Test booklet Code No.

: 4546815

A1 111 Date :27-03-2024

This booklet contains 32 pages

aA1
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
PHYSICS
Section A :(1-35) Answer all Questions
1. In a series LCR circu it, the
inductance L is 10mH, capacitance C
is 1F and resistance R is 100 . The
frequency at which resonance occurs
is :
1) 15.9 kHz
2) 1.59 rad/s
3) 1.59 kHz
4) 15.9 rad/s
2. The equivalent resistance between
the point a and b of the electrical
network shown in the figure is:
3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
5. The moment of inertia of a uniform
disc about an axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its plane
is 1 kg m 2 . It is rotating with an
angular velocity 100 rad s-1. Another
identical disc is gently placed on it
so that their centres coincide. Now,
these two discs together continue to
rotate about the same axis. Then,
the loss in kinetic energy ( in kJ) is :
1) 2.5 2) 3.0 3) 3.5 4) 4.0
6. In a photoelectric experiment, the
graph of frequency v of incident light
(in Hz) and stopping potential V (in V)
is as shown in the figure, from figure,
the value of the Planck’s constant is
(e is the elementary charge)

1) 6r 2) 4r
3) 2r 4) r
3. A particle of mass M and charge q,
initially at rest, is accelerated by a
uniform electric field E through a
distance D and is then allowed to
approach a fixed static charge Q of AC CB
1) e 2) e
the same sign. The distance of the CB AB
closest approach of the charge q will
then be: AB AC
3) e 4) e
BC AB
qQ Q
1) 2) 7. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm
4oD 4 o ED
made of glass of refractive index 1.5
qQ Q is immersed in water having refractive
3) 4) index 1.33. The change in the focal
2o D2 4o E length of lens is
4. In a screw gauge, 5 complete rotations 1) 62.2cm 2) 5.82 cm
of the screw cause it to move a linear
3) 58.2 cm 4) 6.22 cm
distance of 0.25 cm. There are 100
circular scale divisions. The 8. In a sonometer wire, the tension is
thickness of a wire measured by this maintained by suspending a 50.7 kg
screw gauge gives a reading of 4 main mass from the free end of the wire.
scale divisions and 30 circular scale The suspended mass has a volume of
divisions. Assuming negligible zero 0.0075 m 3 . The fundamental
error, the thickness of the wire is: frequency of the wire is 260 Hz, If the
suspended mass is completely
1) 0.3150 cm
submerged in water, the fundamental
2) 0.2150 cm frequency will become:
3) 0.4300 cm 1) 200 Hz 2) 270 Hz
4) 0.0430 cm 3) 260 Hz 4) 240 Hz
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

9. A proton and an   particle enter a 12. Four closed su rfaces and

uniform mag ne tic field corresponding charge distributions
perpendicularly with the same speed. are shown below
If proton taken 25 s to make 5
revolutions, then periodic time for the
  particle would be:
1) 50 s 2) 25 s

3) 10 s 4) 5 s
10. A block of mass m1 lies on a smooth Let the respective electric fluxes
horizontal table and is connected to through the surface be 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 .
another freely hanging block of mass
m 2 by a light inextensible string Then
passing over a smooth fixed pulley
situated at the edge of the table as 1) 1  2  3  4
shown in the figure. Initially the
system is at rest with m1 at a distance
2) 1   3 ;  2   4
d from the pulley. The time taken for
m1 to reach the pulley is:
3) 1  2  3  4

4) 1  2  3  4

13. A locomotive of mass m starts moving

so that its velocity according to the
m 2g
1) law v  k S where k is constant and
m1  m 2
s is the distance covered. Find the
total work performed by all the forces
2d  m1  m 2  which are acting on the locomotive
2)
m 2g during the first seconds after the
begining of motion.
2m 2 d
3) 1
 m1  m 2  g 1) W  mk t
4 2

8
4) None of these
11. A magnet of magnetic moment M is 1 2 2 2
lying in a magnetic field of induction 2) W  mk t
B. W1 is the work done in turning it 4
from 00 to 600 and W2 is the work done
in turning it from 30o to 90o. Then 1
3) W  mk 4 t 4
W1 4
1) W2  2) W2  2W1
2
1
3) W2 = W1 4) W2  3W1 4) W  mk 4 t 4
8
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

14. The magnitude and direction of the 17. A ball is thrown vertically downward
current in the following circuit is : with a velocity of 20m/s from the top
of a tower. It hits the ground after
some time with a velocity of 80 m/s.
The height of the tower is :
(g = 10m/s2)
1) 300 m 2) 360 m
3) 340 m 4) 320 m
18. The depth d at which the value of
1
1) 0.5 A from A to B through E acceleration due to gravity become
n
5 times the value at the surface is (R =
2) A from A to B through E Radius of earth)
9
3) 1.5 A from B to A through E R R
1) 2)
4) 0.2 A from B to A through E n n2
15. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a  n   n 1 
banked curve of radius 90 m on a 3) R   4) R  
frictionless road. If the banking angle  n 1  n 
is 45o the speed of the car is: 19. A water tank resting on the floor has
1) 20 ms -1 two small holes vertically one above
the other. The holes are h1 cm and
2) 30 ms-1 h2 cm above the floor. How high does
3) 5 ms-1 water stand in the tank if the jets
from the holes hits the floor at the
4) 10ms-1 same point:
16. A uniform rod of mass ‘m’ and length
1)  h1  h 2  2)  h 2  h1 
 is suspended by two string at its
ends as shown. When one of the
string is cut, the rod starts falling with h12  h 22 h 22  h12
3) 4)
an initial angular acceleration 2 2
(assume string is rigid)
20. A spherical ball falls through a viscous
medium with terminal velocity v. If
this ball is replaced by another ball of
the same mass but half the radius,
then the terminal velocity will be
(neglect effect of buoyancy)
1) v 2) 2 v
3) 4 v 4) 8 v
g g 21. At what speed, the velocity head of
1) 2) water is equal to pressure head of
 2
40cm of Hg:
3g 3g 1) 10.32 m/s 2) 2.8 m/s
3) 4)
2 4 3) 5.6 m/s 4) 8.5 m/s
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
22. A mass m is attached to a thin wire
and whirled in a vertical circle. The
wire is most likely to break when :
1) the mass is at the highest point
2) the wire is horizontal
3) the mass is at the lowest point
4) inclined at an angle of 60 o form
vertical
23. For the equilibrium of the system
shown, the value of mass m should
be:
6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
26. Figure below shows two paths that
may be taken by a gas to go from a
state A to a state C, in process AB,
400 J of heat is added to the system
and in process BC, 100 J of heat is
added to the syste m. The heat
absorbed by the system in the process
AC will be:

1) 460 J 2) 300 J
3) 380 J 4) 500 J
1) 9 kg 27. At 10 C the value of the density of a
o

2) 12 kg fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by

3) 21 kg its pressure is x. At 110oC this ratio
is:
4) 4.5 kg
10 283
24. A particle of mass m is placed at the 1) x 2) x
centre of a uniform spherical shell of 110 383
mass 3 m and radiu s R. The
383
gravitational potential on the surface 3) x 4) x
of the shell is: 283
28. A particle is executing SHM along a
Gm 3Gm straight line . Its ve lociti es at
1)  2) 
R R distances x 1 and x 2 from the mean
position are V1 and V2 respectively.
4Gm 2Gm Its time period is:
3) 4) 
R R
V12  V22
25. A body cools from a temperature 3T 1) 2
to 2T i n 10 minutes. The room x12  x 22
temperature is T. Assume that
Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. V12  V22
The temperature of the body at the 2) 2
x12  x 22
end of next 10 minutes will be:

7 3 x12  x 22
1) T 2) T 3) 2
4 2 V12  V22

4
3) T 4) T x 22  x12
3 4) 2
V12  V22
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
29. A car accelerates from rest at a 31. A 100  resistance and a capacitor of
constant rate  for some time after
which it de-acelerates at a constant 100  reactance are connected in
rate  and comes to rest. If total time series across a 220 V source. When
the capacitor is 50% charged, the
elapsed is t, then maximum velocity
peak value of the displ acement
acquired by car will be:
current is:
 2
 2  t 1) 2.2 A 2) 1.1 A
1)  3) 4.4 A 4) 11 2 A
32. In Young’s double slit experiment the
  2  2  t separation d between the slits is
2)  2mm, the wavelength  of the light
o
used i s 5896 A and distance D
    t
3) between the screen and slits is 100
 cm. It is found that the angular width
of the fringes is 0.20o. To increase
 t the fringe angular width to 0.21o (with
4)    same  and D) the separation
between the slits needs to be changed
30. A uniform magnetic field is restricted to:
within a region of radius r. The
1) 1.8 mm 2) 1.9 mm
magnetic field changes with time at
3) 2.1 mm 4) 1.7 mm
dB 33. An electron of stationary hydrogen
a rate . Loop 1 of radius R>r
dt atom passes from the fifth energy
encloses the region r and loop 2 of level to the ground level. The velocity
radius R is outside the region of that the atom acquired as a result of
magnetic field as shown in the figure. photon emission will be:
Then the e.m.f. generated is:
24hR 24hR
1) 2)
25m 25
25m 24m
3) 4)
24hR 25hR
34. When temperature is increased:
1) Resistance of metal increases
1) zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 2) Conductance of semicondutor
increases
dB 2 dB 3) Resistivity of silicon decreases
2)  r in loop 1and  in loop 2
dt dt 4) All are true
35. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a
dB 2 semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5
3)  R in loop 1and zeroin loop 2
dt eV. It can detect a signal of
wavelength.
dB 2 1) 4000 nm 2) 6000 nm
4)  r in loop 1and zero in loop 2
dt o o
3) 4000 A 4) 6000 A
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Section B: (36-50) Answer any 10 Qns. 41. Match the Devices with their electric
field:
36. The magnitude of vectors A, B and C
are 3,4 and 5 units respectively. If
Device Electric field
AB  C , the angle betwee n A) Infinite plane sheet of ch arg e P) 0

A and B is: B) Infinite conducting plane ch arg e sheet Q)
2 0
Non  conducting uniformlych arg ed R
C) R)
1)  / 2 2) cos
1
 0.6  solid sphere of radius R at its surface
Non  conducting uniformly ch arg e solid
3 0

D) S)
sphere of radius R at its centre 0
3) tan-1(7/5) 4)  / 4
Assertion Reason Type Questions.
1) A-Q, B-Q, C-R, D-P
1) Assertion is True, Reason is True,
Reason is a Correct explanation of 2) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P
Assertion.
3) A-P,B-Q, C-R,D-S
2) Assertion is True, Reason is True,
Reason is not a correct explanation
of Assertion. 4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-P

3) Assertion is false, Reason is true 42. Match the List I with List II
4) Both Assertion and Reason are
False List  1 List  II
A) Magnet attracts P) rests particular direction
37. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves
B) Magnet can be repelled Q) Iron
carry energy and momentum C) Magnet if suspended freely R) by another magnet
Poles of the magnet can
Reason: Electromagnetic waves can D) S) Iron filings
be identified by
be polarised.
38. Assertion: The image formed by a
concave mirror is certainly real if the 1) A-SP, B-Q, C-R, D-P
object is virtual
2) A-QS, B-R, C-P, D-R
Reason: The image formed by a
concave mirror is certainly virtual if 3) A-PQ, B-Q, C-R, D-S
the object is real.
39. Assertion: The graph be tween 4) A-PR, B-P, C-R, D-P
velocity and displacement for a
harmonic oscillator is a parabola. 43. The combination of gates shown will
produce :
Reason: Velocity changes uniformly
with displacement in harmonic
motion.
40. Assertion: The number of degrees of
freedom of a linear triatomic
molecules is 7.
Reason: The number of degree of
freedom depends only on number of 1) OR gate 2) AND gate
particle in the system.
3) NOR gate 3) NAND gate
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
44. A zener diode, having breakdown 47. In young’s double slit experiment
voltage equal to 15V, is used in a setup upper and lower portions are
voltage regulator circuit shown in filled by two different medium of
figure. The current through the zener
refractive index 1 and  2 as shown in
diode is :
figure.

1) 5 mA
2) 10 mA
3) 15 mA
4) 20 mA 1) central maxima will formed at O

x 2) Phase difference at O is zero

45. Ratio of volume of two nuclie are .
y 3) Both above are true
The ratio of their mass numbers will 4) 1 and 2 are false
be:
48. Which of the following is not true:
1
x 3 x 1) Electric fie ld due to a static
1)   2)   charges is non conservative
 y y
2) Gravitational field is conservative
2 3
x 3 x 3) Individual magnetic poles do not
3)   4)   exists
 y y
4) Both 2 and 3 are true
46. If the length of the (n+1) division of
vernier scale is e qual to the ‘n’ 49. The equivalent resistance of parallel
division of main scale. If length of combinations of several conductors is
the vernier divisions is v, then least 10 . Now one of the conductor is
count of the vernier scale is removed and new e quivalent
v resistance of remaining is 15 . Then
1)
n 1 1) New equivalent will be less than
v 10
2)
n
2) The removed conductor has 30 
nv resistance
3)
n 1 3) In parallel combination of resistors
equivalent is smaller than smallest
n 1 resistance of network
4) v
n 1
4) Both 2 and 3 are correct.
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
50. Two charges q 1 and q 2 are put on
square plate of side ‘a’ as shown in O
,
figure. The electric flux passing 53.  X    i  O2
 ii H O/ H
 CH 3  C  CH 3  Ph  OH
through the plate. 2

X is :

1)

2)
 q1 q 2  1
1) zero 2)   
 4 8  0

q1 q2
3) 4)
8 0 240 3)

CHEMISTRY
Section A :(51-85) Answer all Questions
51. 1-Bromo-4-sec.butyl-2-methylbenzene
4)
is :

54. Statement I : The reaction of phenol

with acid chloride is carried out in
1) 2) presence of a base (pyridine) so as to
neutralise HCl, which is formed during
the reaction.

Statement II : Aspirin can be formed

by the acetylation of salicylic acid.
3) 4)
1) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect
52. a) 1-chloropropane
2) Statement I is correct but statement
b) iso-propylchloride II is incorrect
c) 1-chlorobutane 3) Statement I is incorrect but
Correct order of boiling point is : statement II is correct

1) c > b > a 2) c > a > b 4) Both statement I and statement II

are correct
3) a > b > c 4) b > a > c
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

58. An organic compound C3H6O forms an

OCH3
orange red precipitate with 2,4-D.N.P.
but it does not give tollen’s test
55.  CH 3  Cl 
Anhy.AlCl3
CS2
 major compound is :

O
product 1)
CH 3  CH 2  C  H

OH
2)
1) 2)

O
3)
CH3 C CH3

CH2 CH CH2
4)
OH
3) 4)
O
NH2 NH C CH3

59.  CH CO  O

3 2 
HNO3 / H 2SO 4
288K
 P
Pyridine (major )
56. 
NaOCl

P is :
+ [X]. X is :
1) CH 3–Cl 2) CH2Cl2 O
NH2
3) CHCl3 4) CCl4 NH C CH3
57. Which of the following has lowest pKa
value ?
1) 2)
COOH
COOH NO2
NO2

1) 2)
O O
OCH3 NH C CH3 NH C CH3
NO2
COOH COOH 3) 4)

NO2

3) 4) 60. Glucose and Fructose are :

1) Tautomers 2) Epimers
CH3 NO2
3) Metamers 4) Anomers
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

61. The sodium fusion extract is boiled 65. Total no. of resonating structure of
with iron (II) sul phate and then carbonate ion and carbon dioxide
acidified with concentrated sulphuric respectively.
acid. The formation of Prussian blue 1) 3, 0 2) 3, 2
colour confirm the presence of :
3) 2, 3 4) 3, 3
1) Sulphur
66. Which of the following is not correct
2) Phosphorus order for dipole moment ?
3) Nitrogen 1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
4) Iodine 2) H2O > H2S > CO2
62. Condition which is not required for 3) CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl
aromaticity ? 4) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 > CHCl3
1) Planarity of ring 67. Which of the following will exhibit only
2) Complete delocalisation of the  +3 oxidation state ?
electrons in the ring 1) V 2) Th
3) Presence of (4n + 2)  electrons in 3) Ac 4) Pa
the ring where n is an integer (n = 0, 68. When dil.H2SO 4 is added to aqueous
1, 2, ......) solution of potassium chromate, yellow
4) Presence of 4n  electron in the ring colour of solution turns to orange
where ‘n’ is an integer colour. It indicates :
63. Assertion : The atomic size generally 1) Chromate ions are reduced
decreases across a period. 2) Chromate ions are oxidised
Reason : Within the period, the outer 3) Monocentric complex is converted
electrons are in the same valence in to dicentric complex
shell and the effective nuclear charge 4) Oxygen gets removed from chromate
increases as the atomic number ions
increases resulting in the increased
attraction of electrons to the nucleus. 69. Choose incorrect statement
1) Both assertion and reason are true 1) Colour of complex is complementary
but reason is not the co rrect to that which is absorbed
explanation of assertion 4
2) Colour of  Ti  H 2 O 6  is violet
2) Assertion is true but reason is false
3) Assertion is false but reason is true 3) The crystal field theory attributes
the colour of coordination compounds
4) Both assertion and reason are true due to d-d transition of the electrons
and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion 4) Ruby is aluminium oxide (Al 2 O 3 )
containing about 0.5 to 1 % Cr+3 ions
64. Radii of noble gases should not be
compared with 70. Which of the following is incorrect
match ?
1) Covalent radii of other elements
1) PbI4 - does not exist
2) Vander wall radii of other elements
2) TlI3 - does not exist
3) Ionic radii of other elements 3) SnO2 - amphoteric oxide
4) 1 and 3 both 4) PbF4 - Covalent in nature
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
71. Statement I : PH3 has lower boiling
point than NH3.
Statement II : Unl ike NH 3 , PH 3
molecules are not associated through
hydrogen bonding in liquid state.
1) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but statement
II is incorrect
3) Statement I is inco rrect bu t
statement II is correct
4) Both statement I and statement II
are correct
72. The correct statement among the
following regarding group 16 elements.
1) All elements exhibit allotropy
2) The large difference between the
M.P and B.P of oxygen and sulphur may
be explained on the basis of their
atomicity
3) The stability of –2 oxidation state
decreases down the group
4) All of these
73. Match List I with List II with respect
to cation analysis :
List-I (Basic Radical) List-II (Group)
p +2 1 VI group
Pb
Q Fe +3 2 IV group
R Ni +2 3 II group
S Mg+2 4 III group
13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
2
75. Assertion (A) : From the value of 
at different points within an atom, it
is possible to predict the region around
the nucleus where electron will most
probably be found.
Reason (R) : With the help of quantum
mechanical mode l of atom, ex act
position of an electron in an atom can
be determined.
1) Both asserti on and re ason are
correct and reason is the co rrect
explanation of assertion
2) Both asserti on and re ason are
correct but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is correct and reason is
incorrect
4) Both asserti on and re ason are
incorrect
76. Which of the following statement is
incorrect :
1) The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty
principle is significant only for motion
of microscopic objects and is negligible
for that of macroscopic objects.

P Q R S 2) In multi-electron atom, energies of

1) 1 3 2 4 the orbitals in the same subshell
2) 3 4 2 1 decrease with increase in the atomic
number.
3) 4 3 2 1
2
4) 3 4 1 2 3) Probabi lity density  has no
physical meaning.
74. Which of the following is correct ?
1) Co+3 > Mn+3 > Fe+3 (oxidising power) 4) The negative electronic energy for
2) Mn < Fe < Co (density) hydrogen atom means that the energy
3) Sc+3 ion is colourless in aqueous of the electron in H-atom is lower than
medium the energy of a free electron at rest.
4) All are correct
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

77. Consider following equilibrium : 80. The oxidation potential of hydrogen

electrode dipped in a solution of pH =
2NO 2  g   N 2 O 4  g , H  57.2 kJ / mol
 Brown colour   Colourless 
4 at 250C and PH 2  1atm would be :

Which of the following statement are 1) 0.01475 V

correct :
2) 0.236 V
A) At low temperature, intensity of
brown colour decreases 3) 0.0295 V

B) The equilibrium constant for given 4) 0.118 V

reaction increases as the temperature 81. The rate constant for a first order
increases reaction whose reaction rate is 0.06
C) At low temperature, the brown M sec –1 at 10 minute s and
colour intensifies 0.02 M sec –1 at 20 minutes will be
nearly :
D) On increasing pressu re, the
reaction goes in the forward direction 1) 1.83 × 10–3 sec–1
1) A & B only 2) 2.45 × 10–3 sec–1
2) B, C & D 3) 3.42 × 10–2 sec–1
3) B & C only
4) 1.45 × 10–2 sec–1
4) A & D only
82. The sum of oxidation state of terminal
78. Assertion : Mixture of chloroform and carbon atoms in C3O2 (carbon suboxide)
acetone forms a solution shows is :
negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
1) +2 2) +3
Reason : Entropy of mixing  Smix  for
3) +4 4) +6
above solution is less than zero.
83. Match the items in column I with
1) Both assertion and reason are true relevant items in column II.
and reason is a correct explanation of
assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true Column-I Column-II
but reason is not a correct explanation Oxidation number of 1
of assertion i) a 
oxygen in OF2 2
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
Oxidation number of
4) Both assertion and reason are false ii) b -1
oxygen in H2O2
79. Two liquids A and B on mixing show Oxidation number of
positive deviation from Raoult’s law. If iii) c +2
oxygen in RbO2
the boiling temperature of pure A and
B are 340 K and 390 K respectively Oxidation number of
iv) d +1
then the bo iling tempe ratu re of oxygen in O2F2
resulting solution may be :
1) 393 K 1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
2) 342 K 2) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
3) 386 K 3) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
4) 337 K 4) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

84. Consider the following statements and Section B: (86-100) Answer any 10 Qns.
select the correct option

Statement I : The laws of 86.

thermodynamics deal with e nergy
changes of microscopi c systems
involving a few number of molecules
rather than macroscopi c systems
containing a large number of
molecules.
Incorrect about the reaction is :
Statement II : Laws of
1) It is an example of electrophilic
thermodynamics apply only when a substitution reaction.
system is in equilibrium or moves from 2) Reaction with iodine are reversible
one equilibrium state to another in nature.
equilibrium state. 3) Due to high reactivity of fluorine.
Fluoro compounds are not prepared by
1) Statement-I i s co rrect and this method.
statement-II is incorrect 4) It is a reversible reaction, if X2 is
chlorine.
2) Statement-I is incorrect and
statement-II is correct

3) Both the statements are correct

4) Both the statements are incorrect

85. Assertion : T, P, V are called state

variables or state function.

Reason : Their values depend on the

state of the system and how it is
87.
reached.

1) Both assertion and reason are true

and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion

2) Both assertion and reason are true

but reason is not the correct Find incorrect match.
explanation of assertion 1) A  P
2) B  Q
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
3) C  R
4) Both assertion and reason are false 4) D  S
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
88. In which of the following reaction 92. Which of the following have equal bond
Benzaldehyde is not formed ? orders ?

i) O 2 ii) CN–
1) iii) NO+ iv) CN+
1) i and ii
2) 2) ii and iii
3) iii and iv
4) i and iv
93. Which of the following statements are
3) true (T) and which are false (F) ?
S 1 = [NiCl 4] –2 is paramagnetic while
[Ni(CO) 4] is diamagnetic
4) Ph  CN  
(i) CH 3 MgBr
(ii) H 3 O
S2 = The spin only magnetic moment
89. Find the correct statement. of [MnBr4]–2 is 5.9 BM.
1) Most naturally occurring amino S3 = Excess of copper and iron are
acids have L-configuration removed by the chelating ligands, D-
2) During denaturation of protein, 20 penicillamine and desferrioxime-B via
and 30 structures are destroyed but the formation of coordination
10-structure remains intact compounds.
3) Vitamin B1 is named as thiamine 1) TTF 2) TTT
4) All 3) TFT 4) FTT
90. It carius method of estimation of 94. Correct match is :
halogen, 0.15 g of an organic compound
gave 0.12 g of AgBr. Find out the % of
bromine in compound.
1) 34.04 % 2) 42.10 %
3) 56 % 4) 28 %
91. Consider the following statements
i) Electronegativity of an element is
not a measurable property.
ii) Energy is always required to remove
electrons from an atom and hence
ionisation enthalpies are always
positive for any atom.
iii) Cl 2O7 is most acidic and Na 2O is
least basic oxide in 3rd period.
iv) The 2s electron of lithium
experiences a net positive charge
which is more than the actual charge 95. Layer test is used for the detection of:
of +3.
1) Br–
The correct statement/statements
among the above. 2) I–
1) i, ii, iii 2) i, ii 3) Both 1 and 2
3) i, ii, iv 4) ii, iii, iv 4) F–
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
96. Match the items in column I with 99. Consider the statements given below:
items in column II
A) For the spontaneous cell reaction
Ecell > 0 and  r G  0

B) Kohlrausch law of independent

migration of ions is applicable for
strong electrolytes only
C) In a mercury cell, the product at
cathode is Hg(  )
D) The conductivity of electrolytic
solution increases with increase in
temperature
Select the correct option given below
considering whether statement is true
(T) or False (F) :
1) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b 1) TFTF 2) TFTT
2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
3) FTFT 4) TFFT
3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d 100. Match the column-I with column-Ii
97. Match the column :

A) Law of conservation
P) Lavosier
of mass
B) Law of definite
Q) Van't Hoff
proportion
C) Law of multiple
R) Proust
proportion
D) Abnormal molar
mass of non-volatile S) Dalton
solute

1) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q

2) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
3) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
4) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S

98. CaCO3  s   CaO  s   CO2  g 

Experimentally, it has been found that
at 1100 K, the pressure of CO2 gas is
2.0 × 105 Pa at equilibrium. Equilibrium 1) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-P
constant (Kp) at 1100 K for the above 2) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
reaction is :
3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-P
1) 2 × 105 atm 2) 2.0 atm
3) 10 atm
5
4) 1 atm 4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 18
BOTANY
Section A (101-135) Answer all Ques.
101. Statement I : The breaking of the C-C
bonds of complex compounds through
oxidation within the cells, leading to
release of considerable amount of
energy is called respiration.
Statement II : The compounds that are
oxidized during this process are known
as respiratory substrates.
1) Both statements are correct
2) Statement I is co rrect & II i s
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect & II is
correct
4) Both statements are incorrect
102. Which of the following is not useful
effect of GM plants?
i) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic
stresses likes cold, drought, salt, heat,
etc.
ii) Reduced reliance on chemical
pesticides by forming pest-resistant
crops.
iii) Helped to increase post harvest
losses
iv) Increased mineral uptake by plants
so early exhaustion of fertility of soil
occurs.
v) Enhanced nutritional value of food,
e.g., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
vi) Create tailor-made plants to supply
alternative resources to industries, in
the form of starches, fu el s and
pharmaceuticals.
1) i, iii and vi
2) iii, iv and v
3) iii and iv
4) i, ii, iii
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
103. Match the following columns
1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
2) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv
3) A-iii,B-i,C-iv,D-ii
4) A-i,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii
104. Which of the following statements are
true for auxin?
i) They help to prevent fruit and leaf
drop at early stages but promote the
abscission of older mature leaves and
fruits
ii) Auxins prevents apical dominance
which has its application in te a
plantations and hedge-making
iii) NAA (naphthalene acetic acid) and
2,4-D (2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)
are synthetic auxins.
iv) Auxins also induce parthenocarpy,
e.g., in tomatoes.
v) 2,4-D is used to maintain weed-free
lawns by gardeners.
vi) Auxin also controls xyle m
differentiation and he lps in cell
division.
1) i, ii, iii, v and vi
2) i, ii, iv and vi
3) i, ii, iii and v
4) i, iii, iv, v and vi
105. Which one of the following statements
about viruses is correct?
1) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as
capsid
2) Viruses possess their own metabolic
system
3) All viruses contain both RNA and
DNA
4) Viruses are obligate parasites
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 19
106. Assertion (A) : Mitochondria are the
sites of aerobic respiration
Reason (R) : They produce cellular
energy in the form of glucose, hence
they are called ‘power houses’ of the
cell
1) A and R both are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
2) A and R both are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is wrong
4) A and R both are wrong
107. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through
Calvin cycle requires
1) 1 ATP and 2 NADPH
2) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH
3) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
4) 2 ATP and 1 NADPH
108. Match the following columns
1) A-iii,B-iv,C-ii,D-i
2) A-i,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii
3) A-iv,B-i,C-iii,D-ii
4) A-ii,B-iii,C-i,D-iv
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
109. Match the following list of bioactive
substances and their roles
Choose the correct match
1) I-B,II-C,III-A,IV-D
2) I-D,II-B,III-A,IV-C
3) I-D,II-A,III-B,IV-C
4) I-C,II-D,III-B,IV-A
110. Assertion (A) : Introns are not found
in mature RNA afte r post
transcriptional modifications.
Reason (R) : Splicing, occurring after
transcription i nvolves removal of
introns.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
2) A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) Both A and R are false
111. Embryosac is best described as
1) Progenitor of next generation
2) Mitotic product from zygote
3) Female gametophyte
4) Megasporangium
112. The term linkage was coined by
1) Mendel 2) T.H. Morgan
3) Sutton 4) Boveri
113. If a cell has 2n number of chromosomes
in G 1-phase, what is the number of
chromosome in cell after S-phase?
1) n 2) 4n
3) 2n 4) 8n
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

114. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using 120. How many of the following are natural
PGRs occurring in plants?
1) ssDNA 2) dsDNA
IAA,NAA,GA3,Zeatin,Kinetin, Ethylene, Ethephon, ABA
3) dsRNA 4) ssRNA
115. Which of the following organisms has 1) 3 2) 7 3) 5 4) 6
chloroplasts with pyrenoids? 121. In flowering plants, microsporogenesis
1) Chlamydomonas and megasporoge nesis occur
respectively in
2) Selaginella
1) Anther and ovule
3) Cycas
2) Pollengrain and megaspore
4) Hibiscus
3) Ovary and ovule
116. Assertion (A) : Mitosis is equational
4) Anther and pollensac
cell division
122. Thalamus develops into false fruit and
Reason(R) : During mitosis the
edible in
daughter cells receive the same
number of chromosomes as parent cell. 1) Tomato, Banana
1) Both A and R are correct and R is 2) Apple, Strawberry
the correct explanation of A 3) Guava, strawberry, Banana
2) A is correct but R is false 4) Mustard, Ground nut, Rice
3) A and R both are false 123. Match the following columns with
respect to probabilities of F2 progeny of
4) Both A and R are correct and R is
Mendelian dihybrid cross and identify
not the correct explanation to A
the correct match
117. Anaphase of mitosis and anaphase II
of meiosis are identical in involving
i) Synaptonemal complex segregation
ii) Condensation of chromosomes
iii) Chromosomal recombinations
iv) Chromatid segregation
1) i, ii 2) iii, iv
3) i, iii 4) Only iv
118. Non cyclic and cyclic e lectron
transports in chloroplast are similar in 1) a-ii,b-iv,c-i,d-iii
involving 2) a-ii,b-iv,c-iii,d-i
1) PS I 3) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i
2) Proton accumulation in lumen 4) a-iii,b-ii,c-i,d-iv
3) Assimilation of CO2 124. In Avery, Macle od and M cCarty
experiments transformation of R strain
4) Both 1 and 2
bacteria into S strain was inhibited
119. Glycolysis does not include when ..... was used
1) ATP investment 1) RNase
2) ATP synthesis 2) DNase
3) Oxidation of triose sugar 3) Protease
4) CO2 release 4) Both 1 and 3
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 21 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
125. Statement-I : Transcriptional unit is 128. Match the following and identify the
DNA flanked on either side by promoter correct match
and terminator

Statement II: Translational unit is

mRNA flanked on either side by
initiator codon and terminator codon

1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II

are correct

2) Both Statement- I and Statement-II

are wrong

3) Statement-I is corre ct but 1) a-ii,b-iv, c-iii,d-i

Statement-II is wrong
2) a-i,b-iii,c-iv,d-ii
4) Statement-I is wrong but Statement-
3) a-iii,b-ii,c-i,d-iv
II is correct
4) a-iv,b-i,c-ii,d-iii
126. Restriction enzymes are
129. Observe the following diagram and
1) polymerases identify A and B labelling

2) Ligases

3) Lyases

4) Nucleases

127. Statement I : The separated bands of

DNA are cut out from the agarose gel
and extracted from gel piece is called
elution
1) Bacteriophage-A-sheath, B-Tail
Statement II : The normal E.coli cells fibrils
do not carry resistance against 2) Bacteriophage-A-head,B-Tail
kanamycin, tetracycline, ampicillin
and chloramphenicol. 3) Phytophage-A-capsid, B-core
4) Zoophage-A-collar,B-Tail
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct 130. Which o f the following is corre ct
expression?
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
1) Holo enzyme = Apoenzyme+Inhibitor
are wrong
2) Holo enzyme = Apoenzyme + co-factor
3) Statement-I is corre ct but
3) Co-enzyme = Holo enzyme +
Statement-II is wrong
apoenzyme
4) Statement-I is wrong but Statement- 4) Apoenzyme = Holo enzyme + co-
II is correct enzyme
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
131. In which of the following, F2 progeny of 137. Which one among the following is NOT
monohybrid cross show three an example for competitive inhibition?
phenotypes instead of two phenotypes 1) Drugs against bacterial infection
A) Dominance 2) Malate & succinate dehydrogenase
B) Co dominance 3) Statins & cholesterol synthesising
C) Incomplete dominance enzymes
D) Linkage 4) High O2 and RuBisCo
1) A,B 2) C,D 138. Blue white scre ening me thod of
selection of transformed cells is based
3) B,C 4) A,D on insertional inactivation of a gene
132. A DNA molecule undergoes replication producing
for 4 generations how many DNA 1) Antibiotic
molecules are formed at the end
2) X gal
1) 12 2) 8
3) Enzyme (  - galactosidase)
3) 32 4) 16
4) Endonuclease
133. Which of the following is soluble RNA
139. Observe the following diagrams A,B,C
1) r-RNA 2) m-RNA and D. Choose the correct set of
3) t-RNA 4) snRNA kingdoms to which they belong as per
134. Which got “transformed” in Griffith Whittaker’s classification
experiment?
1) Mice
2) R-strain bacteria
3) S-strain bacteria
4) Heat killed S-strain bacteria A) B)

135. Universal metabolic pathway in all

organisms is
1) Calvin cycle
2) Glycolysis
3) Light phase
4) Fermentation
Section B (136- 150) Answer any 10 Qns.
136. Read the following statements
A) Wall layers in pollen grain
C) D)
B) Steps in PCR
C) Meiospores from a meiocyte
D) Seeds in mango fruit
1) Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae
Place the above in increasing order
with respect to number 2) Plantae, Protista,Monera,Fungi
1) A,B,C,D 2) D,A,B,C 3) Fungi,Plantae.Monera,Protista

3) D,A,C,B 4) A,D,B,C 4) Protista,Fungi,Protista,Monera

FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 23
140 Select the incorrect statement from the
following :
1) An ideal parasite should be able to
thrive within the host without harming
it.
2) In interference competition, fielding
efficiency of one species is reduced in
presence of other.
3) Monarch butterfly is highly
distasteful to its predator due to a
special chemical.
4) Evolution of a flower and its specific
pollinator species are tightly linked
with one another
141. What is NOT common in between
gymnosperms and angiosperms?
1) Seeds
2) Dependent gametophytes
3) Diplontic life cycle
4) Phloem elements
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
143. Read the following statement and
choose the correct pair
A) Open vascular bundles are observed
in anatomy of stem of Poace ae
members
B) Mesophyll exemplify ground tissue
in leaves
C) All three types of simple tissues and
two types of complex tissues along with
meristem is seen in anatomy of dicot
stem
D) Protoderm represent cork, secondary
cortex and cork cambium
1) B & C
2) B & D
3) A & D
4) A & C
144. Which are non membrane bound cell
organelles observed in an eukaryotic
animal cells?

142. Match the following in relation to the A) Ribosomes

concept and its explanation B) Inclusion bodies
C) Centrioles
D) Plastids
1) A & B
2) B & C
3) B & D
4) A & C
145. Wind polli nation, scutellu m,
intercalary meristems, bulliform cells,
dumbell shaped guard cells, coleptile
and coleorhiza are obse rved in
members of
1) Sunflower family
1) a-iii,b-i,c-iv,d-ii
2) Potato family
2) a-ii,b-iv,c-iii,d-i
3) Bean family
3) a-iv,b-iii,c-i,d-iii
4) Grass family
4) a-I,b-iv,c-iii,d-ii
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
146. Identify A, B, C and D from the given
column.
1) A-Yeast, B-Streptococcus,C-
Trichoderma,D-Rhizobium
2) A-Streptococcus,B-Ye ast;
Rhizobium, D-Trichoderma
3) A- Trichoderma,B-Rhizobium,C-
Streptococcus,D-Yeast
4) A-Rhizobium, B-Trichoderma,C-
Yeast,D- Streptococcus
147. A unit composed of A and B linked
by C is a nucleoside. What is A, B &
C?
1) A-Sugar,B-Phosphoric acid,C-
Phospho ester bond
2) A-Sugar,B-Nitrogen base,
Glycosidic bond
3) A-Nitrogen base , B-Phosphoric
acid,C-Phosphoric acid
4) A-Phosphoric,B-Nitrogen base, C-
Hydrogen bond acid
24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
148. Which of the following is incorrect way
to introduce alien DNA into host cells?
i) Bacteria is made ‘competent’ to take
up DNA by treating them with a specific
concentration of a divalent cation, such
as calcium
ii) Recombinant DNA is transfered into
competent bacteria by incubating the
cells with recombinant DNA on ice,
heat shock,and then putting them back
on ice.
iii) Recombinant DNA is directly
injected into the nucleus of plant cell
by microinjection
C-
iv) Re combinant DNA is directly
injected into the nucleus of an animal
cell by biolistics or gene gun
v) ‘Disarmed Pathogen’ vectors, when
allowed to infect the cell, transfer the
recombinant DNA into the host
1) i and ii
2) ii and iii
3) iii and iv
4) iv and v
C- 149. Two carbon compound formed in
chloroplast during photorespiration is
1) Glycine
2) 2-phosphoglycolate
3) 3PGA
4) PEP
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
150. The figure below shows five steps
(A,B,C,D,E) of embryo development.
Se lect the option giving corre ct
identification together with what is
represents?
Options
1) C-Represents mature stage of
embryo
2) D-Formed by meiosis in zygote
3) C-Represents globular embryo
4) A-Zygote formed by triple fusion
ZOOLOGY
Section A :(151-185) Answer all Questions
151. Which of the following options does
correctly represent the characteristic
features of phylum Annelida?
1) Diploblastic, mostly marine and
radially symmetrical
2) Triploblastic, unsegmented body
and bilaterally symmetrical
3) Triploblastic, segmented body and
bilaterally symmetrical
4) Triploblastic, flattened body and
acoelomate condition
152. Which of the following is associated
with decrease in cardiac output?
1) Adrenal medullary hormones
2) Sympathetic nerves
3) Parasympathetic neural signals
4) Pneumotaxic centre
25 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
153. Embryological support for evolution
was proposed by
1) Alfred Wallace
2) Ernst Heckel
3) Karl Ernst vol Baer
4) Charles Darwin
154. Given below are two statements one
is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): First seven pairs of ribs
are called true ribs.
Reason (R): Dorsally, they are attached
to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally
connected to the sternum with the
help of elastic cartilage.
In the light of above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
155. Select the correct statement about the
given figure.
1) This is found in cell membrane.
2) This is a secondary metabolite.
3) This is found in acid-soluble pool.
4) This is found in filtrate.
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 26
156. Which of the following structure
separates the left and the right
ventricles?
1) A thin-walled, inter-ventricular
septum
2) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves
3) Bundle of His
4) A thick-walled, inter-ventricular
septum
157. Which of the following is the most
abundant protein in the whole of the
biosphere?
1) Collagen
2) Insulin
3) GLUT IV
4) RuBisCO
158. G iven below is the example of
competitive inhibition, i.e., Inhibition
of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
which closely resembles the succinate
in structure. In this, substrate is
1) Succinic dehydrogenase
2) Malonate
3) Succinate
4) Malic acid
159. Read the following statements:
(a) In Pleurobrachia, digestion is both
extracellular and intracellular.
(b) In Fasciola, specialised cells called
flame cells help in osmoregulation and
excretion.
(c) In Ancylostoma, alimentary canal
is complete with a w e l l - d e v e l o p e d
muscular pharynx.
(d) The adult echino derms are
bilaterally symmetrical, but larvae are
radially symmetrical.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
1) (b) and (d) only
2) (a), (b) and (c) only
3) (a), (b) and (d) only
4) (b) and (c) only
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
160. Select the correct statements from the
following about the cockroach.
(a) The e ntire fore gut is lined by
cuticle.
(b) Exchange of gases take place at the
tracheoles by diffusion.
(c) Males bear a pair of short, thread
like anal styles which are absent in
females.
(d) Head is formed by the fusion of six
segments and shows great mobility in
all directions due to flexible neck.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2) (b), (c) and (d) only
3) (b) and (d) only
4) (a), (b) and (c) only
161. Given below are two statements one
is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Expiration takes place
when the intra-pulmonary pressure is
higher than the atmospheric pressure.
Reason (R): The re is a ne gative
pressure in the lungs with respect to
atmospheric pressure during
expiration.
In the light of above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
162. Which of the following waves of ECG
represent the return of the ventricles
from excited to normal state?
1) P-wave 2) T-wave
3) QRS complex 4) ST segment
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 27
163. Select the correct statements from the
following:
(a) Mineralocorticoids regulate water
and electrolyte contents of the body.
(b) Glucagon stimulates glycogenesis
and gluconeogene sis resulting in
hyperglycemia.
(c) Progesterone plays a major role in
the maintenance of pregnancy as well
as in mammary gland development and
lactation.
(d) Insulin stimu lates cellular
glucose uptake and utilisation, and
glycogenolysis resulting in
hypoglycemia.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
1) (b), (c) and (d) only
2) (a), (c) and (d) only
3) (c) only
4) (a) and (c) only
164. Read the following statements about
cockroach, and select the incorrect
option.
1) In each segment, exoskeleton has
hardened plates called sclerites
(sternites dorsally and tergites
ventrally) that are joined to each other
by a thin and flexible articular
membrane (arthrodial membrane).
2) The first pair of wings arises from
mesothorax and the second pair from
metathorax.
3) In both sexes, the 10th segment
bears a pair of jointed filamentous
structures called anal cerci.
4) In addition to malpighian tubules,
the fat body, nephrocytes and urecose
glands also help in excretion.
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
165. Select the correct statements from the
following:
(a) Cellulose is a polyme ri c
polysaccharide consisting of only one
type of monosaccharide.
(b) Exoskeletons of arthropods, have
a complex polypeptide called chitin.
(c) The most important form of energy
currency in living systems is the bond
energy in a chemical called adenosine
triphosphate.
(d) The living state is a non-equilibrium
non-steady state to be able to perform
work.
(e) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic
enzyme carboxy-peptidase.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
1) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
2) (a), (c) and (e) only
3) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
4) (a), (c) and (d) only
166. Identify the region of human brain
which has pneumotaxic centre that
alters respiratory rate by reducing the
duration of inspiration.
1) Medulla
2) Pons
3) Thalamus
4) Cerebrum
167. The last chromosome sequenced in
Human Genome Project was
1) Chromosome 22
2) Chromosome 14
3) Chromosome 6
4) Chromosome 1
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 28 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

168. Select the correct statement/s with 172. Which of the following is not a
respect to mechani sm o f sex secondary metabolite?
determination in Grasshopper. 1) Anthocyanin 2) Lecithin
(A) It is an ex ample of female 3) Curcumin 4) Morphine
heterogamety. 173. Excretion in cockroach is performed by
(B) Male produces two different types all, except
of gametes either with or without X 1) Urecose glands
chromosome.
2) Malpighian tubules
(C) Total number of chromosomes
3) Fat body
(autosomes and sex chromosomes) is
same in both males and females. 4) Hepatic caecae
(D) All eggs bear an additional X 174. In the enzyme which catalyses the
chromosome besides autosomes. breakdown of the
Choose the correct answer from the prosthetic group is
options given below: 1) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
1) (A) only 2) Haem
2) (A) and (C) only 3) Zinc
3) B) and (D) only 4) Niacin
4) (A), (C) and (D) only 175. Select the incorrect matching pair.
169. Which of the following statement is not 1) Dark band — Isotropic
correct? 2) Light band — Actin
1) Plant growth is generally 3) Dark band — A band
determinate.
4) Light band —Thin filament
2) Plant growth is measurable.
176. Read the following statements and
3) Phase of cell elongation of plant cells select the incorrect option.
is characterized by increase d
1) Sponges reproduce asexually by
vacuolation.
fragmentation and se xually by
4) Cells in the meristematic phase formation of gametes.
of growth exhibit abundant 2) Cnidarians have a central gastro-
plasmodesmatal connections. vascular cavity with a single opening,
170. H ow many times decarbox ylation mouth on hypostome.
occurs during each TCA cycle? 3) The polyp is umbrella-shaped and
1) Once free-swimming like Aurelia or jellyfish.
2) Twice 4) Aquatic annelids like Nereis
3) Thrice possess lateral appendages, parapodia,
which help in swimming.
4) Many
177. Which type of epithelium is mainly
171. During which stages of mitosis and present in the inner surface of hollow
meiosis, respective ly does the organs like bronchioles and fallopian
centromere of each chromosome split? tubes?
1) Telophase, Anaphase I 1) Squamous epithelium
2) Anaphase, Anaphase II 2) Ciliated epithelium
3) Metaphase, Metaphase II 3) Cuboidal epithelium
4) Prophase, Telophase I 4) Glandular epithelium
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 29
178. Which of the following is a basic amino
acid?
1) Valine
2) Isoleucine
3) Lysine
4) Glycine
179. Read the following statements and
select the correct option.
1) One of the major causes of Asthma
is cigarette smoking.
2) The role of oxygen in the regulation
of respiratory rhythm is qu ite
significant.
3) A pneumotaxic centre in the pons
region of the brain and a chemo-
sensitive area in the medulla can
alter respiratory mechanism.
4) Respiratory rhythm centre i s
present in pons.
180. Match List-I with List-II, and choose
the correct option among the following.
1) 1 — i, 2 — iii, 3 — ii, 4 — iv
2) 1 — iii, 2 — i, 3 — ii, 4 — iv
3) 1—iii, 2—i, 3—iv, 4—ii
4) 1—i, 2—iii, 3—iv, 4—ii
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
181. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The ventral portion of
the midbrain consists mainly of four
round swellings (lobes) called corpora
quadrigemina.
Statement II: The cerebellum of the
hindbrain is connected to the spinal
cord.
In the light of above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given be low:
1) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
2) Statement II is correct but Statement
I is incorrect
3) Both statements are incorrect
4) Both statements are correct
182. Which of the following is not an
example of analogy?
1) Wings of butterfly and of birds
2) Sweet potato and potato
3) Forelimb of Dogs and elephant
4) The flippe rs of Penguins and
Dolphins
183. Read the following statements and
select the incorrect option.
1) The glomerular capillary blood
pressure causes filtration of blood.
2) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop plays
a significant role in the maintenance
of high osmol arity of me dullary
interstitial fluid.
3) A fall in GFR can activate the JG
cells to release rennin which can
stimulate the glomerular blood flow
and thereby the GFR back to normal.
4) Collecting duct allows passage of
small amounts of urea into the
medullary interstitium to keep up the
osmolarity.
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 30
184. Recognise the figure and select the
correct option about the given figure.
1) Involved in the coagulation or clotting
of blood
2) Associated with allergic reactions
3) Responsible for inflammatory
responses of the body
4) Phagocytic cell which destroy foreign
organisms entering the body
185. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The acid soluble pool
roughly represents the cytoplasmic
composition.
Statement II: The macromolecules
from cytoplasm and organelles become
the acid insoluble fraction.
In the light of above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
1) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
2) Statement II is correct but Statement
I is incorrect
3) Both statements are incorrect
4) Both statements are correct
Section B: (186-200) Answer any 10 Qns.
186. In sponges, water enters through
minute pores (ostia) in the body wall
into a central cavity, spongocoel, from
where it goes out through the
osculum. This pathway of water
transport is not helpful in
1) Food gathering
2) Respiratory exchange
3) Regeneration
4) Removal of waste
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
187. In Pila, the space between the hump
and the mantle is called the mantle
cavity in which feather like gills are
present. They have
1) Respiratory and excretory functions
2) Respiratory and circulatory functions
3) Endocrine and circulatory functions
4) Digestive function
188. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Most of the cartilage in
vertebrate embryos are replaced by
bones in adults.
Statement II: The bone marrow in all
bones is the site of production of blood
cells.
In the light of above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
1) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
2) Statement II is correct but Statement
I is incorrect
3) Both statements are incorrect
4) Both statements are correct
189. Presence of glucose (Glycosuria) and
ketone bodies (Ketonuria) in urine are
indicative of
1) Diabetes insipidus
2) Diabetes mellitus
3) Uremia
4) All of the above
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
190. Which of the following is not the 193. Match List-I with List-II, and
function of parathyroid hormone?
1) PTH acts on bones and stimulates
the process of bone resorption
(dissolution/demineralisation).
2) PTH also stimulates reabsorption of
Ca 2+ by the renal tubules and
increases Ca 2+ absorption from the
digested food.
3) PTH play an important role in the
regulation of the basal metabolic rate,
development and maturation of the
central neural system, erythropoiesis,
metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins
and fats, menstrual cycle.
4) PTH increases the blood Ca2+ levels.
191. Botanical name of Cauliflower is
1) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
2) Brassica campestris
3) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
4) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
192. Tumor cells have been shown to avoid
detection and destruction by immune
system. Therefore, the patients are
given substances called biological
response modifiers such as
1) -interferon
2) -l-antitrypsin
3) Interleukins
4) cis-platin
31 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
choose the correct option among
the following.
List-I List-II
1. Homo habilis i. 1400 cc
2. Homo erectus ii. 1450 cc
3. Neanderthal man iii. 900 cc
4. Modem man iv. 650-800 cc
1) 1 — iv, 2 — iii, 3 — ii, 4 — i
2) 1 — iv, 2 — iii, 3 — i, 4 — ii
3) 1 — iii, 2 — iv, 3 — ii, 4 — i
4) 1 — iii, 2 — iv, 3 — i, 4—ii
194. Select the correct statements from the
following about the RBCs.
(a) RBCs are formed in the red bone
marrow in the adults.
(b) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most
of the mammals and are biconvex in
shape.
(c) they have a red coloured, iron
containing complex protein called
haemoglobin.
(d) A healthy individual has 12-16 mg
of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.
Choose the correct answers from the
options given below:
1) (b), (c) and (d) only
2) (a), (c) and (d) only
3) (a), (b) and (c) only
4) (a) and (c) only
195. In a menstrual cycle, level of which
hormone remains maximum during
mid of secretory phase?
1) LH and FSH
2) Oestrogen and progesterone
3) Progesterone
4) LH, FSH and oestrogen
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 32
196. Given below are two statements one
is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In females, oxytocin
stimulates a vigorous contraction of
uterus at the time of child birth, and
milk production from the mammary
gland.
Reason (R): Oxytocin acts on the
smooth muscles of our body and
stimulates their contraction.
In the light of above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
197. A statement given below defines a
concept. Identify the condition that
correctly defines the stateme nt?
“Locomotory structures need not be
different from those affecting other
types of movements”.
1) Hydra can use its tentacles for
capturing its prey and also use them
for locomotion.
2) Humans use limbs for changes in
body postures and locomotion as well.
3) In Paramoecium, cilia help in the
movement of food through cytopharynx
and in locomotion as well.
4) All of the above
198. The percentage of pure breeding/
homozygous progenies in the dihybrid
F1 :
1) 100% 2) 50%
3) 25% 4) Nil
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
199. Read the following statements:
(a) Mode of action of implants is similar
to that of pills and their effective
periods are much longer.
(b) Surgical intervention blocks gamete
transport and thereby prevent
conception.
(c) Hepatitis-B can be transmitted from
an infected mother to the foetus too.
(d) As long as the mother breast-feeds
the child fully, chances of conception
are almost nil.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2) (b), (c) and (d) only
3) (a), (b) and (d) only
4) (b) and (d) only
200. Given below are two statements one
is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Neoplastic cells grow
very rapidly, invading and damaging
the surrounding normal tissues.
Reason (R): These cells actively divide
and grow, they also starve the normal
cells by competing for vital nutrients.
In the light of above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
 27-03-2024 Batch : MEDICAL Test Booklet
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE NEET MODEL EXAMINATION-ALL UNITS
Code
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org
P + C + B - Key with Hints Time: 3 hrs.
Max. Mark: 720
111
PHYSICS
1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 2
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

5. 1

6. 3

7. 3

8. 4

9. 3
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

10. 2

11. 4

12. 1

13. 1

14. 1
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

15. 2

16. 3

17. 1

18. 4

19. 1

2h1
So, d  2gH 
g
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

20. 2

21. 2

22. 3

23. 4

24. 3
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

25. 2

26. 1

27. 2
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

28. 4

29. 4

30. 4

31. 1

32. 2

33. 1

34. 4

35. 3

36. 1

37. 2
38. 3
39. 4

40. 3
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
41. 2
42. 2
43. 3

44. 1

45. 2

46. 1
47. 4

48. 1
49. 4

50. 4
CHEMISTRY
51. 3
52. 2
53. 4
54. 4
55. 2
56. 3
57. 4
58. 3
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
59. 2
60. 4
61. 3
62. 4
63. 4
64. 4
65. 4
66. 3
67. 3
68. 3
69. 2
70. 4
71. 4
72. 4
73. 2
74. 4
75. 3
76. 3
77. 4
78. 3
79. 4
80. 2

81. 1

82. 3

83. 2
84. 2
85. 3
86. 4
87. 4
88. 4
89. 4
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

90. 1
91. 2
92. 2
93. 2
94. 1
95. 3
96. 3
97. 3
98. 2

99. 2
100. 3
BOTANY
101. 1 111. 3 121. 1 131. 3 141. 4
102. 3 112. 2 122. 2 132. 4 142. 1
103. 1 113. 3 123. 2 133. 3 143. 1
104. 4 114. 3 124. 2 134. 2 144. 4
105. 4 115. 1 125. 1 135. 2 145. 4
106. 3 116. 1 126. 4 136. 2 146. 1
107. 3 117. 4 127. 1 137. 2 147. 2
108. 1 118. 4 128. 1 138. 3 148. 3
109. 4 119. 4 129. 1 139. 2 149. 2
110. 1 120. 3 130. 2 140. 1 150. 3

ZOOLOGY

151. 3

152. 3

153. 2
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

154. 3

155. 1
156. 4

157. 4

158. 3

159. 2

160. 1
161. 3

162. 2

163. 4

164. 1
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

165. 2

166. 2

167. 4

168. 3

169. 1 Plant growth is generally indeterminate. Rest statements are correct

170. 2

171. 2

172. 2

173. 4
174. 2
175. 1
176. 3
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

177. 2

178. 3

179. 3

180. 2

181. 3

182. 3

183. 3

184. 4

185. 4
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

186. 3

187. 1 The space between the hump and the mantle is called the mantle cavity in
which feather like gills are present. They have respiratory and excretory
functions

188. 1

189. 2

190. 3

191. 3

192. 1

193. 2

194. 4
FT24N/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

195. 3

196. 4

197. 4
198. 4
199. 1
200. 1