II PUC PCMB TOPPERS Date: 25/11/2023

Time:3H NEET MODEL Max. Marks: 720M

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. A parallel plate air capacity C, distance of separation between plates is d and potential difference V
is applied between the plates. Force of attraction between the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor
is
C 2V 2 CV 2 CV 2 C 2V 2
2
1) 2d 2) 2 d 3) d 4) 2d
2. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric K1 and K2 (K1<K2) are inserted between plates of a parallel
plate capacitor. As shown in the figure. The variation of electric field E between the plates with
distance d as measured from plate p is correctly shown by

1) 2) 3) 4)
3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged from a cell and then isolate from it. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant K is now introduced in the region between the plates. Filling half of it. The
electric field intensity in the dielectric is E1 and that in air is E2.

E2  1 E
E1  E1  1   E2 E1  2
E1  E2 K  K K 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4. Two condensers, one capacity C and connected to other C / 2 are connected to a V volt battery, as
shown

The work done in charging fully both the condensers is

1 3 1
2
CV 2 CV 2 CV 2
1) 2CV 2) 4 3) 4 4) 2
5. If the area of each plate is A and the successive separation are d12d and 3d. then the equivalent
capacitance across A and B is

0 A 0 A 3 0 A 2 0 A
1) 6d 2) 4d 3) 4d 4) d
6. The capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be
C V V C
, 3C , ,3V
1) 3 3 2) 3 3) 3 4) 3C ,3V
7. Four charges equal to -Q are placed at the corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If the
system is an equilibrium, the value of q is
Q

1)  1  2 2
4
 2)
Q
4
1 2 2  Q

3)  1  2 2
2
 4)
Q
2

1 2 2 
8. Two identical small conducting spheres carry identical charges. If the spheres are set at certain
distance apart, they repel each other with a force F. A third small conducting sphere, identical to the
other two, but initially uncharged, is then touched to one sphere, and then to the other before
removing it. The force between the original two sphere is now
F F 3F 3F
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 4 8
9. Under the influence of the coulomb field of charge +Q, a charge -q is moving in an elliptical orbit.
Find out the correct statement.
1) Linear momentum of the charge-q is conserved
2) Angular velocity of the charge -q is conserved
3) The linear speed of the charge -q is conserved
4) The angular momentum of the charge -q is conserved (about +Q)
10. In the diagram shown the charge +Q is fixed Another charge +2q is projected from a distance R from
1
a fixed charge. Minimum separation between the charges, if the velocity at this moment is of
3
velocity of projection is magnitude (Assume gravity to be absent)

3 R
1) 3R 2) R 3) 4) 4R
2 2
11. A 10.0g block with charge 8 105 C is placed in an electric field E  3 103 iˆ  600 ˆj in N/C. If the
block is released from rest at the origin at t  0, then the X coordinate of the block at t=3s is
1) 100m 2) 102m 3) 107m 4) 108m
12. A non conducting ring of radius R has uniformly distributed charge. A small part of the ring, of
length d, is removed (d<<R). The electric field at the centre of the ring will now be
1) Directed towards the gap, inversely proportional to R3
2) Directed towards the gap. Inversely proportional to R2
3) Directed away the gap, inversely proportional to R3
4) Directed a way the gap, inversely proportional to R3
13. Three point charges +q, -2q and +q are placed at points (x=0, y=a, z=0) (x=0, y=0, z=0) and (x=a,
y=0, z=0), respectively . the magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this
charges assembly are
1) 2qa long +y direction
2) 2aq along the line joining points (x=0, y=0, z=0) and (x=a, y=a, z=0)
3) qa along the line joining points (x=0, y=0, z=0) and (x=a, y=a, z=0)
4) 2aq along +x direction
14. An electric dipole of moment p is lying along a uniform electric field E. Work done in rotating the
Dipole by 900 is
pE
1) 2 pE 2) 3) 2 pE 4) pE
2
15. Two infinitely long parallel wires having liner charge densities 1 and 2 respectively are placed at
 1 
distance R. The force per unit length of the either wire will be  K  
 4 0 
 2    2      
1) k  12 2  2) k  1 2  3) k  1 22  4) k  1 2 
 R   R   R   R 
16. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb with in it. If  is the electric flux in unit of voltmeter
associated with the curved surface B , the flux linked with the plane surface A in unit of voltmeter
will be

1 q  q  q
1)    2) 3) 4) 
2  0  2 0 3 0
14. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E  Ar. A charge
contained in a sphere of radius ‘a’ centered at the origin of the field will be given by
1) 4 Aa 2 2) A o A2 3) 4 0 Aa3 4)  0 Aa3
18. Work done by an external force to move a negative charge from point A to point B is 7.00 104 J .
If
Charge was started from rest and had 2.10 104 J of kinetic energy when it reaches B , then
1) VA  VB 2) VA  VB 3) VA  VB 4) VA  VB
19. A thin spherical sphere has charge q and radius R. Consider two points A and B such that distance
of A from centre of the sphere is rA  rA  R  and distance of B from centre of the sphere is rB . The
potential difference between A and B is
1 1 1 1 1 1  1 1 1
1)    2)    3)    4) Zero
4 0  rA rB  4 0  R rB  4 0  rA R 
20. Two spherical condition of radii R1 and R2 are separated ny a distance much larger than the radius
of either sphere. The sphere are connected by a conducting wire in figure. If the charges on the
spheres in equilibrium are q1 and q2 , respectively, what is the ratio of the field at the surfaces of the
spheres?
 R2 R22 R1 R12
1) 2) 3) 4)
R1 R12 R2 R22
21. An electric is taken from point A to point B along AB in a uniform electric field to intensity
E  10Vm1 . Side AB=5m, and side BC=3m, Then, the amount of work done on the electron by us is

1) 50eV 2) 40eV 3) -50eV 4) -40eV

22. Charges -q, Q, And -q are placed at an equal distance on a straight line. If the total potential energy
Q
of the system of three charges is zero, then find the ratio .
q

1 1 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 3 4
23. Two identical particles of mass m and charge q are shot at other from a very great distance with an
initial speed V. The distance of closest approach of these charges is
q3 q2 q2
1) 2) 3) 4) Zero
8 0 mv 2 4 0 mv 2 2 0 mv 2
24. The variation of potential with distance R from the fixed point is shown in figure. The electric field
at R=5m is

1) 2.5 Vm-1 2) -2.5 Vm-1 3) 0.4 Vm-1 4) -0.4Vm-1

25. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. The electric field strength is

1) 100V/m along the x-axis 2) 100V/m along the y-axis

400
3) 400V/m at angle 1200 with x-axis 4) V/m at angle 1200 with x-axis
3
26. AB and CD are two large non parallel metallic plates connected to a battery as shown. If  A and  B
be charge densities at points A and B Respectively then

0
1)  A   B 2)  A   B 3)  A   B 4) data insufficient
27. n charged drops, each of radius r and charge q. coalesce to from a big drop of radius R and charge Q.
If V is the electric potential and E is the electric field at the surface of a drop, then
2 1 2 2
1) Ebig  n Esmall
3
2) Vbig  n Vsmall
3
3) Esmall  n Ebig
3
4) Vbig  n Vsmall
3

28. The charge per unit length of four quadrant of rings is 2 , 2 ,  and  respectively. The
electric field at the centre of the ring is
  2 ˆ 2 ˆ
1)  iˆ 2)  iˆ 3)  i 4) i
2 0 R 2 0 R 4 0 R 4 0 R
29. A large this plane sheet has uniform charge density  .An electron of mass m and charge e leaves
the surface at point A with speed u and returns to its at point B. Disregard gravity. The maximum
value of AB is
u 2 m 0 u 2 m 0 2u 2 m 0 u 2 me
1) 2) 3) 4)
e 2 e e  0
30. Give an equilateral triangle slide ‘l’. Find E at the centroid. The linear charge density as shown in
figure.

3 3 3 ˆ 3 ˆ 3 ˆ
1) ĵ 2)  j 3) j 4) j
 0 l 2 0 l 4 0 l 4 0 l
31. Six charges are placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon is shown in figure . the electric field on
the line passing through point ‘O’ and perpendicular to the plane of the fig. at a distance of x(x>0)
from ‘O’ is

1 Qa 1 Qa 1 Qa 1 Q  2a 
1) . 3 2) 3) 4)
2 0 x 4 0 x 3
 0 x 3
 0 x 3
32. Three concentric metallic spheres A, B and C have radii a, b and c(a < b< c) and surface charge
densities on them are  ,  and  respectively. The values of VA and VB will be
    a2  a2
1) a  b  c,  b c 2)  a  b  c  ,
0 0  b  c
0 0  a 2    a2
b2  
3) a  b  c,  b  c 
4)  c , a  b  c

  b  0  c c  0
33. At a distance r from a point located at origin in space. 1 the electric potential varies as V=10r. Find
the electric field at r  3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ
1) 
2 3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ  
2)  2 3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ   
3)  3 3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ 4) Zero

34. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 300 with an electric filed intensity 2 105 N / C . I t
experience a torque equal to 4Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is
1) 8 mC 2) 2 mC 3) 5 mC 4) 7 C
35. Four equal charges of magnitude q each are placed corners of a square with its centre at origin and
lying in y-z plane. A fifth charge +Q is moved along x-axis. The electrostatic potential energy (U)
varies on x-axis as

1) 2) 3) 4)
SECTION-B
36. A spherical shell of radius R1 with a uniform charge q has a point charge q0. At its center. Find the
work performed by the electric forces during the she;; expansion form radius R1 to radius R2

 q
q  q0  
2 1 1  qq0  1 1 
1) W      2) W    
4 0  R1 R2  4 0  R1 R2 
1 1
qq0 qq  1 1 
2) W     4) W  0   
2 0
 R1 R2   0  R1 R2 
37. A large insulated sphere of radius r charged with Q units electricity is placed in constant with a small
insulated uncharged sphere of radius r. and is then separated . the charge on the smaller sphere will
now be
Q  r ' r  Q  r ' r  Qr Qr '
1) 2) 3) 4)
r' r r ' r r ' r
38. Two metal spheres (radii r1, r2 with r1<r2) are very far apart but are connected by a thin wire. If their
combined Charge is Q. then what is their common potential?
 kQ kQ kQ kQ
1) 2) 3)  4) 
 r1  r2   r1  r2   r1  r2  r1r2
39. Variation in potential is maximum if one goes
1) along the line of force 2) Perpendicular to the line of force
3) in any direction 4) None of these
40. There is an infinite straight chain of alternating charges q and -q. The distance between the two
neighbouring charges is equal to a. Find the interaction energy of any charge with all the other
charges.
2q 2 2q 2 log e 2 2q 2 log e 2
1)  2) 3)  4) Zero
4 0 4 0 a 4 o a
41. Variation of electrostatic potential along the x-direction is shown in figure. The correct statement a
bout electric field is

1) x-component at point B is maximum

2) x-component at point A is towards positive x-axis
3) x-component at point C is along negative x-axis
4) x-component at point C is along positive x-axis
42. The four capacitors, each of 25  F are connected as shown in figure. The DC voltmeter reads 200
V. The charge on each plate of capacitor is

1) 2 103 c 2) 5 103 c 3) 2 102 c 4) 5 102 c

43. Two identical capacitors , have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and
the other to V2. The negative ends are also connected, the decrease in energy of the combined system
is

1) C V12  V22  2) C V12  V22 

1 1 1 1
3) C V1  V2  4) C V1  V2 
2 2

4 4 4 4
44. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged
capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system
1) increase by a factor of 4 2) decrease by a factor of 2
3) remains the same 4) increase by a factor of 2
45. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected
from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air of the capacitor is now
inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect.
1) The potential difference between the plates decreases k times
2) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times
1 1 
3) The charges in energy stored is CV 2   1
2 K 
4) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved
46. A glass rod rubbed with fur is used to charge a gold leaf electroscope and the leaves are observed
to diverge. The electroscope disc is then exposed to X rays for short period. Then
1) SThe divergence of leaves is not affected 2) The leaves diverge further
3)The leaves will collapse 4) The leaves will melt
47. A girl brings a positively charged rod near a thin neutral stream of water from a tap. She observed
that the water stream bends towards her. Instead, if she were bring a negatively charged rod near to
the stream, it well
1) Bend in the same direction 2) Bend in the opposite direction
3) Not bend at all 4) Bend in the opposite direction and below the rod
48. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are checked pairwise. Pair (1,2), (2,3) and (4,1) show electrostatic
attraction while pairs (2,3) and (4,5) show repulsion. Ball 1 must be
1) Positively charged 2) Negativity charged
3) Neutral 4) Either positively charged or negatively charged.
49. The charges are placed as shown

Components of force -q, are

qq qq  kq q  q ql 2 q q  kq q
1) k  1 2 2  1 2 2 sin   iˆ,  12 2 cos  ˆj 2) k  1 2  1 2 2 cos   ˆj,  12 2 sin  ˆj
 b a  a  b a  a
qq qq  kq q qq qq  kq q
3) k  1 2 2  1 2 2 sin   iˆ,  1 22 sin  ˆj 4) k  1 2 2  1 2 2  iˆ,  12 2 cos  ˆj
 b a  2a  b a  a

50. Three charges each of value of +q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. A fourth charge
Q is placed at the centre of the triangle. For what value of Q will the system be in equilibrium?
4 3q 4 3q q q
1) Q   2) Q   3) Q   4) Q  
9 9 4 4
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A

51. . X is

1) 2) 3) 4)
52. C2 H5OH  SOCl2  x  y  z in this reaction x, y and z respectively are
Pyridine

1) C2 H 4Cl2 , SO2 , HCl 2) C2 H 5Cl , SO2 , HCl

3) C2 H 5Cl , SOCl , HCl 4) C2 H 4 , SO2 , Cl2 \
53. When ethyl bromide is treated with moist Ag2O , main product is
1) Ethyl ether 2) Ethanol 3) Ethoxy ethane 4) All of the above
54. In the reaction sequence C2 H5Cl  KCN 
C2 H5OH
 X . What is the molecular formula of X is
1) C2 H 5CN 2) C2 H 5 NC 3) C2 H 5OH 4) C2 H 8O
55. Identify A, B and C in the following reactions.

CH 3Cl 
KCN
 A 
Hydrolysis
H O
 B 
C2 H 5OH / H

C
3

A B C
1) CH 3 NC CH 3 NHCH 3 CH 3CO2C2 H 5 2) CH 3CN CH 3CONH 2 CH 3COOH
3) CH 3CN CH 3COOH CH 3CO2C2 H 5 4) CH 3CN CH 3COOH  CH 3CO 2 O

56. The compound (B) in the below reaction is C2 H5Cl 
KCN
 A 
H3O
B
1) Ethylene chloride 2) Acetic acid 3) Propionic acid 4) Ethyl cyanide
57. The following is an example of Sandmeyer reaction.
    H O/ 
1) C6 H5 N2 Cl 
C6 H5Cl 2) C6 H5 N2 Cl C6 H5OH
CuCl / HCl 2

   
3) C6 H 5 N 2 Cl  C6 H 5 F 4) C6 H5 N2 Cl 
C6 H5 I
4 HBF KI / warm

58. Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions as compared to alkyl halides
due to
1) The formation of less stable carbonium 2) Resonance stabilisation
3) Inductive effect 4) Larger carbon halogen bond

59.
Identify ‘B’.

1) 2)

3) 4)
60. Match the reaction given in Column-I with the names given in Column-II.
Column I Column II

i) a) Fitting reaction

ii) b) Wurtz fitting reaction

iii) c) Finkelstein reaction

iv) C2 H5Cl  NaI C2 H5 I  NaCl
dry acetone
d) Sandmeyer reaction
 1) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c 2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c 3) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d 4) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
61. Chloropicrin is
1) Trichloro acetaldehyde 2) Nitro chloroform
3) 2,4,6-trinitro phenol 4) None of these
62. 2CHCl3  O2 
X
 2COCl2  2HCl
In the above reaction, X stands for
1) An oxidant 2) A reductant 3) Light and air 4) None of these

63.

1) 2) 3) 4)

64. .
‘X’ is

1) 2)

3) 4)
65. CH 3  CHBr  CH 3 
alc . KOH
 A 
HBr
peroxide
 B NaI
acetone
 C . C is
CH 3  CH  CH 3 CH 3  CH  CH 2 I
1) CH3  CH 2CH 2 I 2) | 3) | 4) CH3  CH  CHI
I I
66. CH 4 
Br2 / hv
 A 
Na / dry ether
B 
Br2 / hv
C 
Na / dry ether
D , D is
1) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  CH3 2) CH3  CH 2  O  CH 2  CH3
3) CH3  CH  CH 3   CH  CH 3   CH 3 4) CH3  CH 2  CH3
67. .
Z is

1) 2)

3) 4)
68. Order of nucleophilicity in polar aprotic solvent?
       
1) I  Br  Cl  F 2) F  Cl  Br  I
       
3) I  Cl  Br  F 4) F  I  Br  Cl
69. Identify the Z in the following series
C2 H5 I 
alc. KOH
 X 
Br2
Y 
Excess of KCN
Z
1) Br  CH 2  CH 2  CN 2) CH3  CH 2  CN
3) NC  CH 2  CH 2  CN 4) Br  CH 2  CH 2  Br
CH 3
|
70. CH 3  C  Br 
alc . KOH
 X 
HBr
peroxide
 Y , Y is
|
CH 3
CH 3  CH  CH 2 Br CH 3  CH  CH 2OH
1) | 2) |
CH 3 CH 3
3) CH3  C  CH 3   CH 2 4) CH3  CH 2CH 2  CH 2 Br

71.
Z is
1) Toulene 2) Biphenyl 3) 4-chlorotoulene 4) Ethyl benzene
72. Order of nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent?
       
1) I  Br  Cl  F 2) F  Cl  Br  I
       
3) I  Cl  Br  F 4) F  I  Br  Cl
73. Which of the following species is most reactive in an S N 2 reaction?
1) CH3CH 2  Cl 2) CH3CH 2  Br 3) CH3CH 2  I 4) CH3CH 2  F

74.
‘Y’ is
1) C6 H 4Cl2 2) C6 H3Cl3 3) C6 H5  C6 H5 4) C6 H 5  C2 H 5
75. CCl4 cannot give precipitate with AgNO3 due to
1) Formation of complex with AgNO3 2) Evolution of gas
3) It does not ionise to give chloride ion 4) Does not give silver ion
76. Methyl halide with highest dipole moment is?
1) CH3 F 2) CH3Cl 3) CH3 Br 4) CH 3 I
77. When a mixture containing PCl3 and PCl5 is heated with ethyl alcohol total of 4 moles of ethyl
chloride is formed. Mole ratio of PCl3 and PCl5 in the mixture is
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 3 4) 2 : 1
78. Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
1) Chlorobenzene 2) 2,4,6 – Trinitrochloro benzene
3) 2, 4 – Dinitro chlorobenzene 4) 2 – nitro chlorobenzene
79. The alkane which gives two isomeric mono chlorides including stereoisomers on photo chemical
chlorination is
1) Ethane 2) Butane 3) Pentane 4) Propane
80. Which of the following compound undergoes replacement of Cl by OH merely warming with aq
NaOH.

1) 2) 3) 4)
81. Assertion: CHCl3 is stored in dark bottles.
Reason: CHCl3 is oxidised in dark.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
82. Assertion: CH 2  CH  CH 2  X is an example of allyl halides.
Reason: These are the compounds in which the halogen atom is bonded to an sp2 hybridised carbon
atom.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
 2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
83. Assertion: CCl4 is a fire extinguisher.
Reason: CCl4 is insoluble in water.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
84. Identify A and predict the type of reaction.

1) and elimination addition reaction.

2) and cine substitution reaction

3) and cine substitution reaction

4) and substitution reaction

85. Match List-I with List-II.
I-Bromopropane is reacted with reagents in List I to give product in List-II.
List I (Reagent) List II (Product)
A) KOH (alc) I) Nitrile
B) KCN (alc) II) Ester
C) AgNO2 III) Alkene
D) H 3CCOOAg IV) Nitroalkane
 1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
SECTION-B
86. The major product (P) in the reaction

1) 2)

3) 4)
CH 3 CH 3
| |
 
87. The major product in the reaction CH 3  C  Cl  K O  C  CH 3  ?
| |
CH 3 CH 3
1) t-Butyl ethyl ether 2) 2, 2 – Dimethyl butane
3) 2-Methyl pent-1-ene 4) 2-Methyl prop-1-ene
88. In the given reactions sequence, the major product ‘C’ is
C8 H10 
HNO3
H 2 SO4
 A 
Br2

 B 
alcoholic
KOH
C

1)

2)

3)

4)
89. In S N 2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds.
CH 3Cl , CH 3CH 2Cl ,  CH 3 2 CHCl and  CH 3 3 CCl is
1) CH 3Cl   CH 3 2 CHCl  CH 3CH 2Cl   CH 3 3 CCl
2) CH 3Cl  CH 3CH 2Cl   CH 3 2 CHCl   CH 3 3 CCl
3) CH 3CH 2Cl  CH 3Cl   CH 3 2 CHCl   CH 3 3 CCl
4)  CH 3 2 CHCl  CH 3CH 2Cl  CH 3Cl   CH 3 3 CCl
90. C2 H5 Br 
AgCN
 X 
Re duction
Zn  Hg / HCl
Y , Here Y is
1) Ethyl methyl amine 2) n-propylamine
3) Isopropylamine 4) Ethylamine
91. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by S N 2 mechanism because of
1) Steric hindrance 2) Inductive effect
3) Instability 4) Insolubility
92. The major product formed in the Friedel-Craft acylation of chlorobenzene is

1) 2)

3) 4)
93. The incorrect statement regrading chirality is
1) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other.
2) A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
3) SN1 reaction yields 1:1 mixture of both enantiomers.
4) The product of obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows
inversion of configuration.
94. The correct order of the following compounds showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction is
 1) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) 2) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
3) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii) 4) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
95. In an SN1 reaction on chiral centres there is
1) 100% racemization
2) Inversion more than retention leading to partial racemization.
3) 100% retention
4) 100% inversion
96. Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
1) A mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br 2) A mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br
3) A mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br 4) A mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
97. In the following halogenated organic compounds the one with maximum number of chlorine atoms
in its structure is
1) Chloral 2) Gammaxene 3) Chloropicrin 4) Freon-12
98. Which of the following is true about freons?
1) These are chlorofluorocarbon compounds
2) These are chemicals causing skin cancer
3) These are radicles of chlorine and chlorine monoxide
4) All radicles are called freons
99. Chlorobenzene reacts with trichloroacetaldehyde in the presence of H 2 SO4 .

The major product formed is

1)

2)
 3)

4)
100. Among the following, the molecule with the lowest dipole moment is
1) CHCl3 2) CH 3Cl 3) CH 2Cl2 4) CCl4
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiosperm embryo sac?
1) Brings about opening of the pollen tube.
2) Guide the pollen tube into a synergid
3) Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid.
4) None of these
102. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
1) Endothecium 2) Microspore mother cells 3) Microspore tetrads 4) Pollen grains
103. The innermost layer of anther is tapetum whose function is
1) Dehiscence 2) Mechanical 3) Nutrition 4) Protection
104. ______ of the pollen grain divides to form two male gametes.
1) Vegetative cell 2) Generative cell 3) Microspore mother cell 4) None of these
105. What is the function of germ pore?
1) Emergence of radicle 2) Absorption of water for seed germination
3) Germination of pollen tube 4) All of these
106. Male gametophyte in angiosperms is represented by
1) Anther 2) Androecium 3) Microsporangium 4) Pollen grain
107. Coleoptile and coleorhiza are the protective sheaths covering _____ and _____ respectively.
1) Plumule, Epicotyl 2) Radicle, Plumule 3) Plumule, Radicle 4) Radicle, Hypocotyl
108. Megasporangium along with its protective integuments is called
1) Ovary 2) Ovule 3) Funicle 4) Chalaza
109. Monosporic development is referred to as
1) Single megaspore develops into embryo sac.
2) Single megaspore mother cell undergoing meiosis.
3) Presence of single ovule in ovary
4) None of these
110. Typical female gametophyte is
1) 7-celled and 8 nucleated 2) 8-celled and 7 nucleated
3) 7-celled and 6 nucleated 4) 6-celled and 8 nucleated
111. Which of these is a condition that makes flowers invariably autogamous?
1) Dioecy 2) Self-incompatibility 3) Cleistogamy 4) Xenogamy
112. ________ is a type of pollination which is functionally (involving pollinating agent) similar to cross
pollination and genetically (pollen grain comes from same plant) similar to self-pollination.
1) Xenogamy 2) Geitonogamy 3) Autogamy 4) All of these
113. The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilization in angiosperms are
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
114. ______ is not an endospermic seed.
1) Pea 2) Castor 3) Maize 4) Wheat
115. Polyembryony commonly occurs in
1) Banana 2) Tomato 3) Potato 4) Citrus
116. The portion of embryo above the cotyledon is called _______ and below the cotyledon is called is
________ respectively.
1) Epicotyl, Hypocotyl 2) Hypocotyl, Epicotyl
3) Plumule, Radical 4) Radical and Plumule
117. Triploid condition is observed in
1) Egg cell 2) Synergid 3) Antipodals 4) primary endosperm nucleus
118. In a fertilized embryo sac the haploid diploid and triploid structure are
1) Synergid, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
2) Synergid antipodal and Polar nuclei
3) Antipodal, Synergid and Primary endosperm nucleus
4) Antipodal, Polar nuclei and Zygote
119. A female gametophyte develops from
1) Sporogenous tissue of microsporangium 2) Nucellus
3) Pollen mother cell 4) Thalamus
120. The number of chromosomes in the megaspore of an angiosperm is 24. What would be the number
of chromosomes in the cells of its endosperm?
1) 12 2) 24 3) 48 4) 72
121. If the number of chromosomes in the gametes of potato is 24, then what is the chromosome number
in its meiocytes?
1) 12 2) 24 3) 36 4) 48
122. The number of chromosomes in meiocytes of onion is 16. What would be the number of
chromosomes in their microspore mother cells and gametes respectively?
1) 8 and 8 2) 16 and 8 3) 16 and 16 4) 8 and 16
123. The radical and root cap in a seed are enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called
1) Coleorrhiza 2) Scutellum 3) Coleoptile 4) Epiblast
124. Emasculation is not required when flowers are
1) Self-pollinated 2) Bisexual 3) Unisexual 4) Monoecious
125. Tassels in corncob represent
1) Ovary 2) Anther 3) Filament 4) Stigma and Style
126. The nutritive layer for the developing embryo is
1) Nucellus 2) Tapetum 3) Endosperm 4) Megaspore mother cell
127. The figure below shows five steps (A, B, C, D, E) of embryo development.
Select the option giving correct identification together with what is represents?

1) C – Represents heart shaped embryo 2) D – Formed by meiosis in zygote

3) C – Represents globular embryo 4) A – Formed by triple fusion
128. In which of the following plants, the nucellar cells start dividing and develop into the embryos?
1) Citrus and Mango 2) Parthenium and Grasses
3) Pea and Gram 4) Wheat and Rice
129. Read the following four statement (A-D) with respect to flowering plants
A) Ploidy of the cells of the tetrad is haploid.
B) The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.
C) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about 100-200 micrometers in diameter.
D) Exine of pollen grain has prominent apertures, called germ pores, where sporopollenin is absent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
130. Which of the following statements are correct?
1) The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the region called chalaza.
2) Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell above the egg apparaus.
3) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
4) Pollen tube releases the two male gametes into cytoplasm of egg cell.
131. The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac
1) Through one of the two synergids 2) By directly penetrating the egg cell
3) Between one synergid and central cell 4) By degenerating the antipodal cell
132. Match the following
List-A List-B
A) Sporopollenin I) Generative cell
B) Pecto cellulose II) Exine of pollen grain organic material
C) Large irregular shaped nucleus III) Pollen tube
D) Spindle shaped cell IV) Vegetative cell
A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) II III IV I
3) I III II IV
4) II III I IV
133. Find out the correct statement.
I) In coconut, white kernel is cellular endosperm.
II) Endosperm is completely consumed by developing embryo in castor seed.
III) Endosperm id present in mature seeds in coconut.
IV) Endosperm is not found in mature seeds of beans.
1) I, II & III 2) II, III & IV 3) I, III & IV 4) III only
134. Assertion: Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.
Reason: Sporopollenin is present in exine of seeds.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
135. Statement I: All aquatic plants use water for pollination.
Statement II: Aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by water.
1) Both statements are correct
2) Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect & Statement II is correct
4) Both statements are incorrect
 SECTION-B
136. Which statements are correct for anemophily (Wind pollination)?
i) Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination.
ii) Pollination by wind is more common amongst biotic pollinations.
iii) Wind pollination also requires that the pollen grains are light and non-sticky.
iv) They often possess well-exposed stamens and large often-feathery stigma.
v) Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed
into an inflorescence.
vi) Wind pollination is uncommon in grasses.
1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi) 2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) 3) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) 4) All of these
137. Persistent nucellus is called as ______ and is found in _________.
1) Perisperm, Black pepper 2) Perisperm, Groundnut
3) Endosperm, Black pepper 4) Endosperm, Groundnut
138. Choose the number of diploid structure from the list.
Pollen grains, Nucellus, Perisperm, Endosperm, Megaspore, Megaspore mother cell.
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
139. Each fruit consisting many tiny seeds is observed in
I) Orobanche II) Striga III) Ficus IV) Orchids
1) IV only 2) III & IV only 3) I & II only 4) I, II, III and IV
140. The proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
1) Thalamus 2) Petal of the flower 3) Anther 4) Both (1) and (2)
141. A typical angiosperm anther is _____.
1) Monolobed 2) Bilobed 3) Tetralobed 4) Hexalobed
142. Which is the correct sequence for embryogenesis in dicots?
1) Zygote  Globular shaped embryo  Proembryo  Heart shaped embryo  Mature embryo
2) Zygote  Heart shaped embryo  Globular shaped embryo  Mature embryo  Proembryo
3) Zygote  Proembryo  Heart shaped embryo  Globular shaped embryo  Mature embryo
4) Zygote  Proembryo  Globular shaped embryo  Heart shaped embryo  Mature embryo
143. Ovules generally differentiate ______ Megaspore mother cell/s in the _______ region of the _____
1) Many, Micropylar, Nucellus 2) Single, Chalazal, Nucellus
3) Single, Micropylar, Nucellus 4) Many, Chalazal, Integument
144. Double fertilization is a characteristic of
1) Gymnosperms 2) Bryophytes 3) Angiosperms 4) Pteridophytes
145. An example of a naturally occurring parthenocarpic fruit is
1) Guava 2) Mango 3) Banana 4) Apple
146. Read the following lists and identify the correct match.
List I List II
A) Lupinus arcticus I) Some sps of Asteraceae
B) Phoenix dactylifera II) Mango
C) Apomictic seeds III) Grapes
D) Polyembryony IV) King Herod’s palace
V) Arctic tundra
A B C D
1) V IV I II
2) V IV I III
3) I II III IV
4) V IV III I
147. Assertion: Synergids are present at the micropylar end of embryo sac.
Reason: Antipodals are vegetative cells of embryo sac.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
148. Identify the incorrect statement(s) regarding double fertilization.
Syngamy Triple fusion
I) Number of male gametes involved 1 1
II) Number of female gametes involved 2 2
III) Number of genomes involved 2 3
IV) Number of paternal genomes involved 1 1
1) I, III only 2) III only 3) III, IV only 4) II only
149. Assertion: Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
Reason: Endosperm provides nutrition to developing embryo.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
150. Stalk with which ovules remain attached to placenta is called
1) Funicle 2) Raphe 3) Hilum 4) Chalaza
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. One of the following is not a character of infundibulum of fallopian tubule in human.
1) It possess finger like projections called fimbriae 2) It is closer to the ovary
3) It leads to ampulla 4) It is a inverted pear shaped structure
152. Glandular layer of uterine wall is
1) Epimetrium 2) Endometrium 3) Myometrium 4) Perimetrium
153. Primary follicle in female consists of primary oocyte then secondary follicle consists of
1) Secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase-II 2) Secondary oocyte finished meiosis-II
3) Primary oocyte 4) Ovum /ootid
154. Read the following and find out correct answer.
Assertion (A): Usage of condoms give privacy to the user.
Reason (R): They can be self-inserted or used.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
155. ‘X’ and ‘Y ‘are interdigitated to form placenta. In the above statement ‘X’ and ‘Y ‘are
X Y
1) Chorionic villi Uterine tissue
2) Uterine tissue Maternal blood
3) Inner cell mass Chorionic villi
4) Chorionic villi Umbilical cord
156. Observe the following diagram and identify the incorrect.

1) ‘A’ helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes

2) ‘B’ is included under male sex accessory ducts
3) ‘D’ helps in the lubrication of the penis.
4) ‘C’ allows the passage of semen and urine
157. Traditional methods of contraception work on the principle of
1) Altering the quality of cervical mucus 2) Inactivation of sperms
3) Suppression of sperm motility 4) Avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting
158. A couple is not able to produce children inspite of unprotected sexual co-habitation and it is noticed
that husband has low sperm count in his semen. What would you suggest the best ‘ART’, if you are a
Doctor ?
1) GIFT 2) Artificial insemination 3) ZIFT 4) IUT
159. Read the following and find out correct answer.
Assertion (A): Barrier methods can prevent conception.
Reason (R): Barriers can prevent physical meeting between ovum and sperm
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
160. Which of the following ‘ART’ involves in vivo fertilization ?
1) IVF 2) GIFT 3) ICSI 4) ZIFT
161. One of the important reason why side effects are almost nil in coitus interruption, lactational
amenorrhea and periodic abstinence?
1) They avoid ejaculation 2) No medicines or devices are used
3) Pregnancy chances are nil 4) Couples abstain from coitus
162. Commonality between natural methods and barrier methods
1) Both methods work on the principle of avoiding menstrual cycle
2) Both methods avoid ovulation
3) Both methods avoid chances of meeting of ovum and sperm
4) Both methods are harmful
163. Additional benefit of condoms apart from contraception is
1) They are reusable
2) They avoid pain during coitus
3) They protect user from contracting STDs
4) They avoid physical meeting between sperm and ovum
164. Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults can not provide protection from STDs.
Reason (R): They cover only cervix but not vagina.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
165. Which of the following is not a function of pills?
1) Inhibition of ovulation 2) Inhibition of implantation
3) Alteration of the quality of cervical mucus to prevent entry of sperms 4) Sterilisation
166. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-I: Intentional or Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical
termination of pregnancy
Statement-II: Medical termination of pregnancy is a best birth control method.
1) Both statements are correct 2) Both statements are false
3) Statement I only correct 4) Statement II only correct
167. Highly effective technique with very poor reversibility for birth control from the following
1) Emergency contraceptives 2) Sterilisation methods
3) Coitus interruption 4) Periodic abstinence
168. Incorrect match from the following.
1) Legalization of MTP-1951
2) In-vivo fertilisation-Fusion of gametes within the female reproductive tract
3) ICSI-Sperm is directly injected into the ovum
4) Incurable STDs-Hepatitis –B, Genital herpes & HIV
169. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column I Column II
A. Copper releasing IUD (i) LNG-20
B. Hormone releasing IUD (ii) Lippes loop
C. Non medicated IUD (iii) Saheli
D. Non steroidal pill (iv) Multiload-375
1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii 2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii 4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
170. Which one of the following device, exclusively acts on the sperms to prevent conception ?
1) Implant 2) Progestasert 3) LNG-2O 4) CuT
171. Ratio of sperms carrying X-chromosome and sperms carrying Y-chromosomes, during
spermatogenesis in male human beings is
1) 1: 3 2) 1:1 3) 3:1 4) 0: 4
172. Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into
1) Uterus 2) Fallopian tube 3) Fimbriae 4) Cervix
173. Study the following
A) Gestation B) Fertilisation C) Gametogenesis D) Parturition
E) Insemination F) Implantation
The correct order of reproductive events is
1) C-E-B-A-F-D 2)C-E-D-F-A-B 3) B-E-C-A-D-F 4) C-E-B-F-A-D
174. Inter seminiferous tubular cells are
1) Male germ cells 2) Spermatogonia 3) Leydig cells 4) Sertoli cells
175. Birth canal constitutes
1) Cervical canal & uterus 2) Vagina & cervical canal
3) Womb & ampulla 4) Cervical canal & womb
176. Which of the following is correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
1) Menstruation: Breakdown of myometrium and occur for 14 days
2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and release of primary oocyte.
3) Proliferative phase :: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
4) Secretory phase : Development of corpus luteum and increased secretion of progesterone.
177. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
1) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
2) Spermatogenesis is stopped after vasectomy
3) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
4) Reversibility is very poor
178. Identify the correct conclusion regarding A, B & C.

1) The edges of C posses finger like projections called fimbriae

2) ‘B’ has narrow lumen
3) A’ wider part of the oviduct
4) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
179. Epididymis is
1) Network of sinuses between seminiferous tubules and vasa efferentia
2) Intermediate structure between rete testis and vasa efferentia
3) A long coiled tube between vasa efferentia and vas deferens
4) Connection between vas deferens and seminal vesicle
180. Separation of eyelids and formation of eyelashes are observed in the developing foetus in/by
1) First trimester 2) Fifth month 3) The end of 24 weeks 4) Seventh month
181. Which of the following represents morula stage during human embryonic development

182. Though all persons are vulnerable to STD infections but their incidences are reported to be
very high among persons of the age group
1) 25-35 years 2) 15-24 years 3) 5-15 years 4) 40-50 years
183. Match the following.

1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) 2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) 4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
184. Which of the following is an exclusive placental hormone?
1) Estrogen 2) Human chorionic gonadotropin
3) Progesterone 4) Relaxin
185. (i) Cervical canal (ii) Mons pubis (iii) Hymen (iv) Uterus (v) Labia minora
(vi) Labia majora (vii) Clitoris (viii) Uterine tube
How many are not included in female external genitalia.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
SECTION-B
186. Final release of sperms from sertoli cells into seminiferous tubule is called as
1) Spermiogenesis 2) Spermiation 3) Spermatogeness 4) All of the above
187. (i) Spermatozoa (ii) Secondary Spermatocytes (iii) Spermatids
(iv) Primary Spermatocytes (v) Spermatogonia
How many are haploid
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
188. Which of the following statement is/are correct about diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults?
A) Barrier methods of contraception B) Cover the cervix during coitus
C) Releases progesterone D) They are reusable
1) A & B only 2) A, B & C 3) A, B & D 4) A, B, C & D
189. ‘Saheli’ a new oral contraceptive developed by
1) All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences 2) Central Drug Research Institute
3) Health Care Pvt. Ltd. 4) Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp. Ltd.
190. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is
1) progesterone 2) growth hormone 3) thyroxine 4) luteinizing hormone
191. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of events leading to the formation of mature
sperm?
1) Spermatogonium → Secondary spermatocyte → Primary spermatocyte → Spermatids →
Sperms.
2) Spermatogonium → Spermatids → Secondary spermatocyte → Primary spermatocyte →
Sperms.
3) Spermatids → Primary spermatocyte → Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatogonium
→ Sperms.
4) Spermatogonium → Primary spermatocyte → Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatids →
Sperms.
192. Which of the following are the reasons for population explosion?
(i) Increased health facilities (ii) Rapid increase in MMR
(iii) Rapid increase in IMR (iv) Rapid decrease in MMR
(v) Decrease in number of people reaching reproducible age
1) (i) and (iv) 2) (iii) and (v) 3) (ii) and (iv) 4) (i) and (v)
193. The given figure shows one of the intrauterine device. Select the option which shows the
correct identification of the device and its feature.

1) CuT; suppress sperm motility and its fertilizing capacity.

2) Cu7; make uterus unsuitable for the attachment of blastocysts.
3) Lippes loop; protect the users from contracting AIDS and STDs.
4) LNG - 20; acts as spermicidal means and decrease the contraceptive efficiency.
194. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements
A) Barrier methods are available for both males and females
B) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with help of
barriers.
C) Condoms are made of thin rubber/latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in male or vagina
and cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen would not enter into the
female reproductive tract
D) Both the male and female condoms are reusable, can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to
the user
E) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the female
reproductive tract to cover cervix during coitus. These barriers are disposable.
1) A and B 2) D and E 3) C and D 4) B and C
195. Statement 1: Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle is called fertile period.
Statement 2: Chances of fertilisation during day 10 to 17 are very high.
1) Statement 1 & 2 are correct
2) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
4) Both Statement 1&2 are incorrect
196. Statement 1: During pregnancy, the levels of hormones like estrogens, progestrogens, cortisol,
prolactin, thyroxine etc., are increased several folds in the maternal blood
Statement 2: Increased production of these hormones is not essential for supporting the foetal
growth
1) Statement 1 & 2 are correct
2) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
4) Both Statement 1&2 are incorrect
197. Assertion (A):- Cu releasing IUD prevent the fertilization.
Reason (R):- Cu releasing IUD suppress the sperm motility and the fertilization capacity of sperm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.
1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is true but R is false
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
198. Assertion (A):- Mammary glands start producing milk towards the end of pregnancy.
Reason (R):- Milk produced during initial few days of lactation is called colostrum.
1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is true but R is false
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
199. Identify the A, B and C in given figure :

1) A-Seminal vesicle, B-Prostate gland, C-Bulbourethral gland

2) A-Prostate gland, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Cowper’s gland
3) A-Cowper’s gland, B-Prostate gland, C-Seminal vesicle
4) A-seminal vesicle, B-Cowper’s gland, C-Prostate gland
200. India initiated family planning program in _______ .
1) 1977 2) 1951 3) 1941 4) 1971