TEST:-02

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Complete Syllabus
Chemistry : Complete Syllabus
Biology : (Botany) : Complete Syllabus
(Zoology) : Complete Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hour 20 minute duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each part.
5. There is only one correct response for each questions.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 8. A shell of mass 20 kg at rest explodes into two
1. A conducting circular loop is placed in a magnetic fragments whose masses are in ratio 2:3. The
20
field B = t 2 with its plane perpendicular to the smaller part moves with a velocity 10 m/s. Then
 find total work done by internal force in this
loop. If the radius of loop is 10 cm. Find EMF
explosion
induced in the loop at t = 5 s.
(1) 4 V (2) 2 V (1) 400 J (2) 266 J
(3) 8 V (4) None of these (3) 800 J (4) 666 J

2. What is the self inductance of a coil which produces 9. Which of the following relation of physical
10 V when the current changes from 4A to 2A in 10
quantities has same unit as ohm?
milliseconds
(1) 5 henry (2) 5 milli henry h h2
(1) (2)
(3) 50 milli henry (4) 10 henry e e

3. A rectangular surface of sides 20 cm & 10 cm is h h2

(3) (4)
placed inside a uniform electric field of 25 N/C, e2 e2
such that normal to the surface makes 60° with the
direction of electric field. The flux through the
10. At what temperature, Celsius scale and Fahrenheit
surface will be
(1) 0.1875 N m2/C scale show same reading?
(2) 0.25 N m2/C (1) –40°C (2) 40ºC
(3) 0.375 N m2/C (3) –40°F (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) 0.0125 N m2/C
11. Which of the following statement is/are correct
4. A long string with charge of  per unit length passes (1) Plane mirror always forms virtual image of real
through a cube of edge a. The maximum flux object.
through the cube is? (2) Convex mirror may form real image of real
2 a 3a object.
(1) (2)
0 0 (3) Convex mirror can form real image of virtual
a 2 a object.
(3) (4) (4) Both (1) and (3) are correct.
0 0

5. Which energy state of doubly ionized helium has 12. For an equilateral prism if refracted ray suffers
energy four times of the energy of ground state of minimum deviation 30° then refractive index of
hydrogen? prism & angle of incidence will be respectively-
(1) n = 1 (2) n = 2 (1) 2,30 (2) 2, 30°
(3) n = 3 (4) n = 4
(3) 2,45 (4) 2, 45°
6. When a centimetre thick surface is illuminated with
light of wavelength  , the stopping potential is V. 13. Equation of SHM of a particle given as
When the same surface is illuminated by light of  
wavelength 2, the stopping potential decreased by y = 4(cm)sin  2t − 
 3
2V/3 then threshold wavelength for the surface is:-
Angular frequency of the particle is
(1) 4 /3
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) 4 
(3)  (4) 2
(3) 6 
8
(4) 5T
3 14. If two particles have time periods T and . They
4
7. A ball is dropped from height H. If coefficient of start SHM at the same time from the mean position.
After how many oscillations of the particle having
restitution for collision between ground and ball is
smaller time period, they will be again in the same
0.25 and ball rebounds after hitting the ground to 20
phase?
m then find H. (1) 4 (2) 5
(1) 45 m (2) 320 m (3) 8 (4) 20
(3) 80 m (4) 160 m
[2]
15. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe 22. Matrix match
of length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of A B
an organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of
organ pipe open at both the ends is (a) Adiabatic process (p) V  T
(1) 140 cm (2) 120 cm (b) Isothermal process (q) Q = 0
(3) 100 cm (4) 80 cm
(c) Isochoric process (r) U = 0
16. A tuning fork of frequency 512 H2 makes 4 beats
per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The (d) Isobaric process (s) W=0
beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per sec when the
tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The (1) (a) – (r); (b) – (s); (c) – (p); (d) – (q)
frequency of the piano string before increasing the (2) (a) – (q); (b) – (p); (c) – (s); (d) – (r)
tansion was (3) (a) – (q); (b) – (r); (c) – (s); (d) – (p)
(1) 508 Hz (2) 510 H (4) (a) – (r); (b) – (p); (c) – (q); (d) – (s)
(3) 514 Hz (4) 516 Hz
23. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is bent to
17. In SI unit system unit of work is Joule. Now a new form a semi-circular magnet. If the pole strength of
unit system is so selected that unit of mass is 2 kg, magnet does not change, what will be new magnetic
unit of length is 2 m. and unit of time is x s. If in this moment?
system. numerical value of work is decreased by a 2M
(1) M (2)
factor 32, then the value of x will be 
1 M M
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4)
2 2 
1 1
(3) (4) 24. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in
2 4
uniform magnetic field B such that it makes 30°
n
m
3 angle with it. What is the magnitude of torque
X , Y2
18. A physical quantity P is given as P = . acting on the magnet?
6
Zk MB
(1)
It percentage error in x, y and z are 4%, 3% and 2% 2
respectively then the percentage error in the 3MB
measurement of P. (2)
2
 n k (3) MB
(1)  2m + +  % (2) (4m + 3n + 2k )%
 2 3 (4) 0
m n k
(3) (2m + 2n + 3k )% (4)  + +  % 25. A negative charge is moving towards north in a
 2 2 3 uniform magnetic field pointing vertically
downwards. What is the direction of magnetic force
19. If m is the mass and 0 and 0 are the magnetic acting on the charge?
permeability and electrical permittivity the (1) East (2) West
m (3) North (4) Zero force
dimensions of will be.
0 0
(1) [MLT–2A–1] (2) [ML2T–2A–2] 26. In the given diagram, a current carrying semi-
(3) [M–1L–2T2A2] (4) [ML2T–2] circular wire of radius R is placed in a uniform
magnetic field B. What is the force acting on the
20. What would be the internal energy of the diatomic wire?
gas having 2 moles under constant pressure at
27°C?
(1) 1200 R (2) 2100 R
(3) 1500 R (4) 900 R

21. What will be r.m.s speed of the gas molecules. If a

container has 5 molecules moving with speeds 1 (1) BIR
m/s, 2 m/s, 3 m/s, 4 m/s and 5 m/s respectively. (2) 2BIR
(1) 11 m/s (2) 3 m/s (3) BIR
(3) 11 m/s (4) 45 m/s (4) 0

[3]
27. Two infinitely long parallel wires carry current I &
4I in opposite directions. The wires are placed at
distance R from each other. What is the magnitude
R
of magnetic field at distance as shown in figure.
4 (1) a + b = 2c (2) a + b = c
(3) a − b = 2c (4) a − b = c

33. An elevator is accelerating upward at a rate of 6ft/ sec2

when a bolt from its ceiling falls to the floor of the lift
(Distance = 19 feet). The time (in seconds) taken by
the falling bolt to hit the floor is (take g = 32 ft/sec2)
0 I (1) 2 (2) 1
(1) 0 (2)
2R 1
(3) 2 2 (4)
0 I 140 I 2 2
(3) (4)
R 3R
34. A particle is moving in a straight line. Its velocity time
28. In the circuit diagram shown, find VP – VQ graph is shown in figure. Its speed is minimum at t =
____.

(1) 4V (2) –4V

(3) 0V (4) 12V
(1) 2s (2) 4s
29. A potentiometer wire of length 2m has 50V potential (3) 6s (4) 8s
difference applied across it. What will be the potential
gradient across the wire? 35. A river 4.0 miles wide is flowing at the rate of 2
(1) 25 V/cm (2) 50 V/cm miles/hr. The minimum time taken by a boat to cross
(3) 0.25 V/cm (4) 0.5 V/cm the river with a speed v = 2 miles/hr (in still water) is
approximately
30. A real battery of emf 20V is connected across a (1) 1 hr and 10 minute
(2) 2 hr
resistance of 4.5 . The power consumed by the
(3) 1 hr and 12 minute
resistor is 72W. What is the internal resistance of
(4) 2 hr and 25 minute
battery?
(1) 1  (2) 0.5  SECTION - B
(3) 0.25  (4) 0.1  36. If a system is in thermodynamic equilibrium with its
surrounding, it means
31. Find equivalent resistance of the given network of (1) Temperature of system and surrounding must be
resistors across AB same
(2) Pressure and volume of system and surroundings
must be same
(3) Pressure, volume and temperature of system and
surroundings may be different
(4) None of the above

(1) 6  (2) 3  37. If velocity v depends on time t as

(3) 2  (4) 1  v = ae−t + bet , here a, b,  and  are physical
 a.b 
32. Figure shows the vectors a , b and c where R is the constants then dimensions of   is:
 . 
mid-point of PQ. Then which of the following is
correct? (1) [ L2T −2 ] (2) [L2]
(3) [L–2T2] (4) [LT–1]

[4]
38. An object of mass 200 g falls from 100 m height and 43. Two wires, 1 & 2, are subjected to same load. The
strikes the ground with speed of 20 m/s. find the value of Young's modulus, area of cross-sections &
work done by air friction force on it. lengths of both wires, are given below.
(1) 40 J (2) –40 J Y1 = 2 × 1011 N/m2, Y2 = 1011 N/m2
(3) 160 J (4) –160 J A1 = 2cm2, A2 = 4cm2
L1 = 2m, L2 = 8m
39. An electric field E = iˆ C x exist in the space, where Find ratio of the following quantities for wire 1/
wire 2 in the given match matrix.
C = 20 V/m2. Taking the potential at
Column-I Column-II
(10, 20)m to be zero, find the potential at the origin.
(1) 500 volt (2) 1000 volt I Young's modulus A 1:4
(3) 1500 volt (4) 2000 volt
II Stress B 1:2
40. A capacitor of plate area A & separation d is filled III Elongation C 2:1
with two dielectrics of dielectric constant K1 = 6 &
K2 = 4 The new capacitance will be IV Strain D 1:1

(1) I → C, II → C, III → A, IV → D
(2) I → C, II → C, III → A, IV → C
(3) I → C, II → D, III → A, IV → C
0 A (4) I → D, II → B, III → A, IV → D
(1) 4
d
 A 44. An elastic material of Young's modulus x is
(2) 4.8 0
d subjected to a stress y. The strain produced is z. The
 A elastic potential energy stored per unit volume of
(3) 5 0
d the material is:
 A x 1
(4) 2.4 0 (1) (2) xz
d 2y 2
y2 y
41. The circuit given below gives which of the (3) (4)
2x 2x
following output (Y)?
45. The cross-section of two pistons in a hydraulic lift
are 6m2 and 36m2, respectively. What is the
minimum force required to lift '2000 kg – BMW car'
(1) A on larger piston surface Take g = 10 m/s2.
(1) 20, 000 N (2) 1, 20, 000 N
(2) A + A B
(3) 3333.3 N (4) 5000 N
(3) A + AB
(4) None 46. Water is flowing in a tube of diameter 4cm with a
velocity 10 m/sec. The water then enters into a tube
42. The current through 5 resistor is of 0.25 cm. The velocity of the water in the other
tube is:
(1) 160 m/sec (2) 256 m/sec
(3) 2560 m/sec (4) 40 m/sec

47. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of water

is 10 times that of another drop. Then, ratio of their
(1) 0.5 A respective radii is (drop 1 by drop 2)
(2) 2A (1) 1
(3) 0A (2) 100
(4) 0.2 A (3) 0.1
(4) 0.01

[5]
48. Which of the following option is correct for given 49. The angular velocity of rod rotating about centre of
matrix. all object having mass m and radius R. mass changes from w1 = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj to w2 = 4iˆ + 3 ˆj in
Object with given axis Moment of 2 sec. Find torque acting on rod whose mass is 4kg
inertia and length 3m.
I Ring about C.O.M. A mR2 (1) 3 Nm (2) 4 Nm
parallel to plane (3) 6 Nm (4) 12 Nm

II Solid sphere about C.O.M. B mR 2 50. An object of mass m, radius r having moment of
4 inertia 3mr2 about centre of mass is released from
top of smooth inclined plane then find acceleration
III Hollow cylinder about C mR 2 of C.O.M by which it move on Inclined plane of
axis 2 inclination θ.
(1) a = g (2) a = g sin θ
IV Disc about C.O.M Parallel D 2
mR 2 g sin  g sin 
to plane 5 (3) a = (4) a =
4 3
(1) I → B, II → C, III → D, IV → A
(2) I → C, II → D, III → A, IV → B
(3) I → C, II → D, III → B, IV → A
(4) I → D, II → C, III → A, IV → B

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
51. The amine that does not react with acetyl chloride
(3) (4) None of these
is
(1) CH3NH2 (2) (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N (4) None of these
55. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated
The standard enthalpy of formation (  f H 0298 ) for
nitric acid respectively, produces
52.
(1) N2O and NO2 (2) NO2 and NO
methane, CH4 is –74.9 kJ mol–1. In order to (3) NO and N2O (4) NO2 and N2O
calculate the average energy given out in the
formation of a C-H bond from this it is necessary 56. Which of the following is a biodegradable
to know which one of the following? polymer?
(1) The dissociation energy of the hydrogen (1) Polythene
molecule, H2. (2) Bakelite
(2) The first four ionisation energies of carbon. (3) PHBV
(3) The dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of (4) PVC
sublimation of carbon (graphite).
(4) The first four ionisation energies of carbon
57. In which of the following compounds, iron has the
and electron affinity of hydrogen.
lowest oxidation number?
(1) [Fe(CO)5]
53. Which of the following is not formed when
(2) Fe2O3
glycerol reacts with HI?
(1) CH2=CH–CH2I (3) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(2) CH2 (OH)–CH(I)–CH2OH (4) FeSO4⋅(NH4)2SO4⋅6H2O
(3) CH3–CH=CH2
(4) CH3–CH(I)–CH3 58. The solubility of silver bromide in hypo solution is
due to the formation of
54. Which of the following is optically inactive? (1) [Ag(S2O3)2]3–
(2) Ag2SO3
(3) [Ag(S2O3)]–
(1) (2) (4) Ag2S2O3

[6]
59. The cell constant of a given cell is 0.47 cm–1. The 66. In which of the following, resonance will be
resistance of a solution placed in this cell is possible?
measured to be 31.6 ohm. The conductivity of the (1) CH3–CH2–CH2-CHO
solution (in S cm–1 where S has usual meaning) is (2) CH2=CH-CH=O
(1) 0.15 (2) 1.5 (3) CH3 COCH3
(3) 0.015 (4) 150
(4) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2

60. The reagent which can be used to distinguish

67. The oxide which is the anhydride of
acetophenone from benzophenone is
orthophosphoric acid, is
(1) 2, 4- Dinitrophenylhydrazine
(1) P4O10 (2) P2O3
(2) Aqueous solution of NaHSO3
(3) Benedict’s reagent (3) P4O6 (4) None of these
(4) All of these
68. The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution
reactions is
61. Which one of the following pairs of elements is
(1) CH3OC2H5 (2) C6H5OCH3
called 'chemical twins' because of their very similar
chemical properties? (3) CH3OCH3 (4) C2H5OC2H5
(1) Mn and W (2) Mo and Tc
(3) Fe and Re (4) Hf and Zr 69. The plot shows the variation of ln Kp versus
temperature for the two reactions.
62. The end product (C) in the following sequence of 1
M(s) + O2 (g) → MO(s)
reactions is: 2
1%HgSO4 1
HC  CH A ⎯⎯⎯
CH 3 MgX
⎯→ B ⎯⎯→
[O]
(C) C(s) + O2 (g) → CO(s)
20%H2SO4
H2O
2
(1) Acetic acid (2) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) Acetone (4) Ethanol

63. Statement-1: Jet aeroplane flying at high altitude

need pressurization of the cabin.
Statement-2: Oxygen is not present at higher
Identify the correct statement:
altitude.
(1) At T < 1200 K, oxidation of carbon is
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is unfavourable.
true. (2) Oxidation of carbon is favourable at all
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. temperatures.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) At T < 1200 K, the reaction MO(s) + C(s) →
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. M(s) + CO(g) is spontaneous.
(4) At T > 1200 K, carbon will reduce MO (s) to
M(s).
64. Which one of the following statement is not true?
(1) The conjugate base of H2PO4– is HPO42-. 70. For preparing a buffer solution of pH 6 by mixing
(2) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions. sodium acetate and acetic acid, the ratio of the
(3) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8. concentration of salt and acid should be (Ka = 10–5):
(4) Ammonia is a Lewis base. (1) 1 : 10 (2) 10 : 1
(3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100
65. An element has bcc structure having unit cells 71. The activation energy for a hypothetical reaction,
12.08 × 1023. The number of atoms in these cells is: A → Product, is 12.49 kcal/mole. If temperature is
(1) 12.08 × 1023 raised from 295 to 305 K, the rate of reaction is
(2) 24.16 × 1023 increased by
(3) 48.38 × 1023 (1) 60% (2) 100%
(4) 12.08 × 1022 (3) 50% (4) 20%

[7]
72. For the reaction, H2(g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI (g), the 78. From the following statements regarding H2O2,
standard free energy is ΔG° > 0. The equilibrium choose the incorrect statement:
constant (K) would be: (1) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass
(1) K = 0 (2) K > 1 bottles in dark.
(3) K = 1 (4) K < 1 (2) It has to be kept away from dust.
(3) It can act only as an oxidizing agent.
73. Which of the following compounds will undergo (4) It decomposes on exposure to light.
substitution of the halogen atom most readily with
CH3ONa in CH3OH? 79. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(1) La (OH)3 is less basic than Lu (OH)3.
(2) La is actually an element of transition series
rather than lanthanoids.
(1) (2) (3) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf is same.
(4) In lanthanoid series, the ionic radius of Lu3+ is
smallest.

(3) (4) 80. Match the reactions given in column I with the
types of reactions given in Column II:
Column-I Column-II
74. An organic compound, C3H6O does not give a (A) 1 Nucleophilic
precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine aromatic
reagent and does not react with metallic sodium. It substitution
could be: reaction
(1) CH3–CH2–CHO (2) CH2=CH–CH2OH
(3) CH3–CO–CH3 (4) CH2=CH–O–CH3
75. Among the following oxoacids, the correct
decreasing order of acid strength is: (B) 2 Electrophilic
(1) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl aromatic
+ HBr →
(2) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 substitution
(3) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3
(4) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

76. Given below are two statements. (C) 3 Saytzeff

Statement I: Frenkel defects are vacancy as well elimination
as interstitial defects.
Statement II: Frenkel defect leads to colour in (D) 4 Electrophilic
ionic solids due to presence of F-centres. addition
Choose the most appropriate answer for the
statements from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true. 5 Nucleophilic
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. substitution
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. reaction
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. (1) A→2, B→4, C→5, D→1
(2) A→3, B→1, C→5, D→2
77. An unknown metal M displaces nickel from nickel (3) A→5, B→4, C→3, D→2
(II) sulphate solution but does not displace (4) A→4, B→5, C→3, D→2
manganese from manganese sulphate solution.
Which order represents the correct order of 81. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of
reducing power? molecules H2, N2, O2 and HBr is:
(1) Mn > Ni > M (1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr
(2) Ni > Mn > M (2) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2
(3) Mn > M > Ni (3) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2
(4) M > Ni > Mn (4) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr

[8]
82. Which of the following is not true?
(1) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptics.
(2) Sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial.
(3) Aspirin is analgesic as well as antipyretic.
(4) Polystyrene is used to make non-stick
cookware.
(1) If both assertion and reason is true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason is true but reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

83. A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of CH2Cl2

88. A particle A moving with a certain velocity has the
and 11.95 g of CHCl3. If vapour pressure of CH2Cl2
de-Broglie wavelength of 1 Å. For particle B with
and CHCl3 at 298 K are 415 and 200 mm Hg
mass 25% of A and velocity 75% of A, calculate
respectively, the mole fraction of CHCl3 in vapour
the de-Broglie wavelength of particle B.
form is:
(1) 3 Å (2) 5.33 Å
(Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol–1)
(1) 0.162 (2) 0.675 (3) 6.88 Å (4) 0.48 Å
(3) 0.325 (4) 0.486
89. The rate constant of reaction A → B is 0.6 × 10–3
84. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer mole per litre per second. If the concentration of A
using the codes given below the lists: is 5 M, then concentration of B after 20 minutes is:
List I List II (1) 0.36 M (2) 0.72 M
I. Cyanide process A. Ultrapure Ge (3) 1.08 M (4) 3.60 M
II. Froth floatation B. Pine oil
process 90. In a reaction A + B ⇌ C + D, the initial
III. Electrolytic C. Extraction of concentrations, of A and B were 0.9 mol dm-3 each.
reduction Al At equilibrium the concentration of D was found to
IV. Zone refining D. Extraction of be 0.6 mol dm–3. What is the value of equilibrium
Au constant for the reaction?
(1) 8 (2) 4
(1) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B (3) 9 (4) 3
(2) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
(3) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A 91. Transition elements form binary compounds with
(4) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B halogens, which of the following elements will
form MF3 type compounds?
85. Chromyl chloride oxidises toluene to (1) Cr (2) Zn
benzaldehyde, this reaction is known as (3) Cu (4) Ni
(1) Rosenmund reaction
(2) Wurtz reaction 92. An organic compound "A" on treatment with
(3) Etard reaction benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B
is soluble in dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is:
(4) Fittig reaction
(1) C6H5–N(CH3)2
(2) C6H5–CH2NHCH3
SECTION - B
(3) C6 H5 — CH — NH 2
86. Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (mol. wt. 60) |
in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.12 CH3
g/mL. The molarity of the solution is: (4) C6H5–NHCH2CH3
(1) 1.00 M (2) 2.00 M
(3) 2.50 M (4) 4.00 M 93. Number of electrons transferred in each case when
KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent to give MnO2,
87. Assertion: is less acidic than Mn2+, Mn(OH)3 and MnO42– are respectively.
(1) 3,5,4 and 1
.
(2) 4,3,1 and 5
Reason: F exerts better + M effect than Cl. (3) 1,3,4 and 5
(4) 5,4,3 and 1

[9]
94. For a reaction of type A + B ⟶ products, it is 99. Match List-I and List-II.
observed that doubling concentration of A causes List-I List-II
the reaction rate to be four times as great, but A O (i) Br2/NaOH
doubling the amount of B does not affect the rate. ||
R − C− Cl → R − CHO
The rate equation is:
(1) Rate = k[A][B] B R –CH2 – COOH → (ii) H2/Pd-BaSO4
(2) Rate = k [A]2[B] R − CH − COOH
(3) Rate = k[A]2 [B]0 |
Cl
(4) Rate = k[A]2 [B]2
C O (iii) Zn(Hg)/Conc.HCl
95. Which one of the following characteristics of the ||
transition metal is associated with their catalytic R − C− NH 2
activity? → R – NH2
(1) Variable oxidation states D (iv) Cl2/Red P, H2O
O
(2) Colour of hydrated ions ||
(3) Paramagnetic behaviour R − C− CH3
(4) High enthalpy of atomization
→ R – CH2 – CH3
96. Which one of the following statements regarding Choose the correct answer from the options given
helium is correct? below:
(1) It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors. (1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(2) It is used to produce and sustain powerful (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
super conducting magnets. (3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(3) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out (4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
experiments at low temperatures.
(4) All are correct. 100. In the reaction given below, what would be A?

97. Potassium ferrocyanide yields a chocolate brown

precipitate with
(1) Copper salts (2) Ferric salts
(3) Ferrous salts (4) Silver salts

98. Green chemistry in day-to-day life is in the use of: (1) HgSO4/H2SO4 (2) Cu2Cl2
(1) Chlorine for bleaching of paper. (3) H3PO2 and H2O (4) H+/H2O
(2) Large amount of water alone for washing
clothes.
(3) Tetrachloroethene for laundry.
(4) Liquified CO2 for dry cleaning of clothes.

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A
101. Herbarium is related to all, except
(1) It is taxonomical aid which is useful for
conservation of plant specimens
(2) It depicts the morphological variations found
in species
(3) It is a collection of dried, pressed and
preserved plant specimens
(4) It acts as a quick referral system in taxonomic
studies
102. Read the following statements and select correct
option.
A. Reproduction and cellular organisation are
defining features of all life forms
B. Separate taxonomic keys are required for each
taxonomic category
C. Dicots and angiosperms represent taxa at
different levels
(1) ‘A’ is incorrect
(2) Both ‘B’ & ‘C’ are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only C is incorrect

[10]
103. Read the following statements w.r.t. imperfect 107. Which of the following features correctly belong to
fungi and select correct option the concerned plant?
(A) They are important decomposers of litter A – Plant with protonema stage.
(B) Mycelium is aseptate and branched
B – Presence of heterospory.
(C) Sexual phase is absent
(1) All are correct C – Ovules remain exposed both before and after
(2) (B) is incorrect fertilisation.
(3) (A) and (C) are incorrect
(4) Only (C) is correct A B C

104. Choose correct set of statements w.r.t virus from (1) Marchantia Salvinia Wolfia
given features. (2) Funaria Equisetum Eucalyptus
(a) The first virus discovered was TMV
(b) Virus was termed Contagium vivum fluidum (3) Pteris Polytrichum Pinus
by Beijerinck
(4) Sphagnum Selaginella Sequoia
(c) They are facultative intracellular parasites
(d) They have a capsid or protein coat
(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a), (b) & (c) 108. Which of the following structures (a to f) are the
(3) (a) & (c) (4) (b), (c) & (d) modifications of stem for storage?

105. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

w.r.t. Whittaker’s five kingdom classification:

(1) a, b, d & f (2) a, d & e

(1) A – Polysaccharide and amino acid
C – Multicellular/Loose tissue
(2) B – Present in some
D – Tissue/Organ/Organ system
(3) A – Present (Noncellulosic)
B – Absent
(4) C – Cellular/Organ system
D – Tissue/Organ
106. Identify the incorrect match.
Organism Feature
(3) b, c & f (4) a, c, e & f
109. What is common between China rose and Tomato?
(1) Presence of twisted aestivation in corolla
(2) Presence of axile placentation
(3) Presence of epigynous flowers
(4) Presence of monoadelphous stamens
110. Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundles are
found in
(1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root
(3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot stem

(1) Spirogyra – Non-flagellated 111. Read the following statements carefully and mark
them as true (T) or false (F) and choose the correct
isogametes
option
(2) Ectocarpus – Filamentous I. The content of nucleolus is continuous with
form the rest of the nucleoplasm.
II. In the chromoplast water soluble carotenoid
(3) Porphyra – Unicellular algae pigments like carotene and xanthophyll are
used to grow present.
III. Basal body of bacterial flagellum has 9 + 2
microbes
arrangement of microtubules.
(4) Chlamydomonas – Microscopic (1) T, F, F
unicellular form (2) F, T, T
(3) T, F, T
(4) T, T, T

[11]
112. The prokaryotic cell structure exemplified by both 115. The significancs of mitotic division
of the statements A and B, is a. Growth of multicellular organism
(A) Not bounded by any membrane and lie free in b. Induces genetic variability
the cytoplasm. c. Restores nucleocytoplasmic ratio
(B) Stores reserve material in the cytoplasm. d. Constant replacement of worn out and old
(1) Ribosomes cells.
(2) Mesosome (1) a, b & d
(3) Chromatophores
(2) b & c
(4) Inclusion bodies
(3) Only b
(4) a & c
113. Match the column I with column II and choose the
correct option
116. Identify the correct option w.r.t. plant-water
Column I Column II
relation.
(a) Lysosomes (i) Elongated tubular Feature Turgid cell Plasmolysed
structures made up cell
of special protein
(1) Water Negative Positive value
(b) Kinetochore (ii) Formed by process potential value
of packaging in
(2) External Hypotonic Hypotonic
Golgi bodies
solution solution solution
(c) Centrosome (iii) Long, elongated (3) Turgor Low High
structure which pressure
helps in locomotion
(4) P Positive value Negative
(d) Pili (iv) Contains two value
cylindrical
structures,
117. Deficiency of which group of elements cause
perpendicular to inhibition of cell division?
each other (1) N, K, S, Mo (2) N, S, Mo, Cu
(3) Ca, Mg, Cu, K (4) Fe, Mn, Mo, B
(v) Disc shaped
structure present at 118. In the Z-scheme of photosynthesis
primary constriction (1) The two photosystems work in series, first
PS-I and then PS-II
(1) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) The electrons move downhill from low redox
(2) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(i) potential to high redox potential
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) Electron is circulated within the photosystem
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Oxygen is released on the stroma side of
thylakoid membrane
114. Mark the correct statement w.r.t given stage of
119. Mark the correctly matched combination w.r.t. A,
Meiosis
B & C.
(A) (B) (C)
Plant Number of Number of
carbons in carbons in
primary primary CO2
CO2 fixation
(1) Begins with the simultaneous splitting of the acceptor product
centromere of each chromosome (1) C3 plant Two Three
(2) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
(3) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial (2) C4 plant Six Four
plate (3) C3 plant Five Two
(4) Each chromosome of bivalent is attached to
tractile fibres at both poles (4) C4 plant Three Four

[12]
120. How many ATP are produced in mitochondria by 127. The pedigree chart best illustrating inheritance of
substrate level phosphorylation only if two Myotonic dystrophy is
molecules of pyruvate oxidised completely?
(1) Two (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) One (4) Six

121. The PGR which causes apical hook formation in (3) (4)
dicot seedlings also helps in
a. Overcoming the apical dominance.
b. Widely used as herbicides.
c. Delays senescence.
d. Induces flowering in mango. 128. (i) __A__ is the predominant genetic material.
e. Also known as antigibberellin. (ii) __B__ performs the dynamic functions of
f. Causes thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut. messenger and adapter.
(1) a, c & f (2) b & d (1) A – DNA B – RNA
(3) d & f (4) d, e & f (2) A – RNA B – Protein
(3) A – DNA B – Protein
122. The site of perception of light/dark duration is (4) A – Protein B – Lipid
(1) Meristem (2) Roots
(3) Flowers (4) Leaves 129. A transcription unit does not consist of
(1) Structural genes (2) Promoter
123. Pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of (3) Terminator (4) UTR’s
their release in
(1) Solanaceae (2) Rosaceae 130. The correct sequence of events during DNA
(3) Poaceae (4) Leguminoseae fingerprinting is
a –Hybridisation; b – Isolation of DNA
124. Which of the following is not an outbreeding
c –Autoradiography; d – Blotting;
device?
e –Digestion; f – Electrophoresis
(1) Presence of dioecy
(1) b, d, e, f, a, c (2) b, a, d, e, f, c
(2) Synchronisation in pollen release and stigma
receptivity (3) b, e, f, d, a, c (4) b, f, d, e, a, c
(3) Presence of self incompatibility
(4) Presence of unisexual flowers 131. Isolated protoplasts from two different plant cells
can be fused to obtain
125. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option. (1) Monoclonal cultures
(I) Embryo develops at the __A__ end of embryo (2) Somatic hybrids
sac (3) Purelines
(II) __B__ discovered during the archeological (4) Hybrid vigour
excavation at King Herod’s palace near the
dead sea 132. Four water bodies A, B, C, and D were studied for
(III) __C__ is a form of asexual reproduction that sewage pollution, the following observations were
mimics sexual reproduction. made
(IV) Pollen-pistil interaction is a __D__ process. Sample water A  BOD  2500 mg/L
(1) A – Chalazal B – Lupinus Sample water B  BOD  1800 mg/L
(2) B – Phoenix C – Amphimixis Sample water C  BOD  3800 mg/L
(3) C – Apomixis D – Dynamic
Sample water D  BOD  1500 mg/L
(4) A – Micropylar B – Lupine
Which of the following water body is highly
126. Given below is a cross in Drosophila between polluted?
yellow bodied and white eyed females to brown (1) B (2) A
bodied red eyed males. After intercrossing the F1 (3) D (4) C
progeny what will be the recombination percentage
133. Which of the following are the effective biocontrol
in F2-generation?
agent of several plant pathogens and biocontrol
agent for controlling butterfly catterpillers
respectively?
(1) Ladybird; Dragonfly
(2) Trichoderma; Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) 98.7% (2) 1.3% (3) Baculoviruses; Phytophthora
(3) 26.8% (4) 37.2% (4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus; Trichoderma

[13]
134. If the amount of energy available from sun in an 142. During fixation of 2 molecules of nitrogen (N2),
ecosystem is 2 lakh joules then the amount of how many ATP and how many ammonia will be
energy available in secondary consumer (SC) required and produced respectively?
would be (1) 32 and 2 (2) 16 and 2
(1) 20,000 J (2) 2,000 J (3) 32 and 4 (4) 64 and 8
(3) 200 J (4) 20 J
143. In fermentation
135. To control air pollution, costly metals are used in (1) Partial breakdown of glucose take place
(1) Electrostatic precipitators (2) One molecule of glucose will produce 8 ATP
(2) Scrubber (3) NADH is oxidized to NAD in vigorous way
(3) Incinerators (4) More than one option is correct
(4) Catalytic converters
144. Select odd one out w.r.t. physiological effects of
plant growth regulator which is biosynthesized
SECTION - B
from tryptophan
136. Montreal protocol, became effective in
(1) Inhibits the growth of the axillary buds
(1) 1987 (2) 1989 (2) Also induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes
(3) 2002 (4) 1992 (3) Leads to early seed production in conifers
(4) Widely used as herbicides
137. Which among the following cannot be a feature of
given diagram? 145. Which one of the following plants cannot flower if
the duration of light exposure is less than critical
photo-period?
(1) Short night plants (SNPs)
(1) It is a long cylindrical tube-like structure (2) Long night plants (LNPs)
(2) Having lignified walls (3) DNPs
(3) Having large central cavity (4) SDPs
(4) Having protoplasm
146. If pollen grain is having 12 chromosome then what
would be the chromosomes number in endosperm
138. The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
of gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively?
marks the
(1) 24 and 36 (2) 36 and 36
(1) Early prophase
(3) 12 and 36 (4) 24 and 24
(2) Start of second phase of mitosis
(3) First phase of mitosis 147. Mammals of colder areas generally have shorter
(4) End of second phase of mitosis extremities in comparison to the tropical mammals.
This statement comes under the
139. Water flows into the cell and out of the cell and are (1) Allen’s rule (2) Jordan’s rule
in equilibrium too when the cells are placed in (3) Bergman’s rule (4) Gloger’s rule
(1) Hypertonic solution
(2) Isotonic solution 148. Available biomass for the consumption to
(3) Hypotonic solution heterotrophs is
(4) Pure water (1) GPP
(2) NPP
140. Which among the following cannot be a feature of (3) Secondary productivity
micronutrient? (4) Net productivity
(1) Maintain ribosome structure
(2) Activator of catalase, aconitase 149. Select odd one out w.r.t. secondary succession
(3) Activator of nitrogenase (1) Abandoned farm land
(4) Pollen germination (2) Burned / cut forest
(3) Flooded area
141. In biological and industrial nitrogen fixation, (4) Bare rock
nitrogen is converted into
(1) Ammonia 150. The most important cause of biodiversity loss is
(2) Nitrate (1) Habitat loss
(3) Nitrite (2) Over exploitation
(4) Amino acid (3) Alien species invasion
(4) Co-extinction

[14]
 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A
151. Read the following statements and find out the
incorrect statement.
a. Humans are sexually reproducing and
viviparous.
b. Transfer of sperm in female genital tract
(vagina) is called ejaculation.
c. There are remarkable differences between the
reproductive events in the male and in the
female.
d. Sperm formation continues even in old men,
but formation of ovum ceases in women
around the age of fifteen years.
e. The male and female reproductive system is
located in the pelvic region.
(1) a, c and d (2) b, c and e
(3) b and d only (4) b only
152. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching.
154. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
correct option in question.
Assertion: Sperms released from seminiferous
tubules are transported by the accessory ducts.
Reason: Secretion of epididymis, vas deferens,
seminal vesicle and prostate are essential for
maturation and motility of sperms.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
155. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to
the catecholamines?
(1) These are called emergency hormones or
hormones of fight or flight
(2) These hormones increase the heart beat, the
strength of heart contraction and the rate of
respiration
(3) They inhibit the lipolysis and proteolysis
(4) They increases alertness, pupillary dilation,
piloerection (raising of hairs) and sweating.
156. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct
combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
(a) Adhering 1. Help to stop
junctions
substances
from leaking
across a tissue

(b) Gap 2. Perform

(1) a-Hind II, b-blunt end, c-non-recombinant junctions comenting to
DNA keep neighbouring
(2) a-BamH I, b-sticky end, c-recombinant DNA cells together
(3) a-EcoR I, b-sticky end, c-non-recombinant
DNA (c) Tight 3. Facilitate the cells
(4) a-EcoR I, b-sticky end, c-recombinant DNA junctions to communicate
with each other
153. Read the following statements carefully: (1) a-3, b-2, c-1
a. They are triplobastic (2) a-2, b-3, c-1
b. Alimentary canal is complete with a well- (3) a-2, b-1, c-3
developed muscular pharynx (4) a-1, b-3, c-2
c. An excretory tube removes body wastes from
the body cavity through excretory pore 157. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
d. They are dioecious (1) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary
e. Fertilisation is internal (2) The muscles of hands and legs are striated and
Above features belong to which phylum? voluntary
(1) Annelida (3) The muscles located in the inner walls of
(2) Arthropoda alimentary canal are striated and involuntary
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are
(4) Mollusca unstriated and involuntary

[15]
158. Elements that are found more abundant in human 163. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
body than in earth's crust are matching.
(1) C, H, O, N, S
(2) Na, Si, Ca, Mg
(3) S, Na, Ca, N
(4) Si, H, Mg, O

159. Choose the wrong statement.

(1) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that life comes
only form pre-existing life.
(2) First life was originated through abiogenesis
(3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are
examples of homology.
(4) Analogous structures are the result of
convergent evolution.

160. Read the statements (i-iv) and choose the correct

option.
i. Increase in melanised moths after
(1) (a)-viral RNA, (b)-RNA polymerase, (c)-viral
industrialization in Great Britain is a proof of
DNA, (d)-viral RNA
Natural Selection.
(2) (a)-viral RNA, (b)-reverse transcriptase,
ii. More individuals acquiring mean character
(c)-viral RNA, (d)-viral DNA
value cause disruption. (3) (a)-viral DNA, (b)-DNA polymerase, (c)-viral
iii. Change in allelic frequency leads to Hardy- DNA, (d)-viral RNA
Weinberg equilibrium. (4) (a)-viral DNA, (b)-reverse transcriptase,
iv. Genetic drift changes allelic frequency in (c)-viral DNA, (d)-viral RNA
future generations.
(1) ii is correct 164. Read the following statements and find out the
(2) only i is correct incorrect statement.
(3) i and iv are correct a. The ventral portion of the midbrain consists
(4) i and iii are correct mainly of four round swellings (lobes) called
corpora quadrigemina.
161. Why do we pass more urine in wet and cold season? b. Midbrain and cerebellum form the brain stem.
(1) Impairment of water absorption by nephron c. Pons consists of fibre tracts that interconnect
(2) Kidneys become more active different regions of brain.
(3) Sweating is much decreased. d. The midbrain receives and integrates visual,
(4) ADH secretion is increased tactile and auditory inputs.
e. Limbic system is concerned with olfaction and
162. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct autonomic responses.
(1) a, c and d (2) b and e
combination from the options given.
(3) a and b (4) a, c, d and e
Column I Column II
165. Which is not true of inbreeding?
Haemophilus (1) It causes inbreeding depression after a few
1. Typhoid a.
influenzae generations.
(2) It always increases productivity.
2. Pneumonia b. Trichophyton (3) It is used to produce a pure line.
(4) It leads to homozygosity.
3. Filariasis c. Plasmodium

Salmonella 166. Read the following statements and find out the
4. Ringworm d.
typhi incorrect statement.
(1) The entire heart is made of cardiac muscles.
Wuchereria (2) A specialised cardiac musculature called the
5. Malaria e.
malayi nodal tissue is also distributed in the heart.
(1) 1-d, 2-a, 3-e, 4-b, 5-c (3) The walls of ventricles are much thicker than
(2) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-e, 5-d that of the atria.
(3) 1-b, 2-d, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a (4) None of the above.
(4) 1-b, 2-c, 3-e, 4-d, 5-a
[16]
167. Hormone responsible for ovulation and 171. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
development of corpus luteum is matching.
(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) LTH
(4) ICSH

168. Recognise the figure and find out the correct (1) a-sexually, b-asexually
matching. (2) a-asexually, b-sexually
(3) a-asexually, b-parthenogenetically
(4) a-sexually, b-parthenogenetically

172. Read the following statements and find out the

incorrect statement.
a. Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells
b. Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli cells
c. Leydig cells are found in the ovary
d. Leydig cells synthesise androgens
(1) a, and c
(2) a, b, c and e
(3) b, d, f and g
(4) a, c, e and g

173. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct
combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Porifera i. Canal system
(1) b-H+, d-H2O, c-Urea, a-NaCl, e-HCO3–
b. Aschelminthes ii. Water-vascular system
(2) c-H+, b-H2O, d-Urea, e-NaCl, a-HCO3–
c. Annelida iii. Muscular Pharynx
(3) d-H+, b-H2O, e-Urea, c-NaCl, a-HCO3– d. Arthropoda iv. Jointed appendages
(4) a-H+, c-H2O, b-Urea, d-NaCl, e-HCO3– e. Echinodermata v. Metameres
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-iv, e-i
169. Assertion: Each restriction endonuclease (2) a-ii, b-v, c-iii, d-iv, e-i
recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide (3) a-i, b-iii, c-v, d-iv, e-ii
sequences in the DNA. (4) a-i, b-v, c-iii, d-iv, e-ii
Reason: The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of
base pairs that reads same on the two strands when 174. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
orientation of reading kept the same. matching.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

170. Which is the correct match? (1) a-mucosa, d-sub-mucosa, e-muscularis,

(1) Cry I Ab-Cotton bollworms f-serosa, b-circular, c-longitudinal
(2) a-mucosa, d-sub-mucosa, e-muscularis,
(2) Cry I Ac-Cotton bollworms f-serosa, c-circular, b-longitudinal
(3) Cry I Ac-Corn borer (3) f-mucosa, e-sub-mucosa, d-muscularis,
(4) Cry II Ab-Corn borer a-serosa, b-circular, c-longitudinal
(4) f-mucosa, e-sub-mucosa, d-muscularis,
a-serosa, c-circular, b-longitudinal

[17]
175. Read the following statements and find out the
incorrect statement.
a. Barrier methods are available for both males
and females.
b. In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are
prevented from physically meeting with the
help of barriers.
c. Condoms are made of thin rubber/latex sheath
that are used to cover the penis in male or
vagina and cervix in the female, just before
coitus so that the ejaculated semen would not
enter into the female reproductive tract.
d. Both the male and the female condoms are
reusable, can be self-inserted and thereby
gives privacy to the user.
e. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
barriers made of rubber that are inserted into
the female reproductive tract to cover cervix
during coitus. These barriers are disposable.
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) c and d (4) d and e
176. Read the following statements and find out the
correct statement.
(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in
functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in
secretion and absorption.
(3) The function of ciliated epithelium is to move
particles or mucus in a specific direction over
the epithelium.
(4) All of the above
177. In lungs, air is separated from venous blood by
(1) Squamous epithelium + tunica externa of
blood vessel
(2) Squamous epithelium + endothelium of blood
vessel
(3) Transitional epithelium + tunica media of
blood vessel
(4) Columnar epithelium +3 layered wall of blood
vessel
178. Read the following statements and find out the
incorrect statement.
(1) Mosaic vision is common during night hence
called nocturnal vision.
(2) In cockroach, brain supplies nerves to
antennae and compound eyes.
(3) Fat body, nephrocytes and urecose glands also
helps in excretion in cockroach.
(4) Male cockroach bears one pair of collaterial
glands which functions as an accessory
reproductive gland.
179. Gaseous mixture used by Miller for synthesis of
amino acids through heat and electric discharge
included
(1) Methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water
vapours
(2) Methane, ammonia, nitrogen and water
vapours
(3) Nitrogen, methane, oxygen and water
(4) Ammonia, carbon dioxide, nitrogen and water
vapours
180. Enzyme catalyst differ from inorganic catalysts as
(1) Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high
temperatures and high pressures, while
enzymes get damaged at high temperatures
(above 40° C)
(2) Enzyme increases the activation energy while
organic catalyst decreases
(3) Enzyme are used in a reaction while inorganic
catalyst remain unchanged
(4) All of the above
181. Starch and cellulose are
(1) Branched polysaccharides
(2) Storage products
(3) Components of plant cell walls
(4) Composed of glucose
182. Assertion: Competitive inhibitors are often used in
the control of bacterial pathogens.
Reason: When the inhibitor closely resembles the
enzyme in its molecular structure is known as
competitive inhibitor.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
183. Recognise the figure.
This animal belongs to
(1) Hemichordata
(2) Tunicata
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Cephalochordate
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184. Read the following statements and find out the 188. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct
incorrect statement. combination from the options given.
(1) No significant digestive activity occurs in Column I Column II
large intestine.
a. Eosinophils 1. Coagulation
(2) The bile released into the duodenum contains
bile pigments, bile salts (bilirubin and Universal
b. RBC 2.
bili-verdin) cholesterol and phospholipids but Recipient
no enzymes.
Resist
(3) The activities of the gastro-intestinal tract are c. AB group 3.
infection
under neural and hormonal control for proper
coordination of different parts. Contraction
d. Platelets 4.
(4) Gastric and intestinal secretions are stimulated of Heart
by neural signals. Gas
e. Systole 5.
transport
185. Which is the correct sequence of steps in (1) a-3, b-5, c-2, d-1, e-4
respiration? (2) a-5, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-2
a. Transport of gases by the blood (3) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5, e-4
b. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation (4) a-3, b-5, c-2, d-4, e-1
c. Cellular respiration 189. In pBR 322 ampR and tetR genes are present. When
d. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and we ligate a foreign DNA at Pst-I site, then
tissues recombinant plasmids will lose the resistance to the
e. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar (1) Ampicillin (2) Tetracycline
membrane (3) Both (4) None
(1) b → e → a → d → c
190. Which is incorrect about thyroid hormones?
(2) b → a → e → c → d (1) Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) are synthesised
(3) b → d → a → e → c by follicular cells.
(4) b → e → d → a → c (2) Thyroid hormones support the process of red
blood cell formation.
(3) Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of
SECTION - B carbohydrates, protein and fat.
186. The contraction of ....... muscles lifts up the ribs and (4) Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
the sternum causing an increase in the volume of is not influenced by thyroid hormones.
the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
191. Fill in the blanks:
(1) External intercostal muscles
1. On an average, ...a... of blood is filtered by the
(2) Internal intercostal muscles kidneys per minute which constitute roughly
(3) Diaphragm ...b... of the blood pumped out by each
(4) Both (1) and (2) ventricle of the heart in a minute.
2. The glomerular capillary blood pressure
causes filtration of blood through 3 layers, i.e.,
187. The correct sequence of the parts of alimentary
the ...c... of glomerular blood vessels, the ...d...
canal is cockroach. of Bowman's capsule and a basement ...e...
(1) Mouth → pharynx → oesophagus → crop → between these two layers.
gizzard → midgut → caecum → colon → (1) a-1000 to 1100 ml, b-1/4th, c-mesothelium,
rectum → anus d-endothelium, e-substance.
(2) Mouth → pharynx → oesophagus → gizzard (2) a-1000 to 1100 ml, b-1/5th, c-endothelium,
→ crop → midgut → ileum → colon → d-mesothelium, e-membrane.
(3) a-1100 to 1200 ml, b-1/4th, c-endothelium,
rectum → anus
d-epithelium, e-substance.
(3) Mouth → pharynx → oesophagus → crop → (4) a-1100 to 1200 ml, b-1/5th, c-endothelium,
proventriculus → midgut → ileum → colon d-epithelium, e-membrane.
→ rectum → anus
(4) Mouth → pharynx → oesophagus → stomach 192. Ti plasmid transforms cells of
(1) Animals (2) Plants
→ crop → midgut → hindgut → anus
(3) Bacteria (4) Fungi
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193 Read the following statements and find out the (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
incorrect statement. reason is the correct explanation of the
a. The universe is almost 20 million years old. assertion.
b. Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
universe. is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c. Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
dust. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
d. Considering the size of earth, universe is
indeed a speck. 197. The membrane constituting cochlea, the Reissner's
and basilar, divide the surrounding perilymph filled
e. Big bang theory attempts to explain the origin
bony labyrinth into an
of universe. (1) Upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani
(1) a, b and c (2) b and c (2) Upper scala tympani and lower scala vestibuli
(3) a and d (4) only a (3) Upper scala vestibuli and lower scala media
(4) Upper scala tympani and lower scala media
194. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching. 198. Neural signal through sympathetic nervous system
can
a. Increase the heart beat rate
b. Decrease the heart beat rate
c. Increase the strength of ventricular contraction
d. Decrease the speed of conduction of action
potential
e. Increase cardiac output
f. Decrease cardiac output
(1) b, c and e (2) a, d and f
(3) b, d and f (4) a, c and e

199. The problem of the population explosion can also

(1) a-scapula, b-clavicle, c-radius, d-ulna,
be tackled by
e-carpals
(2) a-clavicle, b-scapula, c-ulna, d-radius, (1) Statutory raising of marriageable age of the male
e-metacarpals to 18 years and that of females to 21 years
(3) a-clavicle, b-scapula, c-radius, d-ulna, (2) Incentives given to the couples with small
e-metacarpals families
(4) a-collar bone, b-scapula, c-radius, d-ulna, (3) Statutory ban on marriages
e-wrist bones (4) Both (1) and (2)
195. During development of action potential in a nerve
200. Choose the correct answer among the following
fibre, positive and negative charges on outer and
options.
inner side of axon membrane are reversed due to
a. Epinephrine i. Stimulates muscle
(1) Excretion of all K+ ions
growth
(2) More K+ ions enter than Na+ ions leave the
b. Testosterone ii. Decrease in blood
axon
pressure
(3) More Na+ ions enter the axon than K+ ions
c. Glucagon iii. Breakdown of liver
have leave the same
glycogen
(4) All Na+ ions enter the axon
d. Atrial natriuretic iv. Increase heart beat
factor
196. Assertion: Sporozoites of malarial parasite enter
Options:
human body by biting of new born female
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
Anopheles whose mother was carrier.
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
Reason: Male and female gametocyte of Malarial
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
parasite develop in human intestine.
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

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