cm 2  20  10 4 m 2
F = 40 kg wt = 40 × 10 N = 400 N
F 400
Average pressure, P    2  105 Nm 2
A 20  104
7. D Pressure difference = (75.125 – 75.000) × 10–2 × 13600 × 9.8
= 0.125 × 10–2 × 13600 × 9.8 Pa
If h is the height of the building, this pressure difference must be equal to the pressure due to a column of
air of height h, i.e.,
hg  0.125  102  13600  9.8

or
0.125  102  13600  9.8

h  12.5 m
1.36  9.8
8. B Here, weight of water displaced = weight of ice cube + weight of glass ball
When ice melts, the glass ball will be immersed in water. Since the ball immersing in water will displace
the water equal to its volume which will be less than the volume of the water having weight equal to that
of glass ball. As a result of which, the water level in the trough will fall.
371
9. C Volume of the body = 3.6 × 10–4 m3

Volume of liquid displaced = 3.6 × 10–4 m3
 Weight of liquid displaced = vg  3.6 104  103  10  3.6 N

 Decreases in tension in the string = Loss of wt. of the body = wt. of water displaced = 3.6 N
10. A oil   water  Hg . Thus arrange in the order of oil  top layer , water  middle layer ,
mercury  bottom layer
11. C
weight in air 100
12. D RD   4
loss of wt in water 25
13. B Wt. of wax in air = 18.8 gm wt.
Wt. of metal in air = 17.03 gm wt
Wt. of (wax + metal) in water = 15.23 gm wt
Wt. of wax in water = 15.23 – 17.03 = – 1.80 gm wt
Loss of weight of wax in water = 18.8 – (–1.80) = 20.6 gm wt
wt. of wax in air 18.8
R.D. of wax  loss of wt.of wax in water  20.6  0.91
14. C If the size of the floatation bulb is small, only a small volume of the liquid is displaced and the hydrometer
may sink into the liquid. Thus to allow a large volume of the liquid to be displaced, the hydrometer
floatation bulb is made larger and this avoids sinking of the hydrometer in the liquid.
15. A When salt is added, density of liquid increases.
16. A When a man sitting in a boat drinks m gram of water from the pond, the weight of (boat + man) system
will increase by mg and so the system will displace m gram more water for floating. Due to removal of
water from pond, the water level in pond will fall. But due to water displaced by the floating system the
water level in the pond will rise. Since the water removed from the pond is equal to the water displaced
by the system, the level of water in the pond remains unchanged.
17. A Volume flowing per sec, V = av
V 100  10   4 10
6
4
or v   m/s  0.4 mm/s
a 0.25
18. D Apparent weight = weight – upthrust
v  d 
 vdg   d w  g  vg  d  w 
4  4 
 1103  5  8  10  10 
3 3
 500 106 10  2  103    500  10    8.750 N
 4   4 
372
19. C Let l be the length of each side of wooden cube in cm. Since the cube rises 2 cm out of water when a
200 g mass placed at the centre of its top face is removed, hence.
upward thrust of water on cube due to displaced volume of water, [V (= l × l × 2)] must be equal to
weight of mass removed.
So, l × l × 2 × 1 × g = 200 g or l2 = 100 or l = 10 cm
Thus, volume of the cube = l3 = (10)3 = 1000 cm3
20. A In stream line flow velocity of flow at any point in the liquid does not vary with time.
LEVEL II
1. D Since the two membranes are at the same depth, the pressures acting on them are equal. The pressure
on the membrane does not depend on their area.
2. D As we move up, the air pressure decreases because the length of air column which exerts pressure,
decreases.
Also, on moving up, the density of air and acceleration due to gravity decreases.
Thus, the decrease in pressure is due to decrease in length of air column, density of air and acceleration
due to gravity.
3. D When a mercury barometer is tilted, then the vertical height remains constant but length of mercury
column increases.
4. A Here, h = 10 m, Pa = 1.01 × 105 Pa
Total pressure = Pa  gh  1.01 105  1000  10  10 = 2.01 × 105 Pa  2 atm

5. C Here,, A = 0.2 mm2 ; F = 5 kg wt = 50 N
F 5  10
p  6
 2.50 108 Pa
A 0.2  10
6. A Here A1 = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10–4 m2
A2 = 20 sq. cm = 20 × 10–4 m2
F1 = 200 kg f = 200 × 10 N, F2 = ?
A2 20  104
F2  F1  4
 200 10  2  104 N  2  103 kg f
A1 2  10
7. B Here, A = 800 cm2; F = mg = (12 × 1000 × 980) dynes.
Thus, pressure on the liquid
F 12 1000  980
p  dyne/cm 2
A 800
If h is the difference in level of liquid in the two tubes then,
12  1000  980
p  hg  h  1 980  h  1 980  or h = 15.0 cm
800
373
8. A 2r1 = 2 cm or r1 = 1 cm
and 2r2 = 20 cm or r2 = 10 cm;
a1  r12 and a 2  r22 ;
F1 1.2  9.8
F1  1.2 kg f  1.2  9.8 N; F2   a2   r22  1.2  9.8  r22 / r12
a1 r12
 1.2  9.8  10  / 1  1.2  9.8  100 N  120 kg.f (kg.f - kilogram force)
2 2
9. B Here, Pa  1.01  105 Nm 2
 w  103 kg m 3 ; g  10 ms 2 ;
Area of base, A1  10 cm 2  10 3 m ; h = 10 cm = 0.1 m ;
Area of top, A 2  30 cm 2  3  10 3 m 2 ;
Volume = 1 litre = 10–3 m3
Force exerted by the water on the bottom of glass is F1   Pa  hw g  A1
 1.01 105  0.1 103  10   103 = 102 N (downwards)
10. A In equilibrium state, the pressure of liquid at the same level must be equal. Taking pressure at level C in
both arms of U tube, we have
Pressure due to h cm of oil + pressure due to (20 – h) cm of mercury = pressure of 20 cm of liquid.
i.e., h  0.9  g   20  h  13.6  g  20 1.6  g

or 0.9 h + 272 – 13.6 h = 32
or 12.7 h = 240 or
240
h  18.9 cm
12.7
11. B h = 5 m; do = 0.85 gm/cc = 0.85 × 103 kg/m3.
dw = 1 × 103 kg/m3.
Total pressure = pressure due to water + pressure due to oil.
h h 5  9.8
p  do  g   d wg   0.85  1103  4.53 104 N/m 2
2 2 2
12. C The upward thrust on the metal block = 20 – 16 = 4 N; According to Newton’s third law of floatation,
it will exert a force of 4 N on the weighing machine.
Thus the reading of the weighing machine = 36 + 4 = 40N
374
13. B Atmospheric pressure, Pa  hg
Pa 1.013  105
or h    7989 m
g 1.29  9.8
14. A In a Utube the pressures are same at the same level.
 P  h1d1g  h 2 d 2 g
h 2 d 2 g 25  1 g
h1    31.25  oil level rises by h2 – h1 = h = 6.25 cm
d1g 0.8 g
15. A (50 + 6.3)g – 16.3 × g = V × 1 × g or V = 40 cc;
6.3
Volume of vax, v   7 cc
0.9
volume of piece of material = 40 – 7 = 37 cm.
50
Density of material   1.515 g/cc
37
16. D When the coin falls, the block moves upwards hence l decreases; h will also decrease because when the
coin is in the water it will displace equal volume of water, whereas when it is on the block an equal weight
of water is displaced.
17. B Let V be the volume of sphere and  its density. Let  0 and m be the density of oil and mercury
respectively. Since the sphere is floating, therefore,
weight of sphere = weight of oil displaced + weight of mercury displaced.
V V
or Vg  0 g   m g
2 2
0  m 0.8  13.6
or     7.2 g cm 3
2 2
18. C Decrease in weight = decrease in upthrust.
 mg  V w g
or m  V  w or 0.2 = (2 × 10–2) A × 103

where A is the area of the base of cube.
Then, A = 10–2 m2 = 100 cm2
Side of the cube,
L  A  100  10 cm
375
wt. in air 120

19. A Relative density of solid  wt.in air  wt. in water  120  80  3
loss of wt. in liquid 120  60 60 3

Relative density of liquid  loss of wt.in water  120  80  40  2
20. A Let x fraction of its volume be hollow.

Then weight of the shell = (V – x V) × (5.0 × 103) × g
Weight of water displaced = V × 103 × g
Loss in weight of shell = weight of water displaced
1 3
  V  xV   5  103  g  V 103  g , x 
2 5
21. C Let V1 and V2 be the volumes of the ball in the upper and lower liquids respectively. So
V1 + V2 = V
When the ball is floating in the two liquids;
weight of the ball = upthrust on the ball due to two liquids
Vg  V11g  V22 g ; or V  V11  V22 or V  V11   V  V1  2
   2  V1   2
or V1       V  Fraction in the upper liquid V    
 1 2 1 2
V1   2 1  
Fraction in the lower liquid  1  V  1        
1 2 1 2
22. D Let V be the volume of the block. When block floats in water, then
4 
Vblock g   V   water g
5 
4 4 4
or block   water or  block   liquid  liquid   water   103 kg m 3  800 kg m 3
5 5 5
23. A Volume of water flowing out per sec  av  a 2gh
 110 4   2  10  5  10 3 m 3 /s
dv
24. B As, F   A ; so
dx
F dv 5
stress    103  3
10  0.5 10 N / m
2
A dx
376
25. A Velocity of ball on reaching the water surface is v  2gh  2  9.8 19.6  19.6 m/s
Let  be the density of ball, then density of water is 2

If a is the retardation of the ball in water, then
upward thrust  weight V  2  g  V    g

a   g  9.8 ms 2
mass V
The distance through which the ball goes in water is
v 2 19.6 
2
S   19.6 m
2a 2  9.8
26. B Workdone = S.T. × surface area
 1.9  10 2   4 R 2   2  1.9  102  4   1 102   2  15.2 106 J

2
LEVEL III
More than one correct options.
1. A, B, D
With the rise in temperature, only viscosity of gases increases whereas force of surface tension decreases,
elastic force decreases. Solid friction does not depend on temperature.
2. A, B, D
When a body is floating in a liquid, then weight of the body is balanced by the upward thrust of liquid on
the body. Due to it, the apparent weight of body in liquid is zero. A body will float when its density is less
than that of liquid. In that case the upward thrust on the body due to liquid can be equal to weight of
body. The true weight of the body = mass × acc. due to gravity.
3. A, B, C, D
All the options are correct when more air is pumped in the bottle.
4. B, C
Wair 210
R.D. of metal  W  W 
210  180
7
air water
Loss of weight in liquid = upthrust in liquid
 210 
  210  120      RD of liquid 
 7 
 Relative density of liquid = 3
5. A, B
Level will fall if initially the impurity pieces were floating along with ice and later it sinks.
Level will remain unchanged if initially they were floating and later also they keep floating.
377
6. B, C
In an accelerated container, weight remains unchanged while pressure and upthrust increases. The equation
of block in new situation becomes.
F' – w = ma
Here, m is mass of block and a its acceleration.
Passage I
7. B p0    20  g  p 0  10 1.5  g  h  2  g
Solving this equation, we get h = 2.5 cm
8. C Rewriting the equation as p0  g  20  x   p0  1.5g 10  x   2gh

From here we can see that h will decrease.
Passage II
9. C When the beaker, with the block floating in the liquid, is falling freely under gravity, both its weight and
upthrust will be zero. Hence the block will float with any fraction of its volume submerged.
10. B Apparent loss of mass of copper = 264 – 221 = 43 g. This is the mass of water displaced by copper
peice when it is immersed in water. Volume of copper piece with cavity = 43 cm3. Volume of copper
m 264
only is   30 cm 3 . Therefore, the volume of the cavity = 43 – 30 = 13 cm3.
 8.8
Matrix Match.
11. A - p, q; B - q, r; C - r; D - r, s
12. A - r; B - p; C - s; D - t; E - q
weight in air 60
13. 3 Specify gravity or relative density  change in weight in water  20  3
14. 5 In equilibrium, weight = Upthrust, i.e., Vi g  Vi w g
Vi i 0.9
or V    1.0  0.9
w
i.e., 90% or 9 m of ice block is inside the water. Therefore minimum length l required to scoop out a
bucket of water is 10 – 9 = 1.0 m.
1
 0.2x  1 ; x  5
0.2
378
15. 6 W = Upthrust; or  m1  m 2  g   m1 / 0.5  w    m 2 / 2.5  w  w g

m1 3
or m1  m 2  2m1  0.4m 2  m  0.6  5 x6
2
Reasoning Type.
16. C
17. B
18. A
1. A The pressure on both discs are same, F = P × A, F  A
 Thrust on the two cylinders F1 : F2 = 3 : 4
2. B Vertically upwards.
3. C Remain same.
m1 m2
4. B A) Volume of cork   ; Volume of steel   ; Tension in the string,
1 2
m2  
T = weight of steel inside the liquid (app. wt)  m 2 g    .g  m 2 g 1  
2  2 
B) The cork is completely immersed in the liquid if the apparent wt of steel is greater than apparent wt
of cork.
   
m 2g 1    m1g 1  
 2   1 
m 2 g m g
m 2g   m1g  1 ; m 2 g 12  m 2 g1  m1g12  m1g2
2 1
 m2  m1  12  m21  m12 ;  m2  m1  12   m21  m12  

C) If the cork is partly submerged, when equilibrium.
app: wt. of steel + wt of cork in air = wt. of the liquid equal of volume of the submerged portion of cork
(upthrust).
  m2
m 2 g  1    m1g  vg ; m2   m1  v
 2  2
m 2 m 2 m1 m1 m 2 m 2 m m  
v       1  2 1  
 2    2    2 
D) The system sinks when the app. wt of steel is greater than upthrust.
     
m 2g 1    m1g   1 i.e., T  m1g    1
 2   1   1 
5. D
6. B m  v    20  106  2.5  103  50  103 kg  50 gm
7. B When temperature increases, Buoyant force decreases. Hence density of the liquid decreases.
379
8. C The iron ball is equally dragged to all directions except the direction of the air bubble due to the absence
of water in the air bubble. The absence of water in the air bubble reduce the force towards that
direction. It acts as a repulsive force towards that direction.
m1m 2
The repulsive force F  G
d2
where m1, the mass of iron ball and m2, the mass of water which fills the air bubble.
Mass of iron ball  1.5  8  12 kg
6.67  1011  12  1.5

F 2
 120  1011  1.2  109 N , repulsive.
1
9. A remain the same position relative to the water surfaces.
10. C Density of liquid - because others are not property of liquids.
F 16
P   2500 Pa
11. B A  8 10 2 2
12. D at 4o C, Density of water is maximum.

13. A 1000 kg/m3
14. A
15. C Buoyant force = Weight of liquid displaced
Let  is the density of liquid and d is the density of solid.
M
Then B  vg  g . M is mass of ball. B  M g  3 mg
d 2 2

3
3 mg g
Net force = B  mg  mg  mg   ma  upward   a  
2 2 2
Velocity acquired when it touches water  u  2gh  2  9.8 10  14 m/s
g
When it goes down V = 0; a  
2
u2 142
 distance travelled down = s.; v  u  2as
2 2 ;  s     20 m
2a 2  9.8
2
16. D
wt in air 0.1
17. D R.D.  loss of wt in water  0.02  5 ; Density  5  103 kg / m3
0.1 0.01
Mass of the body   0.01 kg ; Volume   2 106 m3  2 cm3
10 5  103
380
WAVE MOTION AND SOUND
LEVEL I
1. D 6. A 11. A 16. D 21. A

2. B 7. A 12. A 17. D 22. A
3. A 8. C 13. C 18. C 23. C
4. A 9. C 14. B 19. C 24. A
5. C 10. C 15. B 20. A
LEVEL II
1. D 5. B 9. C 13. C 17. C
2. B 6. D 10. A 14. A 18. B
3. A 7. C 11. C 15. A 19. B
4. B 8. B 12. C 16. A 20. C
21. C
LEVEL III
1. A, B, C 7. C 13. B 19. 3 25. B

2. A, B, C 8. B 14. B 20. 1 26. B
3. A, B, C, D 9. A 15. C 21. 8 27. A
4. A, B, C, D 10. D 16. D 22. B 28. A
5. A, B, D 11. B 17. 1 23. A
6. D 12. D 18. 2 24. A

1. D 8. C 15. C 22. B 29. B
2. B 9. B 16. B 23. A 30. A
3. C 10. D 17. D 24. B 31. D
4. D 11. A 18. C 25. A 32. A
5. D 12. A 19. D 26. C
6. B 13. C 20. D 27. C
7. B 14. B 21. D 28. B
381
LEVEL II
1. D Sound waves in a gas are never transverse. They are longitudinal waves.
T 1 T
2. B v n , T = Tension in string.
m 2l m
n1 T n T T 1
 1  1  1  1 
n2 T2 2n1 T2 T2 4
T2
 4  T2 is 4 times T1.
T1
v n 2 1 n 2  n1   2
3. A n   or  100  1  100
 n1  2 n1 2
20
% increase in frequency =  100  25%
80
4. B Distance between two consecutive crests =   5cm
n = 2 wave/sec
v  n  2  5  10 cm / sec
5. B Velocity does not depend on frequency.
Velocity remains as such = v.
6. D Velocity of ultrasonic wave is the same as the velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s
Minimum frequency of ultrasonic waves = fm
 f m  20, 000 Hz
velocity 330 33  100

 max   m  cm
minimum frequency 20000 2000
or  max  1.65cm
7. C Relation between velocity of sound v and absolute temperature T is, v  T .

T = (273 + toC)
v2 T
 2 . Given v = 2v
v1 T1 2 1
2v1 T2
T1 = (273 + 27) = 300 K;   T2  1200 K  927o C
v1 300
382
v1 T v T
8. B  1 or 
v2 T2 3v 600  T
1 T
 ; 3T = 600 + T
3 600  T
2T = 600; T = 300 K
 T  27 o C
T 10 10
9. C v   10000  100 ms 1
m 10 /1000
10. A n1 – 256 = +4 or n1 – 256 = –4. These are two answers. 256 is loaded with wax. It means frequency
becomes less than 256.
As per question beats/sec increase after loading.
 n1  256  4 or n1  256  4  260Hz

11. C Separation between two consecutive nodes =
2

12. C Distance between two successive nodes =
2
v 300 3 3 100
   m cm  30cm
n 1000 10 10

  Separation between two successive nodes = 15 cm
2
v
13. C n1 – n2 = beat/sec. Also n 

v v  1 1  1 1
  12  v     12  v     12
50 51  50 51   50 51 
cm 30600
 v  12  2550 
s 100
 v  306 m / s
383
beats 2 2  10
14. A Beat frequency =    5 Hz
sec 0.4 4
15. A A human being can hear, at the maximum, 10 beats/second.
16. A Beats per second = Difference between two frequencies
Beats v v 30 v v v
       10  or v = 300 ms–1
sec 1  2 3 5 6 30
1 T l1 T
17. C For a vibrating string, n    1
2l m l2 T2
100 100 10
or   or l2 = 130  % increase = 130 – 100 = 30%
l2 169 13
2H 2  500
18. B time taken to fall down t    10 s .
g 10
500
time taken by sound travel 500 m =  1.47 s
340
total time = 10 = 1.47 = 11.47 s
19. B Doppler shift does not depend upon distance between source and the listener.
 v  v0 
20. C In Doppler’s effect, generally, n   v  v n
 s
Here v, v0 and vs are in the same direction.
n n  v  v0  n
In question, vs = 0, n      v  2v  2v0  2v0  v
2 2 v
v
 v0 
2
 v  v0  n
21. C In Doppler’s effect, generally n 
 v  vs 
When v, v0 and vs are all in same direction of vs.
n = 450 cps, v0 = zero, vs = 34 m/s
v = 340 m/s
450  340 450  340

n    500 cps
 340  34  306
384
LEVEL III
1. A, B, C
2. A, B, C
3. A, B, C, D
4. A, B, C, D
5. A, B, D
Passage I
6. D Frequency of a wave is the number of wave produced in one second. Here, number of waves produced
in 3 seconds = 1500.
1500
So, number of waves produced in 1 second   500 Hz
3
7. C In a sound wave, the distance covered by a compression and an adjacent rarefaction is equal to half the
wavelength. This distance has been given to be 34 cm. So, the wavelength    of this sound wave is
68 cm.
68
8. B Here, f = 500 Hz,   68 cm   0.68 m, v  ?
100
Now, v = f ×  = 500 × 0.68 = 340 m/s
Passage II
Distance
9. A Speed 
Time taken or, Distance = Speed × time taken
Distance = 330 × 2 = 660 m
1
10. D We know that for listening an echo, there must be a time interval of at least th of a second. Here the
10
time taken by the sound to go from the deep sea diver to the undersea-rock, and return to the deep sea
diver as an echo is 0.1 seconds. So, time taken by the sound to go from the deep sea diver to the
0.1
undersea-rock will be half of this time, which is  0.05 seconds .
2
Here, speed of sound in water = 1500 m/s. So,
Distance = 1500 × 0.05 = 75 m.
11. B
Matrix Match type.
12. D
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. D
385

17. 1 v    400  2.5  1000 m/s  1 km/s
1 1
18. 2    2 Hz
T 0.5
v 345
19. 3    0.003m  3 mm
 115  103
8 v 160
20. 1 v  160 m/s ;   1 m
0.05  160
v 340
21. 8    0.08 m  8 cm
 4250
Reasoning Type.
T
22. B v and is independent of frequency. Both statements are independently true.

23. A When loaded the frequency decreases. So beat frequency changes depending on loading.
24. A The maximum frequency to which the human ear is sensitive is nearly 20,000 Hz. Waves with higher
frequencies are known as ultrasonic waves.
1
25. B The correct reason is the persistence of sound in human ear for about s . For two sound to be heard
10
as separate, they must be separated by 0.1 s. Therefore, the maximum number of beats per second,
heard as separate is 10. This corresponds to a frequency difference of 10 between two source
frequencies.
l
26. B The time period of simple pendulum is given by : T  2   . On the moon g is much smaller
g
compared to g on the earth. Therefore, T increases.
27. A A compression is a region of medium in which particles are compressed, i.e., particles come closer, i.e.,
distance between the particles becomes less than the normal distance between them. Thus, there is a
temporary decrease in volume and a consequent increase in density of medium. Similarly, in rarefaction,
particle get farther apart and a consequent decrease in density.
28. A
E
1. D Velocity of sound in a medium  v  , E is the modulus of elasticity and  is the density. E is larger

for steel Esteel  160 GPa , E water  2.15 GPa .
Density of steel 8050 kg/m3 density of water 103 kg/m3. And sound requires a medium for travel. So
sound has zero velocity in vacuum.
386
 v1  v 2 , v3  0
2. B Distance = Velocity × time
Distance travelled by sound in 1.5 sec = 1440 × 1.5 sec = 2160 m.
2160
In this time the light travelled to the bottom and reflected back. So actual depth of sea   1080 m
2
3. C
1
4. D Frequency  where T is the period of the wave. In fig. D, 2 oscillations are made in 6 sec.
T
6 1
 Period   3 sec  Frequency   0.33 s 1
2 3
1 1
In A, frequency  sec , in B frequency = sec
12 6
1
and in C frequency  sec
4
 In figure D, frequency is maximum.
E
5. D v .

Velocity is maximum in iron. Its Elasticity is 119 GPa, much larger than others.
6. B The pendulam are suspended from the same elastic support. So vibration of P will be transmitted to all
pendulam. But since the pendulam R is having the same length as that of P, it will be in resonance with
P. So R will be having the maximum amplitude.
7. B
8. C Frequency = 50 Vib/sec. So in 1 minute number of vibrations = 50 × 60 = 3000.
9. B Propagation of sound in air is an adiabatic change, so, total heat remains constant.
10. D Loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
Quantity of the sound depend on the waveform.
rRT
11. A v
M
vH M0 16
  4
v0 MH 1
 the ratio is 4 : 1.
387
12. A Distance travelled in 5 sec = 340 × 5 = 1700 m.

1700
 Distance of the body   0.85 km
2
13. C Cochlea is the inner part of the ear, which identifies the quality of sound.
14. B Radiology - is imaging by X-ray radiations.
15. C Frequencies less than 20 Hz cannot be heard. Such vibrations are classified as infrasonic waves.
44.1
16. B Velocity of sound   339 m/s
0.13
17. D when plane moves with a velocity  , sound moves down with a velocity V. The resultant is determined
 1 v
from geometry of figure sin 30    
v 2 2

30 v
60
18. C In 1 sec. disturbance produced in air moves 340 m.

19. D When sound travels energy is transferred.
20. D The middle ear consists of three bones known as hammer, anvil and stirrup. These three bones form a
kind of bridge and the last bone - stirrup, where the sound reaches last are connected to the oval
window of ear which enables hearing.
21. D 1280 = 256 × 5
256 is a fundamental frequency and 1280 is its harmonic. A harmonic is an integral multiple of some
reference signal
22. B Distance between two adjacent compressions or rarefaction is called a wavelength. So distance between
 3
a compression and rarefaction is half the wavelength    1.5 m
2 2
23. A Velocity = frequency × wavelength
v   v  10  103  10 103  30 m/s
3
 time taken to travel 3m   0.1 sec
30
24. B Let v is sound velocity and w speed of ear.
2  960 1920
  v  w  t  2  0.96 103 vw    320 m/s
6 6
 w  320  300  20 m/s
388
25. A d = 55 m, 2d = 110 m
2d 110
Time for the echo t    0.33 s
v 330
26. C For the echo to be available the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface should
be less than 17 m.
27. C The speed of sound in a gas is independent of pressure.
20 cm
28. B   8 cm  0.08 m
2.5
v 320
Frequency     4000 Hz
 0.08
29. B The first echo after 1.5 s, it had travelled to and fro in the direction of nearest cliff, so the distance
travelled in this time = 340 × 1.5 = 510 m; so the distance to the nearer cliff = 255 m.
3.5 sec 1.5 sec

595 m 255 m
850 m
The second echo is heard after 3.5 sec which had reached the other cliff and returned.
In 3.5 s, distance travelled = 1190 m.
1190
This is twice the distance travelled by it in that time. So distance to the farthest cliff =  595
2
So distance between cliff = 255 + 595 = 850 m.
30. A Loudness depends on amplitude of sound

I  A2
31. D
32. A
389
CHEMISTRY
STUDY OF GAS LAWS
LEVEL I
1. D 6. C 11. C 16. B 21. B 26. D

2. D 7. B 12. C 17. A 22. B 27. B
3. A 8. C 13. C 18. B 23. D 28. D
4. C 9. A 14. D 19. B 24. D 29. A
5. D 10. C 15. A 20. A 25. D 30. B
LEVEL II
1. D 6. B 11. B 16. A
2. C 7. B 12. A 17. C
3. C 8. B 13. A 18. B
4. D 9. B 14. D 19. B
5. D 10. A 15. D 20. B
LEVEL III
1. B, D 11. D
2. B, C 12. D
3. B, D 13. A
4. A, C, D 14. increases
5. 3 15. four times
6. 3 16. ideal gas
7. A-r; B-p; C-s; D-q 17. kinetic energy
8. A-s; B-p; C-r; D-q 18. diffusion
9. B 19. high, low
10. C 20. critical volume
390
KEY WITH HINTS

LEVEL I
1. D atmosphere, bar, pascals all are units measuring pressure.
2. D 1L = 103 cm3.
3. A
4. C
5. D Air expands on heating, therefore, its density decreases i.e., hot air is lighter. This is an application of
Charle’s law.
6. C Both P and V increase due to increase in moles of air.
7. B A gas ceases to exist at absolute zero. It is the lowest temperature which can be attained. It is equal to
–273.15oC. (The statement that volume becomes zero at absolute zero is not fully correct. Volume may
become negligible but not zero.)
8. C
 t  T
9. A P  T when V is constant Pt  Po  1   or Pt  Po when volume remains constant.
 273  273
10. C PV = nRT  P/T= nR/V.
11. C
12. C R is universal gas constant and has different values in different units.
13. C According to ideal gas equation, PV = nRT. Hence, if P, V and T are same, n will be same (of Avogadro’s
law).
1 M
14. D According to Graham’s law of diffusion. D  or   M  molar mass 
 V
15. A The gaseous state is the most energetic state of matter.
16. B K.E. = 3/2 RT
3R
17. A KE/molecule  .T
2N
18. B CO and N2 have the same molar mass.
2RT
19. B Most probable velocity, uMP  is the velocity acquired by majority of molecules.
M
20. A An increase in temperature increases speed of molecules.
21. B pV = nRT for ideal gas hence, pV  1

nRT
3 3
22. B KE  RT   2  300  900 cal
2 2
23. D Kinetic theory of gases proves all the given gas laws.
24. D Different particles of a gas have different speeds due to constant collisions and different kinetic energies.
1  PV = constant
25. D According to Boyle’s law, V  (at constant T)
P
391
26. D Molecular collisions are perfectly elastic so that there is no net loss of energy.
27. B Ideal gas cannot be liquified.
28. D
29. A By Dalton’s law of partial pressures, the total pressure of a mixture of two gases is the sum of the partial
pressures.
30. B
LEVEL II
P1
1. D Here, T2 = 2T1 and P2  ; V1  V, V2  ?
2
Final volume,
P1V1 T2 P1V 2T1
 V2      4V
T1 P2 T1 P1 /2
V1 V2 5 10
2. C According to Charle’s law,  or 
T1 T2 273 T2
10
 T2   273  546 K or 273o C
5
V1 V2
3. C 
T1 T2
V1= 2 L, T1 = 35 + 273 = 308 K
V2 = ?, T2 = 45 + 273 = 318 K
2
V2   318  2.06 L
308
Capacity of flask = 2 L
Volume of air escaped
= 2.06 – 2 = 0.06 L or 60 mL
4. D P1 = 3 atm, P2 = ?
T1 = –23 + 273 = 250 K
T2 = 273 + 30 =303 K
P1 P2 3 P
Using  ,  2
T1 T2 250 303
3  303
 P2   3.64 atm.
250
392
P1V1 P2 V2
5. D The correct relation is 
T1 T2
6. B P1V1 P2 V2 . When V  V , P1  P2 .
 1 2
T1 T2 T1 T2
P1 1 P2 1 2 2
But  ,   
T1 273 T2 273 546K 273o C
7. B
8. B At STP 22.4 L N2 gas = 1 mole
 At STP 2.24 L N2 gas = 0.1 mole
9. B PV = nRT. Keeping other conditions same, if n becomes half, the pressure will become half.
r1 M2 2 1
10. A   
r2 M1 32 4
2
3rx y  3r  y 9 x
11. B  or  x    or  1/ 9
rx x  rx   x 1  y
12  22  32  42
12. A r.m.s.   7.5
4
3
13. A KE  RT KE  T
2
KE H  298K KE He  298 K  KE H 2  KE He
3RT 1
14. D u . At constant T, u 
M M
Since H2 has the lowest molecular mass, u will be maximum for H2.
15. D Temperature is doubled in oC and not on Kelvin scale.
3RT 3  8.314  298

16. A u rms  ; 60 
M M
3  8.314  298
M  2.06
3600
Ump 2RT/M 2π 2π π
17. C     .
Uav 8RT/πM 8 2 2 2
393
18. B
2.8 / 28 0.1
19. B PN 2  Mole fraction  Ptotal   700   700  233.3 torr
2.8 2.8 4.4 0.3
 
28 28 44
20. B
LEVEL III
Multiple Correct Answer Type
1. B, D
Gases have very low intermolecular force between their molecules thus they can be compressed and
undergoes rapid diffusion.
2. B, C
P1V1 PV
P1V1  P2 V2 hence, V2  PV  nRT, hence R 
P2 ; nT
3. B, D
A) It is not equal masses but equal amounts of gases
B) An ideal gas does not involve molecular attractions
C) It is zero kelvin and not 0oC
D) The room temperature is much larger than the critical temperature.
4. A, C, D
Dalton’s law of partial pressure is applicable to non-reacting gases, NH3 and HCl are reacting gases, so
Dalton’s law will not be applicable.
Numerical Type
m 2.8
5. 3 n   0.1
M 28
nRT 0.1 0.0821 300

V   3L
P 0.821
6. 3 V1  3.25 L V2  ?
T1  0o C  273K T2  20 o C  253K
V1 V2 3.25 V2
 (P is constant)  V2 = 3L
T1 T2 273 253
Matching Column Type
7. A-r B-p C-s D-q
8. A-s B-p C-r D-q
394
Statement Type
9. B
10. C r  1/ M. As M O2  M N2 . Molecular size decreases from left to right along a period. Hence, molecular
size of O2 is smaller than that of N2.
11. D
Paragraph
12. D
3
13. A Kinetic energy of 1 mole of gas, E k  RT, therefore, for 0.1 mole of gas
2
3
KE   0.1 8.314  400  498.84 J
2
Fill in the blanks
14. increases
15. four times
16. ideal gas
17. kinetic energy
18. diffusion
19. high, low
20. critical volume
395
BIOLOGY
DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISM
LEVEL I
1. B 5. B 9. A 13. B 17. C
2. C 6. D 10. D 14. C 18. B
3. B 7. C 11. B 15. B 19. C
4. C 8. B 12. C 16. A 20. C
LEVEL II
1. A 5. A 9. A 13. B 17. B
2. D 6. B 10. C 14. C 18. A
3. B 7. B 11. C 15. C 19. C
4. C 8. C 12. C 16. B 20. C
LEVEL III
1. C 5. C 9. B 13. D 17. D
2. D 6. D 10. A 14. C 18. A
3. A 7. C 11. A 15. C 19. B
4. C 8. A 12. B 16. B 20. D
396
ADAPTATION
LEVEL I
1. C 5. C 9. D 13. C 17. D
2. B 6. B 10. D 14. A 18. C
3. A 7. A 11. C 15. B 19. D
4. D 8. B 12. D 16. B 20. B
LEVEL II
1. B 5. A 9. D 13. C 17. D
2. D 6. A 10. B 14. C 18. B
3. C 7. B 11. B 15. D 19. D
4. B 8. C 12. C 16. B 20. C
LEVEL III
1. C 5. D 9. C 13. A 17. D
2. A 6. C 10. B 14. B 18. D
3. C 7. B 11. C 15. C 19. B
4. C 8. A 12. C 16. D 20. C
397
IMPROVEMENT OF FOOD RESOURCES
LEVEL I
1. A 5. C 9. D 13. A 17. A
2. A 6. A 10. D 14. C 18. B
3. D 7. B 11. C 15. A 19. C
4. C 8. D 12. B 16. B 20. B
LEVEL II
1. A 5. B 9. B 13. C 17. C
2. D 6. C 10. B 14. B 18. C
3. B 7. D 11. C 15. C 19. A
4. C 8. C 12. D 16. A 20. C
LEVEL III
1. A 4. A 7. A 10. A 13. C
2. B 5. A 8. C 11. C 14. B
3. D 6. A 9. D 12. B 15. A
398
NATURAL RESOURCES
LEVEL I
1. B 5. C 9. A 13. C 17. D
2. C 6. C 10. D 14. C 18. C
3. D 7. D 11. B 15. A 19. C
4. B 8. B 12. D 16. B 20. B
LEVEL II
1. A 5. D 9. D 13. B 17. B
2. B 6. A 10. C 14. B 18. C
3. A 7. B 11. D 15. D 19. A
4. D 8. B 12. A 16. D 20. A
LEVEL III
1. D 5. B 9. C 13. D 17. B
2. C 6. A 10. B 14. C 18. D
3. B 7. A 11. C 15. D 19. D
4. A 8. C 12. B 16. C 20. D
399
MATHEMATICS
QUADRILATERALS & CIRCLES
LEVEL - I
1. B 6. C 11. D 16. B 21. C

2. A 7. C 12. C 17. D 22. D
3. B 8. D 13. A 18. D 23. A
4. C 9. C 14. D 19. C 24. A
5. C 10. A 15. B 20. D 25. C
LEVEL-II
1. A 7. C 13. B 19. D 25. B
2. D 8. C 14. C 20. D 26. D
3. B 9. A 15. C 21. C 27. C
4. C 10. B 16. D 22. C 28. D
5. C 11. D 17. C 23. B 29. B
6. B 12. C 18. D 24. C 30. C
LEVEL-III
1. B 5. D 9. C 13. B 17. 60
2. B 6. D 10. C 14. D 18. 2 cm
3. A 7. C 11. C 15. A 19. 1100
4. C 8. B 12. D 16. A 20. 5 cm
21. 8
22.
400
LINES AND ANGLES, TRIANGLES
LEVEL-I
1. A 6. A 11. C 16. D 21. C

2. B 7. B 12. B 17. C 22. D
3. A 8. B 13. C 18. D 23. B
4. A 9. D 14. A 19. B 24. C
5. B 10. D 15. D 20. D 25. A
LEVEL-II
1. C 7. D 13. C 19. D 25. D
2. B 8. C 14. B 20. B 26. A
3. A 9. A 15. B 21. C 27. C
4. D 10. D 16. C 22. C 28. D
5. B 11. D 17. A 23. B 29. D
6. C 12. B 18. C 24. B
LEVEL-III LEVEL-IV
1. D 6. D 1. 2 4. 5
2. B 7. A 2. 1 5. 0.75
3. A 8. C 3. 8
4. A 9. B
5. B 10. B
1. 1  e,(ii)  d,(iii)  c,(iv)  b, (v)  a
II. 1  e,(ii)  d,(iii)  c,(iv)  b, (v)  a
401
PERIMETER AND AREA OF PLANE FIGURES
LEVEL - I
1. A 7. A 13. B
2. D 8. C 14. D
3. B 9. B 15. C
4. C 10. D 16. B
5. D 11. C 17. D
6. C 12. B 18. A
LEVEL - II
1. C 6. D 11. A 16. A
2. C 7. A 12. B 17. C
3. C 8. A 13. D 18. B
4. A 9. D 14. D 19. C
5. A 10. A 15. B 20. D
LEVEL - III NUMERICAL

1. 0.2777
1. B
2. A 2. 1.732
3. C 3. 5
4. C 4. 8
5. A 5. 7.64
Matrix match
A  S, B  R,C  Q, D  P
402
AVERAGE, PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS
LEVEL - I
1. B 6. C 11. B 16. A
2. D 7. C 12. A 17. B
3. C 8. D 13. C 18. C
4. B 9. C 14. B 19. A
5. B 10. C 15. A 20. C
LEVEL - II
1. C 7. B 13. B 19. B 25. A

2. B 8. C 14. C 20. B 26. C
3. B 9. B 15. D 21. B 27. A
4. B 10. D 16. C 22. A 28. D
5. C 11. D 17. B 23. B 29. B
6. D 12. A 18. D 24. D 30. D
LEVEL - III
1. B 7. B 13. A 4. C
2. B 8. C 14. A 5. B
3. C 9. A Numerical Type Matrix match
4. C 10. B 1. 9 1. A-R; B-P; C-S; D-Q
5. D 11. C 2. 9 2. A-Q; B-P; C- S; D-R
6. B 12. B 3. C
403

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Integrated Programme(Class IX )Module - III

www.brilliantpala.org., email: brilliantstudycentre@gmail.com

3. Wave motion -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 48

3. Improvement of Food Resources ---------------------------------------------------------------- 151

4. Natural Resources and its Management --------------------------------------------------- 171

2. Lines, Angles and Triangles ----------------------------------------------------------------------- 244

3. Permimeter and Area of Plane Figures ------------------------------------------------------ 279

4. Average, Probability and Statistics ----------------------------------------------------------- 317

6.67 1011  6  1024  50

F is the net force on a sphere due to the other two.

gravity and is called the acceleration due to gravity.

(b) Mean Density of Earth :

 Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d,

As cos  and  are positive, thereforee g1  g

Thus acceleration due to gravity

Acceleration due to gravity (g) Universal gravitational constant (G)

Earth Red planet

Expression for Weight: If mass of a body = m

GM 6.67 1011  6  1024

GM 6.67 1011  6 1024

for earth Ve  2  9.8  6.4  106  11.2 km/s

Since sin v0  gR - orbital velocity

2GM 2G2M 8GM 2GM

By kinetic theory of gases.

3kT 3  1.38  1023

PLANETS AND SATELLITES

From this expression it clear that:

GMm GMm GMm L2

Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion

(ii) Law of Areas:

Then, according to Kepler’s second law,

9. A ball is thrown up, the value of g will be

A) 1.36  1014 J B) 2  7.21014 J C) 1.8 1014 J D) 0 J

A) 0.14 B) 0.5 C) 2.5 D) 5

9. The weight of a body of mass 15 kg on moon is: (2017)

A) 0.98 ms 2 B) 0.49 ms 2 C) 9.8 ms 2 D) 4.9 ms 21

A) 56  105 km B) 56  106 km C) 56 107 km D) 56  108 km

A) Given information is not sufficient B) gA > gg

= area × height of liquid column × density of liquid = a  h  

R.D. can be found in different ways.

weight of solid in air

weight of solid in air

Apparant loss of weight of a body in liquid

weight of solid in air 100  g 100

Density of body 8 103

(i) When W > B, the body will sink in the liquid.

Density of solid Volume of the immersed portion of the solid

A) 2  105 Nm 2 B) 3  105 Nm 2 C) 3.5  102 Nm 2 D) 4  105 Nm 2

A) 1.5  103 cm 3 B) 2.8  103 cm 3 C) 103 cm 3 D) 104 cm 3

ratio of pressures on them is .......

A) 2.0 103 kg f B) 2  104 kg f C) 2.8  103 kg f D) 3.5  103 kg f

A) 18.9 cm B) 15.28 cm C) 21.2 cm D) 12.5 cm

A) l decreases and h increases B) l increases and h decreases

A) 7.6  106  J B) 15.2 106   J C) 1.9 106   J D) 1 104   J

A) fall if    w B) remain unchanged, if   w

A) w' > w B) P' > P C) F' > F D) F' – w' = 0

7. What is the value of h?

12. Match the following.

Integer Answer Type.

NTSE PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

B) The cork is completely immersed in the liquid if  m1  m 2  12   m12  m 21  

 The Range is 3 × 10–2 m to 3 × 10–5 m