14/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 8
Topics covered :
Physics : Magnetism and matter, Electromagnetic inductions, Alternating current, Electromagnetic waves
Chemistry : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Botany : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and
Populations
Zoology : Human Health & Diseases

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Which of the following is true? 4. The magnetic moment of a steel wire is M. It is
(1) Diamagnetism is temperature dependent bent into a circular arc which is making an angle
60° at its centre. The new magnetic moment of
(2) Paramagnetism is temperature dependent the circular arc will be
(3) Paramagnetism is temperature independent 2M 4M
(1) (2)
(4) Both (1) and (2) π π
2. A magnet of magnetic moment 4J/T is aligned in 3M 3M
(3) (4)
the direction of magnetic field of 0.2 T. The net 2π π
work done to slowly rotate the magnet by 180° 5. A domain in a ferromagnetic substance is in the
form of cube of side length 1 µm. If it contains
(1) 0.8 J (2) 0.4 J 4 × 1010 atoms and each atomic dipole has a
(3) 1.6 J (4) 1.2 J dipole moment of 3 × 10–24 Am2, then the
magnetisation of the domain is (consider all
3. A vertical dip needle dips initially in the magnetic
atomic dipoles are aligned in same direction)
meridian when it shows an angle of dip θ at a (1) 7.2 × 105 Am–1 (2) 3.6 × 105 Am–1
place. The dip circle is rotated through an angle (3) 1.2 × 10 Am
5 –1 (4) 2.4 × 105 Am–1
60° and then it shows an angle of dip θ′, then 6. A paramagnetic liquid is filled in a glass U-tube of
tan θ′ which one limb is placed between the pole pieces
is of an electromagnet. When the field is switched
tan θ
on the liquid in the limb which is in the field will
(1) 3 (2) 2 be
(1) Rise (2) Fall
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) Remains stationary (4) First rise then fall

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

7. There are two coils A and B as shown in figure 10. Two coils of turns 5 and 10 respectively are kept
(coil B is fixed). A current starts flowing in B as close to each other. Current passing through the
shown, when A moves away from B and stops first is reduced at rate r, and emf 6 mV is
developed across the other coil. If second coil
when A stops moving. We can refer that carries current which is reduced at the rate 2r, the
emf induced across the first coil will be
(1) 6 mV (2) 3 mV
(3) 9 mV (4) 12 mV
11. Two circular coil can be arranged in any of three
situation as shown in figure. Their mutual
(1) There is a constant current in the counter inductance will be
clockwise direction in A
(2) There is a constant current in the clockwise
direction in A
(3) There is a varying current in A in counter
clockwise direction
(4) There is no current in A (1) Minimum in situation (B)
8. A uniform magnetic field in a certain region is (2) Minimum in situation (C)
(3) Minimum in situation (A)
varying with time (t) as B = B cos ( ωt ) kˆ and a
o
(4) Same in all situation
coil of radius a with resistance R is placed in the
12. Two inductors connected in parallel are
x – y plane with its centre at the origin in the equivalent to a single inductor of inductance
magnetic field as shown in figure. The magnitude 2 H. When connected in series the inductors are
π equivalent to a inductor of inductance of 9 H. The
of current in the coil at t = will be difference in their respective inductances is
2ω
(neglect mutual inductances)
(1) 2 H (2) 4 H
(3) 6 H (4) 3 H
13. A metal rod of length 2 m is rotating about its end
with an angular velocity of 100 rad/s in a plane
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of B. If
the potential difference between the end of the
rod is 60 V. Then magnitude of magnetic field B
B0 πa 2ω 2B0 πa 2ω
(1) (2) will be
2R R
(1) 1 T (2) 0.6 T
B0 πa 2ω (3) 2 T (4) 0.3 T
(3) (4) Zero
R 14. The current carrying wire and the rod AB are in
9. Magnetic flux is changed through a coil of the same plane. The rod moves perpendicular to
the wire with velocity v as shown in figure. Which
resistance 5 Ω. As a result, an induced current is
one of the following statements is true about
developed in it, which varies with time as shown induced emf in the rod?
in the figure. The magnitude of net change in flux
through the coil in Wb is

(1) End A will be at higher potential with respect

to end B
(2) End A will be at lower potential with respect
to end B
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) There will be no induced emf in the rod
(3) 1 (4) 6 (4) End A and B will be at same potential

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-8 (Code-A)

15. The magnetic energy stored in the inductor long 21. When the current in the portion of the circuit as
after switch is closed as shown in figure will be shown in the figure is 4 A and increasing at the
rate 2 A/s, then the measured potential difference
across a and b (Vb – Va) is 12 V. However, when
the current is 4 A and decreasing at the rate of
2 A/s, then the measured potential difference
across a and b (Vb – Va) is 8 V. The value of R
and L are
(1) 8 J (2) 16 J
(3) 4 J (4) 12 J
16. If the current is halved, then the deflection is not
halved in
(1) A tangent galvanometer
(2) A moving coil galvanometer
(3) Both tangent and moving coil galvanometer
(1) 2.5 Ω and 1 H respectively
(4) None of these
(2) 5 Ω and 2 H respectively
17. A small bar magnet of magnetic moment
1.44 A m2 is placed horizontally with the north (3) 1 Ω and 1 H respectively
pole pointing towards magnetic north. The (4) 2 Ω and 2 H respectively
position of the neutral point if the horizontal
component of earth’s magnetic field is 18 µT 22. A solenoid has a core of material with relative
permeability 400. The winding of the solenoid are
(1) At a distance 10 cm on the axial line
insulated from the core and carry a current
(2) At a distance 20 cm on the equitorial line 4 A. If the number of turns is 2000 per metre. The
(3) At a distance 10 cm on the equitorial line value magnetic field B inside the solenoid is
(4) At a distance 20 cm on the axial line nearly
18. The permanent magnetic moment of the atom of (1) 1 T (2) 4 T
a material is zero. The material (3) 2 T (4) 6 T
(1) Must be paramagnetic 23. As the frequency of an A.C. series circuit
(2) Must be diamagnetic increases, the current first increase, attains an
extremely high value, and then decreases. What
(3) Must be ferromagnetic
combination of circuit elements is most likely to
(4) May be paramagnetic comprise the circuit?
19. A conducting rod is moved with a constant (1) Inductor and capacitor only

velocity v in a magnetic field. Among the
following cases a potential difference appears (2) Resistor and inductor only
across the two ends. (symbols have usual (3) Resistor and capacitor only
meaning)
(4) Only resistor
 
(1) If v  l 24. An inductor of reactance 3 Ω and a resistor of
  4 Ω are connected in series to the terminal of
(2) If v B
10 V (r.m.s) A.C. source. The power dissipated in
  
(3) If (v × B )  l the circuit is
   (1) 8 W (2) 12 W
(4) If (v × B ) ⊥ l
(3) 20 W (4) 16 W
20. The ratio of primary to secondary turns in a
25. A pure inductor of 50.0 mH is connected to a
transformer is 2 : 5. If the input power be P, then
the output power, neglecting all losses, will be source of 220 V. If the frequency of the source is
equal to 50 HZ. Then r.m.s current in the circuit is nearly
(1) 2.5P (2) 2P (1) 28 A (2) 14 A
(3) P (4) 1.5P (3) 12 A (4) 24 A

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

1 30. The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC with

26. The power factor of an R – L circuit is
3
frequency of A.C is doubled. Then new power
factor of the R – L circuit will be
1 1
(1) (2)
3 3
1 1
(3) (4)
2 2
27. In an L – C – R series AC circuit at resonance
(1) Power dissipated is minimum
(2) Power dissipated is maximum
(3) The capacitive reactance is more than
inductive reactance
(4) The capacitive reactance is less than
inductive reactance
28. A complex current wave is given by
i = (8 + 12 sin100πt) A. Its average value over
one time period is given as
(1) 14 A (2) 10 A
(3) 8 A (4) Zero
29. The voltage across a capacitor is represented as
shown in figure. Which one of the following
curves in the figure will represent the
corresponding current?
. If the frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit, then for
what frequency point the circuit is essentially
capacitive
(1) A (2) C
(3) B (4) Both (A) and (C)
31. Among the following set of values of resistance (R),
inductance (L) and capacitance (C), the quality
factor is minimum for
(1) R = 4Ω, L = 1 µH, C = 64 µF
(2) R = 4Ω, L = 1 µH, C = 1 µF
(3) R = 8Ω, L = 1 µH, C = 64 µF
(4) R = 8Ω, L = 1 µH, C = 1 µF
32. The self-inductance of the motor of an electric fan
is 12 H. In order to impart maximum power at 60
HZ it Should be connected to the capacitance of
(1) 30 µF (2) 70 µF
(3) 0.587 µF (4) 28.6 µF
33. An alternating voltage V = 60 sin 50t + 80 cos 50t
is applied to a resistor of resistance 10 Ω. The
r.m.s value of current through the resistor is
(1) 5 2 A (2) 10 A

5
(1) (3) A (4) 10 2A
2
34. An ac source rated 50 V (rms) supplies a current
of 10 A (rms) to a circuit. The average power
delivered by the source

(2) (1) Must be 500 W

(2) Must be less than 500 W
(3) May be greater than 500 W
(4) May be less than 500 W
35. A capacitor of capacity C is given charge Q and
(3) then connected to the coil of inductance L by
closing the switch. The maximum current flowing
in the circuit at any later time will be
Q Q
(1) (2)
LC 2 LC
(4)
2Q 2Q
(3) (4)
LC π LC

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-8 (Code-A)

36. A charged capacitor is discharged through a (1) 188 m (2) 30 m

resistance R with time constant τ. Both are now (3) 60 m (4) 94 m
placed in series across an AC source of angular
41. The ratio of contributions made by the electric
1
frequency ω = . The impedance of the circuit field and magnetic field component to the
2τ intensity of an EM wave is
will be
(1) c : 1 (2) c2 : 1
(1) R (2) 3R
(3) 1 : 1 (4) c :1
(3) 5R (4) 2R 42. Which among the following are true for gamma
37. The graph representing the variation of induced rays?
magnetic field (B) in the gap of parallel plate (1) They show fluoroscence
condenser with circular plates during its charging
with the distance (r) from the axis of the gap is (2) They are used in cancer therapy
(3) They have a high penetrating power
(4) All of the above
(1) (2) 43. The amplitude of magnetic field in a region
carried by an electromagnetic wave is 0.2 µT.
The intensity of the wave is nearly
(1) 2.4 W/m2 (2) 4.8 W/m2
(3) 1.2 W/m2 (4) 3.6 W/m2
(3) (4)
44. Radiation pressure on any surface :
(1) Is dependent on wavelength of light used
only
38. The voltage between the plates of a parallel plate
condenser of capacity 1 µF is changing at a rate (2) Is independent of frequency and nature of
of 5 V/s. The displacement current is surface
(1) 2.5 µA (2) 10 µA (3) Independent on the nature of source from
which light is coming and on nature of
(3) 1 µA (4) 5 µA surface on which it is falling
39. Light with energy flux 36 W/m2 is incident (4) Is dependent on nature of surface and
normally on a perfectly absorbing square surface intensity of light used
of side 2 m. The force experienced by it is
45. An EM wave transport energy along +ve x-axis. If
(1) 0.48 µN (2) 0.24 µN at any instant magnetic field vector is along
(3) 0.12 µN (4) 0.36 µN +ve z–axis. The electric field vector at this instant
40. An LC oscillation circuit contains inductance along
L = 0.25 µH and capacitance C = 0.01 µF. The (1) +ve x-axis (2) –ve y-axis
wavelength of electromagnetic wave generated (3) +ve y-axis (4) –ve x-axis
nearly

CHEMISTRY
46. Among the following strongest nucleophile in 48. Which alcohol does not give colour in Victor
vapour phase is Meyer test?

(1) F− (2) Cl−

(1)
(3) Br − (4) I−
47. Salicylic acid on treatment with phenol in acidic (2)
medium gives
(1) Oil of wintergreen (3)
(2) Aspirin
(3) Salol
(4)
(4) Mesityloxide

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

49. Which ether is most difficult to cleave by HI? 53. Most acidic compound among the following is

(1)
(1) (2)

(2)

(3) (4)
(3)

54. Which of the following is called westrosol?

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50. Glycerol on treatment with excess of HI finally
(1)
gives
(1) (2)
(2)

(3)
(3) (4)
(4)
51. The reaction, 55. When ethyl magnesium chloride reacts with
phenol, the product obtained is
(1) Benzene (2) Ethane
(3) Ethylbenzene (4) Ethanol
is known as 56. Optically active compound among the following is
(1) Fittig reaction (2) Swarts reaction
(3) Wurtz-Fittig reaction (4) Ullmann reaction
52. The major product (A) in the following reaction is (1)

(2)

(1)

(3)
(2)

(4)
(3)
57. In which reactions, new C – C bond formation
take(s) place?
(1) Swarts reaction
(4) (2) Finkelstein reaction
(3) Reimer Tiemann reaction
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-8 (Code-A)

58. Glycerol on oxidation with periodic acid gives

(1) Methanal (1)
(2) Formic acid
(3) Acetaldehyde (2)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
59. Select the correct statement among the following
(1) SN1 reaction is favoured by polar aprotic (3)
solvent
(2) SN 2 reaction is favoured by polar protic
(4)
solvent
(3) SN 2 reaction is accompanied by retention of
64. Total number of optically active compound(s)
configuration formed in the given reaction is/are
(4) SN 2 reaction passes through a transition
state
60. Most reactive compound towards SN 2 reaction is

(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) (2) (3) 3 (4) 0
65. Which among the following compound react
fastest by SN1 mechanism?
(3) (4)

61. Consider the following reaction

(1) (2)

Major product (A) is

(3) (4)

(1) (2) 66. Chloroform reacts with aq. KOH to form which of
the following compound?
(1) Phosgene
(3) (4) (2) Ethanol
(3) Acetaldehyde
62. Which alcohol will give a white turbidity in 5- 10
minutes on reaction with Lucas reagent at room (4) Potassium formate
temperature? 67. Raschig process is used for the commercial
(1) Pentan–1–ol preparation of
(2) 2–methylbutan–2–ol
(3) 3–methylbutan –1–ol
(4) Pentan–2–ol (1) (2)
63. In the given reaction sequence product (B) is
(CH ) CO-Na+

3 3
Δ
→ A(Major)

(i) (CH COO) Hg/CH OH

(3) (4)

3 2
(ii) NaBH /OH
3
→ B(Major)
4

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

78. The major product(A) in the following reaction is

68. The configuration of the compound

is
(1) R (2) S (1) CH3 – CH = CH2 (2) CH2 = CH2
(3) E (4) Z (3) CH≡CH (4) CH2=C=CH2
69. Number of isomers obtained (including 79. When phenol is treated with Br2 in solvents of low
stereoisomers) on dibromination of cyclopropane polarity such as CS2 at low temperature, ____
is/are phenol are obtain
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) Monosubstituted
(3) 3 (4) 4 (2) Disubstituted
70. Minimum density among the following is of (3) Trisubstituted
(1) CH3 I (2) CH3Br (4) Tetrasubstituted
80. The correct order of relative ease of migration of
(3) CH3F (4) H2O
groups during pinacol to pinacolone
71. Which can act ambident nucleophile? rearrangement is
(1) OH− (2) NH3 (1) Ph > Me3C > MeCH2 > Me
(2) Me > MeCH2 > Me3C > Ph
(3) CN− (4) Cl−
(3) Ph > Me > MeCH2 > Me3C
72. In Groove’s process, the reagent used is
(4) Me3C > MeCH2 > Me > Ph
(1) HCl in presence of anhy. ZnCl2
81. Phenyl acetate on heating at higher temperature
(2) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine (430 K or above) in presence of anhy AlCl3
(3) NaBr in presence of conc. H2SO4 rearranges to form
(4) KI in 95% H3PO4 (1) o-hydroxyacetophenone
(2) o-hydroxybenzophenone
73. The reactivity order of halogens towards ethane
is (3) o-hydroxymethylbenzoate
(4) p-hydroxymethylbenzoate
(1) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
82. Select the correct statement(s) regarding
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(A)
74. Presence of which of the following group makes
aryl halides more suspectable to nucleophilic (1) It is more reactive than dimethyl ether
substitution? towards electrophiles
(1) –CF3 (2) –CH3 (2) Attack of nucleophile in acidic medium
preferably occurs at more substituted carbon
(3) –Cl (4) –OH
(3) Attack of nucleophile in basic medium
75. The product obtained by the action of PCl5 on preferably occurs at less substituted carbon
acetone is (4) All of these
(1) ClCH2COCH2Cl (2) CH3COCHCl2 83. The compound which will boil at highest
(3) CH3CCl2CHO (4) CH3CCl2CH3 temperature is
(1) HO–CH2CH2–OH (2) C2H5–O–C2H5
76. Peroxide effect is not observed in
(3) CH2Cl2 (4) C2H5OH
(1) Propylene (2) Ethene
84. Among the following most soluble compound in
(3) Pent–1–ene (4) Isobutylene water is
77. 1°–Alcohol can be obtained by the action of (1) Chloroform
____on CH3CH2MgBr followed by hydrolysis
(2) Ethanol
(1) Dry O2 (2) Ethylene oxide (3) Carbon tetrachloride
(3) Methanal (4) All of these (4) Diethyl ether

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-8 (Code-A)

85. Which among the following alcohol vapours on 88. Polar aprotic solvent(s) among the following
passing over heated copper at 573 K forms is/are
ketone? (1) DMSO (2) Methanol
(3) Water (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) (2) 89. The compound which is optically inactive is

(3) (4)
(1) (2)
86. The C – O – C bond angle in dimethyl ether is
(1) 109.5° (2) 107.5°
(3) 111.7° (4) 105.5°
87. Consider the following reaction sequence,
(3) (4)

Select the correct statement(s) among the 90. The product formed between the reaction of
following sodium phenoxide and ethyl iodide is
(1) The degree of unsaturation of B is 4 (1) Phenetole
(2) In presence of air, B is slowly oxidised to dark (2) 4–ethyl phenol
coloured mixture
(3) 2–ethyl phenol
(3) C does not react with tollen’s reagent
(4) Anisole
(4) All of these

BOTANY
91. Propagation of large number of plants in very 96. Consider the following statements (a-d) and
short duration is called select the option which includes all the correct
(1) Biofortification ones only.
(2) Micropropagation (a) Wheat variety Atlas 66 with high protein
content has been used as a donor for
(3) Protoplast fusion improving cultivated wheat.
(4) Somatic hybridisation (b) SCP is alternative source of proteins for
92. “Sonalika” and “Kalyan sona” are the varieties of animal and human nutrition.
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (c) The capacity to generate a whole plant from
(3) Sugarcane (4) Maize any cell/explant is called totipotency.
(d) In tissue culture, the optimum pH should be
93. ‘Pusa Komal’ developed by hybridisation and
7.5.
selection for disease resistance against bacterial
blight is a variety of (1) (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) Chilli (2) Cauliflower
97. Which of the given is vitamin A enriched
(3) Wheat (4) Cowpea vegetable crop developed by IARI, New Delhi?
94. Select the incorrect match (1) Pumpkin (2) Tomato
(1) Potato – Late blight (3) Bitter gourd (4) Bathua
(2) Rice – Loose smut 98. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. somatic
(3) Sugarcane – Red strip hybridisation.
(4) Wheat – Brown rust (1) It is fusion of protoplast of two plants
belonging to same variety
95. A gene responsible for dwarfing in rice, dee-geo-
(2) Cells are first treated with pectinase and
woo-gen, was reported in
cellulase
(1) Taiwan (3) Naked protoplast are fused by electrofusion
(2) Philippines or chemofusion
(3) India (4) PEG or sodium nitrate are used during
(4) Australia chemofusion of protoplast

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

99. The crucial step for the success of breeding 105. Find the incorrect match.
experiment is Variety Resistance to
(1) Germplasm collection (1) Pusa Gaurav – Aphids
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents (2) Pusa Sem 2 – Jassids
(3) Cross hybridisation (3) Pusa Sawani – Aphids
(4) Selection and testing of superior (4) Pusa A-4 – Shoot borer
recombinants 106. The technology of biogas production was
100. Match the column I with II and select the correct developed in India mainly due to the efforts of
option. (1) Ministry of Environment and Forest
Column I Column II (2) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)
only
a. Meristem culture (i) Plants genetically
(3) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
identical to the
(KVIC) only
original plant
produced during (4) Both IARI and KVIC
tissue culture 107. Which of the given cyanobacteria fixes nitrogen in
leaves of water fern?
b. Somaclone (ii) Recovery of
healthy plants (1) Anabaena cycadae (2) Nostoc
from diseased (3) Anabaena azollae (4) Oscillatoria
plants 108. Large holed swiss cheese is ripened by
c. Domestication (iii) Purposeful (1) Penicillium (2) Propionibacterium
manipulation of (3) Leuconostoc (4) Streptococcus
plant species
109. Select the incorrect match w.r.t microbes and
d. Plant breeding (iv) Bringing species their applications.
under human
(1) Aspergillus – Flavouring and
management
niger preservation of
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) foods
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) Acetobacter – Employed in dyeing
101. Cereals are commonly deficient in aceti
(1) Lysine and cysteine (3) Clostridium – Used for making
butylicum rancid butter
(2) Lysine and methionine
(3) Lysine and tryptophan (4) Lactobacillus – Curd
(4) Methionine and cysteine 110. Which of the given is used as
102. In Abelmoschus esculentus, resistance to yellow immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant
mosaic virus was brought about by patients?
(1) Tissue culture (1) Statin (2) Lipase
(2) Conventional breeding (3) Cyclosporin A (4) Streptokinase
111. Which of the given is major component of biogas
(3) Mutation
w.r.t. their percentage composition?
(4) Biofortification
(1) CH4
103. Which of the given characteristics develops
resistance to stem borer in maize? (2) CO2
(1) Low nitrogen only (3) H2
(2) Low aspartic acid and sugar (4) H2S
(3) High aspartic acid only 112. Which of the given stages of sewage treatment
(4) Low nitrogen, sugar and high aspartic acid removes floating debris?
104. Sugarcane of North India, i.e., Saccharum barberi (1) Primary treatment
had (2) Secondary treatment
(1) High sugar content (2) Thick stem (3) Tertiary treatment
(3) Poor sugar content (4) High yield (4) Biological treatment

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-8 (Code-A)

113. The microbial biocontrol agent that can be 116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
introduced to control butterfly caterpillars is ‘Methanogens’.
(1) Trichoderma (1) Grow anaerobically on cellulosic material
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) Produce large amount of CH4 along with CO2
(3) Azotobacter and H2
(4) Aulosira (3) Promotes the growth of bacteria and fungi
114. Identify the viruses given in figure (a-c) and select present in sludge in anaerobic sludge
the correct option. digester
(4) Are present in rumen of cattle
117. Read the following statements and select the
option which is true for them.
Statement A : Dragonflies are useful to get rid of
aphids.
Statement B : The majority of baculoviruses
used as biocontrol agents are in the genus
Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
118. During primary treatment in STP, all the solids
a b c settle form the A , and the supernatant form
the B
(1) TMV Adeno- Bacterio-
virus phage (1) A- Primary sludge B- Primary effluent
(2) Adeno- Bacterio TMV (2) A- Primary effluent B- Primary sludge
virus -phage
(3) A- Primary sludge B- Activated sludge
(3) TMV Bacterio Adeno-
-phage virus (4) A- Activated sludge B- Primary effluent

(4) Bacterio- Adeno- TMV 119. In the production of which of the following, yeast
phage virus is not used?
(1) Bread (2) Toddy
115. Read the given statements (A-D) stating true (T)
(3) Beer (4) Dosa
or false (F) and select the correct option.
120. Puffed-up appearance of dough is due to
A. Antibiotics are the chemical substances
production of
which are produced by some microbes and
can kill or retard the growth of other (1) CO2 only
microbes. (2) Both CO2 and ethanol
B. Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with
fungal filaments. (3) Lactic acid
C. Raising of crops through the use of chemical (4) CO2 and starch
fertilizer is organic forming. 121. Lichens are the example of
D. IPM refers to integration of tactis for control of (1) Mutualism (2) Competition
single pest on one or more crops.
(3) Predation (4) Amensalism
A B C D 122. The influence of environmental resistance over
(1) T F F F the biotic potential is denoted by

(2) T T T T  1− K  K −N
(1)   (2)  
 N   K 
(3) T T F T
N 1− N
(4) F F T T (3) (4)
K K

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

123. Bear escapes in time during winter by a process 130. Select the correct graphical representation of
called organismic response to abiotic factors w.r.t. all
(1) Aestivation (2) Hibernation birds and mammals.
(3) Diapause (4) Eluviation
124. If in a pond there are 30 lotus plants last year and
through reproduction 12 new plants are added. (1) (2)
Taking the current population as 42, calculate the
birth rate (in offsprings per lotus per year)
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.8
(3) (4)
(4) 0.6
125. When does the growth of a population following
the geometric growth model said to be zero?
131. Consider the following four conditions (a-d) and
N
(1) When equals zero select the correct pair of them as adaptation to
K environment in Kangaroo rat.
(2) When intrinsic rate of natural increase equals (a) Capable of meeting all of its water
zero requirements through its internal fat
N oxidation.
(3) When equals unity
K (b) Can survive below 0°C.
(4) When intrinsic rate of natural increase is (c) Can concentrate its urine.
exactly one (d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis.
126. An ecologist study the population of Drosophila.
(1) (a), (b) (2) (c), (d)
He found that the average natality was 200,
average mortality 180, immigration 20 and (3) (a), (c) (4) (b), (d)
emigration 30. Select the most appropriate 132. Which of the given biome has maximum annual
impact w.r.t. the population size of Drosophila. precipitation?
(1) Expand (1) Temperate forest
(2) Stable (2) Coniferous forest
(3) Zero (3) Tropical rain forest
(4) Declines (4) Grassland
127. In which of the given interactions, both partners
133. Which one of the given characteristics of soil
striving for the same resource?
does not determine water-holding capacity?
(1) Commensalism
(1) Soil composition
(2) Predation
(2) Grain size
(3) Competition
(3) pH
(4) Protocooperation
(4) Aggregation
128. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘Altitude
sickness’. 134. The number of deaths in the population during a
(1) Experienced when body does not get enough given period refers to
oxygen (1) Mortality
(2) Body decreases RBC’s production (2) Natality
(3) Decreases binding capacity of haemoglobin (3) Immigration
(4) Increases breathing rate (4) Emigration
129. Penicillium secretes penicillin, that inhibits the 135. Most fascinating case of mutualism in nature is
growth of large number of bacteria. This type of seen in
interaction is
(1) Lichens
(1) Ammensalism
(2) Plant-pollinator interactions
(2) Parasitism
(3) Mycorrhiza
(3) Predation
(4) Rhizobium-leguminous root interactions
(4) Competition

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-8 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
136. Select the odd one w.r.t bacterial diseases 142. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Typhoid (1) Elephantiasis causes chronic inflammation of
(2) Poliomyelitis lymphatic vessels.
(3) Diphtheria (2) Poppy plant is used to obtain the drug
commonly called ‘smack’.
(4) Plague
(3) Cell-mediated immune response is mainly
137. The most serious form of malaria i.e., malignant
responsible for rejection of skin graft.
malaria which can be even fatal is caused by
(4) HIV is an enveloped virus containing only
(1) P. vivax
one molecule of single-stranded RNA and
(2) P. falciparum one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
(3) P. malaria 143. Read statements A and B and choose the
(4) P. ovale correct option.
138. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct A : Exposure to ionizing radiations like X-rays
option. and gamma rays can lead to increased
incidences of cancers.
Wuchereria : Filariasis :: ___________ :
Ringworms B : Oncogenic viruses are always responsible for
causing AIDS.
(1) Sporozoites
(2) Trichophyton (1) Only statement B is incorrect

(3) Ascaris (2) Only statement A is incorrect

(4) Entamoeba histolytica (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
139. Match column I and column II and select the (4) Both statements A and B are correct
correct option. 144. NACO conducts various awareness programmes
Column I Column II to educate people about
a. Physical barrier (i) Saliva, acid in the (1) Cancer (2) Drug abuse
stomach (3) AIDS (4) Alcohol addiction
b. Physiological barrier (ii) Mucus coating of 145. Read the statements (a – d).
epithelium
(a) Cancer cells invade and damage the
c. Cellular barrier (iii) Interferons surrounding normal tissues.
d. Cytokine barrier (iv) Monocytes, PMNLs (b) Cancer cells show contact inhibition.
(1) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii (c) Chronic intake of alcohol could lead to
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv cirrhosis of liver.
(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii (d) Benign tumours always are life-threatening.
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii How many of the above statements are wrong?
140. Which vector is responsible for recently reported (1) Two (2) Three
cases of chikungunya in many parts of India?
(3) Four (4) None
(1) Gambusia
146. Preformed antibodies are administered in the
(2) Periplaneta americana case(s) of
(3) Aedes mosquito (a) Likelihood of developing tetanus
(4) Tse-tse fly (b) Allergy
141. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t diseases and (c) Snake bite
one of their diagnostic tests.
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(1) Typhoid – Widal test
Choose the correct option.
(2) Cancer – MRI
(1) a only (2) a and c
(3) AIDS – ELISA
(4) Amoebic dysentery – Radiography (3) a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

147. is commonly called ‘crack’ and has a 153. Actively dividing mitotic cells and cancerous cells
action on central nervous system. show telomerase activity. of ‘c-
Excessive dosage of it causes . onc’ genes of the normal cells induce neoplastic
transformation of normal cells. Here X and Y are
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(1) X – High Y – Inactivation
A B C
(2) X – High Y – Activation
(1) Heroin Stimulating Euphoria
(3) X – Low Y – Inactivation
(2) Amphetamine Depressing Hallucinations
(4) X – Low Y – Activation
(3) Cocaine Stimulating Hallucinations
154. In malaria, the rupture of RBCs is associated with
(4) Benzodiazepine Stimulating Euphoria
the release of a toxic substance termed
148. The incorrect statement w.r.t smoking is
(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemozoin
(1) Tobacco contains a large number of harmful (3) Aflatoxin (4) Antitoxin
chemical substances including nicotine, an
alkaloid. 155. Which type of antibodies are primarily increased
in response to allergens like dust, animal dander,
(2) Nicotine stimulates adrenal glands to release etc?
adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. (1) IgA (2) IgE
(3) Smoking decreases carbon monoxide (CO) (3) IgM (4) IgG
content in blood and increases concentration
156. Select an opiate drug which suppresses brain
of haembound oxygen.
function, relieves intense pain and thus is used
(4) It is associated with increased incidences of as an analgesic post surgery.
emphysema and gastric ulcer. (1) LSD (2) Marijuana
149. Withdrawal syndrome is seen in the body when (3) Morphine (4) Cannabinoids
(1) Drugs produce a sense of euphoria and 157. Carcinogens in tobacco smoke are linked majorly
increased energy. to cancer of
(2) Dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly (1) Liver (2) Lungs
discontinued. (3) Skin (4) Bone
(3) Biological response modifiers such as 158. All of the following can be obtained from leaves
α-interferons are administered. of the below given plant except
(4) A person is unduly pressurised by peers.
150. Which of the following is not used as a treatment
to eliminate cancer cells?
(1) Surgery
(2) Radiotherapy
(3) Computed tomography
(4) Chemotherapy
151. How many of the following are secondary (1) Hashish (2) Ganja
lymphoid organs?
(3) Coke (4) Charas
159. Read the following statements.
(a) Blood cancer is also known as Leukaemia
(1) Three (b) The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to thymus
(2) Four (c) Alzheimer’s disease is an autoimmune
(3) Five disease
(4) Six (d) The causative agent of Gonorrhoea is
Neisseria
152. Each antibody molecule is made up of light and
heavy chains and is represented as Choose the option which includes only correct
statements.
(1) H1 L1 (2) H2 L2
(1) a, b and d (2) b and c
(3) H1 L2 (4) H2 L1
(3) c and d (4) a, b, c and d

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-8 (Code-A)

160. Which of the following antibodies crosses 169. The incorrect match among the given options is
placenta to confer immunity to the foetus? (1) Antigen Antibody – ELISA
(1) IgG (2) IgA interaction
(3) IgD (4) IgM (2) Hepatitis B vaccine – Recombinant DNA
161. Transmission of HIV does not generally occur by technology
(1) Sexual contact with infected person (3) IgM – Anamnestic
(2) Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood response
products (4) Sickle cell anaemia – Congenital disorder
(3) Sharing personal articles like comb and 170. Modern day life style has resulted in of
towels immunity and more sensitivity to which
(4) Sharing infected needles as in the case of could be due to protected environment. Here A
intravenous drug abusers and B are
162. The most feared property of malignant tumours is (1) A – lowering B – allergens
(1) Remaining confined to their original location (2) A – increase B – antibodies
(2) Encapsulation (3) A – lowering B – antibodies
(3) Metastasis (4) A – increase B – allergens
(4) Lysis of RBCs 171. Which among the following is a psychedelic
drug?
163. A pathogen is generally responsible for infecting
alveoli of lungs and filling it with fluid, fever, chills (1) Codeine (2) LSD
and grayish discoloration of lips and finger nails. (3) Caffeine (4) Adrenaline
Which is that pathogen? 172. A virus that attacks helper T-cells leading to
(1) Haemophilus influenzae decrease in their number and makes patient
(2) Pseudomonas immuno-deficient is
(3) Salmonella typhi (1) Rhino virus (2) HIV
(4) Mycobacterium (3) Hepatitis C virus (4) Rabies virus
164. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue constitutes 173. Read the statements (a to d) w.r.t vaccination
and immunisation and choose the option with
about percent of lymphoid tissue in
only incorrect statements.
human body. Here ‘X’ is
(a) Vaccines generate memory–B cells that
(1) 50 (2) 60
recognise the pathogen quickly on
(3) 70 (4) 80 subsequent exposure.
165. A large bean-shaped organ which has a large (b) In vaccination, small dose of live active
reservoir of erythrocytes is pathogen is introduced into the body.
(1) Liver (2) Spleen (c) When antibodies are formed by body’s own B
(3) Pancreas (4) Thymus cells it is called passive immunisation.
166. Lysozyme present in saliva destroys certain (d) The immune system plays an important role
in allergic reactions.
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Viruses (4) Nematodes
(2) (b) and (c)
167. In which form Plasmodium enters the human
body when an infected female Anopheles (3) (a), (b) and (d)
mosquito bites? (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Sporozoites (2) Gametocytes 174. How many of the following diseases spread by
(3) Schizonts (4) Ookinete faeco-oral route?

168. The immunity provided to the infant by colostrum Amoebiasis, Filariasis, Ascariasis,
in initial days of lactation is a type of Chikungunya, Malaria
(1) Natural active immunity (1) Two
(2) Artificial active immunity (2) Three
(3) Natural passive immunity (3) Four
(4) Artificial passive immunity (4) Five

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Test-8 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

175. Gambusia fish feeds on ________, thus prevents 178. Select the incorrect match.
vector borne diseases. Choose the option which (1) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune
fills the blank correctly. disorder
(1) Mosquito larvae (2) Syphilis – Viral disease
(2) Amoebae (3) NK cells – Innate immunity
(3) Filarial worm (4) Common cold – Rhino virus
(4) Human faecal matter 179. The immunity in older individuals is weakened
and this could be attributed to degeneration of
176. The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in
females do not include (1) Thymus gland
(1) Increased aggressiveness (2) Spleen
(2) Abnormal menstrual cycles (3) Parathyroid gland

(3) Breast enlargement (4) Pituitary gland

180. Select the incorrect statement.
(4) Enlargement of clitoris
(1) The T-cells themselves do not secrete
177. Which of the following techniques used for antibodies but help B cells to produce them.
detection of cancer involves non-ionising
radiations and thus can be safely used in (2) A transplant recipient patient has to take
pregnant women? immuno-suppressants all their life.
(3) Toxoids provide passive immunity
(1) Radiography (2) CT
(4) T-lymphocytes originate in primary lymphoid
(3) MRI (4) Biopsy tissue.

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