NEET Level Test (18-Feb-24)

NEET Level Test (18- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Feb-24) 8527521718
Physics - Section A 3 Which of the following statements is correct?

Charges were named as positive and negative by the
1.
1 Correctly match the two lists. American scientist Benjamin Franklin.
Gold leaf electroscope can be used to detect charge on a
2.
body.
List-I List-II
Charge can be created on any substance by the process of
a. Gauss's law (electrostatics) P.
→ →
3.
∮ B . dA = 0 induction.
b. Ampere's circuital law Q.
→ → 4. Both (1) and (2) are correct.
∮ B .d l = μ0 ienclosed
→ q
→
c. Gauss's law (magnetism) R. ∮ E . dA =
enclosed
4 Given below are two statements:
ε0
dϕ
Kirchhoff’s current law is a consequence of
d. Faraday's law of induction S. ε = −
B
dt Statement I: the conservation of energy as applied to

electric circuits.
1. a → R, b → Q, c → S, d → P Kirchhoff’s voltage law is a consequence of
Statement II:
2. a → R, b → Q, c → P, d → S the conservation of charge.
3. a → R, b → S, c → Q, d → P
4. a → R, b → S, c → P, d → Q 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2 A long cylindrical wire carries a current I flowing 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
uniformly along its axis, on its outer surface. 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
5 A point charge q is placed at the centre of a uniformly

charged ring of radius R, carrying a charge Q. The potential
1
energy of interaction between them is: (k = )
4πε0
qQ qQ
1. k 2. k
R 2πR
πqQ
3. k 4. zero
R
6 For a ferromagnetic material, the susceptibility is:

1. Large and negative 2. Large and positive
3. Small and positive 4. Small and negative
The magnetic field at a point in the interior of the wire is: 7 Capacitors are used to store charge and energy. The
1. zero charge and energy can also be shared with another capacitor.
μ0 I Consider two parallel plate capacitors A and B having
2. ,r being distance from the axis
2πr capacitances 1 μF and 5 μF. Initially, both are charged
μ0 I r separately with a 100 V source. Now the positive plate of A is
3.
2πR
2 connected to the negative plate of B and the negative plate of
μ I
0 A to the positive plate of B. What will be the common
4. ,r being distance from the axis potential of the capacitors?
2π(r−R)
1. V
200
2. 100 V
3. 50 V
4. 200 V
Page: 1
Feb-24) 8527521718
8 The Wheatstone Bridge, shown in the figure, is balanced. 11 The capacitance of the system of capacitors connected in
It will remain balanced, if: the circuit, between A and B, equals:
1. 4 μ F 2. 2.5 μ F
3. 2.4 μ F 4. 1.5 μ F
1. R1 , R2 are interchanged 12 A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 10

22
free
2. R1 , R3 are interchanged electrons per cubic metre. The drift velocity for free electrons
3. R1 , R4 are interchanged when 10 A current flows through the wire will be:
4. R2 , R4 are interchanged (Given, charge on electron = 1.6 × 10 C) −19
1. m/s
6.25×10
9 Two permanent magnets oriented in the same direction,

2. 6.25
π
× 10
3
m/s
when brought together: 3. 6.25
m/s
π
1. will attract each other 6.25×10
5
4. m/s
2. will repel each other π
3. will not exert any force on each other Given below are two statements:
13
may attract or repel each other depending on how they are
4. Permeability of a paramagnetic substance
brought together Statement I:
decreases when temperature is increased.
Given below are two statements: As temperature increases, random molecular
10 Statement II: motion increases and molecular magnets
If a permanent magnet, be oriented and become more randomly oriented.
moved along the axis of a conducting
Assertion (A):
solenoid, an emf will be induced across the
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
solenoid.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
As the permanent magnet is moved along the
axis of the solenoid, oriented as mentioned, 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Reason (R): the magnetic field and thereby, the flux due to 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
this field through the solenoid changes. This
induces an emf, by Faraday's law. 14 The product of L (inductance) and C (capacitance) has
the dimensions of:
1. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. time 2. frequency
2. (A) is False but (R) is True. 3. (time)2 4. (frequency)2
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
3.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4.
explanation of (A).
Page: 2
Feb-24) 8527521718
15 A charged particle carrying a charge q, moves with a 1. FI = FI I 2. 3FI = FI I
velocity v parallel to a long current-carrying wire (current: i), 3.

F
I
= FI I 4. FI √ 3 = FI I
at a distance r from the wire. 3
The magnetic field of the wire and the velocity of the charged
19 A certain wire A has resistance 81 Ω . The resistance of
particle make an angle between them. This angle is:
1. 0 another wire B of the same material and equal length but of
2. 90 ∘
diameter thrice the diameter of A will be:
3. 180 ∘
1. 81 Ω 2. 9 Ω
4. 45 ∘
3. 729 Ω 4. 243 Ω
16 Given below are two statements:

20 A galvanometer having a resistance of 50 Ω, gives a full-
If there is no net charge inside a Gaussian scale deflection for a current of 10 mA. The resistance to be
Statement I: surface, the net flux through the Gaussian
connected to it to convert it into a voltmeter that can read
surface is zero.
10 V is:
If there is no net charge inside a Gaussian 1. 950 Ω in series
Statement II: surface, the electric field at every point of the 2. 950 Ω in parallel
Gaussian surface is zero. 3. 2.5 Ω in series
4. 2.5 Ω in parallel
1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. 21 An electromagnetic wave given by:
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. → ^ ^
E = E0 ( i + j) sin(ωt − kz)
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. is travelling in space, where E→ is the electric field at (x, y, z)
at time t. The amplitude of the electric field is:

17 The current through a 5 Ω resistance remains the same,
1. E 0 2. √2E 0
irrespective of its connection across a series or parallel E0
combination of two identical cells. The internal resistance of 3. 2E0 4.

√2
the cell is:
1. 2.
5 Ω 10 Ω
22 The primary to secondary turns-ratio
N
P
= 10, for a
3. 15 Ω 4. 20 Ω N
S
transformer. If a primary AC voltage of 100 V rms is applied

18 Two segments of conducting wires shaped in the forms at the primary, the AC output voltage at secondary will be
(rms):
of arcs of circles of equal radii, are placed in the same plane
(see figure). Both the wires (I and I I ) carrry the same current
i, and are placed in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular 0
3
to their plane. The first wire (I ) covers 4
of a circle while the
1
second (I I ) covers (
4
) of the circle. The magnetic force on
the first wire (I ) is FI and that on the second (I I ) is FI I .
Then:
1. 100 V 2. 1000 V
3. 10 V 4. 10
4
V
Page: 3
Feb-24) 8527521718
23 Consider the circuit shown in the figure, with a current of 25 The graph showing the variation of the electric field (E)
10 A entering at node A. In one situation (I ), current is with the distance (r) from the centre of a conducting
allowed to leave from node B but not from the outgoing wire spherical shell is: (where R is the radius of spherical shell)
at C (see figure). In the second situation (I I ), it is allowed to
leave from node C, but not from the outgoing wire at B.
1. 2.
3. 4.
26 A pair of identical point charges (q-each) are placed at

the two vertices of an equilateral triangle. What charge (Q)
The total current leaving C, in situation I I , is:
should be placed at the third vertex, so that the potential
1. zero 2. 10 A
energy of the charge distribution is doubled?
3. 5 A 4. 8 A
24 A charge Q is placed at the centre of a thin spherical shell

of radius R. An electron is moved from point A to point B
(see figure). The total work done will be:
q
1. q 2. 2
3. 2q 4. 4q
27 The axial electric field of a dipole (moment: p) equals

that of a point charge (charge: Q); both at the same distance r.
Then:
p
1. zero 1. r =
Q
p
2. r =
Q
2. 4πϵ0 R 2Q
Q 2p
3. 4πϵ0 (2R)
3. r =
Q
4. depends on the path followed 4. r =

Q
2p
Page: 4
Feb-24) 8527521718
28 The effective resistance in the following circuit across 31 The electric field inside a uniformly charged thin
terminal A and B is equal to: spherical shell having radius R and total charge Q is:
(ε is the permittivity of free space)
0
Q Q
1. 4πε0 R2
2. 4πε0 R
3. zero 4. 2πε0 R
2
32 A particle having charge q, mass m is shot into a region

1. 5 Ω 2. 10 Ω
where there is a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to
3. 20 Ω 4. 40 Ω
o
the direction of its motion. After traversing a distance s , the o
particle emerges with a velocity which is opposite to its initial

29 A very long straight current (i) carrying wire passes
direction. The speed of the particle is:
through the centre of a circle, making an angle θ with the qBo
→ ⋅ dl
→ around the circle, 1. so
normal to its plane. The integral ∮ B m
qBo so
→ is the magnetic field)
equals: (B 2. m 2
qBo so
3. m π
qBo πso
4. m 2
33 A 10 μC charge is divided into two equal parts and kept

at 1 cm distance. What will be the force of repulsion between
the two charges?
1. 225 N 2. 450 N
3. 2250 N 4. 4500 N
34 An alternating current (I ) varies with time (t) as shown

1. μ0 i 2. μ0 i cos θ
in the figure below. The average value of current for complete
3. μ0 i sin θ 4. μi tan θ
cycle will be:
30 The capacitance between two close parallel metallic

plates (plate area: A, separation: d; d being small), where
half of the space between them is filled by a dielectric of
dielectric constant K, is (see figure):
1. I 0
I0
2. 4
2I0
3. π
ε0 A 4. zero
1. (K + 1)
d
ε A (K+1)
0
2. 2
d
ε A 2
3.
0
d K+1
ε0 A 2K
4. K+1
d
Page: 5
Feb-24) 8527521718
35 A current-carrying wire is bent into the planar form 37 A current of 0.2 A flowing through a coil is increasing at
shown in the figure: two very long straight parallel sections a constant rate of 0.4 A/s. If the power flowing through the
XP & Y R joined to a semi-circular section P QR. Let the coil is 0.4 W, the self-inductance of the coil will be:
magnetic field at O due to the straight sections be B and that
0 1. 1.25 H
due to the semi-circular section be B .
1 2. 2.5 H
3. 5 H
4. 10 H
38 A coil of area 100 cm2 is held perpendicular to a

magnetic field B = 0.2 T. It is rotated by an angle 90 to ∘
make it parallel to the field in 2 s. What is the EMF produced

in the coil?
1. 0.1 × 10 V −2
2. 0.2 × 10 V −2
3. 0.1 × 10 V −1
4. 0.2 × 10 V −3
39 A capacitor is charged up to a voltage V0 . Thereafter,

The ratio B 1 /B0 equals:
2
50% of the charge is taken from the positive plate and placed
1. π
on the negative plate, slowly. If the initial energy stored in the
2.
π
capacitor was E , the magnitude of work done during the
0
2
1
removal of 50% of the charge, is:
3. π E0
1.
4. π 2
E0
2.
Physics - Section B
4
3E
0
3. 4
36 A square conducting wire-loop of side l is moved with 4.

3E
0
uniform velocity v parallel to one of its sides (RQ), entering a

region with a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to its 40 A circular conducting wire-loop of radius r rotates about
plane. The left-edge of the B-field is parallel to the side P Q, its axis in a uniform magnetic field B parallel to its axis
and the loop just enters the field at time, t = 0. (perpendicular to its own plane). The EMF induced in the
loop, which rotates with angular speed ω, is:
1. zero 2. 2
πr ωB
2 2
ωr B
l 3. πr ωB
4. ( ) sin ωt
The magnetic flux through the wire loop at time t(t < v
) is: 2 2
1. 2Blvt
2. Blvt
3. Bl(l − vt)
1
4. 2
Blvt
Page: 6
Feb-24) 8527521718
41 An electromagnetic wave is incident onto a surface and 1. −100 V

2. −100√3 V
delivers an energy E and a momentum p. Then:
3. −100(1 + √3) V
1. E and p are both zero.
4. −200√5 V
2. E and p are both non-zero.
3. E is zero and p is non-zero. The current through the upper resistance, after the
46 i 2 Ω
4. E is non-zero, p is zero.
key K is closed,
→ is
42 An electromagnetic wave, given by its electric field E,
travelling in space: → ^
E = E0 j sin 2π(10
3
s
−1
t −
x
)
λ
The wave is travelling along:

1. the positive x-axis
2. the negative x-axis
3. the positive y-axis
4. the negative y-axis
43 Two, very long parallel wires carry equal currents in

opposite directions and are separated by a distance d. The 1. increases
magnetic energy density due to the field of the wires, at a 2. decreases
point midway between them is u. The force per unit length 3. remains unchanged
acting between the wires is:
4. becomes infinite
1. πdu 2. 2πdu
3.
πdu
4.
πdu
47 A circuit consists of an inductor, L = 2 × 10
−3
H and a
2 4
capacitor C = 20 μF connected in series. An alternating

44 An alternating emf of V = 20 V sin(100π
−1
s . t) is voltage V (t) = V sin ωt is applied. V = 300 V, and
0 0
−1
applied to an inductor and the peak current through the ω = 2500 s
inductor is observed to be A. The inductance is:

20
1.
1
10
H 2. 100
1
H
H
1
3.
1
1000
H 4. 4
10
45 A uniform electric field of 100 V/m is directed as shown

in the figure. The potential difference (V B − VA ) is:
(Given OA = 2 m and OB = 4 m.)
The reactance (X ) of the capacitance, which is inversely
C
proportional to the frequency, is:

1. 5 Ω 2. 10 Ω
3. 20 Ω 4. 40 Ω
Page: 7
Feb-24) 8527521718
48 Two circuits are placed close to each other: the first

Chemistry - Section A
circuit (A) carries a current i changing with time while the
A
second circuit (B) is kept closed with a resistance R in it. B

51 Select the correct statements:
The current induced in the second circuit (B) is proportional
A raw mango placed in a concentrated salt solution loses
to: (A)
water via osmosis and shrivels into a pickle.
1. R B
2. R −1 The value of van’t Hoff factor for ethanoic acid (acetic

(B)
acid) in benzene is more than 1.
B
3. R 2
B
68% nitric acid and 32% water is an example
4. R −2 (C)
B of minimum boiling azeotrope.
Tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air and helium
49 Two identical thin non-conducting spherical shells of (D)
to avoid bends.
radius r are charged uniformly with equal and opposite 1. Only B and D are correct.
charges +Q, −Q and placed, so that their surfaces almost 2. Only A, B, and D are correct.
touch each other, externally (see figure). The electric fields at 3. Only C and D are correct.
their centres are E→ , E→ while the potentials are V , V
A B A B
4. Only A and D are correct.
respectively. Then:
52 The standard reduction potentials of Ni2+/Ni, Fe3+/Fe,
and Ag+/Ag are ‐0.25 V, 0.77 V, and 0.8 V respectively. The
following cells were constructed:
(i) Ni ∣∣Ni ∣∣ ∣∣Fe ∣∣ Fe
2+ 3+
(ii) Ni ∣∣Ni
2+
∣ ∣Ag
∣∣
+
∣
∣ Ag
(iii) Fe ∣∣Fe 3+
∣
∣∣∣Ag
+
∣
∣ Ag
The correct order of Eocell of these cells is:

1. (ii)>(iii)>(i) 2. (ii)>(i)>(iii)
1. E→ A
→
= E B , VA = VB 3. (i)>(ii)>(iii) 4. (iii)>(i)>(ii)
2. E→ A
→
= −E B , VA = VB
3. E→ A
→
= E B, VA = −VB 53 An allotrope of carbon which exhibits only two types of
4. E→ A
→
= −E B , VA = −VB C - C bond distance of 143.5 pm and 138.3 pm, is:
1. Charcoal
50 Two long solenoids have the same total length and the 2. Graphite
same total number of turns, but their cross-sectional areas are 3. Diamond
different: A , A where A > A . Their self-inductances
1 2 1 2
4. Fullerene
L , L are in the ratio (approximately):
1 2
54 The oxidation state of manganese and sulphur,

1. A1 : A2 2. A
2
1
: A
2
2
3. A2 : A1 4. A
2
: A
2 respectively, in the final products formed by the reaction
2 1
between thiosulfate and a faintly alkaline permanganate
solution will be:
1. +2 and +5
2. +4 and +6
3. +7 and 2.5
4. +2 and +2
55 A bidentate ligand among the following is:

1. Acetate 2. Oxalate
3. Thiocyanate 4. EDTA
Page: 8
Feb-24) 8527521718
56 The incorrect statement among the following is: 61 Match column I (alloy) with column II (composition) and
Actinoid contraction is greater for element-to-element than mark the appropriate choice:
1.
lanthanoid contraction. Column I Column II
2. Lanthanoids on reaction with H2O give oxygen gas. (A) Mischmetal (i) Alloy of Cu and Sn
Ce (+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in (B) Ziegler-Natta catalyst (ii) Alloy of lanthanoid metals
3.
volumetric analysis. (C) Brass (iii) TiCl4 + Al(CH3 )
3
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when (D) Bronze (iv) An alloy of Cu and Zn
4.
finely divided.
1. (A)→(iv),(B)→(i),(C)→(iii),(D)→(ii)
57 The correct statement, among the following, regarding 2. (A)→(ii),(B)→(iii),(C)→(iv),(D)→(i)
transition elements is: 3. (A)→(iii),(B)→(ii),(C)→(i),(D)→(iv)
1. They exhibit diamagnetism. 4. (A)→(i),(B)→(iii),(C)→(ii),(D)→(iv)
2. They exhibit inert pair effect.
3. They do not form alloys. 62 If the initial concentration of a substance A is 1.5 M and
4. They show variable oxidation states. after 120 seconds, the concentration of the substance A is 0.75
M, the rate constant for the reaction (if it follows zero-order
58 kinetics) will be:
F rCr2 O4 + N a2 CO3 + Air → (A) + F e 2
O3 + CO2 1. 0.00625 molL-1s -1 2. 0.00625 s -1
(A) + (B) → C 3. 0.00578 molL-1s -1 4. 0.00578 s -1
C + KCl → D
(Orange) 63 Given E o
3+
= −0.72 V, E
o
2+
= −0.42 V .
Cr /Cr Fe /Fe
C and D are strong oxidizing agents. D is used as the primary

The potential for the cell Cr ∣ Cr
3+
(0.1M)∥Fe
2+
(0.01M)Fe
standard in volumetric analysis. On the basis of the above
will be:
paragraph.
1. -0.339 V
The incorrect statement among the following is:
2. -0.26 V
1. C is more soluble in water than D. 3. 0.26 V
D consists of two tetrahedral sharing one corner with a Cr- 4. 0.3 V
2.
O-Cr bond angle of 126°.
3. Aqueous solution of A is yellow colored. 64 Consider the following statements:
4. The oxidation state of Cr in D is +3. After splitting of d-orbitals during complex
Assertion (A): formation, the orbitals form two sets of
59 A solution is obtained by mixing 200 g of a 30% and 300 orbitals t and e octahedral field.
2g g
g of a 20% solution by weight. The percentage of solute in the Reason (R): Splitting of d-orbitals occurs only in the case
final solution will be: of strong-field ligands such as CN-.
1. 50% 2. 28%
3. 64% 4. 24% Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
60 Incorrect statement regarding cerium is:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
1. +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions. explanation of (A).
+3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than +4 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2.
oxidation state. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. Cerium in +4 oxidation state is diamagnetic.
4. Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent.
Page: 9
Feb-24) 8527521718
65 The molar conductance of an electrolyte increases with 70 The value of ∆G° for the given reaction is:
dilution according to the equation: 2Al + 3Cu
+2
→ 2Al +3
+ 3Cu
Λm =
∘
Λm − A √c (Given: E o
Al
3+
/Al
= − 1.67 V ; E
o
Cu
2+
/Cu
= 0.34 V )
Consider the following four statements: 1. –(12)(96,500) J
A: This equation applies to both strong and weak electrolytes. 2. –(6)(96,500) J
The value of the constant A depends upon the nature of the 3. +(6)(96,500) J
B:
solvent. 4. +(12)(96,500) J
The value of constant A is the same for both BaCl and
C: 2
The radioactive isotope that would have a longer half-
M gSO4 71
The value of constant A is the same for both BaCl and life O or O is:
15 19
D: 2
M g(OH )2 (given rate constants for O and 15 19

O are 5.63 × 10 −3
s
−1
and
Which of the above statements are correct? k = 2.38 × 10 s respectively)
−2 −1
1. (A) and (B) only

2. (A), (B), and (C) only 1. O 15
3. (B) and (C) only 2. O 19
4. (B) and (D) only 3. Both will have the same half-life
4. None of the above
66 In the preparation of KMnO4, pyrolusite (MnO2) is first
72 H2O is a liquid whereas H2S is a gas because of:
converted to dark green potassium manganate. In this
conversion, the oxidation state of manganese changes from: 1. Stronger van der Waals force in H2O
1. +1 to +3 2. +2 to +4 2. Stronger hydrogen bonding in H2O
3. +3 to +5 4. +4 to +6 3. Stronger ion-dipole interaction in H2O
4. High dissociation constant of H2O
67 In the reaction A + 2B → C, the rate law is
73 One proposed mechanism for the hydrolysis of ester is
experimentally determined to be rate = k[B]2. What happens
to the initial rate of reaction when the concentration of A is shown below.
doubled? RCOOR' + H3O+ → RCOHOR'+ + H2O
1. The rate doubles. RCOHOR'+ + H2O → RC(OH)OR'(OH2)+
2. The rate quadruples.
3. The rate halves. RC(OH)OR'(OH2)+ + H2O → RCOOH + R'OH + H3O+
4. The rate is unchanged. An intermediate species among the following is:
1. RCOHOR'+ 2. H 3O +
68 The limiting molar conductivities of KCl, KNO3, and
3. RCOOR' 4. R'OH
AgNO3 are 149.9, 145.0, and 133.4 S cm 2 mol−1,
respectively, at 25°C. The limiting molar conductivity of AgCl 74 If the first-order reaction half-life of a substance is 36
at the same temperature in S cm2 mol−1 will be: minutes and its initial amount is 10 g, then the amount left
1. 128.5 2. 138.3 after 2 hours is:
3. 161.5 4. 283.3 1. 1g 2. 2g
3. 3g 4. 4g
69 When 1 L of 0.1 M sulfuric acid solution is allowed to
75 The lowest enthalpy of atomization among the following
react with 1 L of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide solution, the
amount of sodium sulphate (anhydrous) that can be obtained is:
from the solution formed is: 1. Sc 2. Cu
1. 4.55 g 2. 7.10 g 3. Zn 4. Ni
3. 3.55 g 4. 9.10 g
Page: 10
Feb-24) 8527521718
76 When a graph is plotted for log k vs , a straight line 82 Rate of a reaction = k[A][B]-1 The overall order of the
1
with a slope -6670 K is obtained. The activation energy for reaction will be:
this reaction will be: 1. 1
(R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1). 2. ‐1
3. 0
1. 122.65 kJmol-1
4. Cannot be defined
2. 127.71 kJmol-1
3. 142.34 kJmol-1 83 Consider the following statements:
4. 150.00 kJmol-1
Components of an Azeotropic binary mixture cannot be
(A)
separated by fractional distillation.
77 Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex
Ethanol-water azeotropic mixture contains approximately
as well as is diamagnetic in behaviour? (B)
95% by volume of ethanol.
(Atomic number of Zn = 30, Cr = 24, Co= 27, Ni = 28)
A solution containing components A and B follows
1. [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (C) Raoult's law if A-B attraction force remains the same as
2. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ A-A and B-B attraction forces.
3. [Co(NH3)6]3+ The correct statements are:
1. A and B only.
4. [Ni(NH3)6]2+ 2. B and C only.
3. A, B, and C.
78 100 mL of liquid A was mixed with 25 mL of liquid B to
4. A and C only.
give a non-ideal solution of A-B. The volume of this mixture
will be: 84 Number of atoms of calcium that will be deposited from
1. 75 mL a solution of CaCl2 by a current of 25 mA flowing for 60
2. Exact 125 mL seconds will be:
3. Between 75 mL and 125 mL
4. Close to 125 mL but will not exceed 125 mL 1. 4.68×1018 2. 4.68×1015
3. 4.68×1012 4. 4.68×109
79 A solution of urea (molar mass = g mol ) boils at
−1
60
100.18 °C at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 85 Correct statement regarding Werner's theory is:
1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol-1 respectively, the above solution 1. Secondary valence cannot be ionized.
will freeze at: 2. Secondary valence can be ionized.
1. -6.54 °C 2. 6.54 °C 3. Primary and secondary valencies cannot be ionized.
3. 0.654 °C 4. -0.654 °C 4. Only primary valence cannot be ionized.
80 Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl results in: Chemistry - Section B

1. Increase in pH of the solution
2. Decrease in pH of the solution 86 12 g of a non-volatile solute dissolved in 108 g of water
3. Liberation of oxygen at the cathode produces a relative lowering of the vapour pressure of 0.1.
4. Liberation of hydrogen at the anode The molecular mass of the solute is:
1. 80
81 During the decomposition of N2O5 , a certain time 2. 60
3. 20
interval is 2.4×10-4 mol L-1 min-1.
1
4. 40
N2 O5 ⟶ 2NO2 + O2
2
The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 in mol L-1 min-1 will be: 87 The compound with the highest reducing property among
1. 2.3×10-5 and 1.2×10-5 respectively the following is:
2. 3.8×10-4 and 0.6×10-4 respectively 1. AsH3
3. 2.4×10-4 and 1.5×10-4 respectively 2. PH3
4. 4.8×10-4 and 1.2×10-4 respectively 3. NH3
4. BiH3
Page: 11
Feb-24) 8527521718
88 Consider the following statements 94 Consider the following complex ions, P, Q, and R.
(a) Cr(CO)6 is an organometallic compound. P = [F eF6 ]

3−
, Q = [V (H2 O)6 ]
2+
and
2+
Wilkinson's catalyst is used for the hydrogenation of R = [F e(H2 O)6 ]
(b) The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment values (in
alkenes and it is a ruthenium complex.
In black and white photography, hypo solution is used to B.M.) of the complex ions is:
(c) 1. R<Q<P 2. Q<R<P
dissolve the undecomposed AgBr.
Correct statements are: 3. R<P<Q 4. Q<P<R
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only 95 A compound, among the following, that can show both
3. (a) and (c) only facial and meridional isomerism is:
4. (a), (b), and (c) 3+
1. [Co (en) ]
3
4−
89 The noble gas that does NOT occur in the atmosphere is : 2. [Co (NH3 ) (Cl) ]
4 2
3. [Co (NH3 ) (Cl) ]

1. He 3 3
2. Kr 4. [Co (NH3 )
5
Cl]SO4
3. Ne
4. Rn 96 Among the following oxoacids, the correct decreasing
order of acid strength is:
90 Which of the following can support 'spin only' magnetic 1. HClO > HOCl > HClO > HClO
4 2 3
moment equal to 2.84 BM? 2. HClO > HClO > HClO > HOCl
4 3 2
1. d4 (in strong ligand field) 3. HClO > HClO > HClO > HOCl
2 4 3
4. HOCl > HClO > HClO > HClO

2. d4 (in weak ligand field)
2 3 4
3. d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields) 97 The incorrect statement among the following is:
4. d5 (in strong ligand field)
1. Halogens are strong oxidising agent.
Formula of 2. Halogens are more reactive than interhalogens.
91
3. All halogens are coloured.
bis (ethylenediamine) dithiocyanatoplatinum(IV) ion is:
1. P t[(en) S CN ] Halogens have the maximum negative electron gain
4.
4−
2 2
enthalpy.
2. P t[(en) S CN ]
2 2
4+
3. [P t(en)(SCN ) ] 4−
The conductivity of an electrolytic solution depends on

98
2
4. [P t(en) (SCN ) ]
2 2
2+
a. Nature of the electrolyte

An example of ionization isomerism among the b. Concentration of the electrolyte
92
c. Power of AC source
following is: d. Distance between the electrodes
1. [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] The correct statements from the four statements given above
2. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O are:
3. [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl4] 1. (a, b)
4. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br 2. (b, c)
3. (c, d)
93 A set of coloured ions among the following is: 4. (a, d)
1. Sc 3+
, Ti
4+
, Mn
3+
The most characteristic oxidation state for lead and tin is,
2. Sc 3+
, Zn
2+
, Ni
2+ 99
3. V 3+
,V
2+
, Fe
3+ respectively,:
4. Ti 3+ 4+ 2+ 1. +4, +2
, Ti , Ni
2. +2, +4
3. +4, +4
4. +2, +2
Page: 12
Feb-24) 8527521718
100 The statement among the following that is not 104 What would be true for filiform apparatus?
correct about the order of a reaction is: 1.
It is a part of synergids and guides the entry of the pollen
The order of a reaction can be a fractional tube into the embryo sac.
1. It is a part of synergids and allows the germination of only
number. 2.
the right type of pollen on the stigma.
The order of a reaction is an experimentally It is a part of antipodals and guides the entry of the pollen
2.
determined quantity. 3.
tube into the embryo sac.
The order of a reaction is always equal to the It is a part of antipodals and allows the germination of only
4.
3.
sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of the right type of pollen on the stigma.
reactants in
105 Both autogamy and geitonogamy will be prevented
the balanced chemical equation for a reaction.
The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers when:
4. of molar concentrations of the reactants in the 1. Unisexual flowers are present on the same plant
2. Bisexual plants are present on the same plant
rate law expression.
3. Male and female flowers are present on different plants
4. All flowers are cleistogamous
Biology I - Section A
106 Cryopreservation is a technique that involves storing
101 The mRNA: biological material in liquid nitrogen at:
I: is transcribed on the template of DNA. 1. 0°C
is complementary to the template DNA on which it is 2. - 4°C
II:
transcribed. 3. -100°C
1. Only I 4. -196°C
2. Only II
3. Both I and II 107 Normally a transcription unit will include all of the
4. Neither I nor II following except:
1. Operator
102 Which of the following biomolecules can act as genetic 2. Promoter
material? 3. Structural gene
I: DNA 4. Terminator
II: RNA
III: Proteins 108 The unit for measurement of the distance between two
1. Only I and II linked genes on a chromosome is:
2. Only I and III 1. Centimorgans
3. Only II and III 2. Base pairs
4. I, II and III 3. Micrometers
4. Angstroms
103 The genetic code is not:
1. nearly universal 109 The layer in the wall of a microsporangium that
2. degenerate provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains is the:
3. read with punctuations 1. Epidermis 2. Endodermis
4. triplet
3. Endothecium 4. Tapetum
110 The nutritive tissue endosperm is seen in the mature

seeds of:
1. Coconut 2. Pea
3. Gram 4. Bean
Page: 13
Feb-24) 8527521718
111 In about 40 per cent of angiosperms: 118 The type of distribution curve shown in the figure is
1. pollens are shed at two-celled stage seen in:
the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the
2. two male gametes
before pollen grains are shed
the vegetative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the
3. two male gametes
before pollen grains are shed
4. pollens do not make gametes at all
112 Plants do not have many parts that can be preserved as

1. Co-dominance
fossils. One part that can be exception will be:
2. Multiple allelism
1. Carpel 2. Pollen grain
3. Polygenic inheritance
3. Axillary buds 4. Root apex 4. Pleiotropy
113 DNA replication is: In coconut:

119
1. semiconservative and continuous I: The fruit is a drupe.
2. conservative and discontinuous
II: The white kernel in coconut is cellular endosperm.
3. semiconservative and semi-discontinuous
1. Only I is correct
4. disruptive and semi-discontinuous
2. Only II is correct
In a cross between two individuals with the genotype 3. Both I and II are correct
114 4. Both I and II are incorrect
AaBb and Aabb, the probability of having an offspring with
the genotype Aabb will be: 120 Mendel worked with seven characteristics of pea plants
1. 1/16
include all the following except:
2. 1/8
1. pod shape and color
3. 1/4
2. seed shape and color
4. ½
3. flower position and color
Double fertilization in angiosperms refers to: 4. girth of plant and shade of green in leaves
115
1. fertilization of two polar nuclei by a male gamete 121 Apomixis:
2. syngamy and triple fusion I: is formation of seeds without fertilisation.
entry of pollen tube in the embryo sac through one of the II: can be very important for hybrid seed industry.
3.
two synergids
formation of a zygote with double the number of 2. Only II is correct
4.
chromosomes than the male gamete 3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
116 A monohybrid cross between an individual exhibiting
recessive phenotype and an individual with an unknown 122 Water:
genotype but exhibiting dominant phenotype results in all is one of the two abiotic agents used for pollination by
offspring showing the dominant phenotype. What is the I:
certain angiosperms.
genotype of the second individual?
II: is used by majority of aquatic plants for pollination.
1. Homozygous dominant
2. Heterozygous 1. Only I is correct
3. Homozygous recessive 2. Only II is correct
3. Cannot be determined 3. Both I and II are correct
117 The number of nuclei and cells in a typical mature
female gametophyte in angiosperms will respectively be:
1. 7 and 7 2. 7 and 8
3. 8 and 7 4. 8 and 8
Page: 14
Feb-24) 8527521718
123 The chromosomal theory of inheritance: 130 Consider the given two statements:
I: identifies chromosomes as the carriers of genetic material. Each individual has multiple copies [more than two] of
I:
II: was given by Sutton and Boveri. the same allele.
1. Only I is correct More than two alleles exist for a particular gene in a
II:
2. Only II is correct population for multiple allelic traits.
3. Both I and II are correct 1. Only I is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
124 A syncarpus gynoecium has: 4. Both I and II are incorrect
1. a single pistil
131 Any nucleotide sequence within a eukaryotic gene that
2. no pistils
3. multiple free pistils is not expressed or operative in the final RNA product is
4. more than one fused pistils called as the:
1. Cistron 2. Intron
125 Carl Correns was one of the scientists who:
3. Exon 4. Recon
1. discovered linkages
2. proved blending inheritance 132 What would be the chromosome number in an
3. rediscovered Mendel's laws
endosperm cell of garden pea [Pisum sativum]?
4. gave chromosomal theory of inheritance
1. 7 2. 14
Genetic linkage between genes located on the same 3. 21 4. 28
126
chromosome can be disrupted by: Which process takes place in the same compartment in
1. Genetic drift 133
2. Natural selection prokaryotic cells?
3. Crossing over I: Transcription
4. Gene mutation II: Translation
1. Only I 2. Only II
127 The pollen intine: 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II
I: is made up of cellulose and pectin.
134 Pleiotropy, a deviation from Mendel, refers to:
II: has discontinuities called germ pores.
1. Only I is correct 1. Multiple genes influencing a single trait.
2. Only II is correct 2. One gene having multiple effects on different traits.
3. Both I and II are correct 3. A gene's effects being masked by another gene.
4. The inheritance of traits controlled by multiple alleles.
128 Which statement naturally follows from the Mendel's
135 Emasculation is done in artificial plant hybridisation
Law of Dominance?
experiments to:
Dominant alleles always express themselves in the
1. 1. prevent undesired pollen from landing on the stigma
phenotype
Recessive alleles always express themselves in the 2. enhance the fertility of the plant
2. 3. render the plant sterile
phenotype
3. Alleles segregate independently during gamete formation 4. prevent self-pollination in plants
4. Genes assort independently during meiosis
129 Genes of different traits can segregate independently

during the formation of gametes. This is the concept of:
1. Dominance
2. Segregation
3. Independent assortment
4. Linkage
Page: 15
Feb-24) 8527521718
Biology I - Section B 139 The number of types of gametes produced by a plant

with genotype AAbbCC is expected to be:
The most likely mode of inheritance of the trait shown 1. 1
136
2. 2
in the pedigree given below will be [give the most appropriate 3. 4
answer]: 4. 8
140 Consider the two statements:

Mendel’s law of segregation can also be called
Statement I:
as law of purity of gametes.
Gametes have two complete sets of
Statement II:
chromosomes in plants.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
141 Gynoecium of Michelia is:

1. Autosomal recessive 1. multicarpellary and apocarpous
2. Autosomal dominant 2. multicarpellary and syncarpous
3. Sex linked recessive 3. monocarpellary
4. Sex linked dominant 4. sterile
137 Consider the given two statements: Regarding gynoecium in angiosperms:

142
Assertion In incomplete dominance, segregation of unit I: The basal bulged part of the pistil is the ovary.
(A): factors does not take place.
II: Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity (locule).
Reason (R): Incomplete dominance is blending inheritance.
III: The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.
1. Only I and II are correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the
1. 2. Only I and III are correct
(A).
3. Only II and III are correct
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 4. I, II and III are correct
2.
explain the (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 143 If mapping of genes is carried out based on linkage
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. analysis, it:
138 Consider the given two statements: helps in identifying the physical location of genes on a
1.
Of the 46 chromosomes in a normal diploid chromosome
Assertion
human cell, half are maternally derived and half 2. determines the size of chromosomes
(A):
are paternally derived. 3. predicts the number of chromosomes in an organism
Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two 4. reveals the function of genes in an organism
Reason haploid gametes to produce a zygote and a new
(R): organism, in which every cell has two sets of Parthenium or carrot grass, an invasive species, came
144
chromosomes.
into India as a contaminant with imported:
1. Rice 2. Wheat
1. 3. Maize 4. Cotton
(A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain the (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Page: 16
Feb-24) 8527521718
145 A flower produces light and non-sticky pollens and has 150 In angiosperms, which cell divides mitotically to
well exposed stamens. This flower is most likely pollinated produce male gametes?
by: 1. Pollen mother cell 2. Generative cell
1. Air 2. Water 3. Vegetative cell 4. Central cell
3. Bees 4. Birds
146 Consider the two statements: Biology II - Section A

The process of formation of megaspores from 151 Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: the megaspore mother cell is called
megasporogenesis. Assertion Inbreeding increases the chances of offspring
(A): being affected by recessive traits.
The process of formation of pollen grains from
Statement II: the pollen mother cell is called Inbreeding increases the proportion of
Reason (R):
microsporogenesis. homozygous individuals in a population.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the
1.
(A).
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 2.
explain the (A).
147 The female gametophyte in angiosperms:
I: is also called as the embryo sac. 152 The correct sequence regarding the passage of
II: at maturity has three antipodals and three synergids spermatozoa from their site of production will be:
III: has an egg cell as a part of the egg apparatus. 1. interstitial cells, efferent ductules, ampulla, and epididymis
1. Only I and II are correct epididymis, vasa efferentia, rete testis, and seminiferous
2. Only I and III are correct 2.
tubules
seminiferous tubules, rete testis, efferent ductules, and
4. I, II and III are correct 3.
epididymis
seminiferous tubules, urethra, efferent ductules, and ductus
148 Anthers in angiosperms: 4.
deferens
are typically located at the tip of the filament of the
I:
stamen. A single-stranded DNA or RNA fragment used in
153
are usually bilobed, each containing pollen sacs called
II: genetic engineering to search for a particular gene or other
microsporangia.
DNA sequence will be called as:
III: dehisce, or split open, to release mature pollen.
1. Gene gun 2. Gene library
1. Only I and II are correct
3. Gene probe 4. Gene pool
2. Only I and III are correct
154 Lactose is the:
4. I, II and III are correct
1. inhibitor of the lac operon
149 Consider the two statements: 2. inducer of the lac operon
3. initiator enzyme produced by lac operon
In co-dominance, the F1 progeny resembles
Statement I: 4. only important product of the lac operon
neither of the parents.
In incomplete dominance, the F1 progeny
Statement II: 155 The rupture of Graafian follicle followed by ovulation is
resembles both parents.
triggered by:
1. follicle-stimulating hormone
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 2. a mid-cycle surge of luteinizing hormone
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 3. adrenal androgens
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 4. progesterone secreted by Graafian follicle
Page: 17
Feb-24) 8527521718
156 The primary transcript produced in the template of 163 In DNA, the base pairing is complementary where
DNA in eukaryotes is the: thymine always pairs with:
1. siRNA 1. uracil
2. miRNA 2. cytosine
3. hnRNA 3. guanine
4. dsRNA 4. adenine
157 Why is the frequency of the allele for sickle cell anemia 164 What is likely to be the testicular temperature in a
high in certain populations in Africa? healthy human male on a normal climate day?
1. gene therapy has alleviated the condition 1. 35°C
2. the disease is carried on a dominant allele 2. 37°C
3. 40°C
individuals with one allele for sickle-cell anemia are
3. 4. 42°C
resistant to malaria
4. the mutation rates are high in humans in African continent Geneticists refer to "fitness" as:
165
the measure of an organism's adaptability to various
158 What is actually released at ovulation? 1.
habitats.
1. Primary oocyte 2. Secondary oocyte the number of mates each individual of the population
3. Oogonium 4. Corona radiata 2.
selects.
3. the relative health of each individual in the population.
159 The innermost layer of the wall of uterus a measure of the contribution of a genotype to the gene
4.
I: is the perimetrium. pool of the next generation.
II: has smooth muscles that help in parturition.
1. Only I is correct 166 Majority of human newborns weigh around 7 pounds.
2. Only II is correct What type of natural selection might be operative here?
3. Both I and II are correct 1. directional
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2. stabilizing
3. disruptive
160 Amenorrhea: 4. reverse
1. occurs at the onset of puberty
2. is excessive menstrual bleeding 167 All the following will be true regarding the molecular
3. is the absence of menstruation evidence for evolution except:
4. always means pregnancy 1. related organisms share a greater portion of their DNAs
the hemoglobin gene is less similar between humans and
161 The combination pill works mainly by directly 2.
dogs than between humans and chimpanzees
preventing: only DNA can be examined for establishing evolutionary
1. ovulation 3.
differences
2. menstruation
phylogenetic trees can be established using molecular
3. fertilisation 4.
evidence
4. implantation
168 In a population of certain plants in a given area, the

162 The ultimate source of genetic variability in the gene
frequency of the allele for red flowers was 0.8. [Red color is
pool of a population is:
the dominant trait and white color is the recessive trait and
1. mutation
there are only two alleles for flower color]. What will be the
2. migration
frequency of the white allele in this population?
3. genetic drift
1. 0.8
4. non-random mating
2. 0.32
3. 0.16
4. 0.2
Page: 18
Feb-24) 8527521718
169 In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what does the term 176 What evolutionary agent describes the movement of
‘2pq’ represent? new genes into a population as a result of migration or
1. the frequency of dominant homozygotes hybridization?
2. the frequency of recessive homozygotes 1. founder principle
3. the frequency of dominant allele 2. gene flow
4. the frequency of heterozygotes 3. bottleneck effect
4. adaptation
170 When observed during their early stages of
177 When are the progesterone levels highest during the
development, the embryos of reptiles, birds, and mammals
look very similar. What can be said regarding reptiles, birds, menstrual cycle?
and mammals based on this observation? 1. at the beginning of the proliferative phase.
1. They have a common ancestor 2. during the menstrual phase.
2. They live in the same types of environments 3. during the secretory phase.
3. They have undergone parallel evolution 4. at the time of ovulation.
4. They are no longer undergoing evolution
178 Menstrual bleeding is directly correlated to:
171 A procedure for identifying specific sequences of DNA,
1. low levels of ovarian hormones
in which fragments separated on a gel are transferred directly 2. high levels of ovarian hormones
to a second medium on which assay by hybridization may be 3. high levels of LH
carried out, is called as: 4. low levels of LH
1. Southern blot
2. Northern blot 179 What is the fate of the corpus luteum if fertilization fails
3. Eastern blot to happen during a menstrual cycle?
4. Western blot
1. It is expelled into the pelvic cavity.
Which of the following functions as an enzyme to 2. It increases the secretion of FSH.
172
3. It degenerates into the corpus albicans.
catalyse peptide bond formation in prokaryotes?
1. 5SrRNA 4. It maintains endometrium until the next ovulation.
2. 5.8SrRNA
3. 23SrRNA 180 The similarity between marsupial mole and placental
4. 28SrRNA mole as shown in the given figure is due to:
173 The corpus luteum secretes a large amount of:

1. luteinizing hormone
2. progesterone
3. oestrogen
4. follicle-stimulating hormone
174 Which hormone is mainly responsible for the

development and maintenance of secondary sexual
characteristics in females?
1. oestrogen
2. progesterone
3. androgen
4. luteinizing hormone 1. saltation 2. molecular clocks
3. punctuated equilibrium 4. convergent evolution
175 Which mRNA codon does not belong to the group of
181 The bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates
other three based on the function performed?
1. UAA are similar to each other. This illustrates:
2. UAG 1. analogy 2. homology
3. UGA 3. atavism 4. convergence
4. AUG
Page: 19
Feb-24) 8527521718
182 Meiosis begins in the oogonia in human females: 187 Consider the given two statements:
1. at puberty Down syndrome or Down's syndrome, also known as
2. monthly during menstruation I: trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of
3. at age 20 all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21.
4. during foetal life The parents of the affected individual are usually
II:
genetically normal.
183 Expressed Sequence Tag is:
1. profiling DNA 2. Only II is correct
protein produced by expression of a gene in heterologous 3. Both I and II are correct
2. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
host
are short DNA sequences that are used to identify gene
3. 188 Consider the two statements:
transcripts and to determine gene sequences
4. exons of a split gene The main function of progesterone during the
Statement I:
menstrual cycle is to initiate ovulation.
184 What organelle in the head of a sperm cell contains Estrogen is responsible for pregnancy
Statement II:
functions in females.
digestive enzymes?
1. basal plate 2. acrosome
3. nebenkern 4. corona radiata
In an area where peppered moth is found, pollution is 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
185
cleaned up. What should happen to the color of moths living
in the woods?
189 Consider the given two statements:
1. no change
2. dark-colored moths should change to light-colored I: Multiload 375 is a copper releasing contraceptive.
3. light-colored moths should change to dark-colored II: LNG 20 releases progesterone.
4. light-colored moths should become more common 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
Biology II - Section B 4. Both I and II are incorrect
186 Consider the given two statements: 190 During pregnancy:

Assertion Testes in males and ovaries in females are the I: menstrual flow does not occur.
(A): primary sex organs. the levels of gonadotropins are very high in the blood of
II:
The primary sex organs are those that are located pregnant females.
Reason
within the pelvic cavity and the secondary sex 1. Only I is correct
(R):
organs are the external genitalia. 2. Only II is correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the 4. Both I and II are incorrect
1.
(A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 191 Consider the two statements:
2.
explain the (A). During menstrual cycle, LH is at peak just
Statement I:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. before ovulation.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. During menstrual cycle, FSH is at peak just
Statement II:
before ovulation.

3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
Page: 20
Feb-24) 8527521718
192 According to The Medical Termination of Pregnancy 197 What is the study of fossils called?
(Amendment) Act, 2017: 1. geology
a pregnancy may be terminated on certain considered 2. biogeography
I: grounds within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the 3. comparative anatomy
opinion of one registered medical practitioner. 4. paleontology
if the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer
than 20 weeks, two registered medical practitioners must
II:
be of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required Assertion Natural methods of contraception are most
ground for termination of pregnancy exist. (A): effective methods.
1. Only I is correct Reason Natural methods work on the principle of
2. Only II is correct (R): avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
1.
Diversification from an ancestral species, in response to (A).
193 Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
the opening of new habitats leading to formation of new 2.
explain the (A).
species, is:
1. parallelism 2. natural selection
4. (A) is False and (R) is True.
3. catastrophism 4. adaptive radiation
199 Name the glycoprotein layer present between the oocyte

194 The detection of which hormone in the urine of
and the granulosa cells of an ovarian follicle:
pregnant women is a useful test for detection of pregnancy? 1. theca interna
1. HCG 2. Progesterone 2. theca externa
3. HPL 4. Oestrogen 3. antrum
4. zona pellucida
Assertion Evolution by natural selection works best on a
(A): population having no variation. Assertion Both the male and the female condoms are
A population having no variation always (A): convenient for users.
Reason (R):
reproduces exponentially. Both the male and the female condoms are
Reason
disposable, can be self-inserted and thereby
(R):
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the give privacy to the user.
1.
(A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the
2. 1.
explain the (A). (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain the (A).
196 Consider the given two statements: 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Assertion There is a statutory ban on amniocentesis for

(A): sex-determination in India.
Menace of female foeticides needs to be legally
Reason (R):
controlled.
1.
(A).
2.
explain the (A).
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Physics - Section A 3 Which of the following statements is correct?

dt Statement I: the conservation of energy as applied to

5 A point charge q is placed at the centre of a uniformly

6 For a ferromagnetic material, the susceptibility is:

1. R1 , R2 are interchanged 12 A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 10

9 Two permanent magnets oriented in the same direction,

15 A charged particle carrying a charge q, moves with a 1. FI = FI I 2. 3FI = FI I

velocity v parallel to a long current-carrying wire (current: i), 3.

16 Given below are two statements:

at time t. The amplitude of the electric field is:

irrespective of its connection across a series or parallel E0

combination of two identical cells. The internal resistance of 3. 2E0 4.

transformer. If a primary AC voltage of 100 V rms is applied

26 A pair of identical point charges (q-each) are placed at

24 A charge Q is placed at the centre of a thin spherical shell

(see figure). The total work done will be:

27 The axial electric field of a dipole (moment: p) equals

4. depends on the path followed 4. r =

32 A particle having charge q, mass m is shot into a region

the direction of its motion. After traversing a distance s , the o

particle emerges with a velocity which is opposite to its initial

33 A 10 μC charge is divided into two equal parts and kept

34 An alternating current (I ) varies with time (t) as shown

30 The capacitance between two close parallel metallic

38 A coil of area 100 cm2 is held perpendicular to a

make it parallel to the field in 2 s. What is the EMF produced

39 A capacitor is charged up to a voltage V0 . Thereafter,

36 A square conducting wire-loop of side l is moved with 4.

uniform velocity v parallel to one of its sides (RQ), entering a

41 An electromagnetic wave is incident onto a surface and 1. −100 V

The wave is travelling along:

43 Two, very long parallel wires carry equal currents in

capacitor C = 20 μF connected in series. An alternating

applied to an inductor and the peak current through the ω = 2500 s

inductor is observed to be A. The inductance is:

45 A uniform electric field of 100 V/m is directed as shown

proportional to the frequency, is:

48 Two circuits are placed close to each other: the first

second circuit (B) is kept closed with a resistance R in it. B

2. R −1 The value of van’t Hoff factor for ethanoic acid (acetic

The correct order of Eocell of these cells is:

54 The oxidation state of manganese and sulphur,

55 A bidentate ligand among the following is:

C and D are strong oxidizing agents. D is used as the primary

M g(OH )2 (given rate constants for O and 15 19

1. (A) and (B) only

3. (B) and (C) only 2. O 19

80 Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl results in: Chemistry - Section B

(a) Cr(CO)6 is an organometallic compound. P = [F eF6 ]

3. [Co (NH3 ) (Cl) ]

4. HOCl > HClO > HClO > HClO

The conductivity of an electrolytic solution depends on

a. Nature of the electrolyte

110 The nutritive tissue endosperm is seen in the mature

112 Plants do not have many parts that can be preserved as

113 DNA replication is: In coconut:

129 Genes of different traits can segregate independently

Biology I - Section B 139 The number of types of gametes produced by a plant

140 Consider the two statements:

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

141 Gynoecium of Michelia is:

137 Consider the given two statements: Regarding gynoecium in angiosperms:

146 Consider the two statements: Biology II - Section A