SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 23.03.

2024
Time: 9.00 AM to 12.20 PM (GT) Max.Marks: 720

SECTION – A 4. A conveyor belt is moving with a constant

1. Error in measurement of a radius of a sphere speed of 10 m/s. A box is gently placed on
is 1.5%. The maximum percentage error in top of the belt such that initial speed of the
calculation of volume is block is zero. The distance moved by the
1) 4.5% 2) 1.5% block relative to ground before coming to
3) 6% 4) 2.9% rest w.r.t. belt is (µ between block and belt is
0.2)
1) 10 m 2) 25 m
2. The time period of a simple pendulum is
3) 6 m 4) 50 m
measured to be equal to 6 s. If the same
pendulum is attached to ceiling of an
5. Work done on a body varies with time t (in
elevator which starts moving down with
g second) as W  (4 t 2 ) J . The power delivered
acceleration , then the new time period by the force to the body at time t  2s will
4
will be be
1) 20 W 2) 8 W
1) 6.93 s 2) 2.89 s
3) 9 W 4) 16 W
3) 7.34 s 4) 8.68 s
6. An incompressible and non-viscous fluid
3. The average thermal kinetic energy per flows through a horizontal tube as shown in
degree of freedom for a diatomic gas the figure. The velocities and the area of
molecules, at temperature T is E. If the gas is cross-sections are indicated in the figure.
monoatomic then the average thermal kinetic The value of speed v is
energy per degree of freedom at same 1) 2 m/s
temperature would be 2) 6 m/s
1) E 2) 2 E 3) 3 m/s
E 3 4) 4 m/s
3) 4) E
2 5
7. In an adiabatic compression 12. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose
1) U  0 2) U  0 the correct match from the given choices
3) U  0 4) Q  0 Column-I Column-II
(A) Moment of inertia of (P) 2
8. Four identical rods of same material are MR 2
uniform ring (M, R) 5
connected between nodes A and B,
about an axis passing
maintained at temperature 20o C and 100o C
through centre and
respectively, as shown in the figure.
normal to its plane
(B) Torque about the origin (Q) MR2
1) 60o C 2) 20o C due to a force F applied
3) 40o C 4) 80o C at a point having position
vector r
9. Fundamental mode of a closed organ pipe of
length l is equal in frequency to that of (C) Work done by a force F (R) rF
second overtone of an open organ pipe of in displacing a body by
length S
1) 6 l 2) 4 l
(D) Moment of inertia of (S) F  S
3) 8l 4) 2 l uniform solid sphere (M,
R) about an axis passing
10. Two solid spheres of radii R and xR are
made up of same material. The ratio of the through tis diameter
moments of inertia about their respective 1) A  P, B  Q,C  R, D  S
diameter is 2) A  Q, B  S,C  R, D  P
1) 1: x 2 2) 1: x3 3) A  P, B  S,C  R, D  Q
3) 1: x5 4) 1: x 4 4) A  Q, B  R,C  S, D  P
11. Water rises to a height of 6 cm in a vertical
capillary tube. If the tube is tilted to an angle 13. On rounding off the number 4.645 upto three
37o with the horizontal, the length of water significant figures, result is
column in the tube will be 1) 4.64 2) 4.65
1) 6 cm 2) 2 cm 3) 4.63 4) 4.60
3) 8 cm 4) 10 cm
14. The acceleration-time graph for a particle 17. Column-I contains certain physical
moving along x-axis is shown in the figure. quantities and Column-II contains
The initial velocity to the particle is 2 m/s, mathematical relations. Symbols used have
their usual, meaning. Match the Column-I
then the change in the velocity of particle
and Column-II.
from t = 0 to t = 8 s is Acceleration (m/s2) Column-I Column-II
1) 42 m/s (A) Young’s (P) FL
2) 38 m/s modulus AL
3) 40 m/s (B) Bulk modulus (Q)  R / R 
4) 20 m/s  
 L / L 
(C) Poisson’s (R) VP
15. The variation of momentum (p) with time (t) 
ration V
for one of the body in two body collision is (D) Compressibility (S) V
shown in the figure. The instantaneous force 
VP
is maximum corresponding to point 1) A  P, B  Q,C  R, D  S
1) P
2) A  P, B  R,C  S, D  Q
2) Q
3) R 3) A  P, B  R,C  Q, D  S
4) S 4) A  Q, B  P,C  S, D  R

16. The escape velocity of a body on the surface 18. The coefficient of volume expansion of an
of an imaginary planet which has thrice the ideal gas at constant pressure and at
temperature T K is equal to
radius as of earth and double the mass of
1) T 2) T
earth, is (ve is the escape velocity at the
1 1
surface of earth) 3) 2
4)
T T
2 3
1) ve 2) ve
3 2 19. An electric heater supplies heat to a gaseous
2 3 system at a rate of 100 W. If system
3) ve 4) ve performs work at a rate of 80 joules per
3 2 second, then what is the rate of which
internal energy increases?
1) 10 J/s 2) 20 J/s
3) 25 J/s 4) 40 J/s
20. A body undergoes SHM according to the 24. Two identical rods are connected in series
  and 200 J of heat energy is transferred in 10
equation x  (5m) cos  2t(s)   . The
 4 seconds. What is time taken to transfer same
frequency of kinetic energy of body will be amount of heat of rods are connected in
1) 2 Hz 2) 1 Hz parallel, keeping the temperature of the ends
3) 2Hz 4) 4Hz same as before?
1) 5 s 2) 2.5 s
21. For a travelling harmonic wave 3) 1.25 s 4) 20 s
y(x, t) = 2.0 cos 2 (10t – 0.008x + 0.35),
where x and y are in cm and t in s. The phase 25. The equation of a plane progressive wave
difference between oscillatory motion of two travelling in a medium is
 y  20sin(t  2x) . The velocity of the
points, separated by distance of , along x-
2 1
medium particle at x  m and at t = 0 is
axis is (  is wavelength of the given wave) 6
 [all units are SI]
1)  2)
2 10
1) 10 m/s 2)  m/s
3) 2 4) 0.8 3
20
22. A force F  (iˆ  2ˆj  3k)N
ˆ displaces a 3) m/s 4) 10 m / s
3
particle from position r1  (iˆ  ˆj  k)m
ˆ to
position r 2  (ˆj  k)m
ˆ . The work done by 26. A 3 kg block connected with two massless
the force in doing so is springs as shown in figure, is executing
1) –1 J 2) –2 J SHM. Time period of SHM is
3) 1 J 4) 3 J 
1) s
2
23. A liquid drop of radius R breaks into 27 tiny 
drops each of radius r. If the surface tension 2) s
5
of liquid is T, then gain in surface energy is

1) 8R 2T 2) 12R 2T 3) s
4
3) 28R 2T 4) 16R 2T

4) s
6
27. Two bodies of masses m and 2m are moving 29. A transverse wave travelling on a taut string
along positive x and y axes respectively with is represented by y = 0.01 sin (2) (10t – x),
equal speeds of 4 m/s. They collide at origin where y and x are in metre and t is in second.
and stick together. The final velocity of Then which one is incorrect?
combined mass is 
1) Maximum particle speed is m/s
4 8   8 
1)  ˆi  ˆj  m / s 2)  4iˆ  ˆj  m / s 5
3 3   5  2) The phase of a certain point on string
4 8  5 8   1 
3)  ˆi  ˆj  m / s 4)  ˆi  ˆj  m / s changes by 120° in   second
5 3  3 3   20 
3) The speed of the wave is 10 m/s
4) Closes points on the string which differ
28. Match column I with column II and choose
the correct combination from the options 1
in phase by 60° are   m apart
given. 6
Match the column I with column II.
Column I Column II 30. Rain is falling vertically downwards with
a) Work done in i) V speed of 30 m/s. A woman rides a bicycle
2.303nRT log 2
isochoric process V1 with speed of 10 3m / s in west to east
direction. What is the direction in which she
b) Work done in ii) nRT
should hold the umbrella to save herself
isobaric process 1 
from rain?
c) Work done in iii) nR T
1) At tan–1(3) with vertical
isothermal process
2) 30° with vertical
d) Work done in iv) zero
3) 60° with vertical
Adiabatic process
4) At tan–1(1/3) with vertical

1) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (i), d – (ii)

2) a – (iii), b – (iv), c – (ii), d – (i)
3) a – (iv), b – (i), c – (ii), d – (iv)
4) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i), d – (iv)
31. A block of mass m is kept on a rough 34. A rocket of mass 600 kg is launched in
horizontal circular turntable at distance r gravity-free space. It is ejecting gases with
from centre. If the coefficient of friction velocity 200 m/s at the rate of 3 kg/s. What
between table and block is  , then the value will be its acceleration at t = 100 second?
of maximum speed vP of point P on turntable 1) 1 m/s2 2) 2 m/s2
so that block does not slip, is 3) 3 m/s2 4) 4 m/s2
1) rg
CP
gR 2 35. The ratio of for a gas mixture consisting
2) CV
r2 of 4 g hydrogen gas and 8 g helium gas is
gR 2
4 3
3) 1) 2)
r 3 2
4) gR 3)
7
4)
5
5 3
32. If at depth (h), acceleration due to gravity
SECTION – B
decreases by 25% as compared to surface of
36. Three molecules of a gas have speeds of
earth, then at height (h) it will decrease by
2 × 106 m/s, 4 × 106 m/s, 106 m/s
(in comparison with surface of earth)
respectively. What is the root mean square
1) 50% 2) 40%
speed of these molecules?
3) 30% 4) 36%
1) 1.8 × 106 m/s 2) 3.5 × 106 m/s
3) 2.6 × 106 m/s 4) 3.2 × 106 m/s
33. A block of mass m kg, hanging from a
vertical spring executes simple harmonic
37. A particle of mass m is slowly shifted from
motion of amplitude 4 cm. If maximum
centre of earth to its surface (Radius of earth
speed of the block is 8 m/s, maximum
= R). The work performed by external agent
acceleration of the block is
against gravitation will be
1) 800 m/s2 2) 100 m/s2
GMm GMm
3) 400 m/s2 4) 1600 m/s2 1) 2)
2R R
2GMm 3GMm
3) 4)
R R
38. The rotation of earth, having radius R, about 42. A ball is projected with velocity u making
its axis is speeded upto a value such that a an angle  with the vertical. What is the
man at an angle of 30° from equatorial plane magnitude of change in velocity from launch
feels weightlessness. The angular velocity of time to when it is at highest point?
earth will be 1) u cos  2) u sin 
g 2g 3) u  u sin  4) u  u cos 
1) 2)
R R
43. An ideal gas mixture filled inside a balloon
3g 4g
3) 4) expands according to the relation
2R 3R
PV4/3 = constant. The temperature inside the
balloon
39. A cube of side 10 cm has its upper face
1) Increases
displaced by 1 mm by a tangential force. The
shear modulus of cube is 2 × 109 N m–2, then 2) Decreases
the value of tangential force is 3) Remains same
1) 4 × 104 N 2) 60 × 104 N 4) First increases then decreases
3) 20 × 104 N 4) 5 × 104 N
44.
40. The equation of SHM is given as : Column I Column II
x  6sin 20t  8cos 20t where x is in cm a) Root mean square i) 1
nmv
2

and t is in second. The amplitude is speed of gas 3

molecules
1) 6 cm 2) 8 cm
b) Pressure exerted by ii) 3RT
3) 10 cm 4) 14 cm ideal gas
M
41. Speed of sound wave in a fluid is c) Average kinetic iii) 5
RT
energy of a molecule 2
1) Directly proportional to square root of
density d) Total internal energy iv) 3
k BT
of 1 mole of a 2
2) Directly proportional to square root of
diatomic gas
bulk modulus of the medium 1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
3) Directly proportional to square of density 2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
4) Inversely proportional to bulk modulus 3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
of the medium 4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
45. An object of mass 3kg is placed on 49. In a sonometer experimenter, it was found
inclined plane. What is the contact force that string vibrates in n loops, when a mass
acting on the block if block starts sliding M is placed on the pan. What mass should be
when angle of inclination is increases to placed on the pan to make it vibrate in 2n
 = 60°? (g = 10 m/s2) loops with same frequency?
1) 10 N 2) 10 3N (Neglect the mass of pan)
15 M
3) 15 N 4) N 1) 2M 2)
2 4
M
3) 4M 4)
46. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are 2
taken as fundamental quantities, then force
would have dimensional formula 50. If ar and at represent radial and tangential
1) [EVT] 2) [EV–1T] accelerations, then in circular motion of a
3) [E–1V–1T] 4) [EV–1T–1] particle possible case is
(a) ar = 0 and at = 0 (b) ar =0 but a t  0
47. A body is performing simple harmonic
(c) a r  0 but at = 0 (d) a r  0 and a t  0
motion. When its speed is v1, its kinetic
energy is K1 and when its speed is v2, its 1) (a), (c) 2) (b), (c)
kinetic energy is K2. Then kinetic energy, 3) (c), (d) 4) (a), (d)
when its speed is (v1 + v2), is
1) K1 + K2 2) K1 – K2
3) ( K1  K 2 )2 4) ( K1  K 2 )2

48. At what temperature speed of sound in air

will be double of the speed at 27°C?
1) 327°C 2) 227°C
3) 408°C 4) 927°C
GOC+ISOMERISM+HDA+ALCOHOL+PHENOL+ETHER+ALDEHYDE +KETONE+
ACID+IUPAC(MONO & POLY)+ HYDROCARBON+AMMINES +PURIFICATION
The Test pattern comprises of two Sections. Section A will consists of 35 Questions and section B
will have 15 questions, out of these 15 questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
SECTION [A]
51) Which of the following will from carbocation 55) Assertion : In alkane rotation around C-C
most readily? single bond is completely free
Reason : Electron distribution of the σ molecular
orbital is symmetrical around the internuclear axis
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
1) 2) Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
3) If the Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
3) 4) 4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

56) At normal temperature, X and Y are

52) Cyclohexadiene contains ______vinylic and
______ allylic hydrogen atoms?

1) resonance structures 2) tautomers

1) 2 and 2 respectively 2) 4 and 4 respectively 3) functional isomers 4) positional isomers
3) 2 and 4 respectively 4) 4 and 2 respectively
57) Assertion : -NHCOCH3, -OCH3, -Br, -OH are
53) Examine the following resonating structures of activating group for ESR reaction
formic acid for their individual stability and then Reason : Activating groups increase electron
answer the question given below. density on ortho & para positions of benzene ring
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Which of the following arrangements gives the
3) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
correct order of decreasing stability of the above-
4) If the Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
mentioned resonance contributors?
1) II > I > III > IV 2) I > II > III >IV
3) IV > III > I > II 4) IV > III > I > II
58)
How many geometrical isomers are possible for the
54) Statement I: In negative electromeric effect, the
above compound?
π-electrons of the multiple bond are transferred to
1) 0 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
that atom to which the attacking reagent get
attached
Statement II: The hyperconjucation is no bond
resonance & permanent effect
1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
2) Both Statement I and statement II are false
3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
4) Both Statement I and statement II are true

1
59) Correct configuration of the following molecule 64) Ease of dehydrohalogenation is more with
is Cl
1) C2H5Cl 2) CH3-CH-CH3
Cl
3) CH3-C-CH3 4) C6H5Cl
CH3
1) 2S, 3S 2) 2S, 3R 3) 2R, 3S 4) 2R, 3R
65) Write the products of the following reactions
60) Among the following, the most stable isomer is

61) Identify B

66) Grignard reagent, RMgX on reaction with

ethylene oxide followed by hydrolysis yields
1) RCH2CH2OH 2) RCH2CHO
O
3) RCH(OH)CH3 4) R−C−CH3

62) Alkyl halides can be obtained by all methods 67) Hydration of 3-phenylbut-1-ene in dil.H2SO4
except: mainly gives –
1) CH3CH2OH + HCl/ZnCl2 ⎯→ 1) 3-Phenylbutan-1-ol 2) 3-Phenylbutan-2-ol
2) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 – CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Cl2 /UV light
3) 2-Phenylbutan-2-ol 4) 2-Phenylbutan-1-ol
3) C2H5OH + NaCl ⎯→
4) CH3CH=CH2 + HCl ⎯⎯⎯→ Peroxide 68) 2, 6-heptadione on heating with an alkali forms

63) Consider the following alcohols

69) Identify product

CH3(CH2)8CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ CrO3 -H2 SO4
Jones reagent
→
1) CH3(CH2)8CHO 2) CH3(CH2)8COOH
3) CH3(CH2)8CH2OH 4) CH3(CH2)7CHO

The order of decreasing reactivities of these 70) Amongst the following compounds, the
alcohols towards substitution with HBr is compound having the lowest boiling point is
1) III > I > IV > II 2) III > I > II > IV
3) I > III > IV > II 4) I > III > II > IV

2
71) Carbon oxygen bond length are equal in
1) Formate ion 2) Acetic acid 76) Identify product
3) Phenoxide ion 4) acetamide

72) Which will not react with sodium bisulphide

1) acetone 2) diethyl ketone
3) benzaldehyde 4) ethyl methyl ketone
77) Statement I: On trating sodium fusion extract
73) with sodium nitroprusside, appearance of a violet
colour further indicates the presence of sulphur.
Statement II: In case, nitrogen and sulphur both
are present in an organic compound, sodium
thiocyanate is formed, it gives blood red colour.
Relationship between products (Q) and (S) is 1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
1) Position isomer 2) Chain isomer 2) Both Statement I and statement II are false
3) Stereoisomer 4) Functional isomer 3) Both Statement I and statement II are true
4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
74) The correct order of rate of reaction toward
nucleophilic addition reaction 78) The compound X(C7H9N) reacts with
benzensulfonyl chloride to give Y(C13H13NO2S)
which is insoluble in alkali. The compound X is-

1) 2)

3) 4)
1) a > b > c > d > e 2) a > b > d > c > e
3) a > d > e > b > c 4) a > b > e > d > c
79) Statement I: Pure aniline and other arylamines
75) Acetone ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Ba(OH)2
Δ
→ are usually colourless.
1) CH3-C=CH-C=CH2 Statement II: Arylamine get coloured on storage
CH3 due to atmospheric reduction
2) CH3-C=CH-C-CH3 1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
CH3 O 2) Both Statement I and statement II are false
3) CH3-C=CH-C-CH3 3) Both Statement I and statement II are true
CH3 CH3 4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
4) CH3-C-CH2-C-CH3
O O 80)

Product C of this reaction is

3
 CH2Cl 85)
81) The IUPAC name of CH2–CH–CH2 is
Cl Cl
1) Tris(chloromethyl) methane
2) 1,3-Dichloro-2 (chloromethyl) propane
3) 1-Chlorobis(chloromethyl) ethane
4) None of these 1) CH2 = CH2 2) CH3 - C ≡ C – CH3
3) CH ≡ CH 4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
82) What is the major product formed by HI on
reaction with SECTION [B]
CH3 86) The major product of the following
CH3-C-CH=CH2 CH3-CH2-CH─CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ i) alc.KOH
ii) NaNH2
→A
CH3 Br Br
CH3 1) CH3─CH2─CH─CH2 2) CH3─CH=CH─CH3
1) CH3-C-CH2-CH2-I 2) CH3-CH-CH-CH2-CH3 NH2 NH2
CH3 CH3 I 3) CH3─CH=C=CH2 4) CH3─CH2─C≡CH
CH3 CH3
3) CH3-C-CH-CH3 4) CH3─C──CH─CH3 87) In the following reaction sequence, structure A
I CH3 CH3 I and B respectively will be
83) 120 of an organic compound that contains only
carbon and hydrogen gives 330g of CO2 and 270g of
water on complete combustion. The percentage of
carbon and hydrogen, respectively are.
1) 25 and 75 2) 40 and 60
3) 60 and 40 4) 75 and 25

84) C is –

4
88) An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozonolysis 92) In the following sequence of reactions,
gives A. Compound A when warmed with CH3-CH-CH3 ⎯⎯⎯ HNO2
→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Oxidation
→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
i) CH 3 MgL
ii) H + / H O
→C
2
ammonical silver nitrate forms a bright silver
mirror along the sides of the test tube. The NH2
unsaturated hydrocarbon X is: the compound C formed will be
1) butan-1-ol 2) butan-2-ol
3) 2-methylpropan-1-ol 4) 2-methylpropan-2-ol

93)

89) The more stable carbocation is 1) Nucleophilic addition

+ + 2) Nucleophilic substitution
C H2 C H2 3) Electrophilic addition
4) Electrophilic substitution
1) 2)

NH2 NO2
+ +
C H2 C H2 94)

3) 4) Product of the Clemmensen reduction is

OH CH3

90) Relation between A and B is

95) Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Mixture) List-II (Separation
Technique)
A) CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 I) Steam distillation
1) Geometrical isomers 2) Position isomer B) C6H14 + C5H12 II) Differential
3) Enantiomer 4) Chain isomer extraction
C) C6H5NH2 + H2O III) Distillation
91) Among the given halides, which one will give D) Organic IV) Fractional
same product in both SN1 and SN2 reactions. compound in H2O distillation
CH3 CH3 Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(I) CH3–CH–CH2–CH–CH3 (II) option given below
Br Cl 1) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
Cl 2) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(III) (IV) CH3–CH–Br 3) A - II, B - I, C - III, D – IV
Et 4) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D – II
1) (III) only 2) (I) & (II)
3) (III) & (IV) 4) I), (III) & (IV)

5
96) Ethylamine and diethylamine cannot be
differentiated by
1) Hinsberg test 2) carbylamine test
3) Iodoform test 4) both 1 and 2

97) The major products obtained from the

following sequence of reactions are
(CH3)2CHCH2N(CH2CH3)2
⎯⎯⎯
CH3I
→ ⎯⎯⎯
Ag2O
H2O
→ ⎯⎯ ⎯
heat
→ products
1) (CH3)2CHCH2NH2+H2C = CH2
2) (CH3)2NCH2CH3+H2C = C(CH3)2
CH3
3) (CH3)2CHCH2NCH2CH3+H2C = CH2

4) (CH3)3NCH2CH3Iˉ+H2C = CH2

98) Which of the following reactants is suitable for

preparation of methane and ethane by using one
step only?
1) H2C = CH2 2) CH3OH
3) CH3 - Br 4) CH3 – CH2 – OH

CH3
99) CH3 – CH ⎯⎯ ⎯→ A ⎯H⎯ → B ⎯⎯⎯ →C
+
KMnO4 HBr
Δ ROOR

CH3
Product C in the above reactions is
H CH3
1) CH3 – C – Br 2) CH3 – C – Br
CH3 CH3

H CH3
3) CH3 – CH – H 4) CH3 – CH
CH2 – Br CH2 – Br

100) Predict the product of the following reaction

sequence. ethyne ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 1) excessNaNH2
2) excessI-CH2 -(CH2 )2 -CH3
3) H+

1) 6-iodo-1-hexyne 2) 1-hexyne
3) 5-decyne 4) 1-iodo-1-hexene
__________________________________________________________________________________________

Botany
Section –A
101) The first stable compound of HSK pathway is:
1) PEPA 2) OAA 3) PA 4) PGAL

102) The deposition of pollen grain on stigma of another flower of another plant is known as:
1) Dichogamy 2) Geitonogamy 3) Xenogamy 4) Homogamy

103) The site of nitrogen fixation in BGA is:

1) Vegetative cell 2) Heterocyst 3) Cysts 4) Mucilagenous sheath

104) In plants the process of double fertilization helps in:

1) Pollen tube formation 2) Restoration of chromosome number 3) Meiosis 4) Pollination

105) Gullet is present in:

1) Sporozoans 2) Slime moulds 3) ciliated protozoan 4) flagellated protozoan

106) Microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate and intermediate filaments are all part of the:
1) Mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs in chloroplasts
2) Rough ER in prokaryotic cells
3) Cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells
4) Process that moves small molecules across cell membranes

107) Which fungi causes rust and smut diseases respectively:

1) Ustilago and Agaricus 2) Puccinia and Agaricus 3) Puccinia and Ustilago 4) Ustilago and Punnicia

108) Find the wrong match:

1) Algae-Chara 2) Gymnosperms-Pinus 3) Bryophytes-Cycas 4) Angiosperms-Jowar

109) Funaria belongs to:

1) Algae 2) Bryophytes 3) Pteridophytes 4) Angiosperms

110) How many nuclei are involved in double fertilization:

1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five

111) Meiosis occurs in:

1) Pollen grains 2) Root meristem 3) Shoot meristem 4) Microspore mother cells

112) Common pathway for aerobic and anaerobic respiration is:

1) ETS 2) TCA 3) EMP 4) HSK
113) Endosperm of flowering plant has 24 chromosomes, what will be their number in Megaspore:
1) 8 2) 16 3) 24 4) 32

114) Triploid endosperm occurs only in:

1) Gymnosperms 2) Angiosperms 3) Pteridophytes 4) Bryophytes

115) Match Column – I with Column – II and select the correct option from the codes given below:
Column – I Column – II
A. Family (i) Indica
B. Kingdom (ii) Poales
C. Order (iii) Felis
D. Species (iv) Monera
E. Genus (v) Canidae

1) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i), E – (iii) 3) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (v), E – (iv)
2) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii), E – (ii) 4) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv), E – (v)

116) The final hydrogen acceptor in lactic acid fermentation is:

1) Pyruvic acid 2) O2 3) Water 4) Actaldehyde

117) The number of meiotic divisions to produce 400 seeds in pea plant is:
1) 600 2) 500 3) 800 4) 400

118) Members of kingdom Protista are primarily:

1) Parasites with sexual reproduction
2) Terrestrial with enucleated cells
3) Aquatic with flagella and cilia in some
4) Photosynthetic and prokaryotic

119) Decapitation of shoot tips is widely applied in apples to:

1) improve shape 2) sugarcane plantation 3) Hedge making 4) bolting

120) The DNA molecule with more _______ need higher temperature for denaturation:
1) A-C pairs 2) G-C pairs 3) C-C pairs 4) L-P bonds

121) Who is responsible for making valuable scientific contribution in the area of classification:
1) Darwin 2) Pasteur 3) Linnaeus 4) Miller

122) Which of the following groups of organisms are included under chrysophytes:
1) Diatoms and desmids (golden algae) 3) Euglenoids
2) Diatoms and dinoflagellates 4) Slime moulds

123) Kingdom Monera includes only:

1) Bacteria 2) Fungi 3) Eukaryotes 4) Protozoa
124) Bacteriophage is the name given to:
1) A bacterium which infects a higher plant 3) Virus which infects a bacterium
2) Bacterium which infects an animal cell 4) An organelle of the bacterium

125) Which of the following shows Imbricate type of Aestivation:

1) Datura 2) Cassia 3) China rose 4) Cotton
126) Select the correct sequence of events with respect to the fungal sexual cycle:
1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis 3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy 4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy

127) Placentation in primrose is:

1) basal 2) free central 3) axile 4) Marginal

128) Nucleus is present in:

1) Sieve tube 2) Companion cell 3) Vessels 4) Tracheids

129) The central part of stele or vascular cylinder is called:

1) Medulla 2) Pith 3) Endodermis 4) Pericycle

130) Cell membrane of a cell is:

1) Semi-permeable 2) Impermeable 3) Freely permeable 4) Selectively permeable

131) Identify the wrong statement:

1) Guard cells are kidney shaped as well as dumbbell shaped
2) Inner wall of guard cells is thick while the outer wall is thin
3) Guard cells do not possess chloroplast
4) Specialized cells called subsidiary cells are present around guard cells

132) Which one is the mismatched pair:

1) Wheat - Triticum aestivum
2) Housefly - Musca domestica
3) Mango - Azadirachta indica
4) Lion - Panthera leo

133) Identify the Pteridophyte in the figure given below:

1) Fern 2) Selaginella 3) Equisetum 4) Salvinia

134) Which one of the following is the floral formula for Family Fabaceae:

135) Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture:

1) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
2) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
3) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
4) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cell

Botany
Section – B
(Solve Any 10)

136) The hormone which was discovered in a fish called herring:

1) Auxin 2) Gibberellins 3) Cytokinins 4) Ethylene

137) Mutualism is a kind of ________ interaction:

1) Positive interspecific 2) Positive intraspecific 3) Negative interspecific 4) Negative intraspecific

138) Sexual reproduction in fungi occurs by of all the following except:

1) Oospores 2) Ascopores 3) Zoospores 4) Basidiospores

139) Subunits of prokaryotic ribosomes are:

1) 50 S + 50 S 2) 50 S + 30 S 3) 40 S + 30 S 4) 60 S + 40 S

140) Which of the following is a INCORRECT statement:

1) Amino acids form a zwitter ion.
2) Essential amino acids are not produced in the body
3) Valine is an aromatic amino acid
4) Amino acids are called as α-amino acids

141) The quasi-fluid nature of lipid is explained by:

1) Cell theory proposed by Schleiden and Schwann
2) Fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson.
3) Double helix model of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick
4) Tertiary structure of triglycerides proposed Rudolf Virchow
142) Assertion : Plants like sugarcane, maize and jowar are more productive
Reason: C4 plants lack photorespiration
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

143) In TCA, acetyl CoA undergoes condensation with:

1) Citric acid 2) Malic acid 3) Oxaloacetic acid 4) Succinic acid

144) Fill up the blanks (P) and (Q) in the statement given below and choose the correct option.
The growth of a pollen tube is measured in a terms of its _(P) , while growth in a dorsiventral
leaf is denoted by an increase in (Q) :
1) P – length, Q – volume 3) P – breadth, Q – chlorophyll pigments
2) P – girth, Q – Surface area 4) P – length, Q – surface area

145) From which of the following algae, agar-agar is commercially extracted:

I. Gracilaria II. Fucus III. Sargassum IV. Gelidium V. Turbinaria
1) III and V 2) II and III 3) IV and V 4) I and V

146) Equisetum belongs to ____________:

1) Psilopsida 2) Lycopsida 3) Sphenopsida 4) Pteropsida

147) Which of the following statement is TRUE for cleistogamous flowers:

1) Cleistogamous flowers require pollinating agent for pollination
2) Cleistogemous flowers do not open at all
3) In cleistogamous flowers cross pollination occurs
4) All the given statements are false

148) The BOD was calculated for nearby water bodies X, Y and Z. The estimated values proved that X
had a higher BOD than Y. Z had the least BOD. Which of the statements regarding X, Y and Z
water bodies is true:
1) X is least polluted among the three water bodies 3) Z is the least polluted water body.
2) X is more polluted that Y but less polluted than Z 4) All the water bodies are equally polluted

149) In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
1) Water currents only
2) Insects and water
3) Wind and water
4) Insects or wind

150) In which type of natural selection the peak gets higher and narrower:
1) Stabilizing selection 3) Disruptive selection
2) Directional selection 4) None of these
 Zoology
Section – A

151) The following are causative agents of filariasis except:

1) W.bancrofti 2) B.malayi 3) B.timori 4) A.lumbricoides

152) The basis of DNA fingerprinting is:

1) Knowledge of human karyotypes 3) Occurrence of VNTR’s
2) Availability of cloned DNA 4) Phenotype difference between individuals

153) Bony fishes excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of:

1) Uric acid 2) Urea 3) Amino acids 4) Ammonium ions

154) who is credited for determining sequence of amino acids in a protein.

1) Frederick Griffith. 2) Frederick Sanger 3) Alfred Hershey 4) T.H. Morgan

155) Miller-Urey’s experiment mixture had the following except:

1) Methane 2) CO2 3) Hydrogen 4) Water vapour

156) VNTR varies in size from

1) 0.1 to 20 b 2) 0.1 to 20 kb 3) 0.1 to 2 kb 4) 0.1 to 200kb

157) Chemical knives of DNA are:

1) Ligase 2) Endonuclease 3) Polymerase 4) Oxidoreductase
158) Bicuspid valve allows blood to move from:
1) Right auricle to left ventricle 3) Left auricle to left ventricle
2) Right auricle to right ventricle 4) Post caval to heart

159) The level of which hormone is highest in secretory phase of menstrual cycle:
1) FSH 2) Progesterone 3) LH 4) Oestrogen

160) Which of the following are exclusively marine animals:

1) Poriferans 2) Echinoderms 3) Molluscs 4) Arthropods

161) Which one of the following animals is incorrectly matched with its characteristic feature:
1) Hemidactylus: epidermal scales or scutes
2) Hyla: moist skin with scales
3) Carcharodon : absence of air bladder
4) Saccoglossus: proboscis gland

162) ________is not the major from of nitrogenous wastes excreted by the animals:
1) Ammonia 2) Urea 3) Carbon dioxide 4) Uric acid

163) Variability found in DNA is due to arrangement of:

1) Sugar 2) Nitrogen bases 3) Phosphate 4) Glycosidic bonds

164) RNA can function as a template for synthesis of DNA in presence of:
1) RNA polymerase 2) DNA polymerase 3) Reverse trancriptase 4) Helicase
165) The gland that shows atrophy and degeneration with advancement of age and disappears is:
1) Thyroid 2) Pituitary 3) Thymus 4) Prostate

166) Erythropoiesis takes place in the bone marrow due to function of:
1) Adrenal 2) Pituitary 3) Kidney 4) Pancreas

167) Diuresis is a condition characterized by:

1) Increased glucose excretion 3) Decrease in urine volume
2) Decrease in salt excretion 4) Increase in urine volume

168) The minimum amount of urea is found in:

1) Hepatic artery 2) Renal artery 3) Renal vein 4) Hepatic vein

169) Diacetyl morphine hydrochloride is:

1) Brown sugar 2) Heroin 3) Methadone 4) Morphine

170) Which of the following are identical:

1) ACTH and Adrenaline 3) HCG and Progesterone
2) Vasopressin and ADH 4) Calcitonin and Oxytocin

171) Which of following is associated with decrease in cardiac output:

1) Parasympathetic neural signals 2) Angina pectoris 3) Sympathetic nerves 4) Anaemia

172) The technique for artificial reproduction in which a diploid cell is transferred into the oviduct:
1) ZIFT 2) GIFT 3) MTP 4) IUD

173) Identify the organisms that caused ringworm:

i. Microsporum ii. Haemophilum iii. Streptococcus iv. Trichophyton v. Ascaris
1) ii, iii 2) ii, v 3) iii, v 4) i, iv

174) Dialysis is the method to prolong life in:

1) Renal failure 2) Liver failure 3) Heart failure 4) Lung failure

175) ________ is a part of forebrain:

1) Pons 2) Cerebellum 3) Cerebral aqueduct 4) Thalamus

176) Which of the following hormone is secreted in emotional stress:

1) Testosterone 2) Adrenaline 3) Progesterone 4) Oestrogen

177) Which method of Birth control will reduce the chances of pregnancy by 80%:
1) Rhythm method 2) Coitus interruptus 3) Spermicides 4) IUCD

178) High levels of progesterone in female signals:

1) Negative feedback to pituitary and stops secretion of FSH
2) Positive feedback to pituitary and stops secretion of LH
3) Negative feedback to pituitary and stops secretion of LH
4) Positive feedback to pituitary and stops secretion of FSH
179) P wave will represent:
1) Atrial relaxation 2) Atrial depolarisation 3) Atrial diastole 4) None of these

180) Which of the following is not a routinely secreted substance:

1) Creatinine 2) Potassium 3) Glucose 4) Hydrogen ions

181) Neural signal from which centre reduces the duration of inspiration:
1) Respiration thythm centre in pons 3) Respiration rhythm centre in medulla
2) Pnemotaxic centre 4) Respiration centre in cerebrum

182) Expiration occurs when:

1) Inter-pulmonary pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure
2) Intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure
3) Intra-abdominal pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure
4) Inter-cellular pressure is .higher than atmospheric pressure

183) Identify the INCORRECT statement about Rh grouping:

1) The Rh antigen is observed on the surface of RBCs of Rh +ve person
2) An Rh –ve person, if exposed to Rh +ve blood, will from specific antigens against the Rh antibodies
3) Rh group should also be matched before blood transfusions
4) The Rh antigen is not observed on the surface of RBCs of Rh –ve person

184) The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through all of these layers, except:
1) Cuboidal epithelium of PCT
2) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels
3) Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule
4) Basement membrane between Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus

185) Heavy meromyosin and light meromyosin represents:

1) Globular head with short arm and tail respectively
2) Short arm and ATP binding site respectively
3) Tail and globular head respectively
4) ATP binding site and actin binding site respectively

Zoology
Section – B
Solve Any 10

186) Lymph nodes are mainly for:

1) Filtration of bacteria removed by macrophages 3) Filtration of urea from liver
2) Filtration of water if in excess 4) Filtration of hydrogen ions

187) _________ could be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being:
1) Health 2) Fitness 3) Disease 4) Disorder

188) The ribozyme is:

1) 18 S rRNA 2) 5.8 S rRNA 3) 23 S rRNA 4) 28 S rRNA
189) The fossils of Homo erectus were discovered in _____ and it existed about _______ mya:
1) Tanzania; 2 2) Java; 1.5 3) Ethiopia; 1.5 4) Australia; 2

190) ____ is utilized by the organisms to indirectly break down nutrient molecules like glucose:
1) O2 2) CO2 3) NO2 4) H2CO3

191) Inspiratory reserve volume is:

1) 1000 ml-2000 ml 2) 3500 ml- 4000 ml 3) 2500 ml- 3000 ml 4) 1000 ml- 3500 ml

192) The polypeptide chains are held and maintained with the help of:
1) Disulphide bonds 2) Dichloride bonds 3) Diphosphate bonds 4) Dihydride bonds

193) Arachidonic acid has ____ carbon atoms excluding carboxyl carbon.
1) 17 2) 18 3) 19 4) 20
194) A cell loses its power of division in:
1) G1 phase 2) G0 phase 3) G2 Phase 4) S phase
195) The phase of cell division where condensation of chromosomes is over and they are arranged along
the equatorial plane is
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase

196) In a random mating population, the frequency of a dominant allele is 0.7. What is the frequency of
the dominant phenotype:
1) 0.49 2) 0.09 3) 0.91 4) 0.42

197) On ovulation, from the ovary is released:

1) primary oocyte 2) secondary oocyte 3) second polar body 4) ootid

198) The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is:

1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed
3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from
Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

199) Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug "Smack":
1) Roots 2) Latex 3) Flowers 4) Leaves

200) Read the given statements and select the correct option:
Statement I : Excessive use of herbicides and pesticides has led to the selection of resistant varieties in a
much lesser time scale.
Statement II : Appearance of organisms resistant to herbicides in a short time scale of months or years is
an example of evolution by anthropogenic action
1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect 3) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

************************************* BEST OF LUCK *************************************