No.

: 4546815
Test booklet Code

A
Date : 03-07-2022 This booklet contains 28 pages

aA
A 2

PHYSICS
5. The w ork done i n i nc re as in g th e
Section A : Answer all Questions (1-35) size of a soap film from
10cm  6cm to 10cm  11cm is
1. The dimensions ML1 T 2 may
correspond to 3 104 J . The surface tension for the
film is
a) work done by a force
b) linear momentum 1) 1.5  102 Nm 1
c) pressure
2) 3.0  102 Nm1
d) energy per unit volume
1) a,c 3) 6.0  102 Nm 1
2) b,d
3) c,d 4) 11.0  102 Nm 1

4) a, b 6. The molar heat capacity of a monatomic

2. By adding two forces of 8 N and 6 N we ideal gas unde rgoing the proce ss
get 1
PV 2
 constant is
1) 14 N
2) 48 N 15 23
1) R 2) R
3) 2 N 2 2
4) a force between 2 N and 14 N
3. A ball of mass m1 is moving with velocity 7
3) R 4) zero
3v. It co llides head on with a 2
stationary ball of mass m2. The velocity
of both the balls become v after 7. An ideal Carnot’s e ngine works
collision. Then the value of the ratio between 227 o C and 57 o C. The
efficiency of the engine will be
m2
m1 is 1) 22% 20 34%

1) 1 2) 2 3) 55% 4) 13.5%

3) 3 4) 4 8. A ray of light is incident normally on

4. There is no change in the volume of a one of the faces of a prism of apex angle
wire due to the change in its length 30o and refractive index 2 . The angle
on stretching. The Poisson’s ratio of of deviation of the ray is
the material of the wire is
1) 30o
1 1
1)  2)  2) 45o
3 2
3) 15o
1 1
3)  4)  4) none of these
4 4
A 3

9. When a string is divided into three
segments of length I 1 , I 2 and I 3 the
fundamental freque ncies of these
three segments are V 1 V 2 and V 3
respectively. The original fundamental
frequency (V) of the string is
1) v  v1  v 2  v 3
13. When a certain metallic surface is
illuminated with monochromatic light
of wavelength  , the stopping potential
for photoelectric current is found to be
3V0 and the stopping potential changed
to V0 when the wavelength of incident
light is doubled. The thresho ld
wavelength of the metal is

2) v  v1  v 2  v3
1) 6

2) 4 / 3
1 1 1 1
3)    3) 4
v v1 v 2 v3
4) 8
1 1 1 1
4)    14. The phase difference between the
v v1 v2 v3
electric field vector and magnetic field
vector in an electromagnetic wave is
10. Two beams of light having intensities
1 and 41, interfere to produce a fringe 1) 90o
pattern on a screen. The phase
difference between the beams is  / 2 , 2) zero
at a point A and  , at a point B. The 3) 180o
difference between the resultant
intensities at A and B is 4) 270o
1) 21 2) 41 15. A compound microscope has three
possible objective lenses (focal length
3) 51 4) 71
f 0 ) and two eyepiece lenses (focal
11. The electric potential at a space point length fe) . For maximum magnification
P(x,y,z) is given as V  x  y  z .
2 2 2 the objective and eyepiece should be
chosen such that
The modulus of the electric field at that
point is proportional to
1) f 0 and f e are both the large st
1) V
1
2) V1 available.
2

2) f 0 and f e , are both the smallest

3
3) V 2 4)V 2 available

12. In the Balmer series of spectral lines 3) f0 is the largest available and fe is
of Hydrogen atom, the ratio of the the smallest available
shortest to longest wavelengths is
4) fe is the largest available and f0 is
1) 5 : 9 2) 3:4 the smallest available.

3) 7 : 16 4) 1:3
A 4

16. A resistance of 3 draws current from 18. Which of the following is a

a potential divider. The potential dimensionless quantity
divider AB has a total resistance 12 1) Relative velocity
as shown in the figure. A voltage 24 V
is supplied to the potential divider. Find 2) Relative density
the voltage across the 3  when the 3) Angular velocity
sliding contact is in the middle (C) of
4) Both 1 and 2
the potentiometer wire.
19. If energy E, volume V and time T are
taken as fundamental units, the
dimensional formula of the force will
be

 1
T0  2)  EV T 
2
1)  EV
3
 

3)  E V T  4)  EV T 
2 1 1 1 0

1) 9 V 2) 6 V
20. A body whe n dropped freely from
3) 18 V 4) 3 V
certain height, reaches the ground in
17. A wire of length L is bent at midpoint time t second. The average velocity
in the form of letter “V” with an angle during its journey is
60 o between the two segments as
1) gt 2) 2gt
shown. It carries a current. It is kept
in a uniform magnetic field of induction
B such that the field of induction B gt
3) Zero 4)
such that the field is perpendicular to 2
the plane of the “V”. The magnitude
of the force acting on it is 21. If a ball of mass 4 kg moving with
velocity of 3 m/s collides elastically
head on with another ball of mass 6 kg
which is at rest, then the ratio of speed
of second ball to first after collision will
be
1) 4 :1 2) 2 :1
3) 2 :3 4) 4 : 3
22. Two balls are thrown vertically upward
simultaneously. While they are in air,
1) BiL the acceleration of their centre of
mass.
2) BiL/2
1) Depends on the masses of the balls
3) 3 BiL / 2 2) Depends on volume of the balls

4) BiL/4 3) Depends on the speed of the balls

4) Is equal to acceleration due to gravity
A 5

23. A particle of mass m is moving in a q1

29. If q1+ q2 = 3q, then the value of the ,
plane along a circular path of radius r. q
Its angular momentum about the axis for which the force of repulsion
is L. The centripetal force acting on between q1 and q2 is maximum is
the particle is
1 3
L2 L2 m 1) 2)
1) 2) 2 2
mr r
3
L2 L2 3) 1 4)
3) 4) 4
mr 3 mr 2
30. Ohm’s law is valid if
24. If the earth suddenly stop rotating, the
1) V is directly proportional to I3
value of ‘g’ at the equator would
2) The relation V and I is non- linear
1) Remains same 2)slightly increase
3) V is directly proportional to I3
3) Decrease 4) None of these
4) I depends on V linearly.
25. The equation y  a cos 2t  a sin 2t is
31. A circuit is made up of resistance 3
1) Periodic but not oscillatory
and inductance 0.01 H. An alternating
2) Oscillatory but not periodic emf of 100 V at 50 Hz is connected,
3) SHM then the phase difference between the
current and the emf in the circuit is
4) Non- periodic
26. Two capillary tube of radii 0.3 cm and 
 
1
2) tan 
1
0.4 cm are dipped in the same liquid. 1) tan 
3
The ratio of respective heights through
which liquid will rise, is
1  1 
1) 3 ; 4 2) 4: 3 3) tan   4) tan  
2 4
3) 1 : 1 4) 1 : 2
32. A ray of light strikes a silvered surface
27. The latent heat of vaporisation of
as shown inclined to another one.
substance is
Then the net deviation of the reflected
1) Greater than its latent heat of rays will be
sublimation
2) Greater than its latent heat of fusion
3) Equal to latent heat of sublimation
4) Less than its latent heat of fusion
28. A set of 16 tuning forks are so arranged
that each produce 4 beats with the
previous one. If the frequency of last
tuning fork is double that of first, the 1) 90o
frequency of third tuning fork is 2) 45o
1) 68 Hz 2) 60 Hz 3) 180o
3) 120 Hz 4) 32 Hz 4) 0o
A 6

33. Magnification at least distance of 37. To make permane nt magnets, the

distinct vision by simple microscope material we should select must have
having focal length 2.5 cm is
1) high retentivity and low coercivity
1) 6 2) 11
2) low retentivity and high coercivity
3) 5 4) 10
3) high retentivity and high coercivity
34. n photons of wavele ngth  are 4) low retentivity and low coercivity
absorbed by a black body of mass ‘m’.
The momentum gained by the body is 38. Which of the following decay modes is
due to a transition between states of
nh nh the same nucleus?
1) 2) 1) alpha decay 2) beta decay
 m
3) gamma decay 4) positron decay
mnh h 39. What is the value of (600 m+ 600 mm)
3) 4)
 m with regard to significant figures?
35. A n-p-n transistor can be used as 1) 600 m 2) 600.600 m
1) Choke coil 3) 601 m 4) 600.6 m
2) Voltage regulator 40. Consider the two statements A and B
given and identify the correct choice
3) Rectifier
in the options given below.
4) Amplifier
A: Mass may or may not present at
Section B: Answer any 10 Questions (36-50) centre of mass.
36. A long wire is bent into the hair pin- B: Charged particle can trace a circular
like shape shown in the figure. The path in an uniform electric field.
magnetic induction at the point “P” is
1) A is true, B is false
given by
2) A is false , B is true
3) A is true, B is true
4) A is false, B is false
41. Consider the two statements A and B
and select the appropriate option from
the four options given below:
A: If you place your hand above a fire,
you feel hot due to radiation only.
B: If you place your hand below a
1)   0i / 2r   2   
glowing filament bulb, you feel hot due
to convection.
2)   0i / 4r   2   
1) A is true, B is false

3)  0i / 4r  2) A is false, B is true

3) A is true, B is true
4)   0i / 4r  1    4) A is false, B is false
A 7

42. The distance of closest approach of an 46. A fish from inside water sees a bird in
alpha particle fired towards gold air at a distance
nucleus with kinetic energy k is r0. The 1) Equal to its real distance
distance of closest approach when the
2) Less than its real distance
alpha particle is fired towards same
nucleus with kinetic energy 4 k will 3) Greater than its real distance
be
4) Equal to its real distance but
displaced sideway
r0 r0
1) 2) 47. The pressure exerte d by an
2 3 ele ctromagnetic wave of intensity
r0 W
3) 4) r0 I  2  on a non-reflecting surface is
4 m 
43. Activity of radioactive e leme nt (c is the velocity of light)
decrease to one-fourth of original
activity R 0 in 16 years, after further I
1) Ic 2)
16 years, its activity will be c
R0 R0 I
1) 2) 3) Ic 2 4)
8 16 c2
R0 R0 48. Variation of photoelectric current with
3) 4) intensity of light for a given frequency,
12 20 is
44. When a soap bubble is illuminated by
source of white light, it appears
coloured. This is due to
1)
1) dispersion 2) Interference
3) Refraction 4) Diffraction
45. A child is standing with folded hands
at the centre of a platform rotating
about its central axis. The kinetic 2)
energy of the system is K. The child
now stretches his arms so that the
moment of inertia of the system
3
becomes of the initial moment of 3)
2
inertia. The kinetic energy of the
system is now.

2K K
1) 2)
3 3 4)

K 4K
3) 4)
4 9
A 8

CHEMISTRY
49. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying
cross section are maintained at 200°C Section A : Answer all Qns. (51-85)
and 0°C respectively. In steady state 51. Which among the given statements is
false?
1) Limiting reagent decides the extent
of the reaction
2) Once limiting reagent gets, over,
reaction stops
3) Limiting reagent lowers activation
energy of a reaction
1) temperature difference across AB and 4) All are false statements
CD are equal
52. A solution is prepared by adding 4g of
2) temperature difference across AB is substance to 25 g of water. Calculate
greater than that across CD mass percent of solute?
3) temperature difference across AB is 1) 15.7 2) 13.7
less than that across CD
3) 17.7 4) 18.7
4) temperature difference across AB and
53. Calculate wave number of coloured
CD may be equal or different depending
upon the thermal conductivity of the rod radiation having wavelength 6100 A ?
50. A and B are two conducting rings placed 1) 1.64  104 cm 1 2) 1.34  104 cm 1
on either side of an infinitely long
straight conducting wire as shown. If
3) 1.94  104 cm 1 4) 2.04 10 4 cm 1
the current in the wire is slowl y
decreased, the direction of induced 54. X-rays have frequency (Hz) in the
current will be between the range.

1) 10  104 2) 10 4  108

3) 1016  1020 4) 1022  10 24

55. Which among the following is the
correct order of increasing size?

1) Mg  A  Mg 2  A 3

2) A  3   A   Mg 2   M g

1) Clockwise in A and anti clockwise
in B
2) Anti clockwise in A and Clockwise
in B
3) Anti clockwise in both A and B
3) A3  Mg 2  A  Mg
4) Mg 2   A3  Mg  A
56. Among C  O, N  O, C  N, C  C the
smallest covalent bond length is shown
by?

4) Clockwise in both A and B 1) C  O 2) N  O

3) C  N 4) C  C
A 9

Assertion & Reason

60. U av : U mp : U rms is
In the following questions, a statement
of assertion is followed by a statement
1) 1:1.128 :1.224 2) 1.224 :1.128 :1
of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
3) 1.128 :1:1.224 4) 1.224 :1:1.28
57. Assertion : NH 4 has tetrahedral
molecular geometry 61. Match the following for plot of pV
values against pressure of respective
Reason : There are 4 bond pairs around real gases
Nitrogen kept apart at 109.5° from each
other
1) If both Assertion & Reason are True
& Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
2) If both Assertion & Reason are True
but Reason is not the co rrect
explanation of Assertion
3) If Assertion is True but Reason is
False
4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
58. Match the following molecules and
shapes?
1 Gas 1  p  He
 2  Gas 2  q  H2
1 O3  p  Square planar
 3 Gas 3  r  CH 4
 2  SF4  q  square pyramid
 4  Gas 4  s  CO
 3 XeF4  r  See saw
 4  BrF5  s  Bent 1) 1  s; 2  r; 3  q; 4  p

1) 1  s; 2  r; 3  p; 4  q 2) 1  q; 2  r; 3  s; 4  p

2) 1  r; 2  s; 3  p; 4  q 3) 1  p; 2  q; 3  s; 4  r

3) 1  q; 2  s; 3  p; 4  r 4) 1  p; 2  q; 3  r; 4  s

4) 1  p; 2  s; 3  r; 4  q 62. The difference in the heat of reaction

at constant pressure and at constant
59. The temperature at which 10% volume for combustion of 8 g Methane

w v
at 300 K.
aqueous solution of glucose
1)4988 J
exhibit osmotic pressure of 16.4 atm
is (r= 0.082 dm3 atm K–1 mol–1) 2) –2494 J

1) 360 K 2) 180 K 3) –4988 J

3) 90 K 4) 300 K 4) 2494 J
A 10

63. Which among the given orders is 69. D ih edr al an gle in H 2O2 structure in gas
correct wi th respe ct to bond phase is,
enthalpies?
1) 94.8 2) 101.9
1) C  O  C  N  C  O  C  N
3) 111.5 4) 90.2
2) C  N  C  O  C  N  C  O
70. Which among following statements is
3) C  O  C  O  C  N  C  N false?
4) C  N  C  O  C  N  C  O 233
1) 87 Fr has a half-life of only 21
64. Which of the following statements is minutes
true?
2) Radium is comprising only 10–10% of
1) Temperature is a measure of average igneous rocks
chaotic motion of particles in the
system 3) Potassium is lighter than sodium
2) Entropy of any pure crystalline 4) Rb gives crimson red colour to flame
substance approaches zero as the (oxidising flame)
temperature approaches absolute zero
71. Which of the following statement is
3) A spontaneous process is an false?
irreversible process and may be
reversed only by some external agency. 1)  f H o values for flourides become
4) All of the above less negative as we go down alkali
metal group
65. Calculate pH of 10–8M solution of HCl?
1) 6 2) 7 2)  f H o values become more negative
3) 8 4) 6.98 for chlorides, bromides and iodides of
alkali metals
66. Oxidation state of bromine atoms in
3) Melting and boiling points follow the
Br3O8 is,
trend fluoride > chloride > bromide >
1) 6,  4,  6 2) 2, 0,  2 iodide for alkali metals.
4) CsI is highly soluble in water due to
2 2 2 high hydration enthalpy of both ions
3) 5 0,  5 4)  , ,
5 5 5 72. Which of the following statements are
67. Actual oxidation state of phosphorous true?
atom in P4O10 is 1) BCl 3 accepts a lone pair from
1) +4 2) +5 ammonia to form BCl3  NH3
3) +3 4) +6
2) BCl3 on hydrolysis forms tetrahedral
68. Tritium atom, being radioactive, emits 
a particle to become  B  OH  4 
4 3
1) 2 He 2) 2 He 3) AlCl3 in acidified aqueous solution
3
3) 4
Li 4) 53 Li forms octahedral  Al  H 2 O 6  ion
3

4) All are true

A 11

73. Which of the following statements is 76. Prussian blue colour corresponds to
false? which of the following hydrate d
1) Borax dissolves in water to give an species?
alkaline solution
1) Fe4  Fe  CN 6  3 2) Fe3  Fe  CN 6  3
2) Borax dissolves in water giving
orthoboric acid, making solution acidic
3) Fe 2  Fe3  CN 6  3 4) Fe  Fe4  CN 6  3
3) Borax bead test is used to identify
many transition metals 77. An Dumas method, for estimation of
4) H3BO3 is sparingly soluble in water nitrogen 0.3 g of an organic compound
but highly soluble in hot water gave 75 ml nitrogen collected at 300 K
temperature and 730 mm pressure.
Assertion & Reason Calculate percentage composition of
nitrogen in the compound? (Aqueous
In the following questions, a statement
tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
of assertion is followed by a statement
of reason. Mark the correct choice as: 1) 17.46% 2) 26.75 %
74. Assertion : CO forms complex with 3) 23.6 % 4) 37.46 %
haemoglobin 78. Which of the following reactions can
give butane as product?
Reason : H 2 CO3 / HCO 3 buffer system
helps maintain pH of blood between 1) CH 3  CH 2 3 COONa  NaOH 
CaO


7.26 to 7.42
Kolbe 's
1) If both Assertion & Reason are True 2) CH CH COO Na  
electrolysis

3 2
& Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion 3) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 MgCl 
H 2O

2) If both Assertion & Reason are True
4) All of the above
but Reason is not the co rrect
explanation of Assertion
79.
Hexane  X
773 K,
 Benzene X can be
3) If Assertion is True but Reason is 10  20 atm

False
1) Cr2 O3 2) V2 O5
4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
75. o-ethyl anisole is 3) Mo 2 O 3 4) All of the above

2 

OC2H5 OCH3 80. CH3CH 2 C  CH  H 2 O 

Hg / H
330 K


1) 2) 1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2OH
CH3 C2H5
2) CH 3CH 2 COCH3
OC2H5 C2H5 3) CH CH C  CH
3 2 2

3) 4)
OH
OCH3 CH3
4) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO
A 12

81. Which of the following statements is

false? 85.

1) Frenkel defect is a dislocation point

defect in ionic crystal
2) Efficiency of packing in hcp crystal
lattice is 74%
For the reaction A  B   C enthalpy
3) Number of atoms in a simple cubic of the reaction in k J is
unit cell is one
1) –5
4) In schotkey defect excess Li makes
LiCl crystals violet 2) –15

82. The boiling point of ‘X’ is 356 K. When 3) +5

2 g of non-volatile non electrolyte 4) +15
solute was dissolved in 100 g X, the
boiling point raised to 359 K. Calculate Section B: Answer any 10 Qns. (86 - 100)
molar mass of solute? (Kb for X is 2.60
K kg mol–1) 86. Which among the following statements
is true?
1) 27.3
1) The factor n can have values
2) 17.3 between 0 and 1 in Freundli ch
isotherm
3) 58
2) Chemisorption decrease s with
4) 78 increase in surface area as it is specific

83.  om for NaCl, HCl and NaAc are 126.4, 3) Freundlich isotherm fails at high
pressure
425.9 and 91.0 S cm 2 mol –1
4) ZSM-5 converts gasoline to petrol by
respectively. Calculate  o for HAc in
hydrating them
S cm2 mol–1)
87. Match the following
1) 310.5
2) 330.5 1 Cala min e  p  CuCO3Cu  OH 2
3) 350.5
 2  Cuprite  q  ZnS
 3 Malachite  r  Cu 2O
4) 390.5
 4  Sphalerite  s  ZnCO3
84. Which among the following is a first
order reaction? 1) 1  s; 2  r; 3  p; 4  q

1) A  B 
C k  2  10 3 mol  1s 1 2) 1  p; 2  r; 3  s; 4  q

2) A 
x  y k  2  104  mol1s 1 3) 1  p; 2  q; 3  s; 4  r

3) A  B  C 
D  E k  2  105 s 1 4) 1  p; 2  q; 3  r; 4  s

4) Cannot be predicted
A 13

88. Which among the following statements

are true/ Cl
1) White phosphorous glows in the dark 93. 
NaOH

and dissolves in carbon disulphide I
2) Red phosphorous is polymeric and
insoluble in carbon disulphide OH
3) Black phosphorous has 2 form 1)
  black phosphorous and   black OH
phosphorous
4) All the above OH

89. Which of the following is false? 2)

I
1) S2 is paramagnetic
2) O2 is paramagnetic Cl
3) O3 is diamagnetic 3)
OH
4) Rhombic sulphur has S6 molecules
90. Which of the following statements are Cl
true
1) Dichromate ion has 126° Cr-o-Cr 4) I
bond angle
OH
2) Most lanthanoids show +3 oxidation
state 94. CH 3COCH 3  C 2 H 5 MgCl 
H2O

3) Np and Pu show highest oxidation
state in actinoids 1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2OH

4) All are true OH

91. The number of bridging CO ligands in 2)
CH 3CH 2 CHCH 2 CH3
CO2  CO 8 is
OH
1) 3 2) 0
3) 2 4) 6 CH 3  C  CH 3
3)
92. The correct order of dipole moment is C2H5

1) CH 3 F  CH 3Cl  CH 3 Br  CH 3I
OH
2) CH 3Cl  CH3 Br  CH3 I  CH3 F CH 3  C  CH 3
4)
3) CH 3Cl  CH3 Br  CH3 F  CH 3 I CH3

4) CH 3Cl  CH3 F  CH 3 Br  CH 3I
A 14

95. Which among the following has highest 99. Which of the following statements is
pKa value? false?
1) m-Nitrophenol 2) o–cresol 1) All monosaccharides whether aldose
3) phenol 4) ethanol or ketose are reducing sugars

96. CH 3CHO  NaHSO3 

A .
‘A’ is a crystalline compound with
molecular formula:
1) CH 3CH  OH 
SO3Na
3) CH3CH  ONa 
2) Pentaacetate of glucose does not
react with hydroxylamine indicating
absence of free –CHO group
3) In lactose linkage is between C1 of
2) CH 3CH  OH 
galactose and C1 of glucose
4) Amylopectin is insoluble in water and
OSO2Na constitutes about 80–85% of starch
100. Which of the following statements is/
4) CH 3CHCOOH are true with respect to aspirin?

OSO2H OH 1) It relieves skeletal pain like due to

arthritis
97. C6 H 5 COOCOCH 3 
H 2O
 2) It prevents platelet coagulation and
1) Benzoic acid 2) Ethanoic acid reduces fever
3) Ethanal 4) Both (1) and (2) 3) It helps in preventing heart attack
4) All the above
98.  CH3CO 2 O
X 
Pryridine
Y  Z Br2
CH3COOH BOTANY


OH or H
 NH2 Section A :
Answer all Questions (101-135)
101. The five kingdom classification was
proposed by :
1) Linnaeus - 1969
Br
4  Bromo aniline 2) R. H. Whittaker - 1969
3) Copeland - 1960
Y is
4) Haeckal - 1900
NHCOCH3 NH2
102. Find the mismatch pair :
1) Amoeboid Protista - Entamoeba
1) 2)
2) Flagellated Protozoan - Trypanosoma
3) Ciliated Protozoan - Euglena
NHCOCH3 4) Sporozoans - Plasmodium
103. Which of the following alga exhibit
diplontic life cycle :
3) 4) None of the above 1) Spirogyra 2) Volvox
Br 3) Fucus 4) Polysiphonia
A 15

104. Name a Bryophyte which has 110. Which of the following is wrongly
considerable economic importance : matched :

1) Marchantia 2) Sphagnum 1) Nucleolus - rRNA synthesis

3) Funaria 4) Polytrichum 2) Centriole - Cartwheel structure

105. Select the suitable term, applicable to 3) Ribosome - Ribonucleoprotein

the stamens which are attached to the
perianth as in the flower of Lily : 4)Chloroplast-Oxidative phosphorylation

1) Monoadelphous 2) Diadelphous 111. Find out the correct sequence of stages

in cell cycle:
3) Polyadelphous 4) Epiphyllous
1) G1  G2  S  M
106. A highly irregular flower like that of
Canna, which cannot be divided into 2) S  G1  G2  M
two similar halves in any vertical plane:
3) G1  S  G2  M
1) Assymmetric 2) Actinomorphic
4) M  G1  G2  S
3) Hermaphrodite 4) Isomerous
112. The phase which marks the period
107. The cork cambium, cork and secondary during which DNA synthesis occurs
cortex are collectively called :
1) S phase 2) M Phase
1) Phellogen 2) Phellem
3) G2 phase 4) G1 Phase
3) Phelloderm 4) Periderm
113. Loading of sugar into sieve tube from
108. When xylem and phloem are arranged source point :
in an alternate manner on different
radii the arrangement is called : 1) Translocation

1) Conjoint 2) Phloem loading

2) Radial 3) Phloem unloading

3) Concentric 4) Ascent of sap

4) Collateral 114. The membrane that allows solvent and

some of solute molecules to pass
109. Which of the following is wrongly through it and prevent others is called
matched :
1) Permeable membrane
1) RER - protein synthesis
2) Semi permeable membrane
2) SER - lipid synthesis
3) Selectively or differentially
3) Lysosome - digestion
permeable membrane.
4) Sap vacuole - osmoregulation and
excretion 4) Impermeable membrane.
A 16

115. Necrosis of tissue, particularly leaf
tissue is due to deficiency of
1) N, K, S,P
2) Ca, Mg, Cu, K
3) N, K, Mg, Fe
4) Mn, Zn, Mo, Cu
116. Some plants require certain elements
other than essential for their normal
growth and reproduction like Co, Se,
Ga, Si etc known as
120. Consider the following statements with
respect to respiration :
i) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of
the cell.
ii) The cell organelle concerned with
aerobic respiration is mitochondria.
iii) Electron transport system is present
in the outer mitochondrial membrane.
iv) C 51H98O6 is the chemical formula for
tripalmitin, a fatty acid.

1) Beneficial elements Volume of O 2 evolved

v) R.Q. = Volume of CO consumed
2
2) Critical elements

3) Balancing elements Of the above statements :

4) Framework elements 1) ii, iii and iv are correct

117. Photosynthetically active radiation 2) iii, iv and v are correct

(PAR) - light most effective for
photosynthesis : 3) i, ii and iv are correct

1) 400 - 500 nm 2) 400 - 700 nm 4) ii, iv and v are correct

121. Which one would you use to induce

3) 450 - 550 nm 4) 500 - 600 nm
immediate closure of stomata in leaves :
118. In C3 plants, Rubisco present in :
1) ABA
1) Only mesophyll cells
2) CO2
2) Only bundlesheath
3) Zeatin
3) Spongy parenchyma and bundle
sheath 4) IBA

122. One hormone is indole compound,

4) Pal isade parenchyma and
second one is N6 furfuryl amino purine
bundlesheath
and a third one is a gaseous one. These
119. A single turn of Krebs cycle yields : respectively are :

1) 2 FADH2, 2 NADH2, 2 GTP 1) Auxin, cytokinin, gibberellin

2) 1 FADH2, 3 NADH2, 1 GTP 2) Auxin, kinetin, ethylene

3) 3 FADH2, 1 NADH2, 1 GTP 3) Gibberellin, ethylene, cytokinin

4) 1 FADH2, 4 NADH2, 1 GTP 4) Cytokinin, gibberellin, ethylene

A 17

123. Name the type of gametes formed in
staminate and pistillate flower
respectively :
1) Female gamete and male gamete
127. PCR proceeds in three different steps.
They are in the order
1) Anneal ing, Chain e longation,
Denaturation

2) Male gamete and female gamete 2) Chain e long ation, A nnealing ,

Denauration
3) Ovum and sperm
3) Denaturation, Annealing, Chain
4) Egg and antherozoid
elongation
124. The arrangement of the nuclei in a
4) Denaturation, Chain elongation,
normal embryosac in the dicot plants
Annealing
is :

1) 3 + 2 + 3 128. Cry I Ac, Cry I Ab and Cry II Ab

respectively control :
2) 2 + 3 + 3
1) Boll worm, corn borers, cornborers
3) 3 + 3 + 2
2) Corn Borers, Boll worms, Boll worms
4) 2 + 4 + 2
3) Boll worm, Boll worm, Corn borers
125. The seeds that have no re sidu al
endosperm as it is completely
4) Boll worm, Corn borers, Boll worms
consumed during embryo development:
129. Golden rice is a :
1) Albuminous seeds
1) Vitamin A enriched rice
2) Non-albuminous seeds
2) Protein enriched rice
3) Perispermic seeds
3) Vitamin D enriched rice
4) Polyembryonic seeds
4) All the above
126. The better - yielding semi-dwarf
varieties of rice produced in India is/ 130. An expo nential growth curve is
are : mathematically represented as :

i) Sonalika 1) N0  N t ert
ii) Taichung Native I
2) N t  N0  ert
iii) Jaya

iv) Kalyansona dN
3)  rN
dt
v) Ratna
Nt 1
1) i, ii, iii 2) ii, v 4) N  e rt
0
3) iii, v 4) i, iii
A 18

131. Aquatic animals which can tolerate Section B: Answer any 10 Questions (136-150)
only a narrow range of salinity are said
to be : 136. Match the following suitably :
1) Euryhaline 2) Stenohaline
Column I Column II Column III
3) Poikilotherms 4) Eurythermal
a) Brown algae i) Floridean starch 1) Chl. a & b

132. The pioneer species in hydrarch and b) Red algae ii) Starch 2) Chl. a & c
xerarch succession are respectively : iii) Mannitol or
c) Green algae 3) Chl. a & d
Laminarin
1) Lichens and phytoplankton

2) Phytoplankton and lichens 1) a - i - 2 ; b - ii - 3 ; c - iii - 1

3) Rooted hydrophytes and lichens 2) a - iii - 1 ; b - i - 2 ; c - ii - 3

4) Lichens and sedges 3) a - iii - 2 ; b - i - 3 ; c - ii - 1

133. Which one of the following is not a 4) a - ii - 3 ; b - i - 2 ; c - iii - 1

gaseous biogeochemical cycle in
ecosystem? 137. Medicinal plants belonging to different
families are given below. Select the
1) Carbon cycle plants belonging the family Solanaceae:

2) Phosphorus cycle 1) Indigofera, Muliathi

3) Nitrogen cycle 2) Belladona, Ashwagandha

4) Oxygen cycle
3) Aloe, Asparagus
134. High BOD indicates :
4) Tulip, Gloriosa
1) highly polluted H2O
138. Which of the following is not related to
2) Less pollution in H2O secondary growth of dicot root?

3) Less sewage 1) Vascular cambium is completely

secondary in origin
4) Less microorganism

135. The percentage of forest cover 2) Vascular cambium originates from

recommended by the national forest tissue below xylem and pericycle tissue
policy 1988 in plains and hills are above phloem

1) 33 and 67 3) At the beginning vascular cambial

ring is wavy in nature
2) 67 and 33
4) Vascular cambium forms secondary
3) 19 and 30 xylem toward inner side and secondary
phloem towards outside
4) 40 and 67
A 19

142. With reference to mineral nutrition in

139. Plastid differs from mitochondria in plants, which one of the following pair
which of the following? is not correctly matched
1) presence of two layers of membrane 1) Mo - Required for nitrogen fixation
and nitrate reduction
2) presence of ribosome
2) Mn- Require d for integrity of
3) presence of pigments chloroplast membrane and for oxygen
release in photosynthesis
4) presence of DNA
3) Fe - Required for development of
140. Consider the following statements : chlorophyll and its pigments

4) Mg - Involved in Osmosis and ionic

I. In meiosis, division of nucl eus
balance and opening and closing of
takesplace twice but division of
stomata
chromosomes occurs only once
143. Which of the following is an accessory
II. Meiosis II is similar to equational pigment:
division
1) Chlorophyll a
III. Division of centromeres occurs in
both Meiosis I and Meiosis II 2) Chlorophyll b

IV. All the four daughter cells produced 3) Xanthophyll

by meiosis are genetically different
from each other 4) All except 1

Of the above statements : 144. 2(C51H 98O6 ) + 145O 2  102CO 2 + 98H 2 O + Energy
From this equation, calculate the
1) I and II are true but III and IV are R. Q. value and select it and the
false substrate from the following options :

2) I and IV are true but II and III are 1) R.Q. = 1; Carbohydrate

false
2) R.Q. = 4; Oxalic acid
3) All except III are true 3) R.Q. = 0.7; Tripalmitin

4) All statements are false 4) R.Q. = 1.6, Tartaric acid

141.Osmotic pressure of a solution is 145. Which one of the following is not

correctly matched :
1) Less than the pure solvent
1) Cousins - Ethylene
2) More or less than the pure solvent
2) E. Kurosawa - Gibberellin
3) Equal to the pure solvent 3) F.W. Went - Auxin
4) Greater than the pure solvent 4) Darwin - Cytokinin
A 20

146. Select the plants pollinated by water : 149. Match the following :

a) Water hyacinth b) Water lily Column I Column II

c) Zostera d) Amorphophallus 1. Hibernation a) Bird

e) Vallisneria f) Yucca 2. Aestivation b) Bacteria and fungi

1) a, d and e only 3. Diapause c) Frog and polar bears

2) b and e only 4. Spore formation d) Snail and fishes

3) c and e only 5. Migration e) Zooplankton

4) b, c and d only
12345 12345
1) a b cd e 2) ba cd e
147. Point out the incorrect match :

1) Rapeseed Mustard - Pusa Gaurav

12345 12345
3) cd ba e 4) cd e ba
2) Flat Bean - Pusa Sem 2

3) Okra - Pusa A - 4 150. Which among the following statements

regarding productivity are false ?
4) Bhindi - Pusa Sem 3
I. The rate of biomass production is
148. Match the Column I with Column II and called productivity
select the correct answer using the
codes given below: II. Primary productivity is the amount
of biomass produced per unit area over
a time pe riod by plants during
Column I Column II photosynthesis.
A) Plasmid 1) Selectable marker III. Net primary productivity minus
Extrachromosomal respiration loss is the gross primary
B) ampR 2)
DNA productivity
C) Ti-plasmid 3) Enzyme
IV. Gross primary productivity is the
Agrobacterium available biomass for the consumption
D) Chitinase 4)
tumefaciens to heterotrophs

1) III and IV
1) A - 4; B - 1; C - 2; D - 3
2) II and III
2) A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2
3) I and III
3) A - 2; B - 1; C - 4; D - 3
4) I and II
4) A - 1; B - 4; C - 2; D - 3
A 21

ZOOLOGY 155. Large amoeboid cells that are part of

our innate immune system, found in
Section A (151-185) Answer all Qns. areolar tissue is
151. Which of the following characteristics 1) Mast cells
developed for the first time in the
phylum to which Nereis belongs? 2) Macrophages
1) Bilateral symmetry 3) Fibroblasts
2) True coelom
4) All of the above
3) Metamerism
156. Which one of the following is a protein
4) Both 2 and 3 deficiency disease?

152. What is not true for a Mollusc? 1) Muscular tetany 2) Osteoporosis

1) Segmented body having a head, 3) Kwashiorkar 4) Indigestion

visceral hump and muscular foot
157. Volume of air that will remain in the
2) A rasping organ called radula lungs after a normal expiration is about

3) Mantle cavity with feather like gills 1) 500 ml 2) 1200 ml

4) Gills with excretory function 3) 2300 ml 4) 1100 ml

153. Consider the following characters 158. The partial pressure of oxygen is equal
in
a) Operculum
1) atmospheric air and alveoli
b) Air bladder

c) Placoid scales 2) alveoli and oxygenated blood

The characters present in 3) deoxygenated blood and alveoli

Osteichthyes include
4) deoxygenated blood and tissues
1) a. b and c 2) a and c only
159. When only type B antigen is not
3) a and b only 4) b and c only present on the surface of RBC of a
person, his plasma would contain
154. Homoeothermy is exhibited by
1) no antibodies
1) All amniotes
2) only anti a
2) Aves and mammals
3) only anti b
3) All vertebrates
4) both anti a and anti b
4) Reptiles and Aves
A 22
160. The cells that release heparin and
histamine in blood are
1) basophils
2) eosinophils
3) mast cells
4) neutrophils
161. What is used as an osmolyte in humans
to increase the interstitial medullary
osmolarity during the process of
concentration of urine?
1) Uric acid
2) Urea
3) Ammonia
4) Both 1 and 2
162. ANF promotes a/an ……I…….in the
excretion of sodium; thus ……II……
blood volume and blood pressure. Here
I and II are respectively
1) decrease ; decreasing
2) decrease ; increasing
3) increase ; increasing
4) increase; decreasing
163. Which of the following has ATPase
activity?
1) G actin
2) Head of myosin monomer
3) Troponin subunits
4) F-actin
164. The human ribs are termed bicephalic
because
1) they have two articulation surfaces
each on their ventral and dorsal ends
2) they have two articulation surfaces
only on their ventral end
3) they have two articulation surfaces
only on their dorsal end
4) they have a single articulation
surface on their ventral end and one
on their dorsal end
165. The brain stem does not include
1) mid brain
2) pons
3) medulla oblongata
4) cerebellum
166. Oxytocin helps in
1) implantation
2) lactation and childbirth
3) lactation but not childbirth
4) childbirth but not lactation
167. Which of the following regulates
carbohydrate, prote in and fat
metabolism in a manner opposite to
that of insulin?
1) Glucagon
2) Cortisol
3) Aldosterone
4) Both 1 and 2
A 23

168. At what point does the secondary oocyte 172. Find the mismatch:
complete meiosis?
1) Agriculture started 1000 years ago
1) When the acrosomal enzymes break
down the jelly coat 650 to 800cc
2) Homo habilis
brain size
2) When the LH triggers ovulation Fossil discovered
3) Homo erectus
from Java
3) After it is penetrated by the sperm
cell 4) Neanderthal man 1400cc brain size

4) After the fusion of sperm and egg
nuclei
169. Each seminiferous tubule is lined
inside by
173. Select the false one regarding religious
view on evolution:
1) Religious literature tell us about
special creation i.e., living things are
created by divine power

1) spermatogonia 2) According to this all creatures we

see today were formed as such
2) primary spermatocytes 3) Biological diversity increased since
the creation of life.
3) Sertoli cells 4) Earth is only 4000 years old
174. Malignant malaria is caused by
4) both 1 and 3
1) Plasmodium vivax
170. Pe riodic abstinence wo rks on the 2) Plasmodium falciparum
principle of
3) Plasmodium ovale
1) preventing implantation 4) Plasmodium malariae
175. Match the items in column I with that
2) preventing ovulation of column II

3) preventing fertilization
Column I Column II

4) preventing ovulation and fertilization a) Opioid i) Cancer treatment

171. In case of a couple, where the male is b) IgA ii) Stimulant

having a very low sperm count, which
c) Cocaine iii) Morphine
of the following techniques will be
suitable? d) Alpha interferon iv) Colostrum

1) IUT
1) a- iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i
2) AI 2) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

3) GIFT 3) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

4) a - i, b - iv, c - ii, d - iii
4) ICSI
A 24

176. The basic unit of classification is 181. If the blood group of one parent is ‘O’
group and their offspring is of B group.
1) Species 2) Genus What are the possible blood groups of
other parent
3) Population 4) Organism
1) A or O 2) B or O
177. Who discovered triple Helical structure
of collagen : 3) A, B or O 4) B or AB

1) G. N. Ramachandran 182. During DNA re plication,

Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
2) Pauling serve dual purposes ie,

3) Berzelius 1) Act as substrate and provide energy

4) Einstein 2) Act as catalyst and substrate

178. Identify the wrong statement regard-
ing protein structure :
1) Peptide bond is present in primary
structure
2) Hydrogen bond is present in second-
ary structure
3) Tertiary structure give catalytic ac-
tivity to protein
3) Act as substrate and ribozymes
4) Act as catalyst and ribonucleotides
183. What property of the genetic code allows
the use of several codons for a particular
aminoacid :
1) Universality
2) Degeneracy

4) α - helix and   pleated are primary 3) Non-overlapping codon

structure 4) Non-ambiguous
179. Dihybrid phenotypic ratio is : 184. Production of large holes in swiss
cheese is by :
1) 1 : 2 : 1
1) Propionibacterium sharmanii
2) 3 : 1
2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3) Penicillium roqueforti
4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
4) Aspergillus niger
180. In zw-zz type sex determination :
185. Protected areas are example of :
1) Females are heterogametic
1) In-situ conservation
2) Males are heterogametic
2) Ex-situ conservation
3) Females are homogametic
3) Cryopreservation
4) Females and males are
heterogametic 4) Green houses
A 25
Section B (186-200)
Answer any 10 questions
186. Which of the following is not seen in
Saccoglossus?
1) A tripartite body organization
2) Stomochord
3) Rudimentary notochord
4) Proboscis gland
187. What is common among amylase,
rennin and trypsin?
1) They are all proteins
2) They are all proteolytic enzymes
3) All are produced in stomach
4) They all need a pH less than 7 to
work actively
188. The “centre” which can moderate the
functions of the respiratory rhythm
centre is present in the
1) medulla oblongata
2) pons region of brain
3) thalamus
4) right cerebral hemisphere
189. What is incorrect about Periplaneta
americana?
1) Excretion by malpighian tubules
2) Haemolymph delivering oxygen to
tissues
3) Incomplete metamorphosis
4) Mosaic vision
190. During muscle contraction, the length
of all the following gets reduced except
1) H zone 2) A band
3) I band 4) Sarcomere
191. Reissner’s membrane separates
1) scala vestibuli and scala media
2) tympanic cavity and pharynx
3) round window and oval window
4) scala media and scala tympani
192. Which of the following are not steroid
hormones and yet do not act through
a second messenger system?
1) Estrogen and progesterone
2) Insulin and glucagon
3) Calcitonin and PTH
4) T3 and T4
193. Amongst the following, the number of
edible freshwater fish are
Pomfret, , Catla, Rohu, Sardine, Hilsa,
Common carp
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Five
194. Which of the following is at its peak
level duri ng the luteal phase of
menstrual cycle?
1) Estrogen 2) Progesterone
3) LH 4) FSH
A 26

195. Industrial melanism is an example of 199. Match the columns -I and II and choose
the correct combination from option
1) disruptive selection

2) inheritance of acquired character

Column - I Column - II
3) directional selection
A Citric acid 1 Fleming's work
4) balancing selection
B Pectinase 2 Bottled fruit juice
196. In which of the following groups, all
are polysaccharides : C Against life 3 Aspergillus niger

1) Glycogen, Sucrose and Maltose D Staphylococcus 4 Antibiotics

2) Glycogen, Glucose and Sucrose

3) Maltose, Lactose and Sucrose 1) A  2, B  1, C  3, D  4

4) Glycogen, Cellulose and Starch

2) A  3, B  2, C  4, D  1
197. Female heterogamety is common in the
following organisms :
3) A  3, B  4, C  1, D  2
1) Human and Drosophila
2) Grass hopper and Cockroaches 4) A  4, B  3, C  2, D  3

3) Birds and Reptiles

200. Select incorrect match:
4) Humans and Birds
198. Identify the set of codons, which have 1) Aravalli hills Gujarat
no corresponding anticodons.
2) Khasi and Jaintia hills Meghalaya
1) UUU, CCC, GGG
3) Sarguja Madhya Pradesh
2) AUG, UGG, AAA
4) Western ghats Karnataka, Maharashtra
3) UAG, UGA, UAA
4) GGC, GGA, GGU
A 27

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A 28

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Test Booklet

MODEL EXAMINATION Code (N)

03- 07- 2022 A

PHYSICS
1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 2

5. 2

6. 3
A 2

7. 2

8. 3

9. 3

10. 2

11. 1
A 3

12. 1

13. 3

14. 2

15. 2

16. 2

17. 2

18. 2
A 4

19. 1

20. 4

21. 1
A 5

22. 4

23. 3

24. 2

25. 3

26. 2

27. 2

28. 1
A 6

29. 2

30. 4

31. 2

32. 3

33. 2
A 7

34. 1

35. 4

36. 2

37. 3

38. 3

39. 3
A 8

40. 1

41. 4

42. 3

43. 2
A 9

44. 2

45. 1

46. 3

47. 2

48. 1

49. 3

50. 2
A 10

CHEMISTRY

51. 3

4
52. 2  100  16%
25

1
53. 1 


1
 8
 1.64  10 4 cm 1
6100  10

54. 3

55. 3

56. 3

57. 1

58. 1

59. 1   CRT 

60. 3

61. 1

62. 2 H  U  n g RT
H  U  n g RT

63. 1

64. 4
A 11

65. 4  H    10 8  10 7
from HCl from water

pH   log 108  10 7 

  log 107 10 1  1 

  log 107  1.1

   7  0.03

 6.97

66. 1

67. 2

3
68. 2 3
1 H 
 2 He  o1 e

69. 3

70. 4 Rb gives red violet colour to oxidising flame

71. 4 CsI is less soluble due to smaller hydration of both ions

72. 4

73. 2 Na 2 B4 O 7  7H 2 O 
 2NaOH  4H 3 BO 3

74. 2

75. 2

76. 1
A 12

77. 2 Vol of N2 collected at 300 K and 730 mm pressure is 75 ml

Actual pressure  730  15  715 mm

273  715  75
vol of N2 at STP 
300  760

 64.21 ml

22400 ml of N2 at STP weighs = 28 g

28  64.21
64.21 ml N2 weighs  g
22400

28  64.21100
% of N 2   26.75 g
22400  0.3

78. 4

79. 4

80. 2 Markownikov addition of H2O followed by tautomerism

81. 4 Excess lithium makes LiCl crystals pink

82. 2 Tb  K b  m

2
2
3  2.60  M  3  2.60   10
100 M
1000

26  2 52
M   17.33 g
3 3

83. 4  om  HAc    o H     Ac    om  HCl    om  NaAc 

  425.9  91  126.4 

 390.5 S cm 2 mol1

84. 3
A 13

85. 3  r H  E products  E reactants in PE diagram

86. 3

87. 1

88. 4

89. 4

90. 4

91. 3

92. 4

93. 2 Nucleophilic substitution on aromatic ring requires drastic conditions of tem-

perature and pressure or strong EWG’s like –NO2 at ortho and para position.

O O OH
8 8

CH 3  C  CH 3 
C 2 H 5 M gCl
CH3  C  CH 3 
H 2O
 CH 3  C  CH 3
94. 3
C2H5 C2H5

95. 4 In ethanol OH group is attached to sp3C while in other options OH is attached

to aromatic rings so lp goes into conjugation withdrawing hence other mol-
ecules are more acidic than ethanol. So ethanol has highest pKa of 15.9

96. 1 SO3H

C  O  NaHSO3  C
ONa
proton transfer

SO3Na
C
Bisulfite compound OH
(crystalline)
A 14

97. 4 C6 H 5COOCOCH 3 

H2O
 C6 H 5COOH  CH 3COOH
Benzoic acid Ethanoic acid

NH2 NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3 NH2

98. 1  CH CO  O

3 2
 Br2
  
Pyridine CH 3COOH 
OH or H


Br Br
(Major)

99. 3 In lactose linkage is between Cl of galactose and C4 of glucose

100. 4

BONTANY

101. 2 114. 3

102. 3 115. 2

103. 3 116. 1

104. 2 117. 2

105. 4 118. 1

106. 1 119. 2

107. 4 120. 3

108. 2 121. 1

109. 4 122. 2

110. 4 123. 2

111. 3 124. 1

112. 1 125. 2

113. 2 126. 3
A 15

127. 3 139. 3

128. 4 140. 3

129. 1 141. 4

130. 3 142. 4

131. 2 143. 4

132. 2 144. 3

133. 2 145. 4

134. 1 146. 3

135. 1 147. 4

136. 3 148. 3

137. 2 149. 4

138. 2 150. 1

ZOOLOGY

151. 4 163. 2

152. 1 164. 3

153. 3 165. 4

154. 2 166. 2

155. 2 167. 4

156. 3 168. 3

157. 3 169. 4

158. 4 170. 3

159. 3 171. 2

160. 1 172. 1

161. 2 173. 3

162. 4 174. 2
A 16

175. 2 188. 2

176. 1 189. 2

177. 1 190. 2

178. 4 191. 1

179. 3 192. 4

193. 2
180. 1
194. 2
181. 4
195. 3
182. 2
196. 4
183. 2
197. 3
184. 1
198. 3
185. 1
199. 2
186. 3
200. 1
187. 1