NTA NEET MOCK TEST - 11

PHYSICS
1. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an
electron from its excited state is
1) 10.2 eV 2) 5.1 eV 3) 3.4 eV 4) 6.8 eV
2. Which of the following curves denote the relationship between a particle’s momentum and the
associated de – Broglie wavelength?

1) 2)

3) 4)
3. The figure shows a disc of radius 3R from which a circular hole of radius R is cut as shown in the
figure. The distance of the centre of mass of the remaining object from the point O is

R R R R
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 5 3 6
4. A block A of mass 2m is hanging from a vertical massless spring of spring constant k and is in
equilibrium. Another block B of mass m strikes the block A with velocity u and sticks to it as shown
in the figure. The magnitude of the acceleration of the combined system of the blocks just after the
collision is

g g
1) 2) 3) g 4) zero
2 3
5. A block A starts sliding on a smooth track from a height h as shown in the figure. The track
smoothly joins into a conveyor belt which is being driven by a pulley of radius r. If the angular
velocity  of the pulley is such that block A doesn’t slip on the belt, then the value  is

gh gh 2gh 2 gh
1) 2) 3) 4)
r 2r r r
6. If a copper rod (free to move and rotate) is brought in a region of a non – uniform magnetic field,
then it will align itself
1) Along the direction of the magnetic field, at a location where the magnetic field is strongest
2) along the direction of the magnetic field, at a location where the magnetic field is weakest
3) perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field, at a location where the magnetic field is
strongest
4) perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field, at a location where the magnetic field is
weakest.
7. In a marriage hall, there are 15 bulbs of 45 W, 15 bulbs of 100 W, 15 small fans of 10W and 2
heaters of 1 kW. If the voltage of the electric main is 220 V, then the minimum fuse capacity (in A)
of the building should be
1) 20 A 2) 15 A 3) 10 A 4) 25 A
8. The voltage drop between the points A and B in the given figure is

1) 24 V 2) 14 V 3) 32 V 4) 48 V
9. A charged capacitor C  30  F is connected to an inductor L = 27 mH, then the angular frequency of
the system is
1) 9.1103 rad s 1 2) 3 103 rad s1 3) 1.1103 rad s 1 4) 0.3 103 rad s 1
10. In an AC circuit, a resistance R is connected in series with an inductance L. If the phase angle

between the voltage and the current , then the value of the inductive reactance is
4
R R R
1) 2) 3) R 4)
4 2 8
11. In the circuit shown below, the charge on the 60  F capacitor is

1) 150 C 2) 100 C 3) 50  C 4) 75  C
12. In a uniform electric field, a point charge of mass m and charge q is released from rest. If there are no
other forces acting on the particle, then which of the following graphs, correctly show the
dependence of the particles speed v on the distance x travelled by it? [Graphs are schematic and not
drawn to scale]

1) 2)
 3) 4)
13. One division on the main scale of a vernier callipers is equal to1 mm. Its vernier scale has 20 equal
divisions which match with 16 main scale division. The least count of the vernier calipers is
1) 0.02 mm 2) 0.2 mm 3) 0.8 mm 4) 0.08 mm
9GM
14. A body is projected up with a velocity equal to , where M is the mass of the earth and R is
8R
the radius of the earth. The maximum distance it reaches from the centre of the earth is
10 R 16 R 10 R 9R
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 7 3 8
15. The acceleration due to gravity at a depth R below the surface of the earth is
2
1) g 2) 2g 3) g 4) g
2 4
16. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 W power at 500 K. If the radius is halved
and the temperature is doubled, then the power dissipated by the sphere is
1) 3600 W 2) 450 W 3) 900 W 4) 1800 W
3

17. The temperature of an ideal gas undergoing adiabatic expansion varies with volume as T  V 4 , then
C
the value of P for the gas is
CV
3 5 5 7
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 3 3 4
18. The specific heat CP and CV , of a diatomic gas A are 29 J mol-1 K-1 and 22 J mol-1 K-1 respectively.
Another diatomic gas B, has the corresponding values as 30 J mol-1 K-1 and 21 J mol-1 K-1
respectively. Which among the following is correct?
1) A has one vibrational degree of freedom and B has two vibrational degrees of freedom
2) A has one vibrational degree of freedom and B has zero vibrational degree of freedom
3) A and B both have one vibrational degree of freedom
4) A and B both have two vibrational degrees of freedom
19. In an isobaric process, heat is supplied to a monoatomic ideal gas. The fraction of heat that goes into
mechanical work is
2 3 2
1) 1 2) 3) 4)
3 5 5
20. Consider the situation shown in figure. If the current I in the long straight wire xy is increased at a
steady rate the induced current in loop A and B will be

1) Clockwise in A and anticlockwise in B 2) Anticlockwise in A and clockwise in B

3) Clockwise in both A and B 4) Anticlockwise in both A and B
21. A short bar magnet is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.25T , with its axis at an angle of 30 0
with the field. If it experiences a torque of magnitude 4.5 102 N m , then its magnetic moment is
1) 0.36 N m T-1 2) 0.25 N m T-1 3) 0.5 N m T -1 4) 1.25 N m T-1
22. Find the time after which the particle’s initial velocity will be perpendicular to instantaneous velocity
when it is projected with 30 m/s from horizontal ground by making and angle 600 with vertical.
1) 6 second 2) 2 3 second 3) 3 second 4) Never possible
23. If the mass of A  10 kg , coefficient of static friction = 0.22, coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.2, the
minimum mass of B to start motion is

1) 2 kg 2) 2.2 kg 3) 4.8 kg 4) 3.4 kg

24. A massless string going over a clamped pulley of mass m support a block of mass M as shown in the
figure. The force on the pulley by the clamp is given

2 2
1) 2Mg 2) 2mg 3) g  M  m  m 2 4) g  M  m M2
25. In a radioactive material, the activity at time t1 is R1 and at a later time t2, it is R2. If the decay
constant of the material is  , then
1) R1  R2 2) R1  R2 e    t1 t2  3) R1  R2 e   t1 t2  4) R1  R2  t2 / t1 
26. 92U 235 undergoes successive disintegrations with the end product of 82 Pb203 . The number of  and
 particles emitted are
1)   6,   4 2)   6,   0 3)   8,   6 4)   3,   3
27. There is a pendulum executing simple harmonic motion and its maximum kinetic energy is K1. If the
length of the pendulum is doubled and it performs simple harmonic motion with the same angular
amplitude as in the first case, its maximum kinetic energy is K2. Relation between them is
k
1) K 2 2) K 2  2 K1 3) K 2  K1 4) K 2  1
4
28. Number of photons emitted per second by a radio transmitter that operates at a frequency of 880 kHz
and a power of 10 kW is
1) 1.72  1031 2) 1.327  1025 3) 1.327  1037 4) 1.327  1045
29. K1 be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted when metal surface is illuminated by
light of wavelength 1 . Similarly K2 is corresponding to wavelength 2 for same metal. If 1  22
then
1) 2K1  K 2 2) K1  2 K 2 3) K1  K 2 / 2 4) K1  2 K 2
30. P is the atmospheric pressure and the pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3P. If the water is
drawn out to lower the level of water by one fifth, then the pressure at the bottom of the tank will be
1) 2P 2) 13 / 5  P 3)  8 / 5  P 4)  4 / 5  P
31. When the arrangement consisting of a horizontal thick copper wire of length 2L and radius 2R, one
end of which is welded to an end of another horizontal thin copper wire of length L and radius R is
stretched by applying forces at two ends. Ratio of the elongation in the thick wire to that in the thin
wire at equilibrium is
1) 0.50 2) 0.25 3) 4.00 4) 2.00
32. AB and CD are two slabs. The medium between the slabs has refractive index as shown in the figure.
Minimum angle of incidence (in degrees) at Q, so that the ray is totally reflected by both the slabs is

1) 60 2) 30 3) 45 4) 15
33. The given lens is broken into four parts and rearranged closely as shown. If the initial focal length is
f then after rearrangement the equivalent focal length is

1) f 2) f / 2 3) f / 4 4) 4f
34. Two discs A and B are in contact and rotating with angular velocity with angular velocities 1 and
2 respectively as shown. If there is no slipping between the discs, then

1) 1  2 2) 1  2 3) 1  2 4) data insufficient
35. A ring of radius R rolls without slipping on a rough horizontal surface with a constant velocity. The
radius of curvature at the highest point of the path followed by any particle on the ring is

1) 5R 2) 2R 3) 4R 4) none of these
36. The circuit is equivalent to

1) AND gate 2) OR gate 3) NOT gate 4) NAND gate

37. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is

1) 0 A 2) 102 A 3) 101 A 4) 103 A

38. A steel scale is to be prepared such that the millimeter intervals are to be accurate within 6 105 mm
. The maximum temperature variation from the temperature of calibration during the reading of the
millimeter marks is (linear coefficient of expansion for steel is given as   12 106 C 1 )
1) 4.0 C 2) 4.5 C 3) 5.0 C 4) 5.5 C
39. When a bimetallic strip is heated, it
1) does not bend at all
2) gets twisted in the form of a helix
3) bends in the form of an arc with the more expandable metal outside
4) bends in the form of an arc with the more expandable metal inside
40. The internal and external diameters of a hollow cylinder are measured with the help of a vernier
calipers. Their values are 4.23  0.01 cm and 3.87  0.01 cm respectively. The thickness of the wall
of the cylinder is
1) 0.36  0.02 cm 2) 0.18  0.02 cm 3) 0.36  0.01 cm 4) 0.18  0.01 cm
41. In a Young’s double slit experiment, I0 is the maximum intensity and  is the fringe width. Intensity
at point P which is distance x from central maxima is
x x x I x
1) I 0 cos 2) 4 I 0 cos 2 3) I 0 cos 2 4) 0 cos 2
   4 
42. In Young’s double slit experiment, in an interference pattern second minimum is observed exactly in
front of one slit. The distance between the slits is d and the distance between source and screen is D.
The wavelength of light source used is
d2 d2 d2 d2
1) 2) 3) 4)
D 2D 3D 4D
43. x1  12 sin  484 t  7 x  and x2  12 sin  480 t  7 x  represent the equation of two sound waves
and x and t are in metre and second. Beat frequency (in Hz) produced by these two waves is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
44. If the bulk modulus of water is 2100 MPa, then speed of sound in water is (take density of water,
  1000 kg / m3 )
1) 1320 m/s 2) 1450 m/s 3) 1580 m/s 4) 1630 m/s
45. A simple pendulum is released from A as shown. If m and 1 represent the mass of the bob and length
of the pendulum, the gain in kinetic energy at B is

mg1 mg1 3 2
1) 2) 3) mg1 4) mg1
2 2 2 3
 CHEMISTRY
46. Enthalpy of atomization of C2 H 6  g  and C3 H 8  g  are 620 and 880 kJ mol-1 respectively. The C  C
and C  H bond energies are respectively.
1) 80 and 60 kJ mol-1 2) 80 and 90 kJ mol-1 3) 70 and 90 kJ mol-1 4) 200 and 60 kJ mol-1
47. Which is the wrong pair?
i) starch solution : sol ii) Aq.NaCl : true solution
iii) milk : emulsion iv) Aq.BaSO4 : true solution
1) I 2) iii 3) iv 4) ii
48. Consider the following reaction:
z
xMnO4  yC2O42   zH    xMn 2   2 yCO2  H 2O
2
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively:
1) 2, 5 & 16 2) 5, 2 & 8 3) 5, 2 & 16 4) 2, 5 & 8
49. A solution of sucrose (Molar mass = 342 g/mol) is prepared by dissolving 68.4 g of it per litre of
solution, what is its osmotic pressure (R=0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1) at 273 K?
1) 4.48 atm 2) 2 atm 3) 1 atm 4) 5 atm
50. At what temperature is the rms speed of hydrogen molecules the same as oxygen molecules at
13270C?
1) 173 K 2) 100 K 3) 400 K 4) 523 K
51. Determine the degree of association (polymerization) for the reaction in aqueous solution
6HCHO  C6 H12O6
If observed (mean) molar mass of HCHO and C6 H12O6 is 150:
1) 0.50 2) 0.833 3) 0.90 4) 0.96
52. In the following reaction, we start with 2 mol of N2 and 5 mol of H2 exerting a total pressure of 7 atm
at a given temperature in a closed vessel. When 50% of N2 is converted into NH3
N2  3H 2  2NH3
Partial pressure of NH3 is:
1) 2.8 atm 2) 2 atm 3) 3.2 atm 4) 4 atm
53. A signature written with carbon pencil weighs 1 mg. what is the number of carbon atoms present in
the signature?
1) 6.02  10 20 2) 0.502  10 20 3) 5.02  10 23 4) 5.02  10 20
54. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate?
3d xy , 4d xy , 3d z 2 ,3d yz ,5d z 2
1) 3d xy ,3d z2 ,3d yz 2) 4d xy ,3d z2 ,3d yz 3) 3d z 2 ,3d yz ,5d z 2 4) None
55. Which one of the following is a correct set?
1) H 2O, sp3 , angular 2) H 2O, sp 2 , linear
3) NH 4 , dsp 2 , square planar 4) CH 4 , dsp 2 , tetrahedral
56. The correct order of 2 nd ionization energy for the elements carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
1) F > O > N > C 2) C > N > O > F 3) O > F > N > C 4) O > N > F > C
3 2
57. Al has low ionic radius than Mg because
1) Al 3 has high nuclear charge than Mg 2
2) Mg atom has less no. of neutrons than Al atom
3) Mg and Al differ in electronegativity values
4) Al atom has low IE value than Mg atom
58. Both lithium and magnesium display several similar properties due to the diagonal relationship;
however, the one which is incorrect is:
1) Both form soluble bicarbonates 2) Both form nitrides
3) Nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2 and O2 on heating
4) Both form basic carbonate
59. A mixture of 1.0 moles of Al and 3.0 mole of Cl2 are allowed to react as:
2 Al  s   3Cl2  g   2 AlCl3  g  . Then moles of excess reagent left unreacted is:
1) 3.5 2) 1.0 3) 1.5 4) 2.5
60. Which of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?
1) CaOCl2 2) Ca  OCl 2 3) CaO2Cl 4) CaCl2
61. n – propyl bromide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide produces
1) Propene 2) Propane 3) Propyne 4) Propanol

62.
There are three canonical structures of naphthalene. Examine them and find correct statement among
the following.
1) All C – C bonds are same length 2) C1  C2 bond is shorter than C2  C3 bond
3) C1  C2 bond is longer than C2  C3 bond 4) None of the above
63. Which one of the following types of drugs reduces fever?
1) Analgesic 2) Antipyretic 3) Antibiotic 4) Tranquiliser
64. Which of the following is called Wilkinson’s catalyst?
1)  RhCl  PPh3 3  2) TiCl4   C2 H 5 3 Al 3)  C 2 H 5 4 Pb 4)  PtCl2  NH 3  2 
65. Baeyer’s reagent is
1) alkaline permanganate solution 2) acidified permanganate solution
3) neutral permanganate solution 4) aqueous bromine solution
66. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?
1) Acetophenone is an ether 2) Diastase is an enzyme
3) Cycloheptane is aromatic compound 4) All of the above
67. Heating mixtue of Cu2O and Cu2 S will give
1) Cu  SO2 2) Cu  SO3 3) CuO  CuS 4) Cu2 SO3
68. The correct charge and co – ordination number of ‘Fe’ in K 3  Fe  CN 6  is
1) + 2, 4 2) + 3, 6 3) + 2, 6 4) +3, 3
69. Among the following the coloured compound is
1) Cu2Cl2 2) K 3 Cu  CN 4  3) CuF2 4) Cu  CH 3CN 4  BF4
70. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

1) 5 – methyl – hex – 1 – yne 2) 4 – methyl – hex – 2 – yne

3) 3 – methyl – hex – 6 – yne 4) 2 – methyl – hex – 4 – yne
 z2 
71. Energy of an electron is given by E  2.178  10 18 J  2  . Wavelength of light required to excite
n 
an electron in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2 will be
 h  6.62 1034 Js and c  3.0 108 ms 1 
1) 6.500  10 7 m 2) 8.500  10 7 m 3) 1.214  10 7 m 4) 2.816  10 7 m
72. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?
1) F2  Cl2  Br2  I 2 : Bond dissociation energy
2) F2  Cl2  Br2  I 2 : Oxidising power
3) HI  HBr  HCl  HF : Acidic property in water
4) F  Cl  Br  I : Electronegativity
 KOH Zn  KOH
73.  X    Y  gas turns red litmus blue    Z    Y  gas 

 X    gas  does not sup port combustion 
Identify (X) to (Z):
1) X  NH 4 NO2 , Y  NH 3 , Z  KNO2 2) X   NH 4 2 Cr2 O7 , Y  NH 3 , Z  Cr2O3
3) X   NH 4 2 SO4 , Y  NH 3 , Z  K2 SO4 4) X  NH 4 NO3 , Y  NH 3 , Z  KNO3
74. Observation of “Rhumann’s purple” is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
1) Starch 2) Reducing sugar 3) Protein 4) Cupric ion
75. The compound on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The original compound is
1) Primary alcohol 2) Secondary alcohol 3) Tertiary alcohol 4) Carboxylic acid
1
76. For reaction A  2 B rate of disappearance of A is related to rate appearance of B by the
2
expression
 d  A 1 d  B   d  A d  B  d  A 1 d  B   d  A d  B 
1)  2) 4 3)  4) 
dt 2 dt dt dt dt 4 dt dt dt
77. Which of the following chemical test can distinguish between methylamine and dimethylamine?
1) Carbylamines test 2) Fehling’s test 3) Lucas test 4) Tollen’s test
78. Electrovalent bond – formation depends on:
1) ionization energy 2) lattice energy 3) electron affinity 4) All of these
79. 0.01 M solution of KCl and CaCl2 are separately prepared in water. The freezing point of KCl is
found to be – 20C. What is the freezing point of CaCl2 aq. Solution if it is completely ionized?
1) – 30C 2) + 30C 3) – 20C 4) – 40C
80. One desires to prepare a positively charged silver iodide sol. This can be achieved by
1) Adding a little AgNO3 solution to KI solution in slight excess
2) Adding a little KI solution to AgNO3 solution in slight excess
3) Mixing equal volumes of equimolar solutions of AgNO3 and KI
4) None of these
81. Spin only magnetic moment in B.M. of the compound Hg  II  Co  SCN 4  is
1) 3 2) 15 3) 24 4) 8
82. Identify the element that forms amphoteric oxide:
1) Carbon 2) Zinc 3) Calcium 4) Sulphur
1
83. The temperature at which the reaction Ag 2O  s   2 Ag  s   O2  g  at 1 atmospheric pressure will
2
be in equilibrium at ___K. The value of  H and S for the reaction are 30.58 kJ and 66.11 JK-1
respectively and these value do not change much with temperature.
1) 462.6 K 2) 486.4 K 3) 364.5 K 4) 521.2 K
84. Which of the following statements is correct for the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact
process?
1) V2O5 is used for catalytic oxidation of SO2 to SO3
2) SO3 is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid
3) SO3 is directly absorbed in water.
4) Both the statements V2O5 is used for catalytic oxidation of SO2 to SO3 and SO3 is absorbed in
concentrated sulphuric are correct.
85. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are
1) Two sigma, two pi 2) Two sigma, one pi 3) One sigma, two pi 4) One sigma, one pi
86. The absolute configuration of is:
1)  2 S ,3S  2)  2 R,3 R  3)  2 R,3S  4)  2S ,3R 
87. In the Cannizzaro’s reaction given below:
KOH
2 Ph  CHO   Ph  CH 2OH  PhCO2 The slowest step is
1) The attack of – OH at the carbonyl group
2) The transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group
3) The abstraction of proton from the carboxylic acid
4) The deprotonation of Ph  CH 2OH
88. The colour and magnetic nature of manganate ion  MnO42   is –
1) Green, paramagnetic 2) Purple, diamagnetic
3) Green, diamagnetic 4) Purple, paramagnetic
89. Which of the following compounds does not have a carboxyl functional group?
1) Picric acid 2) Ethanoic acid 3) Aspirin 4) Benzoic acid

90.
Among these canonical structures, the correct order of stability is
1) I > II > III 2) III > II > I 3) I > III > II 4) II > I > III
BIOLOGY
91. An undifferentiated layer, mesoglea, is present in
1) Fasciola 2) Ancylostoma 3) Hirudinaria 4) Adamsia
92. A variety effective against shoot and fruit borer is
1) Pusa Gaurav 2) Pusa Sawani 3) Pusa Sem 2 4) Pusa Sem 3
93. Butyric acid is produced by
1) Aspergillus niger 2) Acetobacter aceti
3) Clostridium butylicum 4) Lactobacillus
94. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around
1) 5 ml of O2 to the alveoli 2) 5 ml of O2 to the tissues
3) 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues 4) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
95. Sometimes a few chromosomes have non – staining secondary constrictions at a constant location.
This gives the appearance of a small fragment called the
1) Satellite 2) Centromere 3) Telomere 4) Kinetochore
96. A growth curve of a plant is shown below. The mathematical expression for this growth curve will
be:

1) Lt  L0  rt 2) W1  W0 et 3) W1  W0 e rt 4) Lt  L0  t
97. The age pyramid for human population is shown below:

Whichof the following conclusion can be drawn from the given age pyramid?
1) It represents that the population is young and growing.
2) It is a pyramid of declining population
3) It shows that the population is stable
4) It shows that the population size is fluctuating.
98. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as
1) Villi 2) Peyer’s patches 3) Rugae 4) Choroid plexues
99. What is correct about the compound epithelium?
1) It is multi – layered
2) Its main function is protection against chemical and mechanical stress.
3) They cover inner lining of ducts of salivary glands.
4) All of these
100. Felidae and Canidae are examples of which taxonomical category?
1) Genus 2) Order 3) Family 4) Class
101. Which of the following is not a micronutrient?
1) Molybdenum 2) Magnesium 3) Zinc 4) Boron
102. A scrubber is the exhaust of a chemical industrial pant removes
1) Gases like SO2 2) Particulate matter of the size 5 m or above
3) Gases like ozone and methane 4) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 m or less
103. Find incorrect statement w.r.t pollen grains
1) Generally spherical measuring about 25 – 50 micro meters
2) Exineless areas in pollen wall are called germ pore
3) The vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food reserves and a large irregularly shaped nucleus.
4) The generative cell has abundant cytoplasm and an irregular shaped nucleus
104. Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?
1) Cerebellum 2) Cerebrum 3) Hypothalamus 4) Medulla Oblongate
105. Vector of dengue and chikungunya is
1) Female Anopheles mosquito 2) Male Anopheles mosquito
3) Culex mosquito 4) Aedes mosquito
106. The graph given below is showing biome distribution with respect to annual temperature and
precipitation. Identify A,B and C respectively

1) A – Desert, B – Arctic tundra, C – Coniferous forest

2) A – Arctic tundra, B – Desert, C – Tropical forest
3) A – Temperate forest, B – Arctic tundra, C – Desert
4) A – Temperate forest, B – Arctic tundra, C – Grass land
107. In EcoRI, the letter ‘R’ is derived from
1) Genus 2) Species 3) Strain 4) Class
108. Ascaris is characterized by
1) Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
2) Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
3) Presence of true coelom and metamerism
4) Presence of true coelom but the absence of metamerism
109. The anterior pituitary hormone that does not stimulate other endocrine gland is
1) Somatotropin 2) Thyrotropin 3) Gonadotropin 4) Adrenocorticotropin
110. Mark the ODD one out.
1) Oxaloacetic acid 2) Malic acid 3) Citric acid 4) Succinic acid
111. Isogamous reproduction and flagellated gametes can be observed in
1) Polysiphonia 2) Fucus 3) Ulothrix 4) Spirogyra
112. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can recognize changes in
1) Only CO2 concentration in blood 2) H  and O2 concentration in blood
3) CO2 and H  concentration in blood 4) O2 concentration in blood
113. Which of the following organisms are correctly paired with its life span?
1) Crow – 15 years 2) Butterfly – 3 weeks 3) Parrot – 40 years 4) Crocodile – 100 – 150 years
114. The packaging of chromatin at a higher level requires an additional set of proteins that collectively
are referred to as
1) Histones 2) NHC proteins 3) Tubulin 4) Actin
115. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavor and 27 documented varieties of Basmati
are grown in India.
2) Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio – resources by multinational companies and
other organizations without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment.
3) Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products can be created by the indtroduction of
the portion of DNA (or genes) which codes for a particular product such as human protein (alpha – 1
– antitrypsin) used to treat Phenylketonuria.
4) The Indian Government has set up organizations such as GEAC ( Genetic Engineering Approval
Committee), which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of
introducing GM – organisms for public services.
116. Select the incorrect statement regarding the transport of gases in the blood.
1) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood.
2) Carbonic anhydrase is present in very high concentration in RBC
3) High pCO2 and low pO2 in tissue help in binding of carbond dioxide.
4) CO2 is carried in haemoglobin as carboxyhemoglobin
117. The mathematical expression of diffusion pressure deficit is
1) DPD = OP – TP 2) DPD = OP + WP 3) DPD = WP – OP 4) DPD = TP + OP
118. In which technique, to form an embryo in the laboratory a sperm is directly injected into the ovum?
1) IVF – ET 2) ICSI 3) GIFT 4) IUI
119. Which kind of modification is seen in the given diagram?

1) Tap root for storage 2) Adventious roots for support

3) Adventious root for storage 4) Tap root for respiration
120. Kingdom Plantae includes
1) Algae, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes
2) Algae, Bryophtes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms only.
3) Algae, Fungi, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms only
4) Algae, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms only
121. A change in the relative abundance of an allele (the allelic frequency) within a population, over a
succession of generations, is called
1) Micro – evolution 2) Macro – evolution 3) Co – evolution 4) Phylogenic evolution
122. “The formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution”. This statement was given by
1) Urey and Miller 2) Jacob and Monod 3) Fischer and Huxley 4) Oparin and Haldane
123. Foetal ejection reflex is produced by
1) Fully developed foetus only 2) Placenta only
3) Fully developed foetus and placenta 4) Fully developed foetus, placenta and endometrium
124. Algae used by Calvin and associated for photosynthesis research is
1) Chlorella 2) Chlamydomonas 3) Volvox 4) All the above
125. Biofertilizers include
1) Nitrogen fixing bacteria 2) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
3) Mycorrhiza 4) All of these
126. The enzyme used to join the DNA fragments is
1) Topoisomerase 2) Adenosine deaminase
3) DNA ligase 4) DNA polymerase
127. What is correct about the contraceptive method shown in the diagram below?

1) It releases Ca ions that suppress sperm motility.

2) It releases Cu ions that suppress sperm motility.
3) It is a hormone – releasing IUDs, that make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
4) It prevents the entry of sperm in the uterus.
128. Uric acid is nitrogenous waste in
1) Birds and lizards 2) Insects and Bony fishes
3) Frog and cartilaginous fishes 4) Mammals and mollusks
129. Holoenzyme is a/an
1) Non – protein and apoenzyme 2) Protein and apoenzyme
3) Enzyme, protein and coenzyme 4) Enzyme, non – protein and coenzyme
130. Which of the following is grown to provide human food rich in proteins, lipids, carbohydrates,
vitamins and minerals?
1) Spirogyra 2) Ulothrix 3) Oscillatoria 4) Chlorella
131. What is an eye of potato?
1) Axillary bud 2) Acessory bud 3) Adventitious bud 4) Apical bud
132. The waste products produced in man are
1) Carbon dioxide 2) Urea and salts 3) Excess of water 4) all of these
133. Which type of organism are PPLO?
1) Virus 2) Viroid 3) Mycoplasma – like 4) Bacteria
134. Under what condition, the upright pyramid of biomass becomes inverted?
1) Grassland ecosystem 2) Terrestrial ecosystem
3) Pond ecosystem 4) Tree ecosystem
135. Meiosis – I is also called as heterotypic division/ reductional cell division. Select the correct option
by comparing the phase of the meiosis and their respective events from lists I and II.

List I (Phase of meiosis) List II (Event that occurs)

1. Prophase I Crossing over occurs
2. Metaphase I Sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles
3. Anaphase I Homologous chromosomes line up at equator in pairs

1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 2) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false

3) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false 4) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
136. A root was described as adventious root because it
1) Arose from plumule 2) Was used variously for storage of food
3) Was swollen 4) Was growing in marshy place
137. Osmosis is the passage of water through a semipermeable membrane from
1) A higher concentration of water molecules to lower concentration
2) Lower concentration of water molecules to higher concentration
3) Equal concentration of water molecules
4) None of the above
138. Which of the following strategies is not a correct approach to reduce global warming?
1) Reducing the green – house gas emission by limiting the use of fossil fuels.
2) Increase the vegetation cover particularly the forest for photosynthetic utilization of CO2
3) Minimising the use of nitrogen fertilizers, in agriculture for reducing NO2 emission.
4) Increasing the use of air conditioners, refrigeration units, and production of plastic.
139. Which type of cell division occurs in the gonads?
1) Mitosis only 2) Meiosis 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Amitosis and meiosis
140. Gigantism and dwarfism are the disease related to
1) Prolactin hormone of mammary gland 2) Growth hormone of adenohypophysis
3) Luteinising hormone of pituitary gland 4) Thyroid stimulating hormone of thyroid
141. What is PAR range?
1) 200 nm – 800 nm 2) 400 nm – 700 nm 3) 350 nm – 550 nm 4) 600 nm – 100 nm
142. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on the
1) Nature of enzymes involved 2) Nature of substrate
3) Amount of CO2 released 4) Amount of oxygen utilized
143. Allergy is due to the release of which of the chemical from mast cells and basophills?
A. Histamine B. Heparin C. Serotonin
1) A only 2) A & B 3) A & C 4) B & C
144. How many ATP molecules are generated in Calvin cycle?
1) 18 2) 12 3) 6 4) 0
145. Somatostatin is a
1) Peptide hormone 2) An enzyme 3) A steroid 4) A carbohydrate
146. Which of the following sets is of flightless birds?
1) Columbia and Psittacula 2) Struthio and Aptenodytes
3) Corvos and Columba 4) Pavo and Neophron
147. Which is the common character between all the mammals?
1) They are oviparous 2) They are herbivorous
3) They are carnivorous 4) They have seven cervical vertebrae
148. Biofortification involves breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins, proteins, minerals and
healthier fats. Which of the following vegetable crop has been produced by IARI that has been
enriched with Vitamin C?
1) Bitter gourd, bathua, mustard, tomato 2) Spinach and bathua
3) Pumpkin, carrot and mustard 4) French bean
149. A plant requires magnesium for
1) Protein synthesis 2) Chlorophyll synthesis
3) Cell wall development 4) Holding cells together
150. The gastric juice contains:
1) Trypsin, pepsin, lipase 2) Pepsin, lipase, rennin
3) Pepsin, amylase, trypsin 4) Trypsin, pepsin, rennin
151. Select the correct statement about biodiversity.
1) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
2) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
3) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries
4) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well
as numerous rare animals.
152. Mark the correct statement with respect to ZIFT.
1) Ova collected form a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
formation.
2) Woman’s egg is fertilized outside the body and then zygote is transferred to the fallopian tube.
3) Woman’s egg is fertilized outside the body and then zygote is transferred to the uterus.
4) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
153. Which of the following is a correct match between crop, variety and resistance to disease?
1) Crops – Wheat, Variety – Himgiri, Resistance to diseases – White rust
2) Crops – Brassica, Variety – Pusa sadabahar, Resistance to disease – Black rot
3) Crops – Cowpea, Variety – Pusa komal, Resistance to diseases – Bacterial blight
4) Crops – Chilli, Variety – Pusa swarnim, Resistance to diseases – Chilli mosaic virus
154. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
1) A herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
2) Botanical gardens have a collection of living plants to reference.
3) A museum has a collection of photographs of plants and animals.
4) Key is a taxonomic for identification of specimens.
155. Given below is a phosphorus cycle. Select the incorrect statements from the following

i) It represent phosphorous cycling in an aquatic ecosystem

ii) It represent phosphorous cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem.
iii) The natural reservoir of phosphorus is forest rocks.
iv) There is respiratory release of phosphorus into the atmosphere
v) Gaseous exchange of phosphorus between organisms and the environment does not occur.
1) i, ii & v 2) i, iii & iv 3) ii, iii & iv 4) i, iii, iv & v
156. Which of the following pairs has a haploid structure?
1) Nucellus and antipodal cells
2) Antipodal cells and egg cell
3) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell
4) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus
157. Identify the molecule (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their name and
occurance

1) Lecithin – Cell membrane 2) Uridylic acid – RNA

3) Trigyceride – DNA 4) Uracil – DNA
158. Examine the figures (A – D) given below and select the right option out of (a – d), in which all the
four structures A, B, C and D are identified correctly

1) A – Rhizome, B – Sporangiophore, C – Polar cell, D – Globule

2) A – Runner, B – Archegoniophore, C – Synergid, D – Antheridum
3) A – Offset, B – Antheridiophore, C – Antipodals, D – Oogonium
4) A – Sucker, B – Seta, C – Megaspore, D – mother cell, D – Gemma cup
159. Which of the following groups of organisms are ecologically similar?
1) Producer protists and consumer protists 2) Monerans and producer protists
3) Consumer protists and fungi 4) Monerans and fungi
160. The longest bone of the human body is
1) Humerus 2) Tibia 3) Vertebra 4) Femur
161. Amongst the following, which characteristic feature is not applicable to Bt cotton?
1) Bt is the abbreviated term for botulinum toxin.
2) Such cotton is resistant to armyworm and beetles.
3) The toxin is activated in the body of the insect.
4) The toxin is coded by a gene called ‘cry’.
162. Observe the following diagram and read the statements carefully. Identify the correct ones.

i) A carries urine and sperms.

ii) B secretes a fluid that helps in the lubrication of penis.
iii) D produces testosterone but not sperms
iv) C stores sperms.
1) i & ii 2) ii & iii 3) ii & iv 4) i & iv
163. Study the pedigree chart given below

What does it show?

1) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.
2) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible.
3) Inheritance of a recessive sex – linked disease like haemophilia.
4) Inheritance of a sex – linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria.
164. Which of the following is a wrongly matched pair?
1) Tuber – Potato 2) Rhizome – Ginger 3) Bulbil – Agave 4) Leaf buds – Banana
165. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective
inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non – matching pair.
Pair of Skeletal Parts Category
1) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
2) Clavicle and Glenoid cavity Pelvic girdle
3) Humerus and Ulna Appendicular skeleton
4) Mallelus and Stapes Ear ossicles
166. Which one of the following statements is wrong with respect to RMS(restriction modification
system) as the foundation of r – DNA technology?
1) Restriction endonuclease identifies introduced foreign DNA and cuts it into pieces.
2) Modification enzymes add a methyl group to one or two bases usually within the recognition site
of restriction endonuclease enzymes.
3) Restriction endonuclease can cleave any palindromic sequence
4) Restriction enzymes restrict the propagation of foreign DNA of bacteriophages in the host
bacterium.
167. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight
organic compounds in living tissues. Identify the category shown and the blank component “X” in it.

Category Component
1) Cholestrol Guanine
2) Amino acid NH 2
3) Nuclotide Adenine
4) Nucleoside Uracil

168. A leaf peeling of Tradescantia is kept in a medium having 10% NaCl. After a few minutes, if we
observe the leaf peel under the microscope, we are likely to see
1) Entry of water into the cell 2) The cells bursting out
3) Diffusion of NaCl into the cell 4) Exit of water from the cell
169. What re the adaptations seen in animals that live in water scarcity conditions?
1) Having a thick coat to minimize evaporative desiccation
2) Oxidising stored fat to produce water as by product.
3) Producing very concentrated urine and solid faeces.
4) All of these
170. Mark the non – invasive technique without any side effects to diagnose the cancer of internal organs.
1) Radiography 2) Computed tomography
3) Histopathological studies 4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
171. Based on the given process, identify the correct match for A, B, C and D from the following options.

A B C D
1) PGAL PEP C2 H 5OH Lactic acid
2) PGAL PEP Lactic acid C2 H 5OH
3) G–6–P 2 – PGA C2 H 5OH Lactic acid
4) PEP F–6–P Lactic acid C2 H 5OH

172. Which kind of plants are required for uninterrupted dark – period flowering?
1) Short day plants 2) Long day plants 3) Short night plants 4) Day neutral plants
173. Phenylketonuria(PKU) is an inherited disease which refers to
1) Decrease in phenylalanine in tissue and blood
2) Increase in phenylpyruvic acid in tissue and blood
3) Elimination of sugar in urine
4) Elimination of genetics acid in urine
174. Which is not true about sclereids?
1) These are parenchyma cells with thickened lignified walls.
2) These are elongated and flexible with tapered ends.
3) These are commonly found in the shells of nuts and in the pulp of guava, pear etc.
4) These cells also provide support
175. Given below is a diagrammatic sectional view of the mammary gland. Select the option which
indicates the correct labeling.

1) A – Ampulla 2) B - Mammary alveolus

3) C - Lactiferous duct 4) D – Pectoralis major muscle
176. The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment. It means that:
1) Cockroach does not respire 2) Respiration is anaerobic
3) O2 goes directly into tissues by diffusion 4) O2 goes into tissue by intracellular capillary system
177. Select the correctly matched ones from the following.
I. Nitrosomonas – Nitrite to nitrate II. Thiobacillus – Denitrification
III. Nostoc – Free – living nitrogen – fixer IV. Azotobacter – Anaerobic nitrogen – fixer
1) I and II 2) III and IV 3) II and III 4) II and IV
178. In a flowering plant, archesporium give rise to
1) Only the wall of the sporangium 2) Both wall and the sporogenous cells
3) Wall and the tapetum 4) Only tapetum land sporogenous cells
179. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
1) Hind II 2) Protease 3) DNase I 4) RNase
180. Zeatin has been obtained from
1) Wheat 2) Rice 3) Maize 4) Oat