FULL TEST 07 (NEET)

CHALLENGERS BATCH

PHYSICS
SECTION – A 7. The magnifying power of an astronomical
1. The radius of curvature of the path of the charged telescope is 8 and the distance between the two
particle in a uniform magnetic field is directly lenses is 54 cm. The focal length of eye lens and
proportional to objective lens will be respectively -
(1) The charge on the particle (1) 6 cm and 48 cm.
(2) The momentum of the particle (2) 48 cm and 6 cm.
(3) The energy of the particle (3) 8 cm and 64 cm.
(4) All of the above. (4) 64 cm and 8 cm
2. The x-t graph of a particle undergoing SHM is 8. In order that the heat flows from one part of a
shown below. The displacement of particle at solid to another part, what is required
4 (1) Uniform density
t = s is (2) Temperature gradient
3
(3) Density gradient
(4) Uniform temperature
9. The current in an AC circuit is given by
I=I0sin(50π)t , where t is in second. The time
interval in which it will reach from zero to its peak
value is?
1 3 (1) 10 ms (2) 5 ms
(1) cm (2) cm (3) 20 ms (4) 15 ms
2 2
2 1 10. The kinetic theory of gases gives the formula
(3) cm (4) cm 1
3 2 PV = Nmv 2 for the pressure P exerted by a gas
3. Assertion : Lenz’s law violates the principle of 3
conservation of energy. enclosed in a volume V. The term Nm represents
Reason : Induced e.m.f. opposes always the (1) the mass of a mole of the gas
change in magnetic flux responsible for its (2) the mass of the gas present in the volume
production. V
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true (3) the average mass of one molecule of the
gas
and Reason is the correct explanation
(4) the total number of molecules present in
of A volume V
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 11. Out of the following options which one can be
Reason is not the correct explanation of A used to produce a propagating electromagnetic
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false wave?
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true (1) A charge moving at constant velocity
4. If critical angle for a material to air is 30° , the (2) A stationary charge
refractive index of the material will be : (3) A chargeless particle
(1) 1.0 (2) 1.5 (3) 2.0 (4) 2.5 (4) An accelerating charge
5. The stable nucleus that has a radius half of the 12. An elevator moving up with a constant speed of 2
radius of Fe56 is : m/s, can carry a maximum load of 1800 kg
(1) Li 7 (2) Na 21 (elevator + passengers). The frictional force
opposing the motion is 4000 N. Determine the
(3) S16 (4) Ca 40
minimum power (in watts) delivered by the motor
6. Water rises in a capillary upto a height of 4 cm.
to the elevator.
If it is tilted to 30° from the vertical, then the
(1) 36000 W (2) 44000 W
length of water column in it will be (3) 18000 W (4) 22000 W
8
(1) cm (2) 8 3 cm
3
(3) 4 cm (4) 2 cm

1 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code:FTQN07 / CHA

13. When capacitor is fully charged, find current 8ρ
drawn from the cell (3) (4) ρ
27
17. Efficiency of a half wave rectifier is nearly:
(1) 80% (2) 60%
(3) 40% (4) 20%
18. Breaking stress of a wire of cross
cross-section
ction area A is
5 × 10 9 N/m 2 . Find the breaking stress of the wire
of same material and cross
cross-section
section area 2A
(1) 10 × 10 N/m
9 2
(2) 5 × 10 9 N/m 2
5
(3) 20 × 10 9 N/m 2 (4) × 109 N/m 2
(1) 2 mA (2) 1 mA 2
(3) 3 mA (4) 9 mA 19. The current voltage graph for a given metallic
14. A body of mass m is moving with constant conductor at two different temperatures T1 & T2 are
velocity on the line y= 2x + 3. Its angular as shown in the figure. Then
momentum about z-axis
(1) is zero (2) increases
(3) decreases (4) remains constant
15. Following diagram is electrical equivalent of a
gate.

(1) T1 > T2 (2) T1 = T2

(3) nothing can be said about T1 & T2
(4) T1 < T2
20. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of 20
Truth table of the gate is m/s in air. It is allowed to fall in gravity free space
(1) Terminal speed will 20 m/s
(1) (2) (2) Terminal speed will be less than 20 m/s
(3) Terminal speed d will be more than 20 m/s
(4) There will be no terminal velocity
21. If the direction of the initial velocity of the
charged particle is neither along nor perpendicular
to that of the magnetic field, then the orbit will be
(1) A straight line (2) An ellipse
(3) A circle (4) A helix
22. The average energy in one time period in simple
(3) (4) harmonic motion is
1 1
(1) mω 2 A2 (2) mω 2 A2
2 4
(3) mω A2 2
(4) Zero
23. In intrinsic semiconductor at a room temperature
perature
(1) Valence Band is completely filled
16. A nucleus of nuclear density ρ disintegrates into (2) Conduction band is completely empty
two daughter nuclei with masses in the ratio of (3) Valence band is partially empty and
8:27. Density of smaller nucleus is : conduction band is partially filled
2ρ 2ρ (4) Valance band is completely empty
(1) (2) 24. A block of ice at -8°C is slowly heated d and
3 5
converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the

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 following curves represents the phenomena  ∆a ∆b 
qualitatively? (4)  −  × 100%
 a b 
28. A body of mass m moving with a velocity v hits
(1) (2)
another identical body at rest. If the collision is
perfectly elastic, then the percentage of energy
transferred to the other body is
(1) 0% (2) 100%
(3) 50% (4) 25%
29. Two unknown resistance X and Y are connected to
(3) (4)
left and right gaps of a meter bridge and the
balancing point is obtained at 80 cm from left.
When a 10 Ω resistance is connected in parallel to
X the balancing point is 50 cm from left. The
values of X and Y respectively are
25. Two strings A and B made of same material are (1) 40 Ω,9 Ω (2) 30 Ω, 7.5 Ω
stretched by same tension. The radius of string A (3) 20 Ω, 6 Ω (4) 10 Ω , 3 Ω
is double of the radius of B. The ratio of transverse 30. An electric Bulb rated 50W - 200 V is connected
V across a 100 V. The power dissipation of bulb is
wave speed on A and B, A is
VB (1) 50 W (2) 25 W
(3) 100 W (4) 12.5 W
1
(1) (2) 2 31. If K represents kinetic energy, v velocity and T
2 time and these are chosen as the fundamental
1 units, then the unit of surface tension will be
(3) (4) 4
4 (1) Kv −2T −2 (2) K 2 v 2T
26. A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q (3) KvT 2 (4) Kv 2T 2
on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of 32. Given below are two statement: one is labeled
the shell and another charge q1 is placed outside it as Assertion A and the other is labeled as
as shown in the figure. All the three charges are Reason R.
positive Assertion A: If an electric dipole of dipole
moment 30 × 10 −5 Cm is enclosed by a closed
surface, the net flux coming out of the surface
will be zero.
Reason R : Electric dipole consists of two equal
and opposite charges
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
The net force on the charge at the centre is (3) Both A and R true but R is NOT the
(1) towards left (2) upward correct explanation of A
(3) towards right (4) zero (4) A is false but R is true
27. If x =(a/b), the maximum-percentage error in the 33. A body starts from rest and travels 72 m in 5th
measurement of x will be second. Find the acceleration of the body
 ∆a   ∆b  (1) 4 m/s 2 (2) 8 m/s 2
(1)  × 100%  /  × 100% 
 a   b  (3) 10 m/s 2 (4) 16 m/s 2
 ∆ a   ∆ b  34. If y = x − x is the path of a projectile, then find
2
(2)  × 100%  ×  × 100% 
 a   b  the Maximum height attained by projectile
(1) 0.25 m (2) 0.5 m (3) 0.75 m (4) 1 m
 ∆ a ∆b 
(3)  +  × 100% 35. Two objects A and B are thrown upward
 a b  simultaneously with the same speed. The mass of
3 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code:FTQN07 / CHA
 A is greater than the mass of B. Suppose the air 4λ
exerts a constant and equal force of resistance on (1) (2) 4λ
3
the two bodies
(1) The two bodies will reach the same height
8λ
(3) 6λ (4)
(2) A will go higher that B 3
(3) B will
ill go higher than A 40. Escape velocity of a body of mass 1 kg on a planet
(4) Any of the above three may happen is 100 m/s. Gravitational Potential energy of the
depending on the speed with which the body at the Planet is
objects are thrown (1) –5000 J (2) –1000 J
(3) –2400 J (4) 5000 J
SECTION – B 41. In Young’s double slits experiment carried out
36. Blocks A and B have masses of 1.5 kg and 3.5 kg with light of wavelength 6000A° , the distance
respectively. The
he ground is smooth. P is an between the slits is 0.4 mm and the screen is at 2
external force of 10 N. The force exerted by B on meters from the slits. Position of 3rd maximum
A is : from center of screen is -
(1) 0.09 cm (2) 0.9 cm
(3) 0.08 cm (4) 0.02 cm
42. The coefficient of volume expansion of liquid is
γ .The fractional change in its density for ∆T rise
in temperature is
∆T
(1) 4 N (2) 6 N (1) γ∆T (2)
γ
(3) 8 N (4) 7 N
37. A body is moving along straight line by a machine (3) 1 + γ∆T (4) 1 − γ∆T
delivering a power proportional to time 43. The electron in hydrogen atom makes transition
Column - I Column – II from n 1 to n2 where n 1 & n2 are principle
a Velocity is i t (time) quantum number. The current produ produced
ced due to
proportional to orbital motion of electron in final orbit is 8 times
b Displacement is ii t2 the initial orbit then n 1 & n2 are
proportional to (1)=n 1 3,=n2 2 (2)=n 1 8,=n2 2
c Work done is iii t3 (3)=n 1 8,=n2 1 (4)=n 1 6,=n2 3
proportional to 44. Ten iden
identical batteries each of emf 2 V are
iv t −1 connected in series to a 8 Ω resistor. If the
current in the circuit is 2A, then the internal
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c) - (iii) resistance of each battery is
(2) (a) - (iii) (b) - (iv) (c) - (i) (1) 0.2 Ω (2) 0.3 Ω
(3) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c) - (i) (3) 0.4 Ω (4) 0.5 Ω
(4) (a)-(i) (b)-(ii) (c) - (ii) 45. A disc of radius R/3 is cut from a disc of mass 9M
38. The de-Broglie
Broglie wavelength of a thermal neutron at and radius R. Find its moment of inertia of the
927° C is λ . Its wavelength
wavelengt at 327° C will be remainin
remaining disc about an axis passing through its
λ λ centre C and perpendicular to its plane
(1) (2)
2 2
(3) 2λ (4) 2λ
39. When a centimeter thick surface is illuminiated
with light of wavelength λ , the stopping potential
is V, when the surface is illuminated by a light of
wavelength 2λ , the stopping potential is V/3.
Threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is (1) 4MR 2 (2) 6MR 2

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 (3) 8MR 2 (4) None of these 48. If two convex lenses of powers P1 , P2 be placed
46. A uniform magnetic field, parallel to the plane of close together, co
co-axially,
axially, the combination
the paper existed in space initially directed from behaves as a lens of focal length (in cm):
left to right When a bar of soft iron is placed in the
(1) P1 + P2 (2) | P1 - P2 |
field parallel to it, the lines of force passing
through it will be represented by 100 P22
(3) (4)
P1 + P2 P1
49. The primary winding of a transformer has 100
turns and its secondary winding has 200 turns. The
primary is connected to an ac supply of 120 V and
the current flowing in it is 10 A. The voltage and
the current in the secondary are
(1) 240 V, 5 A (2) 240 V, 10 A
(3) 60 V, 20 A (4) 120 V, 20 A
50. For a gas, the R.M.S sp
speed at 800 K is:
(1) Four times the value at 200 K
(2) Half the value at 200 K
(1) A (2) B (3) Twice the value at 200 K
(3) C (4) D (4) Same as at 200 K
47. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has
fundamental frequency f. The tube is dipped
vertically in water so that half of its length in
inside water. The new fundamental frequency is
(1) f/4 (2) f/2
(3) f (4) 2f

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. 0.1 mole H 3 POx is completely neutralised by 5.6 g 58. The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction
1
KOH then the true statement is SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )  So3 ( g ) is an exothermic
(1) x = 3 and given acid is dibasic 2
(2) x = 4 and given acid has no P-H linkage reaction. If the preparation follows the following
(3) x = 2 and given acid does not form acid temperature-pressure relationship for its % yield,
(4) all of these then for temperatures T1, T2 and T3. The correct
52. The percentage by volume of C3 H 8 in a gaseous option is :
mixture of C3 H 8 , CH 4 and CO is 20. When 100
mL of the mixture is burnt in excess of O2 , the
volume of CO2 produced is:
(1) 90 mL (2) 160 mL
(3) 140 mL (4) none of these
53. In a 3d subshell, all the five orbitals are
degenerate. What does it mean?
(1) All the orbitals have the same orientation.
(2) All the orbitals have the same shape. (1) T3 > T2 > T1
(3) All the orbitals have the same energy.
(4) All the orbitals are unoccupied. (2) T1 > T2 > T3
54. Three flasks of equal volumes contain CH 4 , CO2 (3) T= 1 T=
2 T3
and Cl2 gases respectively. They will contain equal (4) Nothing could be predicted about
temperature through given information
number of molecules if:
(1) The mass of all the gases is same 59. What is the molar solubility of Ag 2CO3
(2) The moles of all the gas is same but
temperature is different
(K sp = 4 × 10 −13 ) in 0.1 M Na2CO3 solution?
(3) Temperature and pressure of all the flasks (1) 10−6 (2) 10−7
are same (3) 2 ×10−6 (4) 2 ×10−7
(4) Temperature, pressure and masses same in 60. Which of the hydrated species can exist?
the flask I : H 5O2+ II : H 3O + III : H 3O2− IV : H 7 O3+
55. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and
Select alternate from:
a strong alkali is 57.0kJ mol −1 . The heat released
(1) II only (2) I and I
when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is mixed with 0.2 (3) I, II and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
mole of KOH is 61. The correct order of osmotic pressure of 0.01 M
(1) 57.0 kJ (2) 11.4 kJ aqueous solution of the following is:
(3) 28.5 kJ (4) 34.9 kJ (1) Sucrose> CH 3COOH > KCl
56. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH 3( g ) is (2) CH 3COOH > Sucrose > KCl
−1
−91.8kJ mol . The amount of heat required to (3) Sucrose >KCl > CH 3COOH
decompose 34 g of NH 3( g ) into its elements is: (4) KCl >CH 3COOH > Sucrose
(1) 183.6 kJ (2) 91.8 kJ 62. How many litres of methane would be produced
(3) 45.9 kJ (4) 137.7 kJ when 0.6 gm of CH 3 MgBr is treated with excess
57. What is the pH of a saturated solution of
of C4 H 9 NH 2 ?
Cu ( OH )2 ? ( K= 2.6 × 10−19 )
sp
(1) 0.8 litre (2) 0.08 litre
(1) 6.1 (2) 7.30 (3) 0.112 litre (4) 1.12 litre
(3) 8.42 (4) 7.90
6 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA
63. Assertion: Camphor is used as solvent in the 69. How much volume of air will be needed for
determination of molecular mass of naphthalene complete combustion of 1litre of ethane?
and anthracene etc (1) 13.5L (2) 3.5 L
Reason: Camphor has high molal elevation (3) 17.5L (4) 20.5 L
constant 70. Which of the following is the correct order of
(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct decarboxylation of following carboxylic acids
explanation of A using soda lime?
(2) If both A and R are correct but R is not
correct explanation of A
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) If A and R both are wrong
64. Assertion: Molar conductivity increases with
decrease in concentration for weak electrolytes.
Reason: No. of ions increases and no of ions
per unit volume decreases due to dilution.
(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct
explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are correct but R is not
correct explanation of A
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong
(4) If A and R both are wrong
65. 99% of a first order reaction was completed in 32
minutes when 99.9% of the reaction will complete:
(1) 50 min (2) 46 min
(3) 48 min (4) 49 min
66. Statement-1: Acetaldehyde responds positively
with all the tests of carbonyl compounds like
Tollen's test, Fehling test, 2, 4-DNP test, as well as
iodoform test
Statement-2: All aldehydes respond all the four
tests given in statement-1
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-l.
(2) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
67. Consider the species.
(i) OH (ii) CH 3 − O
(iii) CH 3 (iv) NH 2
Arrange these nuclephilic species in their
decreasing order of nucleophilicity: 71. A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated
(1) III > IV > I > II (2) II > I > III > IV with CH 3COCl to get a compound with molecular
(3) I > II > III > IV (4) III > I > II > IV mass 390. The number of amino groups present
68. Which of the following group is divalent? per molecule of the former compound is
(1) Benzoyl (2) Benzyl (1) 2 (2) 5
(3) Benzal (4) Benzo (3) 4 (4) 6

7 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

72. Statement-1: (3) −3RT ln X (4) None of these
76. An optically active alkene (X) has the molecular
formula C6 H12 . The catalytic hydrogenation of
(X) gives an achiral product. The structure of (X)
would be:
CH 3 − CH − CH = CH − CH 3
(1) |
CH 3
CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CH =
CH 2
Statement-2: HI can act as reducing agent and red (2) |
P acts as catalyst for this reaction
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; CH 3
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for CH 3 − CH − CH =
CH 2
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, (3) |
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation C2 H 5
for Statement-1 CH 3 − CH − C ≡ CH
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) |
73. Statement-1: HCl do not show peroxide effect. C2 H 5
Statement-2: HCl bond is strong enough to be
77. Which of the following compounds are non-
broken by peroxide in presence of alkene, so it
aromatic?
prefers to heterolyse than homolyse
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(1) III and VI (2) II and III
74. Arrange in order of enolic content
(3) I and IV (4) V and VI
78. Which order of acidic strength is wrong?

(1) R > S > Q > P (2) S > R > P > Q

(3) P > R > S > Q (4) Q > R > P > S
75. For the reaction taking place at certain temperature
NH 2COONH 4 ( s )  2 NH 3 ( g ) + CO2 ( g ) , if
(1) (1) (2) (2)
equilibrium pressure is 3X bar then ∆G  of the (3) (3) (4) (4)
reaction would be
(1) − RT ln − 93RT ln X
(2) RT ln 4 − 3 RT ln X
8 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA
79. In which of the given change bond angle at central (3) Zero order reaction must be complex
atom is not change? reaction
+ (4) First order reaction may be
(1) AlCl3 → AlCl4− (2) CH 4 → C H 3 complex of elementary reaction
(3) CH 3− → CH 4 (4) CH 4 → CF4 84. Ions present in KIBrCl are
(1) K + , [ IBrCl ]
−
80. Which of the following is an endothermic process? (2) K 3+ , I − , Br − , Cl −
( I ) O ( g ) + e− → O − ( g ) (3) [ KIBr ] , Cl −
+
(4) K + , Br − and ICl
( II ) N ( g ) + e− → N − ( g ) 85. The most likely protonation site in the following
molecule is
( III ) Cl − ( g ) → Cl ( g ) + e −
( IV ) O − ( g ) + e− → O 2− ( g )
(1) I, II, IV (2) I, IV
(3) II, III, IV (4) I, II, III, IV
81. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I- List-II- (1) C- 6 (2) C- 1
(Property) (Element) (3) C- 2 (4) C- 3
P Shows maximum O.N. of 1 Sc
3d series SECTION – B
Q Lowest M.P. in 3d series 2 Mn 86. A metal M of equivalent mass E forms an oxide of
R Most abundant metal in 3d 3 Zn molecular formula M x O y . The atomic mass of the
series metal is given by the correct equation:
S M 3+ ion have inert gas like 4 Fe (1) 2 Ey / x (2) xyE
configuration (3) E / y (4) y / E
Select CORRECT code for your answer 87. The correct order of equivalent conductances at
infinite dilution in water at room temperature for
P Q R S
(1) 2 1 4 3 H + , K + , CH 3COO − and HO − ions is
(2) 2 3 4 1 (1) HO − > H + > K + > CH 3COO −
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 4 3 1 2 (2) H + > HO − > K + > CH 3COO −
82. Calculate the resonance energy of N 2O from the (3) H + > K + > HO − > CH 3COO −
following data (4) H + > K + > CH 3COO − > HO −
hence ∆H f ( N 2O ) =
82 KJ / mole 88. Which of the following statement is not correct?
B.E of N ≡ N , ⇒ 950 KJ / mole (1) During Kolbe's electrolysis (KES) pOH of
= N , ⇒ 420 KJ / mole
N solution increases.
(2) H 2 gas evolves at cathode during KES
O= O ⇒ 500 KJ / mole
(3) H 2 gas is evolved at both electrodes during
O= N ⇒ 610 KJ / mole
(1) +88KJ/mole KES of HCOOK
(2) –88KJ/mole (4) CH 4 can not be prepared by using a
(3) –170KJ/mole carboxylic acid salt during Kolbe's
(4) –190/mole electrolysis
83. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 89. Which of the following is incorrect decreasing
(1) A second order reaction must bimolecular order of oxidizing power?
elementary reaction (1) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(2) A bimolecular elementary reaction must be
a 2nd order reaction (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I 2

9 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

 (3) ClO4− > IO4− > BrO4− (1) 0.0012 (2) 0.0016
(3) 0.0024 (4) 0.0048
(4) None of these
95. Select CORRECT about the following change
90. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II NO2+ → NO2 → NO2−
[Property of a metal (M)] [Metal (M)] (1) Reduction of N - O bond order
(2) Decrease of O - N - O bond angle
P "M" produces H 2 with KOH 1 Au (3) Increase of N - O bond length
(4) All of the above
solution 96. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I
Q “M" produces M 2+ ion 2 Zn with the description given in List-II and select the
when reacts with dil. HCl correct answer using the code given below the
R “M" does not dissolve in 3 Hg lists.
dil. HCI but dissolves in
dil. HNO3
S “M" does not dissolve in 4 Fe
conc. HNO3 dil. HNO3 or
H 2 SO4

Select CORRECT code for your answer.

P Q R S
(1) 1 3 2 4
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 2 4 1 3
(4) 2 4 3 1
91. Which of the following is isostructural of Cr2O72 − ?
(1) S 2O72 − (2) S 2O62 −
(3) S 2O82 − (4) S 2O52 −
Select CORRECT code for your answer
92. As compared to CO, CN − ligand is a P Q R S
(1) strong σ − donor, weak π − acceptor (1) 2 1 3 4
(2) weak σ − donor, strong π − acceptor (2) 4 3 1 2
(3) strong σ − donor, strong π − acceptor (3) 2 3 1 4
(4) weak σ − donor, weak π − acceptor (4) 4 1 3 2
93. Select CORRECT structure of [ M abcd ] complex in 97. Statement-1: Duma's method is more applicable
to nitrogen containing organic compounds then
which a is trans to d
Kjeldahl's method
Statement-2: Kjeldahl's method does not give
satisfactory results for compounds in which
nitrogen is linked to oxygen
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(2) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
94. If excess of AgNO3 solution is added to 100 mL of (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
a 0.024 M solution of dichlorobis (ethylenediam- (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
ine) cobalt (III) chloride, how many mole of AgCl
be precipitated?
10 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA
98. 100.

(1) H 3C − C ≡ C − CH 3
(2) CH 2 = CH − CH = CH 2
(3) CH 3 − CH 2 − C ≡ CH

(4)

99. Statement-1:

In above reaction sequence non-classical

carbocation opens from the side of -Me group
Statement-2: -Me exert less steric hindrance than
-Et group
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(2) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

11 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Identify the following statements as true (T) or (4) Symbiotic association between algae and
false (F) and choose the option accordingly 109. Match the column-I with column-II
A-Methanogens aerobically degrade cellulosic Column-I Column-II
material to produce methane A Baculovirus i Phosphourus nutrition
B- Methanogens are found in anaerobic sludge
B Mycorrhiza ii Nucleopolyhedrovirus
produced during sewage treatment
C Trichoderma iii Free living fungi
(1) A-T B-T (2) A-F B-T
D Cyanobacteria iv Biofertiliser for paddy
(3) A-F B-F (4) A-T B-F
field
102. During photosynthesis electrons are continuously
lost from the reaction centre of PSII. What source (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
is used to replace these electrons: (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(1) Sunlight (2) O2 (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) H2O (4) O3 (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
103. The electron flow from PSII to NADP via ETS 110. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
and PSI follows correct option
(1) Uphill → Downhill → Uphill → Column-I Column-II
Downhill a Exon i Non-coding sequence
(2) Downhill → Uphill → Downhill → Uphill b Intron ii Nirenberg, Khorana
(3) Downhill → Uphill → Uphil → Downhill and Mathaei
(4) Uphill → Downhill → Downhill → Uphill c Genetic code iii Nucleosome
104. The histone protein that attaches to DNA d DNA iv Coding sequence
strands between nucleosomes is _____. package
(1) H1 (2) H4
(3) H2A (4) H2B (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
105. Select correct statement w.r.t. systematic (3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(1) It is the study of different kinds of 111. ABO blood groups in human beings are
organisms without their evolutionary controlled by gene I. The gene (I) has three
relationships alleles in which
(2) The word systematics is derived from the (1) IA, IB and i produce a slightly different
Greek word System form of sugar.
(3) It includes taxonomy as well as phylogeny (2) IB and i produce identical sugars
(4) It is a part of overall taxonomic (3) IA and IB produce a slightly different form
arrangement that include identification only of the sugar
106. The process of removing of introns and joining (4) Only allele i produces sugar
the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit 112. Which one of the following types of organisms
is called occupy more than one trophic level in a pond
(1) capping (2) splicing ecosystem?
(3) tailing (4) transformation (1) Fish (2) Zooplankton
107. Transcription refers to the (3) Frog (4) Phytoplankton
(1) transfer of genetic code or sequences of 113. Various functions like photosynthesis, storage,
DNA into RNA excretion performed by
(2) formation of DNA from RNA (1) sclerenchyma (2) parenchyma
(3) formation of protein (3) collenchyma (4) aerenchyma
(4) polymerisation of RNA in cell free system 114. Read the following statements and choose the
108. The causative agent of bovine spongiform correct option
encephalopathy is Statement A- RNA is the genetic material in
(1) A nucleoprotein TMV.
(2) RNA of low molecular weight Statement B- Bacteriophages are usually double
(3) Similar in size to viruses stranded DNA viruses

12 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

 (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements A and b are incorrect
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct
115. Statement I : Apocarpous condition is present in
lotus and rose.
Statement II : When stamens are attached to
the perianth, they are epiphyllous.
(1) Both statements are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
116. Select the odd one out w.r.t. functions of
mesosomes.
(1) They help in cell wall formation
(2) They help in DNA replication and
distribution to daughter cells
(3) They help in respiration and secretion
process
(4) They decrease the surface area of plasma
membrane and enzymatic content
117. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
about calyx?
(1) Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower
and are called sepals.
(2) Sepals are green, leaf like structure and
protect the flower in the bud stage.
(3) The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals
free) or polysepalous (sepals united).
(4) Both (1) and (2)
118. Life cycle of Fucus and Salvinia respectively are
(1) Diplontic, Haplontic
(2) Haplontic, Diplontic
(3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(4) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
119. Fucoxanthin is the major pigment in
(1) Brown algae (2) Red algae
(3) Blue green algae (4) Green algae
120. Find the incorrect match
(1) Pteridophytes – May flourish in sandy soil
(2) Bryophytes – Show an event precursor
to seed habit
(3) Gymnosperms – Well-adapted to withstand
extreme humidity
(4) Angiosperms – Divided into two classes
Monocotyledonae and Dicotyledonae
121. The presence and position of which one of the
following defines the template and coding strands
in a transcription unit?
(1) Repressor (2) Operator
(3) Structural gene (4) Promoter
13 Full Test 07 (NEET)
122. During the formation of leaves and elongation
of stem, some cells ‘left behind' from the shoot
apical meristem, constitute the
(1) Lateral meristem (2) axillary bud
(3) cork cambium
(4) fascicular cambium
123. Dinoflagellates differ from euglenoids, as the
former
(1) Can predate on other smaller organisms
(2) Have majority of members that are fresh
water organisms
(3) Have two flagella
(4) Have cell wall with stiff cellulose plates on
the outer surface
124. Diplotene stage of meiosis
(1) Involves crossing over between
homologous chromosomes
(2) Can last for months or years in the oocytes
of some vertebrates
(3) Involves synapsis of homologous
chromosomes
(4) Represents transition to metaphase I
125. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
(1) Each stamen which represents the male
reproductive organ consists of a stalk or a
filament and an anther.
(2) An actinomorphic flower can be dissected
into two equal halves from any plane.
(3) Superior ovary is found in hypogynous
flowers.
(4) When stamens are attached to petals, they
are epiphyllous as in brinjal.
126. Which of the following represent maximum
number of species among global biodiversity?
(1) Algae (2) Lichens
(3) Fungi (4) Mosses and Ferns
127. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
During zygotene stage of meiosis-I, what would be
the number of bivalents or tetrads?
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 4 (4) 24
128. Which one of the following shows maximum
genetic diversity in India?
(1) Mango (2) Rice
(3) Groundnut (4) Maize
129. Substrate level phosphorylation in Kreb’s cycle
takes place in between
(1) Citrate to isocitrate.
(2) a -ketoglutaric acid to succinyl-CoA
(3) Conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic
/ 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA
 Acid (3) Three (4) One
(4) Succinic acid to fumaric acid 137. Read the following statements and select the
130. Cytochrome c is found between, in ETS correct option
(1) Complex I and II Assertion (A): Even after S phase the number of
(2) Complex II and III chromosomes remains the same.
(3) Complex III and IV. Reason(R): ‘S' or synthesis phase marks the period
(4) Complex IV and V during which amount of DNA per cell doubles
131. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (1) Only assertion is true
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (2) Only reason is true
Reason (R) (3) Both assertion and reason are true and
Assertion (A) :Respiratory pathway is considered reason is correct explanation of assertion
as an amphibolic pathway (4) Both assertion and reason are true but
Reason (R) : It involves both anabolism and reason is not correct explanation of
catabolism. assertion
choose the correct answer from the options given 138. Select the correct matched pair
below : (1) Brassicaceae Monocarpellary and
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not syncarpous gynoeicum
the correct explanation of (A) (2) Poaceae Cypsella fruit is
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct present
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) Asteraceae Also known as grass
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
family
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Malvaceae Monothecous anther is
132. Which one of the following is not a functional unit
found
of a ecosystem?
(1) Productivity (2) Stratification 139. Read the following statements and choose the
(3) Energy flow (4) Decomposition correct option
133. Which statement are true for photosynthesis : Statement –A: Gynoecium is bicarpellary and
(1) CO2 reduction occur in dark reaction syncarpous in mustard and sunflower
(2) H2O oxidation occur in light reaction Statement-B : Both mustard and sunflower have
(3) Dark reaction is an enzymatic phase of superior ovary
photosynthesis (1) Only Statement A is correct
(4) All of these (2) Only Statement B is correct
134. Which one of the following population (3) Both the statements are correct
interactions is widely used in medical science for (4) Both the statements are incorrect
the production of antibiotics? 140. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states
(1) Parasitism (2) Mutualism that
(3) Commensalism (4) Amensalism (1) More abundant species will exclude the
135. The four chromatids of homologous chromosomes less abundant species through competition.
become distinct and clearly appear as tetrad in (2) Competition for the same resources
which stage of prophase 1st ? excludes species having food preferences.
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (3) No two species can occupy the same niche
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
(4) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones
SECTION-B through competition.
136. How many functions are associated with 141. Read the following statements and choose the
Cytokinins correct option
(a) Lateral shoot growth Statement A- Flocs are responsible for the aerobic
(b) Delay leaf senescence degradation of organic waste in sewage.
(c) Widely used to kill dicot weeds Statement B- Sedimented flocs constitute activated
(d) Causes apical dominance sludge
(1) Two (2) Four (1) Statement A is correct

14 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

 (2) Statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statement A and B are incorrect
fungi
142. Which one of the following statements is not
true?
(1) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats
secrete foul odour to attract them.
(2) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen
collected from flowers.
(3) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they
are used in the form of tablets or syrups.
(4) Pollen grains of many species causes
severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in
some people.
143. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion (A) :2,4-D widely used to kill
monocotyledonous weeds.
Reason (R) :2,4-D does not affect mature
monocotyledonous plant.
choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
144. Identify the wrong statements for seed from
given statements.
(i) The embryo is made up of an embryonal axis
and one cotyledons in gram and two
cotyledons in pea.
(ii) The ovules after fertilisation, develop into
seeds.
(iii) The seed coat has two layers, the outer
testa and the inner tegmen.
(iv) The hilum is a scar on the seed coat through
which the developing seeds were attached to
the fruit.
(v) Seeds of castor is non-endospermic while seed
of bean, gram and pea is endospermic.
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i)and(v)
145. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Lichen, an association of fungus and algae
is an example of mutualism.
(2) Those epiphytes, which use other plants
for support only and not for water or food
15 Full Test 07 (NEET)
supply are examples of commensalism.
(3) Sea-anemone on hermit crab is an example
of protocooperation.
(4) Mutualism, protocooperation,
commensalism cannot be included under
symbiosis
146. Choose correct about pollen grain wall-
(i) It has two layered prominent wall
(ii) Hard outer layered prominent wall
(iii) Exine is composed of sporopollenin
(iv) Sporopollenin form continuous exine
(1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) i, ii, iii
(3) i, iii (4) i & iv
147. A mother who is blood type AB has a child AB
also. A potential father is blood type O. A
well informed geneticist concludes that _____.
(1) he cannot be the father
(2) he might be the father, but it is unlikely.
(3) he is very likely to be the father
(4) he or any other male of blood type O could
be the father
148. For the strand separation and stabilisation
during DNA replication which of the following
set of enzymes and proteins are required?
(1) SSBP, gyrase and primase
(2) Topoisomerase, helicase and ligase
(3) Gyrase, ligase and primase
(4) Topoisomerase, helicase and SSBP
149. Find the correct statement
(1) Wolffia is an angiosperm and is one of the
tallest trees
(2) Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas and Fucus
show haplontic life cycle
(3) Multicellular female gametophyte is
retained in megasporangium in Cycas
(4) Ovules are borne on microsporophylls in
Gymnosperms
150. During formation of mature male gametophyte, a
microspore mother cell undergoes
(1) One meiotic division
(2) One mitotic division
(3) One meiotic and one mitotic division
(4) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
/ 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Insect pest resistant plant, developed by the
introduction of genes of Bacillus thuringiensis is
(1) Golden rice (2) Tobacco plant
(3) Bt cotton (4) None of these
152. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
transport of oxygen.
(1) Low H+ concentration in alveoli favours
the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(2) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is mainly
related to partial pressure of CO2
(3) High pCO2 in tissues favours the
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
(4) High pO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin
153. First meiotic division of primary oocyte is
completed
(1) At the time of copulation within fallopian
tube
(2) After formation of ovum within the ovary
(3) At the time of fertilization within ampulla
(4) Within tertiary follicle prior to ovulation
154. Choose the correct pair from the following.
(1) DNA polymerases - Separate the two
strands of DNA
(2) Nucleases - Break proteins into amino
acids
(3) Restriction endonucleases - Make cuts at
specific positions within DNA
(4) Ligases - Break the DNA into fragments
155. The stage of Plasmodium that infects mosquito to
complete its sexual cycle is
(1) Sporozoites (2) Gametocytes
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
156. The end of T-wave in a standard ECG represents
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
(2) Depolarisation of ventricle
(3) The end of ventricular systole
(4) The end of joint diastole
157. Choose the correct statement.
(1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by disulphide bonds
(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
B-peptide
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
in Entamoeba coli in its active and
readymade form
16 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA
(4) In man, insulin is synthesized within α -
cells of pancreas
158. The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of
the forebrain. It secretes a hormone that plays a
role in the regulation of:
(a) Metabolism (b) Menstrual cycle
(c) Pigmentation (d) Swallowing
(e) Hunger
(1) a, b, and c (2) b, c, and e
(3) a, b, and d (4) c, d, and e
159. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
restriction enzymes.
(1) Restriction enzymes belong to a larger
class of enzymes called nucleases
(2) Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the
ends of DNA
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using
restriction enzymes at the place of DNA
ligases
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of DNA sequence
160. X" causes reabsorption of "Y" and water from the
distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to an
increase in "Z" and glomerular filtration rate(GFR)
Identify X, Y and Z.
(1) X: ADH; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure
(2) X: ADH; Y: K+; Z: Blood pressure
(3) X: Aldosterone; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure
(4) X: Aldosterone; Y: K+; Z: Ionic
Concentration
161. Which of the following will cause release of ovum
from the Graafian follicle?
(1) High concentration of progesterone
(2) High concentration of LH
(3) Low concentration of FSH
(4) Low concentration of estrogen
162. Wings of butterfly and wings of birds are
examples of
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Industrial melanism
(3) Natural selection
(4) Adaptive radiation
163. Select the option including all sexually transmitted
diseases.
(1) Syphilis, Tuberculosis, Genital warts
(2) Malaria, Filariasis, Gonorrhoea
 (3) Genital herpes, AIDS, Hepatitis-B (4) Amino acids by mixing CH4, H2, NH3
(4) AIDS, Filariasis, Hepatitis-B and water vapour at 800°C
164. Embryological support for evolution was proposed 170. Choose the incorrect statement with reference to
by restriction enzymes.
(1) Louis Pasteur (2) S. L. Miller (1) The specific palindromic sequence which
(3) Haldane (4) Ernst Haeckel is recognized by EcoRI is:
165. The acoelomate animals, which are triploblastic, 5’CTTAAG–3’
having dorso-ventrally flattened body, are placed 3’GAATTC–5’
in phylum (2) Restriction enzymes may cut the strands of
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes DNA a little away from the centre of the
(3) Annelida (4) Ctenophora palindrome sites
166. Which of the following is more likely to cause (3) Restriction endonucleases are used in
diuresis? genetic engineering to form recombinant
(1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal molecule of DNA
parts of renal tubules due to aldosterone (4) These enzymes cut the strands of DNA
(2) Decrease in secretion of atrial natriuretic between the same two bases on the
factor which causes vasoconstriction opposite strands
(3) Increase in secretion of renin by JG cells 171. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
(4) Less water reabsorption from distal parts peptide bond, respectively in their structure.
of nephrons and collecting ducts due to (1) Glycerol, Glucose
under secretion of ADH (2) Starch, Inulin
167. Match the following. (3) Gingelly oil, Insulin
Column I Column II (4) Glycogen, Pepsin
A. Eosinophils I. Synthesize and release 172. Pick out the incorrect statement.
anticoagulant heparin (1) Most scientists believe that chemical
evolution preceded the appearance of the
B. Basophils II. Associated with allergic
first cellular forms of life.
reactions of the body
(2) Corpus leutum secretes large amount of
C. Neutrophils III. Produce memory cells estrogen which is essential for maintenance
after first encounter of endometrium.
D. Lymphocytes IV. Act as a cellular barrier (3) Inability to conceive or produce children
of innate immunity even after 2 years of unprotected sexual
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV) cohabitation is called infertility.
(2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (I) (4) All of the above
(3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) 173. Assertion (A): Earthworms are metamerically
(4) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) segmented invertebrates.
168. Statement I: GMO reduces the nutritional value Reason (R): Their body is externally and
of food. internally divided into segments with a serial
Statement II: GMO increases the post harvesting repetition of at least some organs.
losses. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
(1) Statement I is False & II is True correct explanation of (A).
(2) Statement I & II are False (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
(3) Statement I is True & II is False the correct explanation of (A).
(4) None of these. (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
169. From his experiments, S.L Miller produced (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(1) Amino acids by mixing CH3, H2, NH4 174. Hyperglycemia, ketonuria and glycosuria are
and water vapour at 800°C indicative of
(2) Sugars by mixing CH4, NH3, H2 and (1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Diabetes mellitus
water vapour at 600°C (3) Addison’s disease (4) Dwarfism
(3) Nitrogen bases by mixing CH3, N2, NH3
and water vapour at 600°C

17 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

175. Match the following columns and select the (2) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
correct option. (3) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
Column I Column II (4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
181. The gene sequence encoding resistance to
A. Body is devoid of scales I. Torpedo
antibiotic, which helps in identifying and
and paired fins
eliminating non-transformants and selectively
B. Presence of electric II. Scoliodon permitting the growth of transformants is called
organ (1) ori
C. Pelvic fins bear claspers III. Petromyzon (2) Palindromic sequence
D. Presence of air bladder IV. Pterophyllum (3) Cloning site
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) (4) Selectable marker
(2) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I) 182. Corpus callosum, a tract of nerve fibres present in
(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV) our brain, connects
(4) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I) (1) Forebrain to midbrain
176. Choose the correct statement with reference to (2) Midbrain to hindbrain
neural system of cockroach. (3) Left and right cerebral hemispheres
(1) If head of cockroach is removed, it may (4) Association areas with brain stem
live for few days because head holds only a 183. Match the following.
bit of a nervous system
Column I Column II
(2) The cockroach has only four ganglia in
A. Placenta I. Secretes hormones which
thorax
(3) The supra-oesophageal ganglion of are either proteins or
cockroach is not considered as its brain steroids in chemical nature
(4) The nervous system of cockroach is not B. Zona II. Acellular layer of the ovum
spread throughout the body pellucida formed by secondary oocyte
177. All of the following organisms have evolved due C. Cells of III. Rich in calcium, fructose and
to changes in environment brought about by Sertoli certain enzymes
anthropogenic action except: D. Seminal IV. Release certain factors
(1) Drug resistant eukaryotic organisms plasma which help in
(2) Bacteria resistant to antibiotics spermiogenesis
(3) Darwin finches of Galapagos islands
(4) Man-created new breed of cattle which (1) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
produces protein enriched milk (2) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
178. Identify the aromatic amino acid from the (3) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
following. (4) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Arginine 184. Which of the following characteristics is shown by
(3) Alanine (4) Tryptophan hyperthyroidism?
179. Separated bands of DNA in agarose gel (1) Enlargement of thyroid gland
electrophoresis observed under UV radiation are (2) BMR( Basal Metabolic Rate) increase
stained with (3) Weight loss
(1) Methylene blue (2) Ethidium bromide (4) All of the above
(3) Chilled ethanol (4) All of the above 185. Select the incorrect match.
180. Match the following. (1) Lactational amenorrhea - Natural method
Column I Column II of contraception
A. Pituitary gland I. Diabetes mellitus (2) Lippes loop - Barrier method of
contraception
B. Thyroid gland II. Acromegaly
(3) Progestasert - Hormone releasing IUD
C. Adrenal gland III. Exopthalmic goitre (4) Sterilization - Terminal method to prevent
D. Pancreas IV. Addison’s disease any more pregnancies
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

18 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

 SECTION - B
186. Match the following diseases with the causative 190. Select the incorrect statement with reference to
organism and select the correct option. transgenic animals.
Column I Column II (1) The animals that have had their DNA
A. Elephantiasis I. Trichophyton manipulated are termed as transgenic
animals
B. Ringworm II. Wuchereria malayi
(2) Human protein, α -1-antitrypsin is used to
C. Malignant III. Entamoeba histolytica treat emphysema
malaria (3) Transgenic mice are being used to test the
D. Amoebiasis IV. Plasmodium falciparum safety of the polio vaccine
(1) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) (4) The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced
(2) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) human α -lactalbumin enriched milk (2.4
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) g/litre)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) 191. Assertion (A): The descending limb of Henle’s
187. Select the correct events that occur during loop contain hypertonic glomerular filtrate and
expiration. in ascending loop glomerular filtrate becomes
(a) Contraction of diaphragm hypotonic
(b) Pulmonary volume decreases as diaphragm Reason (R): The descending Henle’s loop is
becomes dome shaped impermeable to Na+ and ascending Henle’s loop
(c) Increase in intra-pulmonary pressure is impermeable to water.
(d) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
(1) a and b (2) b and c correct explanation of (A).
(3) c and d (4) a and d (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
188. Statement I- All members of Animal Kingdom the correct explanation of (A).
are multicellular. (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
Statement II-Protozoans are animals. (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(1) Statement I is False & II is True 192. Match the following.
(2) Statement I & II are False Column I Column II
(3) Statement I is True & II is False
A. cry gene I. A single stranded DNA
(4) None.
189. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. or RNA, tagged with a
radioactive molecule
Column I Column II B. Adenosine II. Isolated from Bacillus
A. Thermus I. First rDNA deaminase thuringiensis
aquaticus constructed by Cohen C. RNA III. Enzyme which is crucial
and Boyer interference for the immune system
B. Agrobacterium II. Forms insecticidal to function
tumefaciens proteins in inactive D. Probe IV. Involves silencing of a
form specific mRNA
C. Bacillus III. Used as a vector to
thuringiensis introduce nematode (1) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
specific genes into the (2) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
host plant (3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
D. Salmonella IV. Taq polymerase is (4) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
typhimurium used for extension 193. Which of the following statements are true for
step in PCR phylum Chordata?
(a) In cephalochordates, notochord extends from
(1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) head to tail and it is present throughout their
(2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) life
(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) (b) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates
(4) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I) are not vertebrates

19 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA

 (c) Central neural system is dorsal and solid 198. Chikungunya disease spreads through the bite of
(d) Chordates are divided into two subphyla, which mosquito?
Agnatha and Gnathostomata (1) Aedes aegypti mosquito
(1) a and b (2) b and c (2) Culex mosquito
(3) c and d (4) a and c (3) Anopheles mosquito
194. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (4) None of the above
(i) Maximum iodine is stored in thyroid gland 199. Assertion (A): The dark band on myofibril is
(ii) Calcitonin is a hormone secreted by anisotropic band
parafollicular cells of thyroid gland. Reason (R): The light band on myofibril is
(iii) Calcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood isotropic band.
Ca++ level (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
(iv) TCT is hypocalcemic hormone correct explanation of (A).
(1) All are correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
(2) All are wrong the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(4) Only (iv) is correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
195. Assertion (A): Terrestrial adaptation necessitated 200. Match the following.
the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes. Column I Column II
Reason (R): They need to conserve water.
A. Copulatory P. Present on Ist digit of
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
pad in male forelimbs
correct explanation of (A).
frog
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A). B. In hibernation, Q. Present on Ist digit of
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. frog respires hind limbs
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. C. Optic lobes in R. Through skin
196. Match the following. a frog are a
Column I Column II part of
A. Inhibitor I. Most abundant protein in D. Bidder’s canal S. Through lungs
animal world T. Fore brain
B. Abrin II. Homopolysaccharide U. Mid brain
present in exoskeleton of V. Present in female
insects frog’s kidney for the
C. Collagen III. A plant toxin, considered as passage of ova
secondary metabolite W. present in male
D. Chitin IV. A chemical which shuts off frog’s kidney for the
enzyme activity passage of sperms
(1) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II) (1) (A) – (P), (B) – (R), (C) – (W), (D) – (V)
(2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) (2) (A) – (P), (B) – (R), (C) – (U), (D) – (W)
(3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) (3) (A) – (R), (B) – (P), (C) – (T), (D) – (W)
(4) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I) (4) (A) – (Q), (B) – (S), (C) – (T), (D) – (V)
197. Statement A : Impulse transmission across a
chemical synapse is always faster than that across
an electrical synapse.
Statement B : Electrical synapses are rare in our
body.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

20 Full Test 07 (NEET) / 09–04–2024 / Code: FTQN07 / CHA