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Physics

AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 8 g acceleration due to gravity, R  radius,


Topic: SI Units t  time, m  mass, L  length, v = speed)
The Sl unit of mass is now defined in terms of
2T cos  P
(1) Planck’s constant (1) h  (2) v 
Rg 
(2) Boltzmann constant
P  R 4t I2
(3) Gravitational constant (3) V  (4)   2
8L mgL
(4) Stephan’s constant

Practice Questions: Practice Questions:


1. The SI unit of mass is 1. Which among the following equation is
dimensionally correct? (symbols have their
(1) kilogram (2) gram usual meaning)
(3) barn (4) pound (1) v = u + at (2) v2 = u2 + 2aS
2. The SI unit of length is defined in terms of (3) S = u + at2 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(symbols have their usual meaning)
2. Which among the following quantities have
(1) c (2) kB same dimensions?
(3) R (4) G (a) Energy per unit volume
3. SI unit of temperature is (b) Young’s modulus
(1) celsius (2) fahrenheit (c) Refractive index
(3) kelvin (4) mole (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
4. In SI unit the value of Planck’s constant (h) is (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
equal to
a
(1) 6.62607015 × 10–34 J s 3. The dimensions of in dimensionally correct
b
(2) 6.42607015 J s
a–t
(3) 9.12607015 × 10–23 J s equation F  , where F is force, t is time
bv 2
(4) 6.3 × 10–34 J s and v is velocity, will be
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 9 (1) [MLT–1]
Topic: Application of Dimensional Analysis
(2) [ML3T–4]
Which among the following is dimensionally
incorrect? (3) [M2L3T–3]
(Here h  height, T  surface tension,   density, (4) [M0L3T–4]
P  Pressure, V  volume,   coefficient of
viscosity,   frequency, l  moment of inertia,
(1)
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4. If force (F), area (A) and velocity (v) are taken AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 48
as the fundamental quantities, the Topic: Motion Under Gravity
representation of power (P) will be
A ball is projected upwards with speed 27 m/s.
(1) [P] = [FA0v] (2) [P] = [F0Av]
The distance travelled in 3rd second of motion is
(3) [P] = [FAv2] (4) [P] = [FAv] equal to (g = 10 m/s2)
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 12
(1) 2 m (2) 2.9 m
Topic: Significant Figures
Consider the following statements. (3) 72.9 m (4) 7.9 m
a. 00.020480 has two significant zeros.
b. 0.475 is equal to 0.48 in two significant
figures.
Choose the incorrect statement(s).
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) Both a and b (4) Neither a nor b Practice Questions:
1. A body starts its motion along a straight line with
velocity u and accelerate with a constant value
a, the distance travelled by the body in nth
second
(1) u + a(2n – 1) (2) u + 2a(2n – 1)
a a
(3) u  (2n – 1) (4) (2n – 1)
Practice Questions: 2 2
1. Consider the following statements and choose 2. A particle is projected upwards with speed 30 m/s.
the correct option The distance travelled by the particle in 3rd
second of its motion is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) If a number with decimal is less than 1, then
the zeros before first non zero number is (1) 5 m (2) 10 m
insignificant. (3) 3 m (4) 4 m
(B) Trailing zeros in a number are always 3. A particle is projected upwards with 42 m/s. The
insignificant. displacement of the particle in 5th second (g =
(1) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct 10 m/s2)
(2) Both the statements (A) and (B) are (1) 1 m (2) 2 m
incorrect
(3) 3 m (4) 5 m
(3) Statement (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect
(4) Statement (B) is correct and (A) is incorrect 4. A particle is projected upwards with speed 42 m/s.
2. The number of significant figures in the The distance covered by the particle in 5th
measured values 0.02040 and 1.2040 are second (g = 10 m/s2)
respectively (1) 2 m (2) 3 m
(1) 4, 4 (2) 4, 5
(3) 3, 4 (4) 3, 5 (3) 3.4 m (4) 3.2 m
3. The number of significant zeros present in the AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 38
number 0.0020800 will be
(1) 3 (2) 5 Topic: Projectile Motion
(3) 6 (4) 4 Two projectiles A and B are projected with angle
4. Consider the following statements and choose of projections 25° and 45° respectively. If RA
the correct option. and RB are their respective horizontal ranges,
(A) In rounding off, if the uncertain in digit to be
dropped is 5, the preceding digit is raised by then
1 if it is odd, and is left unchanged if it is (1) RA = RB (2) RA > RB
even.
(B) In two significant figure 4.85 is round off as (3) RA < RB (4) Data is insufficient
4.8.
(1) Statement (A) is correct while (B) is
incorrect
(2) Statement (B) is correct while (A) is
incorrect
(3) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct
(4) Both the statements (A) and (B) are
incorrect

(2)
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Practice Questions: 3. A particle is moving in x-y plane according to


1. A stone is projected at angle  with speed u, its  
rule, x = A sint and y  A sin  – t  . The
horizontal range will be 2 
u 2 sin2  u 2 sin2 particle follows
(1) (2)
2g g (1) A parabolic path (2) An elliptical path
(3) Straight line path (4) Circular path
2u 2 sin2 u 2 sin2
(3) (4) 4. A particle is moving in x-y plane according to
g 2g
 
2. Two projectiles A and B are projected with angle rule, x = A sint and y  B sin   t 
 2 
of projections 25° and 45° respectively with
equal speeds. If RA and RB are their respective (1) A parabolic path (2) An elliptical path
horizontal ranges, then (3) Straight line path (4) Circular path
(1) RA = RB (2) RA > RB AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 35
(3) RA < RB (4) Data is insufficient Topic: Properties of Vector
3. A body is projected with velocity 10 m/s at an Change in a vector may occur due to
angle of 30° with horizontal. Its horizontal range
will be (1) Rotation of frame of reference

(1) 3m (2) 5 3 m (2) Translation of frame of reference

(3) 10 3 m (4) 5 m (3) Rotation of vector

4. A ball is projected at an angle  with ground. If (4) Both (1) and (2)
its horizontal range is equal to four times of its
maximum height attained, then the angle of
projection is
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 90° (4) 45°
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 33
Topic: Equation of Trajectory in Motion in Plane
A particle moves in x-y plane according to the Practice Questions:
  1. The direction of vector will not change if we
rule, x = asint and y = acos  t   . The
 2 (1) Translate the frame of reference
particle follows (2) Multiply it by a negative scalar
(1) An elliptical path (3) Rotate the vector
(2) A circular path (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) A parabolic path
2. Consider the following statements about vector
(4) A straight line path and select the correct option.
(1) Change in vector occur due to rotation of
frame of reference
(2) A vector will not change if it is multiplied by
a positive scalar
(3) Translation of frame of reference will
change a vector
Practice Questions: (4) Vector will change if it is multiplied by a
1. A body is moving in x-y plane and following a negative scalar
straight line path, then the equation of its path 3. Consider the following statements about vector
can be and select the correct option.
(1) x  y  1 (2) xy = 2 (1) Rectangular components of a vector will
x change if frame of reference is rotated
(3) x2 + 2y = 3 (4) 2
y (2) Rectangular components of a vector will
2. A particle is moving in x-y plane according to change due to translation of frame of
reference
rule: x = sec, y = tan. The particle follows
(3) Rectangular components of a vector will not
(given x, y > 0) change due to translation of frame of
(1) A straight line path (2) An elliptical path reference
(3) A circular path (4) A parabolic path
(4) Both (1) and (3)
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Answer Key

AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 8 AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 48


Topic: SI Units Topic: Motion Under Gravity
1. (1) 1. (3)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (3)
4. (1) 4. (3)
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 9
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 38
Topic: Application of Dimensional Analysis
Topic: Projectile Motion
1. (4)
1. (2)
2. (2)
2. (3)
3. (2)
3. (2)
4. (1)
4. (4)
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 12
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 33
Topic: Significant Figures Topic: Equation of Trajectory in Motion in Plane
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (3) 4. (2)
AIATS-01 (TYM)-Q. 35
Topic: Properties of Vector
1. (1)
2. (4)
3. (4)

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CHEMISTRY

AIATS-01 (RM), Q.73 4. 3.01 × 1021 molecules of H2SO4 will weigh


Topic: Mole Concept (Calculation) (1) 0.98 g (2) 0.49 g
Which among the following contains lowest (3) 9.8 g (4) 4.9 g
number of molecules? AIATS-01 (RM), Q.80
(1) 22.4 L of CH4 at STP Topic: Energies of Orbitals
(2) 2 g molecule of N2 Correct order of energy of 2s orbital of
(3) 34.2 g of sugar (C12H22O11) potassium, lithium and sodium is
(4) 18 mL of H2O (density of water, 1 g/mL) (1) E2s(K) > E2s(Na) > E2s(Li)
(2) E2s(Na) > E2s(K) > E2s(Li)
(3) E2s(Li) > E2s(Na) > E2s(K)
(4) E2s(Li) > E2s(K) > E2s(Na)

Practice Questions:
1. Which among the following contains highest
number of molecules?
(1) 11200 ml of H2 at STP Practice Questions:

(2) 1 g molecule of O2 1. Correct order of energy of 3s orbital of

(3) 34.2 g of sugar (C12H22O11) potassium, sodium and cesium is

(4) 9 ml of H2O (density of water, 1 g/ml) (1) E3s(K) > E3s(Na) > E3s(Cs)
2. Which one has maximum number of atoms?
(2) E3s(Na) > E3s(K) > E3s(Cs)
(1) 11.2 L of CO2 at STP
(3) E3s(Cs) > E3s(K) > E3s(Na)
(2) 11.2 g atom of He
(3) 11.2 g of H2O (4) E3s(Cs) = E3s(K) = E3s(Na)
(4) 8.0 g of SO3
2. The correct order of orbitals for H-atom is
3. Which one of the following will have least
number of atoms? (1) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d
(1) 10 g of NH3
(2) 1s = 2s < 2p = 3s < 3p < 3d
(2) 9.8 g of H2SO4
(3) 4 g molecule of O2 (3) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d
(4) 48 g of He
(4) 1s = 2s = 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d

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3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are AIATS-01 (RM), Q.54


correct? Topic: Molar Mass
(a) Energies of the orbitals in the same subshell
If mass ratio of methane and sulphur dioxide is
decrease with increase in the atomic
number. 2 : 5, then the ratio of mole of their atoms will be
(b) Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen atom for (1) 4 : 5 (2) 8 : 5
lithium, sodium and hydrogen are (3) 5 : 3 (4) 8 : 3
E2s(H) < E2s(Li) < E2s(Na).
(c) In the ground state of the atoms the orbitals
are filled in order of their increasing
energies.
(1) (b) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
AIATS-01 (RM), Q.81 Practice Questions:
Topic: Quantum Number
1. The molar ratio of methane and sulphur dioxide
The maximum number of orbitals that can be in their mixture containing equal masses is
identified by the following quantum numbers in
(1) 2 : 1
an atom is
n = 5, l = 2, m = –1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 : 4
(3) 2 (4) 1 (4) 4 : 1
2. If the ratio of masses of methane and sulphur
dioxide in a mixture is 2:1, then the ratio of their
total number of electrons in the sample would
be
(1) 6 : 5 (2) 5 : 9
(3) 5: 4 (4) 16 : 5
3. The total number of atoms in a mixture of 7 g of
nitrogen and 8 g of oxygen gas is
Practice Questions:
(1) 3.011  1023 (2) 6.022  1023
1. The maximum of orbitals that can be identified
by the following quantum numbers in an atom is (3) 1.204  1024 (4) 1.505  1022
n=4 l=1 m=0 4. The maximum number of atoms are present in
(1) 4 (1) 2 g of H2 gas (2) 10 g of He
(2) 3 (3) 5 mol of NH3 (4) 22.4 L of Ne
(3) 2
AIATS-01 (RM), Q.62
(4) 1
Topic: Dual Behaviour of Matter
2. Total number of electrons with clockwise spin
for Fe2+ in the orbitals with n + l = 3 If a particle of mass 10 mg is moving with a
(1) 6 (2) 2 velocity of 600 m/s, then the de Broglie
wavelength associated with the moving particle
(3) 4 (4) 8 will be (Planck’s constant (h) = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
3. The maximum number of electron that can be
identified by the following quantum numbers in (1) 1.1 × 10–31 m (2) 1.1 × 10–34 m
an atom is (3) 1.1 × 10–32 m (4) 1.1 × 10–30 m
n=4 l=2 m>0
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 10
4. Number of orbitals in nth shell is
(1) n (2) 2n
(3) 2n + 1 (4) n2

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3. The correct relation between kinetic energy (k)


of a microscopic particle and its de Broglie
wavelength () is (mass of particle = m and its
velocity = v)

h
(1) λ 
2km

Practice Questions: h
(2) λ 
1. The ratio of velocity of 2 electrons is 2 : 3, then 2km
the ratio of their de Broglie wavelength will be
h
(1) 2 : 3 (3) λ 
2km
(2) 3 : 2
2
h
(3) 1 : 2 (4) λ =
2km
(4) 3 : 1
4. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a
2. Kinetic energy of an electron is 1.82  10–26 J. small toy car of mass 100 g moving with a
The de Broglie wavelength associated with it is velocity 20 ms–1 is
(mass of an electron = 9.1  10–31 kg)
(1) 1.506  10-34 m
(1) 3.64  10 m
-6
(2) 3.313  10-32 m
(2) 3.64  10-5 m
(3) 1.506  10-32 m
(3) 1.57  10-6 m
(4) 3.133  10-34 m
(4) 1.57  10 m
-4

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CSS-01 (CHEMISTRY)
Answer Key

AIATS-01 (RM), Q.73 3. (2)


Topic: Mole Concept (Calculation) 4. (4)
AIATS-01 (RM), Q.54
1. (2)
2. (2) Topic: Molar Mass
3. (2) 1. (4)
4. (2) 2. (3)
AIATS-01 (RM), Q.80 3. (2)
Topic: Energies of Orbitals 4. (3)
1. (2) AIATS-01 (RM), Q.62
2. (3) Topic: Dual Behaviour of Matter
3. (3) 1. (2)
AIATS-01 (RM), Q.81 2. (1)
Topic: Quantum Number 3. (3)
1. (4) 4. (4)
2. (3)

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BOTANY
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.132 3. Chromatids move to opposite poles.
Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Mitosis Above event is observed in which mitotic
Arrange the following events of mitotic division phase?
in correct order and choose the option (1) Anaphase
accordingly. (2) Telophase
a. Condensation of chromosomes is (3) Prophase
completed (4) Metaphase
4. Select the correctly matched pair.
b. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
(1) Metaphase - Golgi complex and
poles
nucleolus disappear
c. Golgi complex and nucleolus disappear
(2) Telophase - Chromosomes
d. Chromatids move to opposite poles cluster at opposite
(1) d  c  a  b spindle poles
(2) c  a  d  b (3) Anaphase - Chromosomes
appear thickest and
(3) b  a  c  d
shortest at
(4) c  d  b  a equatorial plate
(4) Prophase - Best stage to study
shape of
chromosomes
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.128
Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: M Phase
The most dramatic period of cell cycle involves
(1) Two stages of karyokinesis and a
Practice Questions: cytokinesis
1. Arrange the phases of mitotic division in correct (2) Four stages of nuclear division only
order and choose option accordingly.
(3) Four stages of karyokinesis followed by
a) Prophase
cytokinesis
b) Anaphase
(4) One stage of cytokinesis followed by
c) Telophase
karyokinesis
d) Metaphase
(1) a  d  b  c (2) a  d  c  b
(3) a  b  d  c (4) a  c  b  d
2. Which of the following phases of mitosis is
characterised by complete condensation of
chromosomes?
(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Prophase
Practice Questions:

(1)
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1. Assertion(A): M phase is the most dramatic (4) Growth and reproduction are mutually
phase of cell cycle. inclusive events in unicellular organisms
Reason(R): It involves a major reorganisation 2. Which of the following form of growth is
exclusive to living beings?
of virtually all components of cell.
(1) Extrinsic growth only
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (2) Intrinsic growth only
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion (3) Both extrinsic and intrinsic growth
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but (4) Growth by addition of molecules on the
Reason is not correct explanation of body surface
Assertion 3. Which of the following is not considered as
defining feature of the living organisms?
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(1) Cellular organization
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) Consciousness
2. In mitosis the actual cell division occurs during (3) Metabolism
(1) Interphase (2) G1 (4) Growth
(3) G2 (4) M phase 4. Which of the following characteristic can be
shared by living and non-living organisms?
3. M phase involves
(1) Metabolism
(1) Cytokinesis only (2) Karyokinesis only (2) Reproduction
(3) Interphase only (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Growth
(4) Cellular organization
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.101
Topic: The Living World: What is Living?
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.133
Select the incorrect statement from the
Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Meiosis
following.
How many duplication(s) of centrosome occurs
(1) Reproduction either sexual or asexual is in one complete meiotic division in an animal
fundamental characteristic of living cell?
organisms (1) Two (2) One
(2) Growth is not a defining feature of living (3) Four (4) Three
beings because it is not found in some of the
simplest organisms
(3) Both anabolism and catabolism occur in an
organism
(4) All characteristic features of living beings
are not necessary to be defining feature

Practice Questions:
1. When a cell undergoes meiotic division, the
duplication of centrosome occurs in
(1) Prophase I and prophase II
(2) S phase and interkinesis
(3) Interphase and anaphase I
Practice Questions: (4) Prophase I and anaphase II
1. Growth is not a defining feature of living 2. How many division are required to form four
organisms, because haploid cells from one diploid cell through
meiotic division?
(1) Non-living organisms show extrinsic growth
N = final number of cells at the end of division
(2) Simple organisms do not show any form of
(1) 2n (2) n
growth
(3) (n - 1) (4) n/2
(3) It is absent in dead organisms

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3. For a cell undergoing meiotic division a 3. The chromosome synapsis accompanied by


centrosome duplicates during (i) and the formation of a complex called synaptonemal
resulting two centrosomes duplicate in (ii) . complex in
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) (1) Leptotene
and (ii).
(2) Diplotene
(i) (ii)
(3) Diakinesis
(1) Interphase Two daughter cells
(4) Zygotene
(2) M phase Cytokinesis
4. The bivalent chromosome align themselves on
(3) Prophase Metaphase the equatorial plate in
(4) S phase Prophase II
(1) Anaphase I
4. How many time(s) centrosome duplicate during
a complete meiotic division? (2) Metaphase II
(1) Three (3) Metaphase I
(2) Two (4) Telophase I
(3) One
(4) Four AIATS-01 (RM)– Q.126

AIATS-01 (RM)– Q.135 Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Interphase
The amount of DNA doubles but the number of
Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Meiosis chromosomes remains the same. This
In cell division, the enzyme recombinase is statement is true for a cell present in
involved during the process that
(1) G2 phase (2) M phase
(1) Splits centromere and separates sister
(3) G1 phase (4) S phase
chromatids apart
(2) Causes genetic variations in all the four
daughter cells
(3) Align the homologous chromosomes
together
(4) Is responsible for the formation of
synaptonemal complex

Practice Questions:
1. During which phase of cell cycle, amount of
deoxyribonucleic acid of a cell gets doubled?
(1) Pre mitotic phase
(2) Post mitotic phase
(3) Synthesis phase
Practice Questions:
(4) Karyokinesis
1. The activity of enzyme recombinase is seen
during which sub-phase of the Prophase I? 2. If a cell had 36 chromosomes at G1 phase, then
after S phase, in G2 phase the number of
(1) Zygotene
chromosome will be
(2) Diakinesis
(1) 18
(3) Pachytene
(2) 36
(4) Diplotene
(3) 72
2. The splitting of centromere of each
chromosome occurs and separates the sister (4) 12
chromatids apart in 3. During which phase of cell cycle, most of the
(1) Telophase II organelles duplication occurs in?
(2) Anaphase II (1) M phase
(3) Metaphase (2) S phase
(4) Anaphase I (3) G2 phase
(4) G1 phase

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4. In G2 phase 5. In S phase of cell cycle, DNA content doubles


but the number of chromosome remains same
(1) Semi-autonomous organelle duplicate
because
(2) Centriole duplicate in cytoplasm
(1) Chromatin does not duplicate
(3) DNA replication begins
(2) Chromatin fibres do not condense
(4) Actual cell division occurs
(3) DNA double but histone does not
(4) Both chromatids are found attached to the
same centromere

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AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.132 AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.133


Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Mitosis Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Meiosis
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (2) 4. (2)
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.128 AIATS-01 (RM)– Q.135
Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: M Phase Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Meiosis
1. (1)
1. (3)
2. (4)
2. (2)
3. (4)
3. (4)
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.101
4. (3)
Topic: The Living World: What is Living?
AIATS-01 (RM)– Q.126
1. (1)
Topic: Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Interphase
2. (2)
3. (4) 1. (3)

4. (3) 2. (2)
3. (4)
4. (1)
5. (4)

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(5)
RM Based on
AIATS-01

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET


CSS-01
ZOOLOGY

AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.174 (1) Trypsin - Hormone


Topic: How to Analyse Chemical Composition? (2) Receptor - Sensory reception
How many of the given biomolecules in box are (3) Insulin - Enzyme
secondary metabolites? (4) GLUT-4 - Enables glucose
transport out of cells
Concanavalin-A, GLUT-4, Collagen, AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.175
Cellulose, Vinblastin, Scents, Codeine, Ricin,
Topic: Functions
Trypsin, Insulin
Assertion (A): Dietary proteins are the source
Choose the correct option. of essential amino acids.

(1) 7 (2) 4 Reason (R): A protein is a heteropolymer


having about 20 types of amino acids, which
(3) 6 (4) 5
can be essential or non-essential.
In the light of above statements, choose the
correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
correct explanation of (A).
Practice Questions:
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
1. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. secondary
metabolites. (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(1) Concanavalin A - Lectin
(2) Codeine - Alkaloid
(3) Vinblastin - Toxin
(4) Cellulose - Polymeric substance
2. All of the following are proteins, except
(1) Trypsin (2) GLUT-4
(3) Insulin (4) Cellulose
Practice Questions:
3. The most abundant protein in the animal world
is 1. A protein is a heteropolymer having about ____
(1) Collagen (2) Chitin type of amino acids. Select the correct option
that fills the blank.
(3) Cellulose (4) Cytosine
(1) 10
4. Which of the following have identifiable
functions and play known roles in normal (2) 20
physiological process? (3) 30
(1) Scents (2) Antibiotics (4) 40
(3) Glucose (4) Gums 2. Choose the incorrect feature about amino
5. Choose the correct match. acids.

(1)
CSS-01 Zoology

(1) Substituted methanes (3) 10 anabolic (4) 5 metabolic


(2) Can be essential or non-essential 4. Read the statements A and B carefully and
(3) All have to be supplied through our diet select the correct option.
(4) Polymerises to form protein Statement-A: As and when needed, ATP is
utilized for biosynthetic, osmotic and
3. Non-essential amino acids are called so
mechanical work that we perform.
because
Statement-B: Adenosine triphosphate is the
(1) They must be obtained from food
energy currency of cells in living systems.
(2) They are not important for our body
functioning (1) Both the statements are correct
(3) They can be synthesised very slowly by (2) Both the statements are incorrect
humans (3) Only statement-A is correct
(4) They are synthesised in our body (4) Only statement-B is correct
4. ‘X’ is a heteropolymer. Identify ‘X’. AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.161
(1) Tryptophan (2) RuBisCO Topic: Monosaccharides
(3) Lecithin (4) Ribose Ribose is differentiated from deoxyribose in
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.185 having
Topic: Metabolic Basis for Living (1) Two extra oxygen at 2nd carbon
Read the statements carefully and choose the (2) No oxygen at 3rd carbon
correct one. (3) No oxygen at carbon number 2
(1) Assembly of a protein from amino acids (4) Hydroxyl group at 2nd carbon
does not require energy input.

(2) Catabolic pathways consumes energy.

(3) The metabolic pathway from glucose to


lactic acid occurs in 10 anabolic steps called
glycolysis.

(4) As and when needed, bond energy (ATP) is Practice Questions:


utilised for biosynthetic, osmotic and
mechanical work that we perform. 1. Which of the following is a structure of ribose?

(1)

Practice Questions:
1. Catabolic pathways does not (2)
(1) Leads to degradation of molecules
(2) Consume energy
(3) Release energy
(4) Involve formation of lactic acid from glucose
2. Assembly of a protein from amino acids is an
example of all, except (3)
(1) Anabolic pathway
(2) Endothermic reaction
(3) Catabolic pathway
(4) Biosynthetic pathway (4)
3. The metabolic pathway from glucose to lactic
acid occurs in how many steps?
2. Ribose and deoxyribose differ from each other
(1) 10 metabolic (2) 10 catabolic in having –OH and –H respectively at

(2)
CSS-01 Zoology

(1) C2 (2) C3
(3) C5 (4) C1
3. How many oxygen atoms are present in a (3)
ribose sugar?
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 5
4. Among the following, which one is correct w.r.t.
deoxyribose sugar?
(1) Deoxyribose sugar has 5 oxygen atoms
(2) Deoxyribose sugar has 4 oxygen atoms (4)
(3) Deoxyribose is a hexose sugar
(4) Deoxyribose sugar is a component of RNA
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.164
Topic: Biomolecules: Lipids
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.158
In case of lecithin, choline is attached with
Topic: Specialized Connective Tissue
(1) Third hydroxyl group of trihydroxy propane The cells of cartilage are enclosed in small
without phosphoric acid. cavities within the matrix secreted by ______.
(2) Phosphate group joined to one of the –OH
Select the correct option that fills the blank.
group of trihydroxy propane
(1) Chondrocytes
(3) Second hydroxyl group of glycerol with
phosphate (2) Osteocytes

(4) First hydroxyl group of glycerol with (3) Fibroblasts


phosphate. (4) Surrounding epithelium

Practice Questions: Practice Questions:


1. Lecithin is an example of 1. The intercellular material of cartilage is
(1) Glycolipid (2) Phospholipid (1) Solid and non-pliable
(3) Derived lipid (4) Steroids (2) Hard, non-pliable and resists compression
2. Which phospholipid is found in cell membrane? (3) Solid, pliable and resists compression
(1) Sphingomyelin (2) Lecithin (4) Hard, pliable and does not resists
(3) Palmitic acid (4) Arachidonic acid compression
3. Identify the structure of lecithin. 2. Cells of cartilage is called
(1) Osteocytes (2) Lacunae
(3) Chondrin (4) Chondrocytes
(1) 3. Cells of cartilage are enclosed in
(1) Small cavities outside the ground substance
(2) Large cavities within the matrix
(3) Lacunae outside the matrix
(4) Small cavities within the matrix
4. __A__ of the cartilages in ___B__ embryos are
(2) replaced by bones in adults.
Select the option that fills the blank A and B
correctly.
A B
(1) Some Invertebrate

(3)
CSS-01 Zoology

(2) All Vertebrate 5. Select the correct statement w.r.t. structure of


(3) Most Vertebrate DNA.
(4) Most Invertebrate (1) The two strands of polynucleotides are
antiparallel
5. Cartilage is present in all, except
(2) The two strands of polynucleotides are
(1) Tip of nose parallel
(2) Hands of adult human (3) The two strands of polynucleosides are
(3) Between adjacent bones of the vertebral parallel
column (4) The two strands of polynucleosides runs in
(4) Inner ear joints the opposite direction
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.173
Topic: Watson-Crick Model of DNA AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.165
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. nucleic Topic: Types of Epithelial Tissue
acids (DNA). Choose the correct option w.r.t. location and
(1) It exhibit a wide variety of secondary function of glandular epithelium.
structures. Location Function
(2) One of the secondary structure exhibited by (1) Lung’s alveoli Attach skeletal muscle to
DNA is the famous Watson-Crick model. bones
(3) The two strands of polynucleosides are (2) Intestine Secretion
antiparallel.
(3) Heart Contraction
(4) The backbone is formed by the sugar
phosphate-sugar chain. (4) Blood vessels Secretion and absorption

Practice Questions: Practice Questions:


1. In a double stranded DNA molecules, the 1. The main function of columnar epithelium
backbone is formed by the present in intestine is
(1) Sugar-nitrogen base-sugar chain (1) Secretion only
(2) Sugar-nitrogen base-phosphate chain (2) Secretion and absorption
(3) Sugar-phosphate-sugar chain (3) Contraction
(4) Phosphate-sugar-phosphate chain (4) Transmission
2. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. salient features 2. Which of the following tissues attach skeletal
of B-DNA. muscle to bone?
(1) Pitch - 3.4 nm (1) Ligament (2) Areolar
(2) Rise per base pair - 3.4 Å (3) Tendon (4) Adipose
(3) Two hydrogen bonds - Between A and T 3. Glandular epithelium is present in all of the
(4) Each strand - Linear straircase following locations, except
3. According to which model DNA exists as a (1) Heart
double helix? (2) Goblet cells of alimentary canal
(1) Griffith model (3) Buccal cavity
(2) Harshey-Chase model (4) Lungs
(3) Meselson-Stahl model 4. The type of epithelium present in blood vessels
(4) Watson-Crick model is
4. In a DNA molecule, the bond between the (1) Simple cuboidal epithelium
phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is (2) Simple columnar epithelium
(1) Peptide bond (2) Glycosidic bond (3) Glandular epithelium
(3) Ester bond (4) Disulphide bond (4) Simple squamous epithelium

(4)
CSS-01 Zoology

AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.171 (3) Sponges


Topic: Structural Organisation in Animals (4) Amoeba
(Animal Tissues): Introduction 4. In multicellular organisms, a group of similar
Read the following statements and choose the cells alongwith intercellular substances perform
option with incorrect statements only. a specific function. This organisation is called as
(1) Organ (2) Tissue
a. In tissue, a group of similar cells along with
intercellular substances perform a specific (3) Organ system (4) Cells
function.
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.182
b. Organ systems split up the work in a way
Topic: Watson-Crick Model of DNA
that exhibits division of labour.
Each nucleotide is made up of
c. In epithelium, cells are loosely packed with
little or no intracellular materials. (1) Nitrogen containing carbohydrate and

d. Cell junctions hold smooth muscle fibres pentose sugar with phosphate
together and they are bundled together in a (2) Cyclic nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar
epithelial tissue sheath. and one to three phosphate group
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) (Nitrogen base + Hexose sugar +
(3) a, b and c (4) c and d
phosphate)n

(4) (Amino sugar + Ribose + phosphate)n

Practice Questions:
1. The cells of epithelial tissue are arranged in
which of the following manner? Practice Questions:
(1) Loosely packed with no intercellular matrix 1. Which type of sugar is present in nucleic acid?
(2) Compactly packed with little intercellular (1) Hexose sugar (2) Pentose sugar
matrix
(3) Amino sugar (4) Keto sugar
(3) Loosely packed with no intracellular matrix
2. The kind of nitrogenous base found in a
(4) Compactly packed with no intercellular nucleotide is
matrix
(1) Homocyclic (2) Linear
2. Which type of sheath is formed around bundles
(3) Heterocyclic (4) Linear and cyclic
of smooth muscle fibres holded by cell
junctions? 3. How many phosphate groups can be found in a
single nucleotide?
(1) Connective tissue sheath
(1) 3 - 4 (2) 2 - 7
(2) Muscle tissue sheath
(3) 4 - 6 (4) 1 - 3
(3) Neural tissue sheath
4. Choose the option which is not a component of
(4) Epithelial tissue sheath nucleotide.
3. Division of labour is exhibited by all of the (1) Nitrogenous base (2) Pentose sugar
following, except
(3) Phosphate group (4) Polysaccharides
(1) Hydra
(2) Humans

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 

(5)
CSS-01 Zoology

RM Based on
AIATS-01

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET


CSS-01
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key

AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.174 AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.158


Topic: How to Analyse Chemical Composition? Topic: Specialized Connective Tissue
1. (3) 1. (3)
2. (4) 2. (4)
3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (3) 4. (3)
5. (2) 5. (4)
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.175 AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.173
Topic: Functions Topic: Watson-Crick Model of DNA
1. (2) 1. (3)
2. (3) 2. (4)
3. (4) 3. (4)
4. (2) 4. (3)
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.185 5. (1)
Topic: Metabolic Basis for Living AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.165
1. (2) Topic: Types of Epithelial Tissue
2. (3) 1. (2)
3. (1) 2. (3)
4. (1) 3. (1)
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.161 4. (4)
Topic: Monosaccharides AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.171
1. (1) Topic: Structural Organisation in Animals
2. (1) (Animal Tissues): Introduction
3. (4) 1. (2)
4. (2) 2. (1)
AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.164 3. (4)
Topic: Biomolecules: Lipids 4. (2)
1. (2) AIATS-01 (RM)-Q.182
2. (2) Topic: Watson-Crick Model of DNA
3. (1) 1. (2)
2. (3)
3. (4)
4. (4)


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