Shiv Chhatrapati Shikshan Sanstha, Latur.

CET– CELL
Sections : Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology
Questions : 50 50 50 50
Marks : 180 180 180 180
Roll No.
TEST-SERIES
CW-10
Date : 24 Feb. 2024

233 INSPIRE-2023-24 Time : 3.20 Hours

This is to certify that, the entry of Roll No. has been correctly written and verified.

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature

Physics : NLM, Friction, WEP, Collision

[SECTION-A] 03. A bullet moving with a velocity of 100 m/s can just
01. In the given arrangement, n number of equal penetrate two planks of equal thickness. The num-
masses are connected by strings of negligible ber of such planks penetrated by the same bullet,
masses. The tension in the string connected to nth when the velocity is doubled.
mass is 1) 4 2) 6
3) 8 4) 10

04. A particle moves in the x-y plane under the influ-

ence of a force such that its linear momentum is

p(t)  A [iˆ cos(kt)  ˆj sin(kt)] , where A and k are
constants. The angle between the force and the
momentum is
mMg mMg 1) 00 2) 30 0
1) 2) 3) 45 0 4) 90 0
nm  M nmM
3) mg 4) mng 05. A man weighing 80 kg is standing in a trolley
02. Two masses 40 kg and 30 kg are connected by a weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting on friction-
weightless string passing over a frictionless pulley less horizontal rails. If the man start walking on
as shown in the following figure. The tension in the trolley with a speed of 1 m/s, then after 4s, his
the string will be (g = 9.8 m/s2) displacement relative to the ground will be
1) 5m 2) 4.8 m
3) 3.2 m 4) 3.0 m

1) 188 N 2) 368 N
3) 288 N 4) 168 N
SCSS CW-10 Page 1
06. A rod of length L and mass M is acted on by two 11. A block moves down a smooth inclined plane of
unequal forces F1 and F2(< F1) as shown in the fol- inclination . Its velocity on reaching the bottom is
lowing figure. . If it slides down a rough inclined plane of same
inclination, its velocity on reaching the bottom is
/n, where n is a number greater than zero. The
coefficient of friction  is given by
1 1
1)   tan   1  2  2)   cot   1  2 
The tension in the rod at a distance y from the end  n   n 
A is given by 1 1
3)   tan  1  4)   cot  1 
 y y n2 n2
1) F1  1    F2  
 L L 12. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40g with a
y velocity 1200 m/s. The man holding it can exert a
 y
2) F2  1    F1   maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many
 L L
bullets can he fire per second at the most?
y 1) One 2) Four
3) (F1  F2 )
L 3) Two 4) Three
4) None of these 13. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the
07. Bullets of 0.03 kg mass each hit a plate at the rate help of a rope which moves with a velocity  as
of 200 bullets per second, with a velocity of 50 m/ shown in the figure. The horizontal velocity of the
s and reflect back with a velocity of 30 m/s. The block is
average force acting on the plate in newton is
1) 120 2) 180
3) 300 4) 480
08. A piece of ice slides down a 45 incline in twice teh
0

time it takes to slide down a frictionless 450 incline.

What is the coefficient of friction between the ice
and incline?
1) 0.25 2) 0.50
3) 0.75 4) 0.40
09. A force of F N is applied as shown in the figure.

Find the tension in the string between BC, if the 1)  2)
sin 
friction force is negligible.

3)  sin  4)
cos 
14. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold
a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of
1) F/3 2) F/2 friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The
3) F 4) None of these weight of the block is
10. The mass of ship is 2 × 107 kg. On applying a force
of 25 × 105 N, it is displaced through 25 m. After
the displacement, the velocity acquired by the ship
will be
1) 12.5 m/s 2) 5 m/s 1) 2N 2) 20 N
3) 3.7 m/s 4) 2.5 m/s 3) 50 N 4) 100 N

SCSS CW-10 Page 2

15. A body moves with uniform speed on a rough sur-
face. If force F of dynamic friction is plotted with
time as shown in the following graphs, the graph
will be
18. A body is moving unidirectionally under the in-
fluence of a source of constant power supplying
energy. Which of the diagrams as shown in below
figure correctly shows the displacement-time curve
for its motion?

1) 2) 1) 2)

3) 4)

3) 4)
19. A small block slides down from the top of a hemi-
sphere of radius r. It is assumed that there is no
16. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. friction between the block and the hemisphere. At
The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is what height, h will the block lose contact with the
suspended from it but will break if the mass ex- surface of sphere?
ceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration r 2r
1) 2)
with which the monkey can climb up along the 3 3
rope? (g = 10 m/s2) r r
1) 5 m/s2 2) 10 m/s2 3) 4)
2 4
3) 25 m/s 2
4) 2.5 m/s2 
20. A force F  (aiˆ  bj)N
ˆ acts on a body and displace
17. Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and

the other steep meet at A from where two stones it by s  (ciˆ  dj)m
ˆ . The workdone by the force is
are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each
ab
track as shown in below figure. 1) ab + cd 2)
cd
ac
3) ac + bd 4)
bd
21. Force-displacement curve for a body is shown in
the figure.
Which of the following statement is correct?
1) Both the stones reach the bottom at the same
time but not with the same speed
2) Both the stones reach the bottom with the
same speed and stone I reaches the bottom
earlier than stone II
3) Both the stones reach the bottom with the
same speed and stone II reaches the bottom Motion is in one dimensional. Workdone by the
earlier than stone I force in displacing the body from displacement zero
4) Both the stones reach the bottom at differ- to 6m is given by
ent times and with different speeds 1) Zero 2) 10 J
3) 20 J 4) 60 J

SCSS CW-10 Page 3

22. The workdone by a force F = kx2 acting on a par- 28. One man takes 1 minute to raise a box to a height
ticle at an angle 600 with x-axis to displace it from of 1m and another man takes 1/2 minute to do so.
x = 2 m to x = 3 m is The energy of the two is
5 5 1) Different
1) k 2) k 2) Same
6 2
3) Energy of the first is more
19 19
3) k 4) k 4) Energy of the second is more
2 6
29. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless
23. During the swinging of simple pendulum,
horizontal surface collides with a spring of spring
1) The workdone by tension force is always zero
constant k and compresses it by length L. The
2) The workdone by the gravitational force is
maximum momentum of the block after collision
zero
is
3) The mechanical energy of the bob remains
constant in the presence of air resistance
4) The mechanical energy of the bob does not
remain constant in the absence of air
24. It is easier to draw up a wooden block along an
inclined plane then the haul it up vertically, princi-
pally because ML2
1) Zero 2)
1) The friction is reduced k
2) The mass becomes smaller kL2
3) Only a part of the weight has to be overcome 3) Mk L 4)
2M
4) G becomes smaller 30. A body of mass 4 kg is moving with momentum
25. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5 m on of 8 kg-m/s. A force 0.2 N acts on it in the direction
the surface of a planet where the acceleration due to of motion of the body for 10 s. The increase in KE
gravity is not known. On bouncing, it rises to 1.8m. in joule is
The ball loses its velocity on bouncing by a factor of 1) 10 2) 8.5
16 2 3) 4.5 4) 4
1) 2)
25 5 31. A metal ball and a rubber ball both having the same
3 9 mass strike a wall normally with the same velocity.
3) 4) The rubber ball rebounds and the metal ball does
5 2
26. 10 litres of water per second is lifted from a well not rebound. It can be concluded that
through 20 m and delivered with a velocity of 10 1) The rubber ball suffers greater change in
m/s, then the power (in kW) of the motion is momentum
(Take g = 10 m/s2) 2) The metal ball suffers greater change in
1) 0.5 2) 1.25 momentum
3) 2.5 4) 5.0 3) Both suffer same change in momentum
27. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest 4) The initial momentum of the rubber ball is
to 1 in time t1. The instantaneous power delivered greater than that of the metal ball
to the body as a function of time t is 32. A sphere of mass 2 kg strikes another sphere of
mass 3 kg at rest with a velocity of 5 ms–1. If they
m 1t m 12 t
1) 2) move together after collision, then common
t1 t 12
velocity is
m1t 2 m 12 t 1) 1 ms–1 2) 2 ms–1
3) t1 4) t1 3) 4 ms –1
4) Zero
SCSS CW-10 Page 4
33. A sphere of mass ‘2m’ gm collides with a station- 39. A car starts from rest to cover a distance s. The
ary sphere of ‘3m’ gm and sticks to it. Then the coefficient of friction between the road and the tyres
loss in kinetic energy during collision is is . The minimum time in which the car can cover
1) 80 % 2) 60 % the distance is proportional to
3) 40 % 4) 20 % 1)  2) 
34. A ball A moving with a speed u, collides directly with
another similar ball B moving with a speed  in the 1 1
3) 4) 
opposite direction. A comes to rest after teh collision. 
If the coefficient of restitution is e then u/ is 40. An object of mass 5kg is attached to the hook of a
1 e 1 e spring balance and the balance is suspended verti-
1) 2) cally from the roof of a lift. The reading on the
1 e 1 e
spring balance when the lift is going up with an
e e
3) 4) acceleration of 0.25 m/s is (g = 10 m/s2)
1 e 1 e
1) 51.25 N 2) 48.75 N
35. A ball of mass 400 gm is dropped from a height of
3) 52.75 N 4) 47.25 N
5 m. A boy on the ground hits the ball vertically
41. In the figure, a block of weight 60 N is placed on a
upwards with a bat with an a average force of 100
rough surface. The coefficient of friction between
N, so that it attains a vertical height of 20 m. The
teh block and the surfaces is 0.5. What should be
time for which the ball remains in contact with the
the weight W such that the block does not slip on
bat is (g = 10 m/s2)
the surface?
1) 0.12 second 2) 0.08 second
3) 0.04 second 4) 12 seconds
[SECTION-B]
36. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a constant
velocity of 10 m/s. When a constant force acts for
4s on it, it moves with a velocity 2 m/s in the oppo-
site direction. The acceleration produced in it is
1) 3 m/s2 2) – 3 m/s2 60
1) 60 N 2) N
3) 0.3 m/s2 4) – 0.3 m/s2 2
37. Three forces are acting on a particle of mass m ini- 30
3) 30 N 4)
tially in equilibrium. If the first 2 forces (R1 and R2) 2
are perpendicular to each other and suddenly the 42. A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale
third force (R3) is removed, then the acceleration in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform
of the particle is acceleration of 5 m/s2. What would be the reading
on the scale? (g = 10 m/s2)
R3 R1  R2
1) 2) 1) Zero 2) 400 N
m m 3) 800 N 4) 1200 N
R1  R2 R1 43. When a car moves on a road with a uniform speed
3) 4)
m m of 30 km/h, then the net resultant force on the car
38. In order to prevent slipping while walking on ice, is
one should take smaller steps because of the 1) The driving force, drives the car in the direc-
1) Larger friction tion of propagation of car
2) Larger normal reaction 2) The resistive force, acts opposite to the
direction of propagation of car
3) Smaller friction
3) Zero
4) Smaller normal reaction
4) None of these
SCSS CW-10 Page 5
44. Two identical ball bearings in contact with each
other and resting on a frictionless table are hit head-
on by another ball bearing of the same mass mov-
ing initially with a speed V as shown in below fig-
ure.
47. The figure shows the vertical section of a friction-
less surface. A block of mass 2.0 kg is released from
position A. Its kinetic energies (in J) as it reaches
position B, C and D

If the collision is elastic, which of the following as

shown in fig. is a possible result after collision

1) 2)

(Given gravitational field 9.8 J/m/kg) are

3) 4) 1) 176.4; 274.4; 137.2
2) 137.2; 274.4; 176.4
45. A body of mass 3.0 kg moves under the influence 3) 176.4; 137.2; 274.4
of some external force such that its position s as a 4) 274.4; 137.2; 176.4
function of time t is given by s = 6t3 – t2 + 1 where 49. A block of mass 200 kg approaches a man with a
s si in metres and t is in seconds. The workdone by velocity of 10 ms–1. He fires bullets each of mass 10
the force in first three seconds is gm with a velocity of 200 ms–1. The number of
1) 18 J 2) 1800 J bullets he must fire at it to make the block just
3) 3660 J 4) 36504 J turn back is
46. A body starts from rest and acquires a velocity V 1) 1000 2) 100
in time T. The workdone on the body in time t will 3) 10 4) 1
be proportional to 50. A block placed on a horizontal surface is being
V Vt2 2
pushed by a force F making an angle  with the
1) t 2)
T T vertical. The coefficient of friction between block
V2 V2 2 and surface is . The force required to slide the
3) t 4) t block with uniform velocity on the floor is
T2 T2
47. A ball hits the ground and rebounds after colli- mg (sin    cos )
1) (sin    cos ) 2) mg
sion. In this process
1) Momentum of the ball is conserved 3) mg 4) None of these
2) Momentum of the earth is conserved
3) Total momentum of the earth and ball is
conserved
4) None

SCSS CW-10 Page 6

 Chemistry : Atomic structure & Redox reactions, d & f block elements

[SECTION-A] 59. For two atoms X and Y, wavelength ratio and tem-
51. What is wavelength of an element of atomic num- perature ratio are in 5 : 1 and 1 : 5 respectively.
ber 25 for the case using Moseley’s equation What is the ratio of atomic masses of X and Y?
1) 1:5 2) 5:1
  a(Z  b) . Given, a = 0.5 and b = 2.0
3) 1:2 4) 2:1
1) 2.26 × 106 m 2) 2.26 × 1010 m
3) 4.52 × 10 m
6
4) 4.52 × 1010 m 60. Following are plots of probability density  2 (r) as
52. Atomic number of Mx+ is 28. Its magnetic moment a function of distance r of the electron from the
nucleus
is 2 2 B.M. Charge and colour of the ion is
1) x = + 1 coloured 2) x = + 2 coloured
3) x = + 3 coloured 4) x = + 3 colourless
53. If there were the possibilities of electron spin as
  1 ,0,  1 
  , then K(Z = 19) would be placed in
 2 2
1) s-block 2) p-block
3) d-block 4) f-block
54. Not considering the electronic spin, the degeneracy
of the second excited state (n = 3) of H-atom is 9.
Thus, the degeneracy of second excited state of H–
For 1s and 2s orbital, correct plots are
is
1) I, II 2) I, III
1) 1 2) 3
3) III, IV 4) I, IV
3) 5 4) 7
61. Given :
55. The uncertainty in the measurement of position of
an electron is equal to its de-Broglie’s wavelength. Li 2 (g) 
 Li 3 (g)  e  , H 0  122.4 eV
Thus, percentage error in the measurement of ve- X n  (g) 
 X ( n 1)  e  , H 0  54.4 eV
locity is If Li2+(g) and Xn+(g) are isoelectronic, what is atomic
1) 7.96 % 2) 0.796 % number of Xn+?
3) 0.0796 % 4) 0.00796 % 1) 2 2) 6
56. Potential energy of an electron present in the N- 3) 4 4) 5
shell of the Be3+ ion is 62. Find minimum possible values of missing digits
1) – 13.6 eV 2) – 27.2 eV (X, Y, Z) in following set of quantum numbers and
3) – 3.4 eV 4) – 6.8 eV calculate sum of X, Y and Z.
57. The number of possible lines of Paschen series when n l |m| s
electron jumps from 7th excited state in hydrogen
1
like species as He+ is Set (I) = 5 2 X 
2
1) 5 2) 8
3) 6 4) None of these 1
Set (II) = Y 3 0 
58. x number of electrons with magnetic quantum 2
number m = + 1 and y number of electrons with 1
Set (III) = 3 Z 1 
azimuthal quantum number 0 are present in 2
Cr(24). Thus, x and y are 1) 5 2) 4
1) x = 6, y = 7 2) x = 5, y = 7 3) 3 4) 2
3) x = 7, y = 7 4) x = 7, y = 5
SCSS CW-10 Page 7
63. Find the maximum number of electron in Cr atom 71. When KMnO4 solution is added to hot oxalic acid
1 solution, the decolourisation is slow in the begin-
which have m = – 1 and s   but n  2
2 ning but becomes instantaneous after some time.
1) 2 2) 3 This is because
3) 4 4) 6 1) Mn2+ acts as auto catalyst
64. H isotopes of 1H , 1H and O has two isotopes O16
1 2
2) CO2 is formed
and O18. Which of the following molar mass of H2O 3) Reaction is exothermic
will not be possible?
4) MnO4 catalyses the reaction
1) 19 2) 20
72. In the oxidation reactions of KMnO4, is acidic medium,
3) 24 4) 22
only H2SO4 is used to produce acidic medium but
65. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in nth
not HCl(or) HNO3 because
Bohr orbit in a hydrogen like atom is equal to 1.5
a0 (a0 is Bohr radius) then value of n/Z is 1) HCl reacts with KMnO4 and produces
1) 1.50 2) 0.40 Cl2 ; HNO3 itself is oxidizing agent
3) 1.0 4) 0.75 2) HNO3 reacts with KMnO4 and produces
66. The oxidation number of S atoms in Na2S4O6 is Cl2 ; HCl itself acts as oxidizing agent
1) + 2.5 and + 2 3) Both HNO3 and HCl liberates Cl2 from
2) + 2 and + 3 (two S have +2 and other two KMnO 4.
have + 3) 4) Both HNO 3 and HCl liberates O2 from
3) + 2 and + 3 (three S have +2 and S has + 3) KMnO 4
4) + 5 and 0 (two S have + 5 and the other two 73. Which of the following groups of molecules act
S have 0) both as oxidising agent as well as reducing agent?
67. Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency de-
1) KMnO4, O3, SO3
fect in its crystal is Ni0.98O. The crystal contains Ni2+
2) HClO4, HNO2, H2O2
and Ni3+ ions. The fraction of nickel existing as Ni2+
3) HNO3, SO2, H2SO4
ions in the crystal is
4) HNO2, SO2, H2O2
1) 0.31 2) 0.96
3) 0.04 4) 0.50 74. Out of the following redox reactions
68. Fe(II)  Fe(III),Ce(III)  Ce(IV) and I. NH4 NO3 

 N2 O  2H2 O

MnO4  Mn 2 (acidic) II. NH4 NO 2 


 N 2  2H2 O
How many moles of (net) electrons would be re- III. PCl 5 

 PCl 3  Cl 2
quired in all the three processes for the conversion disproportionation is not shown in
of 1 mole of each species?
1) I and II 2) II and III
1) 5 mole 2) 3 mole
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
3) 8 mole 4) 9 mole
75. In the reaction
69. Equivalent mass of HCl in the reactions is
As 2 S 5  xHNO 3  5H 2 SO 4  yNO 2  2H 3 AsO 4  12H 2O
K 2 Cr2 O7  14HCl 
 2KCl  2CrCl 3  3Cl 2 The value of x and y are
1) 36.5 2) 85.16 1) 10, 10 2) 40, 40
3) 15.6 4) 18.25 3) 20, 20 4) 30, 30
70. When BrO3 ion reacts with Br– in acid medium, 76. The intense purple colour of MnO 4 arises due to
Br2 is liberated. The equivalent weight of Br2 in this
the absorption fo visible light for
reaction is
1) Promotion of electron from t2g to eg orbital
3M 5M 2) Promotion of electron from eg to t2g orbital
1) 2)
5 3 3) d-d transition
5M 4M 4) Momentarily transfer of electron from O2–
3) 4)
8 6 to metal Mn(VII)
SCSS CW-10 Page 8
77. Identify P and Q products in given reactions 84. Select the incorrect statement
KI  MnO 4 
H 
 P  Mn 2 1) Sm2+, Eu2+ and Yb2+ are good oxidizing agent

2) Zr and Hf shows similar properties
KI  MnO 4 
OH
 IO 3  Q 3) La(OH)3 is the strongest base than the other
1) IO 3 , MnO2 respectively lanthanum hydroxides
4) Magnetic susceptibility values of actinides are
2) I2, Mn2+ respectively
greater than lanthanides
3) IO 3 , Mn2+ respectively 85. Match the coloumn
4) I2, MnO2 respectively Column-I Column-II
78. In the dichromate dianion, the nature of bonds are A. Ni in the presence i. Ziegler Natta catalyst
1) For equivalent Cr–O bonds of hydrogen
2) Six equivalent Cr–O bonds and one O–O
B. Cu2Cl2 ii. Contact process
bond
C. V 2O 5 iii. Vegatable oil to ghee
3) Six equivalent Cr–O bonds one Cr–Cr bond
D. Finely divided iron iv. Sandmeyer reaction
4) Six equivalent Cr–O bonds and one Cr–O–Cr
bond E. TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3 v. Haber’s process
79. Which of the following set of d-block metals have A B C D E
high volatility 1) iv ii iii i v
1) Ti, Zn and Hf 2) Cr, Mo and W 2) ii v i iii iv
3) Mn, Tc and Re 4) Zn, Cd and Hg 3) v iii iv ii i
80. In ruby and emerald, the metal ion(s) present is/ 4) iii iv ii v i
are
1) Cr6+, Mn3+ 2) Cr3+, Cr3+ [SECTION-B]
3) Mn3+, Co3+ 4) Co3+, Mn2+ 86. Calculate the energy of the following process:
81. Assertion : La(OH)3 is the most basic, while Lu He 2  (g)  2e  
 He(g)
(OH)3 is the least basic
Given,
Reason : As the size of lanthanoids decreases, co-
valent character of hydroxides decreases and basic He(g) 
 He  (g)  e  ; H  3.4  10 19 J atom 1
character increases. 1) – 9.04 × 10–18 J/atom
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason 2) – 3.4 × 10–19 J/atm
is the correct explanation of Assertion. 3) – 8.7 × 10–18 J/atm
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason 4) – 1.7 × 10–19 J/atm
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 87. Energy of Be3+(g) in 4th orbit in equal to that of
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 1) He+(g) in second orbit
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. 2) Li2+(g) in third orbit
82. The percentage of lanthanoids and iron, respec- 3) Na10+(g) in eleventh orbit
tively, in misch metal are 4) All are correct
1) 50, 50 2) 75, 25 88. Iron Fe+2 (II) (Z = 26) has x electrons in (n – 1)d, y
3) 90, 10 4) 95, 5 electrons in (n – 1) p and z electrons in (n – 2)s sub
83. The nature of oxides V2O3 and CrO is indexed as orbits. Thus, x, y and z are respectively
‘X’ and ‘Y’ type respectively. The correct set of X 1) x = 0, y = 6, z = 2
and Y is
2) x = 6, y = 6, z = 2
1) X = basic, Y = amphoteric
3) x = 6, y = 2, z = 2
2) X = amphoteric, Y = basic
4) x = 0, y = 6, z = 0
3) X = acidic, Y = acidic
4) X = basic, Y = basic

SCSS CW-10 Page 9

89. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr 96. Following steps are involved in manufacturing of
orbit of a hydrogen atom is [a0 is Bohr radius]. potassium dichromate
h2 h2 Chromite ore 
Fused with Na CO
2 3
in presence of air
 Solid mass 
1) 4 2 ma 20 2) 162 ma 02
(X)

h2 h2
3) 32 2 ma 20 4) 64 2 ma 02
90. Three isotopes of an elements have mass numbers, 
Add water
and filter

M, (M + 1) and (M + 2). If the mean mass number
is (M + 0.5) then which of the following ratios may What is difference in the O. N. of Cr between X
be accepted for M, (M + 1), (M + 2) in that order? and Z?
1) 1:1:1 2) 4:1:1 1) 3 2) 6
3) 3:2:1 4) 2:1:1 3) 2 4) 4
91. 3 moles of FeSO4 are oxidised by a mole of KMnO4 97. Interstitial compounds are formed when small at-
in acid medium whereas 3 moles of FeC2O4 are oms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of metals.
oxidised by b mole of KMnO4 in acid medium, Which of the following is not the characteristic
the ratio of a and b is property of interstitial compounds?
1) 1/2 2) 1/3 1) They have high melting points in compari-
3) 1/4 4) 1/5 son to pure metals
92. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of 2) They are very hard
which of the following compounds will require 3) They retain metallic conductivity
least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete 4) They are chemical very reactive
oxidation 98. Which is not true for describing the catalytic activ-
1) FeSO4 2) FeSO3 ity of transition metals?
3) FeC2O4 4) Fe(NO2)2 1) Their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
93. Oxidation number of Cr in the following com- states
2) Their ability to form bonds between reac-
pounds are x, y, z and w respectively
tant molecule and atoms of the surface of
K[CrO(O2 )OH], K 3 [Cr(O 2 )4 ], catalysts
x y
3) Increasing the concentration of reactants at
(NH 3 )3 [Cr(O 2 )2 , CrO 2 Cl 2 the catalyst surface.
z w
These values are 4) Strengthening the bonds in the reacting
molecules
1) 6, 13, 5, 6 2) 4, 5, 4, 6
99. In the following reactions (i) and (ii), the number
3) 4, 5, 6, 6 4) 4, 4, 4, 6 of moles of chlorine gas released
94. What mass of N2H4 can be oxidised to N2 by 24.0g i. MnO2  4HCl  
K2CrO4, which is reduced to Cr(OH)4 ? ii. KMnO4  16HCl  
(Given : Molar mass of K2CrO4 = 194.2) 1) 1 and 4 2) 1 and 5
1) 9.97 g 2) 2.97 g 3) 2 and 5 4) 2 and 4
100. Select the incorrect statement
3) 3.97 g 4) 4.97 g
1) The melting point of Mn is lower than that
95. Which of the following is not an intramolecular
of Cr and Fe in 3d series
redox reaction? 2) The melting point of Tc is higher than that
1) NH4 NO2   N2  2H 2O of Mo but lower than that of Ru in 4d series
2) 2Mn 2 O7   4MnO2  3O 2 3) The melting point of W (tungsten) is highest
3) 2KClO3   2KCl  3O2 in 5d series
4) 2H2 O2   2H2 O  O2 4) The order of melting points of 3d, 4d and 5d
series is : 5d > 4d > 3d

SCSS CW-10 Page 10

 Botany : GBI, CBI

[SECTION-A] 109. Statement-I : Tt is the genotype of plant while tall

101. The test cross is used to determine the is the phenotype.
1) Genotype of the plant Statement-II : Hybrids contain alleles which
2) Phenotype of the plant express contrasting traits, these plant are heterozy-
3) Both 1 and 2 gous
4) None of the above 1) Both I and II are correct
102. Percentage of pure breeding F2 individuals of a
2) Both I and II are incorrect
monohybrid cross would be
3) I is correct but II is incorrect
1) 75% 2) 50%
4) I is incorrect but II is correct
3) 25% 4) 12.5%
110. If haploid chromosomal number in a mammal is
103. In human beings, where genotype AABBCC
representes dark skin colour, aabbcc represents 24, the monosomic number will be
light skin colour and AaBbCc represents interme- 1) 23 2) 47
diate skin colour, the patter of genetic inheritance 3) 22 4) 49
can be termed as 111. Rajesh and Mahesh has defective haemoglobin due
1) Pleiotropy and codominance to genetic disorders. Rajesh has too few globin mol-
2) Pleiotropy and incomplete dominance ecules while Mahesh has incorrectly functioning
3) Polygenic and qualitative inheritance globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are
4) Polygenic and quantitative inheritance suffering from
104. In a genetic disease is transferred from a pheno-
typically normal but carrier female to only same of
the male progeny, the disease is
1) Autosomal dominant
2) Autosomal recessive
3) Sex-linked dominant
4) Sex-linked recessive
105. Among the following characters, which one was
not considered by Mendel in his experiments on
pea?
1) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
2) Seed – Green or Yellow
3) Pod – Inflated or Constricted
4) Stem – Tall or Dwarf 112. Through _______ X _______ and ______ Y _____
106. Which one from those given below is the period from ancestral wild cows, we have well known
for Mendel’s hybridization experiments? Indian breeds, for example, Sahiwal cow in Punjab.
1) 1840 – 1850 2) 1857 – 1869 Identify X and Y and choose correct option
3) 1870 – 1877 4) 1856 – 1863 1) X–Reproduction, Y–Domestication
107. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
2) X–Natural selection, Y–Reproduction
theory of inheritance was done by
3) X–Artificial selection, Y–Domestication
1) Sutton 2) Boveri
4) X–Domestication, Y–Variation
3) Morgan 4) Mendel
108. Statement-I : Sutton and Boveri noted that the 113. The character which can express in the homozy-
behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the gous and heterozygous condition in case of gar-
behaviour of genes den pea plant
Statement-II : Sutton gave chromosomal theory A. Full pod B. Yellow seed colour
of inheritance and he united the knowledge of C. Terminal flower D. Green pod colour
chromosomal segregation with Mendalian principle 1) A, B, D 2) A, C, D
of segregation 3) B, C, D 4) A, B, C, D
1) Both I and II are correct
2) Both I and II are incorrect
3) I is correct but II is incorrect
4) I is incorrect but II is correct

SCSS CW-10 Page 11

114. Which of the following cytogenetical event is not 117. The figure below shows
executing here?

1) Independent assortment of chromosome

2) Linkage
3) Equational division
4) Recombination
118. Which of the following phenomena leads to varia-
tion in DNA?
1) Linkage, mutation
2) Recombination, linkage
1) Segregation of factors 3) Aneuploidy, linkage
2) Pairing of factor 4) Mutation, recombination
3) Independent assortment of factors 119. Genes which are tightly linked on chromosome
4) Discrete nature of factors shows
115. What is the phenotypic ratio of progenies obtained 1) Very low recombination
by the test cross of the pink flower of Antirrhinum? 2) High recombination
1) 1 Red : 1 White 2) 3 Red : 1 White 3) Very low parental combination
3) 2 Pink : 1 White 4) 1 Pink : 1 White 4) Independent assortment
116. How many of the following statements are incor- 120. The inheritance of skin colour in humans is an
rect with respect to the ABO blood group system? example of
A. ABO blood groups are controlled by the 1) Codominance
gene I 2) Chromosomal aberration
B. Gene I has three alleles IA, IB and io 3) Point mutation
C. The alleles IA and IB produce the same forms 4) Polygenic inheritance
of sugar while io does not produce any sugar 121. Initial experiments in order to determine the ge-
D. Since there are three alleles of the I gene, there netic/chromosomal mechanism of sex-determina-
are six different possible genotypes tion were carried out in which class of organisms?
1) Four 2) Three 1) Human beings 2) Birds
3) Two 4) One 3) Insects 4) Plants

SCSS CW-10 Page 12

122. The abnormality that arises due to loss or gain of a 128. If A = normal allele, a = albino allele, then geno-
DNA is types of father and mother are respectively.
1) Frame-shift mutation (Albino is autosomal recessive disorder)
2) Point mutation
3) Polyploidy
4) Chromosomal aberration
123. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of
certain types of the trait in humans. Which one of
the following conditions could be an example of
this pattern? 1) Aa and Aa 2) AA and Aa
3) Aa and AA 4) Aa and aa.
129. A Y-linked gene is responsible for hypertrichosis
(long hair on ears). When an affected man marries
a normal woman, what percentage of their
1) Haemophilia
daughters would be expected to have hairy ears?
2) Thalassemia
1) 25% 2) 0%
3) Colour blindness
3) 50% 4) 100%
4) Both 1 and 3
130. The phenotype of an individual may not be affected
124. The disorder in which a single protein that is a part
if the modified allele produces
of the cascade or proteins involved in blood clot-
a) No enzyme at all
ting is affected is ______
b) The normal/less efficient enzyme
1) Thalassemia 2) Sickle-cell anaemia
c) A non-functional enzyme
3) Haemophilia 4) Phenylketonuria
1) Only (b) is correct
125. The affected individuals are short stature in disor-
2) (a) and (c) are correct
ders like
3) (b) and (c) are correct
1) Turner’s syndrome, phenylketonuria
4) Only (c) is correct
2) Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome
131. Fruit flies are one of the best materials for genetic
3) Klinefelter’s syndrome, Down’s syndrome
studies because of all, except
4) Turner’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome
1) Ability to grow on simple synthetic medium
126. Match the following
in the laboratory
Column-I Column-II
2) Short life span
A. Co-dominance 1. ABO blood group in
3) Production of a large number of progeny in
human being
each mating
B. Multiple alleles 2. Colour of human being
4) Presence of few externally visible and
C. Incomplete dominance 3. Coat colour in cattle’s
identifiable contrasting traits
D. Polygenic inheritance 4. Size of starch grain in
132. The phenotype of F1 hybrid resembles either of
pea seeds
the two parents in
1) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
1) Dominance
2) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1
2) Incomplete dominance
3) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
3) Co-dominance
4) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
4) Either 2 or 3
127. Assertion : Chicken eggs is responsible for the sex
133. Select the correct option w.r.t. law of independent
of their offspring
assortment
Reason : Chicken shows female heterogamety
1) It can be explained by using monohybrid
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
cross
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Inheritance of one character is dependent on
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
another character
but Reason is not the correct explanation
3) This law is not applicable universally
of Assertion.
4) It was proposed by Bateson
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
SCSS CW-10 Page 13
134. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pedigree 139. Round seeds trait (R) is dominant over wrinkled
analysis (r) seed trait in Pea. Heterozygous round seeded
1) Solid (filled) symbol shows the unaffected plant (Rr) is crossed with wrinkled seeded plant
individual (rr). What is the possible progeny?
2) It is useful for genetic counsellors to predict 1) 302 round : 102 wrinkled
2) 210 round : 95 wrinkled
genetic disorders
3) 105 round : 99 wrinkled
3) Pedigree can be used to predict possibilities
4) 103 round : 315 wrinkled
of Haemophilia, Colour blindness, etc…
140. Pick out the correct statements
4) It is an analysis of traits in a several I. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
generations of a family II. Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
135. Identify the wrong pair: III. Phenylketonuria is an autosomale recessive
1) Phenylketonuria - Recessive autosomal gene disorder
disorder IV. Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive
2) Thalassaemia - Recessive autosomal gene disorder
disease 1) i and iv are correct
3) Cystic Fibrosis - Autosomal recessive 2) ii and iv are correct
disorder 3) i, ii and iv are correct
4) Sickle-Cell Anaemia - Autosomal 4) i, ii and iii are corect
Dominant disorder 141. In the fruit fly, Drosophilia melanogaster, four genes
whose recessive alleles code for black body (B/b),
curved wings (C/c), purple eyes (P/p) and vestigial
[SECTION-B]
wings (V/n) are linked on chromosome 2.
136. Emasculation of flower is done when?
The given table shows distances between the gene
1) Stamens are mature loci, as determinated by breeding experiments.
2) Stamens are immature
3) Stigma is mature
4) Stigma is immature
137. Select the corerct statement from the ones given
below with respect to dihybrid cross
1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromo-
some show higher recombinations
2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome
show very few recombinations
1)
3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromo-
some show similar recombinations as the 2)
tightly linked ones
4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromo- 3)
some show very few recombinations
4)
138. Which one of the following conditions correctly
describes the manner of determining the sex in
the given example? 142.
1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) deter-
mine female sex in birds
2) XO type of sex chromosomes determine
male sex in insects 1) A–Polygenic qualitative,
3) XO condition in human as found in Turner’s B–Polygenic qualitative
syndrome, determines female sex 2) A–Monogenic qualitative,
4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (X)) produce B–Monogenic qualitative
male in Drosophila 3) A–Monogenic quantitative,
B–Monogenic qualitative
4) A–Polygenic qualitative,
B–Monogenic qualitative
SCSS CW-10 Page 14
143. Starch is synthesised effectively in which of the 147. Mutation of HBB gene leads to which disease
following type of garden pea? 1) -thalassemia 2) Albinism
1) Heterozygous round seeded plants 3) -thalassemia 4) Alkaptonuria
2) Homozygous round seeded plants 148. Study the pedigree chart of a family showing the
3) Wrinkled seeded plants inheritance of certain genetic disorder
4) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
144. Mendel published this his work on the inheritance
of characters in 1865 but it remained unrecognised
till 1900 because
A. He could not provide any physical proof for
the existence of factors
B. His concept of factors as stable, discrete units The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is
that controlled the expression of traits did 1) dominant X-linked
not find acceptance from the contemporaries 2) recessive X-linked
C. Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to 3) autosomal dominant
explain biological phenomena was totally old 4) autosomal recessive
D. Communication was not easy (as it is now) 149. The most popularly known blood grouping is the
1) A, B and C are corerct ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC,
2) C and D are correct becouse “O” in it refers to haivng :
3) A, B and D are correct 1) No antigens A and B on RBCs
4) All statements are correct 2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
145. Find out incorrect match 3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for
1) Chromosomal theory of inheritance – Sutton A and B types
and Boveri 4) One antibody only-either anti-A or anti-B on
2) Chromosomal map – Sturtevant the RBCs
3) Henkin – X body 150. A man and a woman, who do not show any
4) Mendel – Pisum sativum apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have
146. Human skin colour is controlled by three genes seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of
then find out phenotype of A, D and G in the fol- the sons suffer from the given disease but none of
lowing diagram individual human skin colour the daughters are affected. Which of the following
(most probable) mode of inheritance do you
suggest for this disease?
1) Sex-limited recessive
2) Autosomal dominant
3) Sex-linked recessive
4) Sex-linked dominant
1) A = light brown, D = intermediate, G = white
2) A = Negro black, D = intermediate, G = white
3) A = Intermediate, D = black, G = white
4) A = Dark brown, D = light brown, G = Very
dark brown

SCSS CW-10 Page 15

 Zoology : Reproductive Health

[SECTION-A] 158. Mostly the young, urban and working couples have
151. What is the reproductively healthy society? adopted the norm to population control is
1) Society with people having normal reproduc- 1) ‘Hum Do Hamare Do’
tive organs 2) ‘We Two, Our Three’
2) Normal emotional and behavioural interactions 3) ‘One Couple, One Child’
among society members 4) ‘One Couple, One Girl’
3) Society with total well-being in all aspects of 159. If the couple avoids coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
reproduction i.e., physical, emotional, menstrual cycle to avoid pregnancy, it is called
behavioural and social 1) Coitus interruptus
4) Maintenance of reproductive health of all 2) Periodic abstinence
society members by using different methods 3) Lactational amenorrhea
152. Who gave the widely accepted definition of 4) Contraception
reproductive health? 160. Assertion: As long as the mother breast-feeds the
1) NACO child fully, chances of conception are almost nil
2) AMERICAN CANCER SOCIETY Reason: Ovulation and therefore menstrual cycle do
3) NGO not occur during the period of intense lactation
4) WHO 1) Both sentences are correct and R is correct
153. Which among the following nations first initiated explanation of A
action plans and programmes at national level to attain 2) Both sentences are correct and R is not correct
total reproductive health? explanation of A
1) USA 2) Switzerland 3) A is correct and R is wrong
3) India 4) China 4) Both A and R are wrong
154. The programmes with reproduction-related areas are 161. Assertion: As no medicines or devices are used in
currently in operation under name natural methods, side effects are almost nil
1) National Population Policy Reason: Chances of failure in natural methods are
2) Family Planning high
3) Assisted Reproductive Technologies 1) Both sentences are correct and R is correct
4) Reproductive and Child Health Care explanation of A
155. What is important to discourage children from 2) Both sentences are correct and R is not correct
believing myths and misconception about sex-related explanation of A
aspects? 3) A is correct and R is incorrect
1) Statutory ban on amniocentesis 4) Both A and R are incorrect
2) Introduction of sex education in schools 162. Use of condoms has increased in recent years due to
3) Introduction of population study in schools its additional benefit of protecting the user from
4) Implementation of better techniques and new 1) STDs 2) AIDS
strategies from time to time 3) Hepatitis B 4) All of the above
156. According to the 2001 census report, the population 163. Which property of condoms gives privacy to the
growth rate of India was _____ per cent and the users?
doubling time was _____ years 1) Made of thin rubber latex sheath
1) 2.5, 23 2) 1.7, 33 2) Available for both males and females
3) 2.0, 30 4) 3.8, 42 3) Both male and female condoms are disposable
157. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ideal 4) Condoms can be self-inserted
contraceptive? 164. All of the following contraceptive barriers are only
1) User-friendly for females except
2) Not easily available 1) Diaphragms 2) Condoms
3) Effective and reversible 3) Cervical caps 4) Vaults
4) No or least side effects

SCSS CW-10 Page 16

165. Contraceptive efficiency of which barriers can be 174. Assertion: Contraceptives are not regular
increased by simultaneous use of spermicidal creams/ requirements for the maintenance of reproductive
jellies/foams? health
1) Disposable barriers Reason: Contraceptives are practiced against a natural
2) Reusable barriers reproductive event i.e. conception/pregnancy
3) IUDs 1) Both sentences are correct and R is correct
4) Traditional methods explanation of A
166. Multiload-375 is which type of IUD? 2) Both sentences are correct and R is not correct
1) Medicated explanation of A
2) Non-medicated 3) A is correct and R is wrong
3) Hormone releasing 4) Both A and R are wrong
4) Copper releasing 175. Statement 1: A widespread use of contraceptive
167. Lippes loop is which type of IUD? methods can prevent/delay/space pregnancy but
1) Medicated cannot control population growth
2) Non-medicated Statement 2: Widespread use of contraceptives has
3) Hormone releasing very significant ill-effects
4) Copper releasing 1) Both statements are correct
168. Which contraceptives are ideal for the females who 2) Both statements are incorrect
want to delay pregnancy and /or space children? 3) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is
1) Barriers correct
2) IUDs 4) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is
3) Oral contraceptives incorrect
4) Sterilisation 176. Intentional/voluntary termination of pregnancy
169. Which of the following oral contraceptive pills are before full term is called
taken by females daily for a period of 21 days and 1) MTP 2) Induced abortion
after giving a gap of 7 days again repeated? 3) Abortion 4) Both 1 and 2
1) Saheli 2) Today’s pills 177. Why MTP?
3) Mala-D 4) Morning pills 1) To get rid of unwanted pregnancies
170. Which pill has high contraceptive value with very 2) To check population explosion
few side effects and is taken by females as ‘once a 3) To avoid having children
week’? 4) To have children
1) Saheli 2) Today’s pills 178. GOI legalised MTP with some strict conditions. It is
3) Mala-D 4) Morning pills important to check
171. Possible pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected 1) MMR 2) IMR
intercourse could be avoided by using 3) Male foeticides 4) Female foeticides
1) Progestogen-estrogen combination within 72 179. All of the following are bacterial STDs except
hours of coitus 1) Trichomoniasis
2) IUDs within 72 hours of coitus 2) Syphilis
3) Progestogens within 72 hours of coitus 3) Gonorrhoea
4) All of the above 4) Chlamydiasis
172. Which of the following methods are generally advised 180. Infections which are transmitted through sexual
for the male/female partner as terminal method? intercourse are collectively called all of the following
1) Sterilisation methods except
2) Oral contraceptives 1) STDs 2) VDs
3) IUDs 3) RTIs 4) PIDs
4) Barrier methods 181. Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their more
173. Which of the following surgical method does not need incidences are reported to be very high among
incision in the abdomen? 1) Age group of children
1) Vasectomy 2) Tubectomy 2) Age group of colleges students
3) Salpindectomy 4) Oophorectomy 3) Age group of middle age adult
4) Age group of old people
SCSS CW-10 Page 17
182. One could get STD infection by practicing the 189. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
1) Avoiding sex with unknown/multiple partners Choose the correct options given below.
2) Use of condoms during coitus I. MTPs are not meant for the purpose of
3) Strict checking of blood before transfusion decreasing the population
4) Sharing common needle for drug intake II. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
among friend circle III. MTPs is always surgical
183. During IVF embryos with more than 8 blastomeres IV. MTPs require the assistance of qualified
are transfered into medical personnel.
1) Fallopian tube 2) Vagina 1) II and III 2) II and III
3) Uterus 4) Cervix 3) I and IV 4) I and II
184. Which ART is suggested by the doctor to the couple, 190. Use of condoms has increased in recent years due to
if infertility is due to inability of male to inseminate 1) It is effective barriers against insemination
the female partner or oligospermia? 2) It doesn’t interfere with coital act
1) ZIFT 2) GIFT 3) Its additional benefit of protection from STDs
3) AI 4) ICSI like AIDS
185. A rapid decline in death rate, IMR and MMR as 4) It is available for both male and female
well as an increase in number of people in 191. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
reproducible age are probable reasons for procedure.
1) increase in population growth rate 1) Ova collected from a female donor are
2) decline in population growth rate transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate
3) no significant change in population growth zygote formation
rate 2) Zygote collected from a female donor can be
4) explosive population growth rate transferred to the fallopian tube
3) Zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres is
[SECTION-B] transferred to the fallopian tube
186. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive 4) Both 2 and 3
due to the 192. Which of the following is considered as a
1) suppression of gonadotropins contraceptive method?
2) hypersecretion of gonadotropins 1) Oophorectomy 2) Hysterectomy
3) suppression of gamete formation 3) Vasectomy 4) Castration
4) suppression of fertilization 193. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
187. Sterilisation techniques are generally full proof contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose
methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, thecorrect option from the statements given below.
this is the last option for the couples because I. They are introduced into the uterus
I. it is almost irreversible. II. They are placed to cover the cervical region.
II. of the misconception that it will reduce sexual III. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.
urge/drive. IV. They act as spermicidal agents
III. it is a surgical procedure. 1) I and II 2) II and III
IV. of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of 3) I and III 4) III and IV
the country. 194. Select true statement from the following -
Choose the correct option – 1) Surgical methods of contraception prevent
1) I and III 2) I and II gamete formation
3) III and IV 4) I, III, and IV 2) All sexually transmitted diseases are not curable
188. Choose the right one among the statements given 3) ‘Saheli’ is the new contraceptive pill for women
below. contains a non-steroidal preparation
1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself 4) In E. T. techniques, embryos are always
2) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the transferred into the uterus
uterus
3) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
4) IUDs have nil side effects

SCSS CW-10 Page 18

195. Which are the False statements? 198. Find incorrect statement from the following
1. Abortions could happen spontaneously too. 1) Copper ions-releasing IUDs are more efficient
2. Infertility is defined as the inability to produce than non-medicated methods
a viable offspring and is always due to 2) Males in whom testes fail to descend to the
abnormalities/defects in the female partner. scrotum are generally infertile
3. Complete lactation could help as a natural 3) Lactational amenorrhea is a natural/traditional
method of contraception which is effective for contraceptive method
more than one year 4) Natural methods of contraception have less
4. Creating awareness about sex related aspects chances of failure than artificial methods
is an effective method to improve reproductive 199. Assertion : All reproductive tract infections RTIs are
health of the people. STDs, but all STDs are not RTIs.
1) 1 and 4 2) 1 and 3 Reason :Among the common STDs, hepatitis-B and
3) 2 and 3 4) 3 and 4 AIDS are not infections of the reproductive tract
196. Which of the following is incorrect statement? 1) Both sentences are correct and R is correct
1) Reproductive health in our country has explanation of A
improved in the past 50 years 2) Both sentences are correct and R is not correct
2) Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a explanation of A
contraceptive option 3) A is correct and R is wrong
3) Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned 4) Both A and R are wrong
in our country 200. All STIs are completely curable if detected early
4) Sex education is not necessary in schools and treated properly except
197. Which of the following is false statement? 1) Heptitis-B, genital herps and genital warts
1) Present population growth rate in India is 2) Heptitis-B, AIDS and genital warts
alarming 3) AIDS, Heptitis-B and genital herps
2) STDs can be considered as self-invited diseases 4) AIDS, genital herps and genital warts
3) Adoption is one of the best ‘Assisted Reproductive
Technologies’ (ART) programme.
4) Strict conditions are to be followed in Medical
Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) procedures

SYLLABUS FOR Group Test-II (28/02/2024)

PHYSICS
CW-06 to CW-10
TEST ANALYSIS CHART CHEMISTRY
Attempted Not Attempted Correct Wrong Score CW-06 to CW-10
Physics BoTanY
Chemistry
CW-06 to CW-10
Botany
Zoology
ZoologY
CW-06 to CW-10

SCSS CW-10 Page 19

NEET-2023-24 (INSPIRE) KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 24-02-2023

CW-10
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
1 1 14 1 27 2 40 1 51 1 64 3 77 4 90 2
2 4 15 3 28 2 41 3 52 2 65 4 78 4 91 2
3 3 16 4 29 3 42 4 53 2 66 4 79 4 92 1
4 4 17 3 30 3 43 3 54 2 67 2 80 2 93 2
5 3 18 2 31 1 44 2 55 1 68 2 81 3 94 2
6 1 19 2 32 2 45 4 56 2 69 2 82 4 95 4
7 4 20 3 33 2 46 4 57 1 70 1 83 4 96 1
8 3 21 1 34 1 47 3 58 2 71 1 84 1 97 4
9 1 22 4 35 1 48 3 59 1 72 1 85 4 98 4
10 4 23 1 36 2 49 1 60 3 73 4 86 1 99 2
11 1 24 2 37 1 50 1 61 1 74 4 87 4 100 2
12 4 25 2 38 3 62 1 75 2 88 1
13 2 26 3 39 4 63 1 76 4 89 3

NEET-2023-24 (INSPIRE) KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 24-02-2023

CW-10
BOTANY ZOOLOGY
101 1 114 3 127 1 140 4 151 3 164 2 177 1 190 3
102 2 115 4 128 1 141 1 152 4 165 2 178 4 191 4
103 4 116 2 129 2 142 3 153 3 166 4 179 1 192 3
104 4 117 1 130 1 143 2 154 4 167 2 180 4 193 2
105 1 118 4 131 4 144 3 155 2 168 2 181 2 194 3
106 4 119 1 132 1 145 1 156 2 169 3 182 4 195 3
107 3 120 4 133 3 146 2 157 2 170 1 183 3 196 4
108 1 121 3 134 1 147 3 158 3 171 4 184 3 197 3
109 1 122 4 135 4 148 4 159 2 172 1 185 4 198 4
110 2 123 2 136 2 149 1 160 1 173 1 186 1 199 1
111 2 124 3 137 4 150 3 161 2 174 1 187 1 200 3
112 3 125 2 138 2 162 4 175 2 188 2
113 1 126 3 139 3 163 4 176 4 189 3