For 12th Class Appearing

CLASS : 12th MEDICAL (Assignment)

Minior Test No. 8 (Date : 06/04/2022)

Time : 3 Hrs. M.M. 720
Target : NEET (2022)
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should
ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have
occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the
examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max.
Marks are 720.
3. There are 4 Sections A, B, C and D in the question paper consisting of Physics (45) ,
Chemistry (45) , Biology (90) in each section of equal weightage. Each correct
answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
4. Use black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Dark only one circle
for each entry. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
5. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any
other rubbing material on
7. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that
no question is missing.
8. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the
invigilators or the centre incharge.
9. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the
examination hall.
10. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Answer sheet.

Student 's Name :

Roll No. :
XII-NEET 1
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

Topics covered :
Physics : Magnetism and matter, Electromagnetic inductions, Alternating current, Electromagnetic waves
Chemistry : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Botany : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and
Populations
Zoology : Human Health & Diseases

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A paramagnetic sample shows net magnetization 3. The primary origin (s) of magnetism lies in
of 4 Am–1 when placed in external magnetic field (1) Atomic current and intrinsic spin of electron
of 0.3 T at temperature of 4 K. When the same
sample is placed in an external magnetic fields of (2) Pauli exclusion principle
0.1 T at a temperature of 12 K, the magnetization (3) Polar nature of molecule
will be (4) Both (2) and (3)
2 4 4. A small magnetised needle P placed at a point O.
(1) Am−1 (2) Am−1
3 3 The arrow shows the direction of its magnetic
4 2 moment. The other arrows show different
(3) Am−1 (4) Am−1 positions and orientations of the magnetic
9 9
moment of another identical magnetised needle
2. A long solenoid has 500 turns per metre and
Q. As shown in the figure in which configuration
carries a current of 2 A. It has a soft iron core of
the system is in unstable equilibrium?
µr = 1000. The core is heated beyond the curie
temperature, Tc
(1) The H and B fields in the solenoid are nearly
unchanged
(2) The H field in the solenoid is (nearly)
unchanged but the B field decrease
drastically
(3) The H and B field decreased drastically
(1) PQ5, PQ4 (2) PQ3, PQ6
(4) The H field in the solenoid decrease
drastically and B field is (nearly) unchanged (3) PQ1, PQ2 (4) PQ2, PQ3

XII-NEET 2
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

5. A closely wound solenoid of 1000 turns and area T

of cross-section 8 × 10–3 m2, carrying a current of (1) 2T (2)
2
2.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing it
to turn in a horizontal plane. If a uniform T
horizontal magnetic field of 5 × 10–2 T is set up an (3) 3T (4)
3
angle of 30º with the axis of solenoid. The torque
on the solenoid will be 11. An emf of 15 V is applied in a circuit containing
(1) 0.8 Nm (2) 0.4 Nm 5 H inductor and 10 Ω resistance. The ratio of
(3) 0.6 Nm (4) 1.2 Nm currents at time t → ∞ and at t = 1s is
6. Earth’s magnetic field always has a horizontal
component except at e e2
(1) (2) 2
(1) Magnetic equator (2) Magnetic pole e –1 e –1
(3) At latitude 60° (4) Everywhere
e –1 1
7. The magnetic field due a short bar magnet of (3) (4)
e e
magnetic dipole moment M and length 2  at a
point P which is at a distance r (where r >>  ) 12. The mutual inductance M12 of coil 1 with respect
from the centre of bar magnet as shown in figure to coil 2
is given by
(1) Increase when they are brought nearer
µ0 M
(1) (2) Depends on current passing through the coils
4πr 3
2µ0 M (3) Is the same as M21 of coil 2 with respect to
(2) coil 1
4πr 3
3 µ0 M (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3)
8 πr 3 13. A rectangular loop with sliding connector of
13 µ0M length  = 1.0 m is situated in a uniform
(4) magnetic field B = 2T (directed into the plane).
8 πr 3
Two resistance of 6 Ω and 3 Ω are connected as
8. When 2 A current is passed through a tangent shown in figure. If resistance of the connector is
galvanometer, it gives a deflection 60º. For 45º zero, then force required to keep the connector
deflection current must be moving with constant velocity 1 m/s
2
(1) A (2) 2 3 A
3
1
(3) 2 2 A (4) A
2
9. The area of hysteresis loop of a material is
equivalent to 200 J. When 5 kg material is
magnetised by an alternating field of 50 Hz then
energy lost in one hour will be (density of material (1) 4 N (2) 6 N
is 8 g/cm3)
(3) 8 N (4) 2 N
(1) 22.5 kJ (2) 225 J
(3) 60 kJ (4) 600 J 14. An L – C circuit contains a 0.30 H inductor and
10. A magnet is suspended horizontally in the earth's 40 µF capacitor, when charge on the capacitor is
magnetic field. When it is displaced and then 12 µC. The rate of change of the current (in A/s)
released it oscillate in horizontal plane with period at this instant will be
T. If a piece of wood of the double moment of (1) 3.0 (2) 1.0
inertia (about the axis of rotation) as the magnet
is attached to the magnet, what would be the new (3) 4.0 (4) Zero
period of oscillation of the system 15. An LR circuit is connected with a battery at
t = 0. Which of the following quantities is not zero
just after connection?
(1) Emf induced in the inductor
(2) Current in the circuit
(3) Magnetic field energy in the inductor
(4) Power delivered by the battery

XII-NEET 3
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
16. A conducting circular loop is placed in uniform 18. A circular coil, rotates about its diameter which is
magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the normal to the magnetic field. If E0 is the maximum
field. An emf is induced in the loop if value of the induced emf. The instantaneous emf
(1) It is rotated about its axis passing through when the plane of coil makes an angle of 60° with
centre and perpendicular to plane the magnetic field
(2) It is translated 3E0 E0
(1) (2)
(3) It is rotated about its diameter 2 2
(4) It is at rest E0 E0
(3) (4)
17. The insulating arm PQ of the rectangular 3 2
conductor is moved from x = 0 to x = 2b as 19. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in
shown in figure. If uniform magnetic field B the figure. The variation of induced emf with time
extends from 0 ≤ x ≤ b and zero for b < x ≤ 2b . would be
Sketch the variation of magnetic flux in loop
ABPQ with x

(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)
(3)

(4)
(4)

XII-NEET 4
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
20. We can reduce eddy current in the core of 26. The electric current in the circuit is given by
transformers 3
 t 2
(1) By increasing the number of turns in i = i 0   for some time. The r.m.s. current for
secondary coil τ
(2) By taking laminated core the period t = 0 to t = τ will be
(3) By taking step down transfer i0 i0
(1) (2)
(4) By using a AC at high potential 2 2
21. The inductance of a closely packed coil of 200 i0 i0
turns is 4 mH. A current of 5 mA is passed (3) (4)
3 3
through it. The magnetic flux through each turn of
the coil is equal to 27. Electrical energy is transmitted over large
µ0 distance at high alternating voltages. Which of
(1) Wb the following statement is (are) incorrect in
2π
context to the above?
µ0
(2) Wb (1) For a given power level, there is a lower
4π current
2µ0 (2) Lower current implies less power loss
(3) Wb
3π
(3) Transmission line can be made thinner
(4) 0.5µ0 Wb
(4) It is easy to reduce the voltage at the
22. A stepdown transformer reduces the voltage of receiving end using step-down transformer
transmission line from 3300 V to 220 V. The
power delivered by it is 900 W and its efficiency is 28. If the r.m.s. current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 3 A,
90%. The input current is 1
the value of current seconds after its value
5 10 600
(1) A (2) A becomes zero is
33 22
10 20 3
(3) A (4) A (1) A (2) 3 A
33 33 2
23. A copper rod of length 0.1 m is rotated about its (3) 3 2 A (4) 6 A
10
end with revolution per second in a uniform 29. An AC voltage source of variable angular
π
frequency ω and fixed amplitude V is connected
magnetic field of 0.2 tesla with its length
in series with a inductor of inductance L and bulb
perpendicular to the field. The emf induced
of resistance R. When ω is increased
across the length of the rod
(1) 2 × 10–1 V (2) 2 × 10–2 V (1) The bulb glow dimmer
(3) 4 × 10 V
–1 (4) 4 × 10–2 V (2) The bulb glow brighter
1 th (3) Total impedance of circuit decrease
24. The current in LR circuit builds upto of its
4 (4) Total impedance of circuit unchanged
steady state value in 3 s. The time constant of
30. A resistance (R), inductor (L) and capacitor (C)
this circuit is
are connected in series to an oscillator of
2 3 frequency f. If resonant frequency is fr then
(1) (2)
( 3)
ln 4 ( 3)
ln 4 current will lead the voltage when
(1) f = fr (2) f < fr
1 3
(3) (4) (3) f > fr (4) f = 0
( 3)
ln 2 ( 3)
ln 2
31. There is a 4 Ω resistance in an ac circuit,
25. A LCR series circuit with L = 100 mH, inductance of 30 mH is connected with it in
C = 100 µF, R = 120 Ω is connected to an ac series. If equation of ac e.m.f. is 5 sin (100 t),
source of emf ε = [(300 V)sin {100 (rad/s)t}]. The then the phase difference between current and
peak current in the circuit will be e.m.f. is
(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A (1) 37º (2) 53º
(3) 2 A (4) 4 A (3) 90º (4) 60º

XII-NEET 5
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
32. A small town with demand of 2 MW of electric 38. An electromagnetic wave passing through
power at 220 V is situated 30 km away from an vacuum is described by the equation; E = E0 sin
electrical plant generating power at 440 V. The (kx – ωt) and B = B0 sin (kx – ωt) then
resistance of two wire line carrying power is
(1) E0 ω = B0 k (2) E0 k = B0 ω
1 Ω per km. The town gets power from the line
through a (5000 – 220) V stepdown transformer (3) E0 B0 = ω k (4) E0 = B0
at substation in the town estimate the line power 39. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 2 MHz
loss in the form of heat passes from vacuum into dielectric medium with
(1) 0.8 MW (2) 4.8 M relative permittivity ε = 9 and relative permeability
(3) 1.6 MW (4) 9.6 MW 1. Then
33. An ac source of angular frequency ω is fed (1) Wavelength become trippled and frequency
across a resistor R and a inductor of inductance remains unchanged
L. The current registered is I. If the frequency of (2) Wavelength becomes trippled and frequency
ω becomes one third
the source is changed to (maintaining the
3 (3) Wavelength becomes one-third and
same voltage) the current in the circuit found to frequency remains unchanged
be doubled. The ratio of reactance to resistance
(4) Wavelength and frequency both remains
at original frequency ω will be unchanged
18 9 40. The charge on a parallel plate capacitor varies as
(1) (2)
5 5 q = q0 sin 2πft. The plates are very large and
close together (area = A, separation = d)
3 27
(3) (4) Neglecting the edge effects. The displacement
5 5 current through the capacitor will be
34. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given by (1) Id = 2 π fq0 cos 2 π ft
V = 10 sin (100 πt – π/6) and I = 4 sin
(100 πt + π/6). The average power loss in the (2) Id = – 2 π fq0 sin 2 π ft
circuit will be (3) Id = – 2 π fq0 cos 2 π ft
(1) 5 W (2) 8 W (4) Id = 2 π fq0 sin 2 π ft
(3) 10 W (4) Zero 41. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is
35. In an LCR series resonant circuit which one of  x
the following can not be the expression for the given by E = 50 sin ω  t −  N /C . The energy
 c 
Q- factor (ω is resonant frequency)
contained in a cylinder of cross session 10 cm2
ωL 1 and length 50 cm along x -axis will be
(1) (2)
R ωCR (1) 5.5 × 10–12 J
R L 1 (2) 5.5 × 10–6 J
(3) (4)
LC CR (3) 1.1 × 10–11 J
36. If the power factor in an AC circuit changes from (4) 1.1 × 10–5 J
1 1 42. Which of the following are not electromagnetic
to then by what percent impedance will
2 4 wave?
change (approximately) if resistance remains (1) Radio waves
constant?
(2) Gamma rays
(1) Increase by 200 % (2) Decrease by 200 %
(3) x-rays
(3) Increase by 100 % (4) Decrease by 100 %
37. A coil and a bulb are connected in series with (4) β-rays
120 V direct current source. A soft iron core is 43. About 5% of the power of 100 W light bulb is
now inserted in the coil. Then in steady state converted to visible radiation. The average
(1) The intensity of the bulb increase intensity of visible radiation at a distance of
1 m from bulb is
(2) The intensity of the bulb decrease
(3) The intensity of the bulb may be increase or W W
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.4
decrease m2 m2
(4) The intensity of the bulb becomes same as W W
that of initial value (3) 0.6 (4) 0.8
m2 m2

XII-NEET 6
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
44. Electromagnetic radiation with intensity 50 W/cm2 45. Maxwell’s equation describes the fundamental
is incident on totally reflecting surface normally. If law of
the surface has area of 0.05 m2, then the average (1) Electricity only
force due to the radiation pressure on it, is
(2) Magnetism only
(1) 8.3 ×10–5 N (2) 16.6 ×10–5 N
(3) Mechanics only
(3) 1.2 ×10 N–7 (4) 12.4 ×10–7 N
(4) Electricity and magnetism both

CHEMISTRY
46. Select the correct statement(s) regarding E2 51. The maximum boiling point among the following
elimination reaction? is of
(1) It is single step bimolecular reaction (1) CH3Cl (2) CH3F
(2) The two leaving groups align in the same (3) CH3I (4) CH3Br
plane at 180° to each other 52. In E1cB mechanism intermediate formed is
(3) The reaction passes through an alkene like
(1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion
transition state
(3) Carbene (4) Carbon free radical
(4) All of these
53. Catechol is
47. The correct structure of DDT is

(1) (2)
(1)

(2) (3) (4)

54. Which among the following compound gives

1°-alcohol on reaction with Grignard reagent
(RMgCl) followed by hydrolysis.
(3) (1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) HCOOCH3
55. The major product (A) of the given reaction is

(4)

(1)
48. Among the following minimum dipole moment is
of
(1) CH3 – F (2) CH3 – Br
(3) CH3 – I (4) CH3 – Cl (2)
49. The correct reactivity order of halogen acids
towards ethers is
(1) HCl > HBr > HI (2) HI > HBr > HCl (3)
(3) HCl > HI > HBr (4) HI > HCl > HBr
50. Alkyl iodide are generally prepared by
(4)
(1) Swarts reaction (2) Sandmeyer reaction
(3) Gatterman reaction (4) Finkelstein reaction

XII-NEET 7
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
56. The compound which will react fastest with 65. Picric acid can be prepared by
ZnCl2 | conc. HCl is
(1) Treating phenol first with conc. H2SO4 and
then with conc. HNO3
(1)
(2) Treating phenol with conc. HNO3

(2) (3) Treating phenol with dil. HNO3 at 0°C

(4) Both (1) and (2)
66. When phenol is treated with bromine water the
(3) major product obtained is

(4)
(1) (2)
57. Terminal gem dihalides on hydrolysis gives
(1) Ketones (2) Aldehydes
(3) Carboxylic acids (4) Halohydrins
58. The order of E1 elimination for alkyl halide is (3) (4)
(1) 1° > 2° > 3° (2) 3° > 1° > 2°
(3) 2° > 3° > 1° (4) 3° > 2° > 1° 67. The commercial ethanol is made unfit for drinking
59. IUPAC name of C6H5OCH2CH3 is purpose by mixing it

(1) Ethyl phenyl ether (2) Phenetole (1) Copper sulphate

(3) Ethoxybenzene (4) All of these (2) Pyridine
60. Identify the major product(s) of the reaction (3) Washing soda
(4) Both (1) and (2)
68. The most suitable reaction for the preparation of
t-butylethyl ether is
(1) C2H5ONa + (CH3 )3 CCl →

(1) (2) (2) C2H5ONa + (CH3 )3 CBr →

(3) (CH3 )3 CONa + CH3Br →

(4) (CH3 )3 CONa + CH3CH2Br →

(3) (4)
69. Most reactive bromide among the following
61. The correct order of boiling point is towards SN2 reaction is
(1) Methoxy methane > propane > ethanol
(2) Methoxy methane > ethanol > propane (1) (2)
(3) Ethanol > propane > methoxy methane
(4) Ethanol > methoxy methane > propane
62. Butan-1-ol will not react with
(1) Na (2) PCl5 (3) (4)
(3) H2SO4 (4) NaOH
63. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) p-Cresol (2) o-Cresol 70. Among the following achiral molecule is
(3) m-Cresol (4) Ethanol (1) 2, 3-dihydroxypropanal
64. Acetylation of salicylic acid produces (2) 2-bromopropanoic acid
(1) Salol (2) Aspirin (3) 3-hydroxypropanoic acid
(3) Oil of winter green (4) Phorone (4) 2-chlorobutane

XII-NEET 8
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

71. Aryl chloride are extremely less reactive than 78. During the synthesis of o-hydroxybenzoic acid in
alkyl chlorides towards nucleophilic substitution Kolbe’s reaction, the electrophile that attack on
reactions due to aromatic ring is
(1) C – Cl bond acquires a partial double bond (1) CO2 (2) :CCl2
character (3) CO (4) :CH2
(2) Carbon atom attached to chlorine is sp2 79. The suitable solvent(s) for SN2 reaction is/are
hybridised
(1) Ethanol (2) Acetone
(3) Possible repulsion between electron rich
(3) DMSO (4) Both (2) and (3)
nucleophile and electron rich arenes
80. The major product(P) in the following reaction is
(4) All of these
72. Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the
presence of light to an extremely poisonous gas NaNH2 in liq. NH3
 →P
A. A is
(1) CCl4 (2) COCl2
(3) CH3CHCl2 (4) CCl3CHO
(1) (2)
73. Which among the following is an optically active
molecule?
(1) CH2 = C = C = CH – Br
(2) ClCH = C = CHCl
(3) Cl2C = C = CHCl
(3) (4)
(4) Cl2C = C = C = CCl2
74. The product obtained on reaction of ethyl
magnesium chloride with phenol is 81. The major product (Q) in the following reaction is

(1) (2)

(3) C2H6 (4) C2H5OH

(1) (2)
75. In which of the following reactions, 3° alcohol is
obtained as major product?
(i) CH3MgBr(excess)
(1) HCOOCH3  →
(ii) H2O
(3) (4)
(i) CH3MgBr
(2) →
(ii) H2O

(i) CH3MgBr(excess)
(3) CH3COOC2H5  → 82. Hunsdiecker reaction is generally used for the
(ii) H2O
preparation of
(i) CH2O
(4)  → (1) CH3Br (2) CH3I
(ii) H2O

76. When phenetole reacts with conc. HI (One (3) CH3F (4)
equivalent), the major products formed are
(1) Iodobenzene and ethanol 83. The configuration of the compound is
(2) Phenol and iodoethane
(3) Phenol and iodomethane (1) R (2) S
(4) Iodobenene and methanol (3) E (4) Z
77. Glycerol on heating with oxalic acid at 260°C 84. The total number of isomers obtain (including
gives steroisomer) on dibromination of propane is
(1) Formic acid (2) Glyceraldehyde (1) 8 (2) 4
(3) Ethanol (4) Allyl alcohol (3) 6 (4) 5

XII-NEET 9
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

85. Tetraethyl lead is used as a 88. The correct order of ease of dehydration in acidic
medium for the following alcohols is
(1) Fire extinguisher
(2) Antiseptic
(3) Insecticide
(4) Anti-knocking compound
86. The compound (B) in the given reaction (1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I
sequence is (3) I > II > III (4) II > I > III
89. Consider the reactions
HBr/peroxide AgCN
→ A → B (major)

(1) (2)

(3) (4) A and B are

(1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers
87. The major product (A) of the following reaction is (3) Functional isomers (4) Metamers
90. Which of the following compound evolves CO2 on
(i) C2H5O Na
 →A
− +
treatment with NaHCO3?
+
(ii) H

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

BOTANY
91. Immigration refers to
(1) Death rate A B C D
(2) Birth rate (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Number of individuals leaving a habitat
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
92. Match column I with column II and select the
correct option. (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Column I Column II
93. Select the correct statement w.r.t. geometric
A. Commensalism (i) Sea anemone
attached to the growth of a population.
body of hermit crab. (1) There is unlimited resource
B. Protocooperation (ii) Lice on human (2) Resources are limiting the growth
C. Mutualism (iii) Epiphytes growing (3) The sum of environmental factors limits the
on mango
population size
D. Ectoparasite (iv) Orchid and bees
relationship (4) Represented by a sigmoid curve

XII-NEET 10
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

94. If ‘B’ represents birth rate and ‘D’ represents (3) Rainfall and temperature alone determine the
death rate then vital index for a population is nature and extent of biomes
B B (4) The rotation of the earth around sun and the
(1) (2) × 100
D D tilt of its axis causes annual variation in the
B×D 100 intensity and duration of temperature
(3) (4)
100 B×D 101. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. levels of
95. Which of the given pair contributes to decrease in ecological organisation
population density? (1) Organisms → Ecosystem → Community
(1) Natality and Immigration → Biosphere
(2) Natality and Mortality
(2) Organisms → Population → Community
(3) Mortality and Emigration
→ Biome
(4) Immigration and Emigration
96. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the given ‘age (3) Population → Landscape →Community
pyramid’ → Organisms
(4) Community → Biome → Population
→ Biosphere
102. Which of the given organisms can tolerate and
thrive in a wide range of temperature?
(1) Population is said to be mature or stable (1) Birds (2) Polar bear
(2) Population shows a declined growth
(3) Lizards (4) Abies
(3) Population shows expanding growth
(4) Population has a very high proportion of pre- 103. If 6 individuals in a laboratory population of 24
reproduction individuals Drosophila died in one week. What will be the
97. The salinity (parts per thousand) for sea is mortality rate per Drosophila per week?
(1) 80 –100 (2) 1 – 5 (1) 0.4 (2) 0.25
(3) 75 – 80 (4) 30 – 35 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.18
98. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, 104. which of the following curve represents
then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ exponential growth pattern of population growth?
‘+’refers to
(1) Amensalism (2) Protocooperation
(3) Competition (4) Commensalism
99. In logistic growth, a population growing in a (1) (2)
habitat with limited resources shows initially a
A , followed by phase of B then C and
finally an D , when the population density
reaches the carrying capacity.
Select correct option and make the sentence a
correct sense.
A B C D (3) (4)
(1) Lag phase Acceleration Deceleration Asymptote

(2) Acceleration Deceleration Asymptote Lag phase

(3) Deceleration Lag phase Acceleration Asymptote

(4) Asymptote Acceleration Deceleration
100. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Ecology deals with the study of interaction
and interrelationships between organisms
and their environment
(2) Temperature, significantly affects enzyme
kinetics and basal metabolism as well as
activity of other physiological functions of an
organism
105. In triangular age pyramid,
Lag phase
(1) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals >
Numbers of reproductive individuals
(2) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals =
Numbers of reproductive individuals
(3) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals <
Numbers of reproductive individuals
(4) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals <
Numbers of post reproductive individuals

XII-NEET 11
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
106. Cyclosporin A used as an immunosuppressive 112. Select the correct order w.r.t percentage
agent in organ-transplant patients, is produced by composition of CO2 biogas.
(1) Monascus purpureus (1) 30-40% (2) 1-2%
(2) Trichoderma polysporum (3) 50-70% (4) 10%
(3) Streptococcus 113. Dragonflies are useful to get rid of
(4) Aspergillus niger (1) Aphids (2) Mosquitoes
107. The fermented preparation of rice and black gram (3) Butterfly (4) Plant pathogens
is used for idli formation. This fermentation is 114. Bacterium which convert milk into curd is
done by a/an
(1) Lactobacillus (2) Leuconostoc
(1) Protozoan (2) Fungus
(3) Streptococcus (4) Propionibacterium
(3) Alga (4) Bacterium
115. Microbe which grows anaerobically on cellulosic
108. Which stage of sewage treatment is necessarily material and produces major component of
required if the waste water is to be used for biogas is
domestic purpose?
(1) Methanobacterium (2) Streptococcus
(1) Primary treatment
(3) Leuconostoc (4) Lactobacillus
(2) Secondary treatment
116. Which of the given is a variety of chilli that is
(3) Tertiary treatment resistant to chilly mosaic virus?
(4) Biological treatment (1) Pusa sadabahar (2) Pusa komal
109. Flocs are the masses of (3) Himgiri (4) Pusa swarnim
(1) Aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria 117. Semi-dwarf variety of wheat in Mexico was
(2) Aerobic heterotrophic bacteria and fungal developed by
filaments (1) Norman E. Borlaug (2) M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Anaerobic heterotrophic bacteria and fungal (3) T.H. Morgan (4) Both (1) and (2)
filaments
118. Statement A : Somatic hybrid may have a
(4) Aerobic bacteria and algal filaments synkaryon or heterokaryon.
110. Select the most appropriate reason w.r.t Statement B : The capacity to generate a whole
construction of biogas plants often in rural areas. plant from any cell/explant is called totipotency.
(1) Biogas is used for cooking
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Cattles are used for variety of purposes
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Cattle dung is available in large quantities in
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
rural areas
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Biogas is used for lighting
119. In tissue culture, explants are sterilised with/in
111. Identify the parts A, B and C w.r.t biogas plant
and select the correct option. (1) Steam
(2) Dry heat
(3) Anti-microbial chemicals
(4) Autoclave
120. SCP is rich in good quality
(1) Proteins (2) Fats
(3) Lipids (4) Carbohydrates
121. Which of the given wheat variety has high protein
content?
(1) Sonalika (2) Atlas-66
(3) Kalyan sona (4) Himgiri
A B C 122. Development of semi-dwarf rice has increased
(1) Sludge N2 Gas holder rice production from A million tonnes in 1960 to
B million tonnes in 2000.
(2) Gas holder H2, H2S Digester
Find the correct option for A and B.
(3) Digester N2O2 Gas holder (1) A – 8, B – 98.5 (2) A – 35, B – 89.5
(4) Digester H2S Sludge (3) A – 53, B – 89.5 (4) A – 35, B – 53

XII-NEET 12
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

123. Select the odd one w.r.t techniques employed in (1) 2 (2) 3
cross-hybridisation among the selected parents (3) 4 (4) 5
during plant breeding.
130. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for/have
(1) Germplasm collection
(1) Species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal
(2) Emasculation application
(3) Bagging (2) Broad spectrum insecticidal application
(4) Rebagging (3) Negative impact on plants
124. Select the incorrect match. (4) Negative impact on mammals
(1) Cauliflower – Pusa Subhra
131. Which of the given is protein enriched vegetable
(2) Wheat – Parbhani Kranti crop released by IARI, New Delhi?
(3) Cauliflower – Pusa Snowball K-1 (1) Lablab (2) Spinach
(4) Flat Bean – Pusa sem 2 (3) Bitter gourd (4) Pumpkin
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t Saccharum 132. The method of producing thousands of plants
officinarum. through tissue culture is called
(1) Tropical cane grown in south India (1) Biofortification
(2) Thicker stem (2) Micropropagation
(3) Higher sugar content (3) Mutational breeding
(4) Grown well in north India also (4) Cross hybridisation
126. In which of the given year, green revolution 133. The root of any breeding programme is
started in India?
(1) Selection of parents
(1) 1950 (2) 1960
(2) Genetic variability
(3) 1945 (4) 1949
(3) Cross-hybridisation
127. Commercial production of which of the given
organic acid is not done by using bacteria? (4) Selection of superior recombinants
(1) Lactic acid (2) Citric acid 134. The crop variety bred by hybridisation and
selection for resistance against shoot and fruit
(3) Acetic acid (4) Butyric acid
borer is
128. Which of the given is blood-cholesterol lowering
(1) Pusa sawani (2) Pusa Gaurav
agent?
(1) Statin (2) Streptokinase (3) Pusa sem 2 (4) Pusa sem 3
(3) Pectinase (4) Lipase 135. If N is the population density at time ‘t’ then its
density at time t + 1 is
129. How many of the plant disease listed in box are
caused by fungi? (1) Nt + 1 = Nt × (B – D)
(2) Nt + 1 = Nt + (B + D)
Brown rust of wheat, Red rot of sugarcane,
Late blight of potato, Black rot of crucifers, (3) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
turnip mosaic (4) Nt + 1 = (Nt – B)

ZOOLOGY
136. One of the most infectious human ailment – the 138. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
common cold occurs generally through option
(1) Ingestion of contaminated food Aedes : ____ : : Housefly : Entamoeba histolytica
(2) Bite of an infected mosquito (1) Bacteria (2) Virus
(3) Gambusia (4) Sporozoite
(3) Droplet inhalation from cough and sneezes
139. Match Column I and Column II and choose the
(4) Hyperactivity of immune system correct option.
137. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C) and intestinal Column I Column II
perforation can be seen in (a) AIDS (i) Anti-histamine
(1) Malaria (2) Pneumonia (b) Allergy (ii) Chemotherapy
(3) Typhoid (4) Chikungunya (c) Cancer (iii) Anti-retroviral drugs

XII-NEET 13
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

(1) a - ii, b - iii, c-i 145. Select the correct set of only viral diseases.
(2) a - i, b - ii, c - iii (1) Elephantiasis, Dysentery, Chikungunya
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii (2) Ascariasis, Plague, Hepatitis-B
(4) a - iii, b - ii, c-i (3) Chikungunya, Hepatitis-B, Genital warts
140. In the below given figure A and B represent (4) Amoebiasis, Hepatitis-B, Chikungunya
respectively the structures of 146. AIDS was first reported in USA in the year
(1) 1961 (2) 1971
(3) 1981 (4) 1991
147. Gross deformity of lower limbs due to chronic
inflammation of lymphatic vessels is seen in
(1) Amoebic dysentery (2) Filariasis
(3) Diabetes (4) HIV infection
148. HIV having RNA core produces viral DNA by
using
(1) Antitoxin
(A)
(2) ‘c-onc’ genes
(3) Interferons
(4) Reverse transcriptase
149. Side effects like hair loss and anemia are mainly
associated with long term usage of
(1) Barbiturates
(2) Chemotherapeutic drugs
(B) (3) Opioids
(1) Charas and Codeine (4) Biological response modifiers
150. Choose the option with only correct statements.
(2) Morphine and Cannabinoid molecule
(a) Barbiturates depress the brain activity
(3) Barbiturate and Benzodiazepine
(b) NK cells are large specialised lymphocytes
(4) Cannabinoid molecule and Morphine
(c) Benzodiazepines are sedatives
141. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(d) Colostrum provides artificial active immunity
(1) Tourniquet test (2) Mantoux test to the infant
(3) ELISA (4) VDRL test (e) Opsonisation involves opsonins coating
142. The fertilisation of gametes of Plasmodium takes around antigens to facilitate their
place in phagocytosis
(1) Mosquito’s gut (1) a, b and d (2) d and e
(2) Human liver (3) a, b, c and e (4) a, b, c and d
(3) Human RBCs 151. Close physical contact with the infected persons
(4) Mosquito’s salivary gland or their belongings can transmit the diseases like
143. A man suffering from ringworms was prescribed a (1) Pneumonia and Tuberculosis
drug by his doctor, this drug would be a/an (2) Malaria and Dengue
(1) Antiviral drug (2) Antifungal drug (3) Ringworm and Malaria
(3) Antiallergic drug (4) Sedative (4) Pneumonia and Dengue
144. Symptoms of Ascariasis include 152. All of the following diseases could be completely
cured except
(a) Anemia
(1) Diphtheria (2) Typhoid
(b) Blockage of intestinal passage
(3) Common cold (4) AIDS
(c) Fever
153. Select a congenital disease among the following
(d) Muscular pain
(1) Scurvy
Choose the correct option
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(1) a and b only (2) a, b and d only
(3) Cholera
(3) a, b, c and d (4) b only (4) Measles

XII-NEET 14
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
154. All of the below given are effects/symptoms of 164. The release of haemozoin on rupture of RBC is
drug abuse except associated with
(1) Reckless behaviour and violence (1) Chill and high fever recurring every three to
(2) Mental and financial distress to the entire four days
family (2) Bluish discoloration of finger nails
(3) Lack of concentration (3) Constipation and stomach pain
(4) Increased academic performance (4) Sore throat and hoarseness of voice
155. Opiate obtained by acetylation of morphine is 165. Hashish is extracted from
(1) Codeine (2) Heroin (1) Atropa belladona
(3) Marijuana (4) Cocaine (2) Cannabis sativa
156. DPT vaccine is available to provide protection (3) Erythroxylum coca
against (4) Datura
(1) Bubonic plague (2) Polio 166. Contact inhibition is a property shown by
(3) Diphtheria (4) Kala-azar (1) Virus infected cells
157. An immunoglobulin molecule consists of all the (2) Normal cells
given components except (3) Cancerous cells
(1) Light chains (4) Mutated cells
(2) Heavy chains 167. The period between ________ years of age is
(3) Disulphide bonds termed as adolescence period. Choose the
(4) Antibody binding site option which fills the blank correctly.
158. Lysozyme present in sweat and tears acts as a (1) 10 – 12 (2) 8 – 12
(1) Physical barrier (3) 12 – 18 (4) 22 – 30
(2) Physiological barrier 168. Which of the following is considered as
"Graveyard of RBCs"?
(3) Cellular barrier
(1) Thymus (2) Spleen
(4) Cytokine barrier
(3) Bone marrow (4) Tonsils
159. Secondary immune response can be ascribed to
which property of the immune system? 169. Nicotine, an alkaloid stimulates suprarenal glands
to release
(1) Memory
(1) Thyroxine and adrenaline
(2) Release of perforin by NK cells
(2) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
(3) Metastasis
(3) Insulin and adrenaline
(4) Non-specificity
(4) Angiotensin and vasopressin
160. Vaccine produced using genetic engineering or
170. Read statements A and B and select the correct
recombinant DNA technique is
option.
(1) BCG
A : Vincristin and vinblastin are anticancerous
(2) Diphtheria toxoid drugs
(3) Hepatitis B vaccine B : Antibodies are secreted by T-lymphocytes
(4) Used for passive immunisation (1) Statements A and B are correct
161. Select a depressant from following drugs (2) Statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Amphetamine (2) Benzodiazepines (3) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Cocaine (4) Caffeine (4) Only statement A is correct
162. The cells that continuously produce HIV and act 171. A type of defence, that is present at the time of
like a HIV factory are birth is termed
(1) Mast cells (2) Plasma cells (1) Auto immunity (2) Active immunity
(3) Macrophages (4) Fibroblasts (3) Hypersensitivity (4) Innate immunity
163. Fever, diarrhoea, fall in number of TH, increased 172. The maturation of T-lymphocytes mainly takes
opportunistic infections are seen in place in
(1) AIDS (2) Cancer (1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus
(3) Leprosy (4) Plague (3) Liver (4) Spleen

XII-NEET 15
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
173. The correct statements about a completely 177. Which of the following does not occur due to
benign tumour are allergy?
(a) Rate of growth is usually slow (1) Hay fever
(b) It causes limited damage to the body (2) Asthma
(c) It is non-cancerous (3) Grave’s disease
Choose the correct option. (4) Anaphylactic shock
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (c) only 178. Mature infective stages of Plasmodium are
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) housed in salivary glands of , and /
whereas its gametocytes develop in
174. Match column I and column II and choose the
correct option. Here ‘a’ and ‘b’ are
Column I Column II a b
(a) Antibodies (i) Cell-mediated (1) Mosquito Humans
immunity (2) Humans Human's liver
(b) T-cells (ii) Humoral immunity (3) Mosquito Mosquito's intestine
(c) Monocytes (iii) Phagocytosis (4) Humans Mosquito
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - ii 179. Abdominal pain, cramps and stools with excess
(2) a - iii, b - ii, c-i mucous and blood clots are symptoms
associated with
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii
(1) Asthma
(4) a - ii, b - i, c - iii
(2) Amoebiasis
175. HIV differs from HSV-1 as former has
(3) Ringworm
(1) ssRNA as genetic material, while HSV-1 has
dsDNA (4) Chicken pox
(2) dsRNA as genetic material, while HSV-1 has 180. The correct order of changes occurring in the
dsRNA body after vaccination is
(3) ssDNA as genetic material, while HSV-1 has (a) Weakened pathogen is introduced into the
dsDNA body
(4) dsDNA as genetic material, while HSV-1 has (b) Generation of memory B and T cells
dsRNA (c) Primary immune response
176. Preformed antibodies to the tetanus toxin are (d) Anamnestic response
given to person with deep cuts and bruises soiled Choose the correct option
with mud because it ensures
(1) a → d → c → b
(1) Late but long-lasting immune response
(2) a → c → b → d
(2) Quick immune response
(3) b → a → c → d
(3) Allergic response
(4) a → d → b → c
(4) Generation of active immunity

  

XII-NEET 16
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

CLASS : 12th MEDICAL (Assignment)

Minior Test No. 8 (Date : 06/04/2022)

Time : 3 Hrs. M.M. 720
Answer Key
1. (3) 37. (4) 73. (2) 109. (2) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146 (3)
3. (1) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (2) 42. (4) 78. (1) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (1) 151. (1)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (1) 152. (4)
9. (1) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (4)
11. (1) 47. (1) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (2)
12. (4) 48. (3) 84. (4) 120. (1) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (2) 85. (4) 121. (2) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (1) 159. (1)
16. (3) 52. (2) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (4) 161. (2)
18. (2) 54. (1) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (3) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (2) 56. (3) 92. (2) 128. (1) 164. (1)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (1) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (1) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (4) 97. (4) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (2) 66. (1) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (4)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (4) 69. (1) 105. (1) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (1) 178. (1)
35. (3) 71. (4) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)

XII-NEET 17
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
-

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (3) 5. Answer (2)
B (magnetic fields induction) M = NIA
I (magnetisation)∝
t (temperatureinkelvin) = 1000 × 2 × 8 × 10–3 = 16 Am2
I2 B2 × T1 τ = M × B sin θ
=
I1 B1 × T2 1
= 5 × 10–2 × 16 × = 0.4 Nm
2
I2 0.1× 4
= 6. Answer (2)
I1 0.3 × 12
Earth magnetic field always has a horizontal
I2 1 component except at magnetic pole.
=
I1 9 7. Answer (4)

4 µ0M
I2 =   Am–1 =B 3cos2 30 + 1
4πr 3
9
2. Answer (2) 13 µ0M
=
Here for solenoid H = nI 8 πr 3
8. Answer (1)
H = 500 × 2
I ∝ tan θ
= 1000 Am
I1 tan θ1
Thus, H is a constant, so it is nearly unchanged =
I2 tan θ2
But B = µ0 µr nI
B = µ0 nI × µr
2 tan 60°
=
I2 tan 45°
B = (constant) × µr
Thus, from the above equation, we find that B  2 
I2 =  A
varies with the variation of µr  3 
3. Answer (1) 9. Answer (1)
The primary origin(s) of magnetism lies in atomic E = fAVt
current and intrinsic spin of electron. Am
=f t
4. Answer (1) ρ
U = –MB cos θ 50 × 200 × 5 × 3600
= = 22.5 kJ
For unstable equilibrium θ = 180º 8 × 103

XII-NEET 18
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing
10. Answer (3) 16. Answer (3)
I A conducting loop placed in a uniform magnetic
T = 2π field with its plane perpendicular to the plane. emf
mBH will induces in the loop if it rotates about its
T1
diameter.
I
= 17. Answer (2)
T2 3I
 xlB if 0 < x < b
T2 = 3T φ =
blB if b < x < 2b
11. Answer (1) 18. Answer (2)
i = i0(1 – e–t/τ) φ = NBA cos (ωt)
L 5 1 ε = E0 sin (ωt) = E0 sin (30)
τ= = =
R 10 2 E0
=
⇒ i = i0(1 – e–t/2) 2
at t = ∞, i = i0 19. Answer (3)
at t = 1s, i = i0(1 – e–1/2) LdI
ε=−
1 e dt
Ratio = –1/2
= 20. Answer (2)
1– e e –1
We can reduce eddy current in the core of
12. Answer (4)
transformer by taking laminates core.
The mutual inductance M12 of coil increase when 21. Answer (2)
they are brought nearer and is the same or M21 of
coil 2 with respect to coil 1. N φ = Li
13. Answer (4) 200 φ = 4 × 10–3 × 5 × 10–3
   20 × 10 −6
ε = (v × B ) .  φ=
2 × 102
=1×2×1=2V
φ =10 –7
3×6
Reff = =2Ω µ0
9 = 10 −7
4π
ε
I = µ0
Reff φ=
4π
2 22. Answer (3)
= =1A
2
90
F = B I Pout put = Pinput
100
=2×1×1=2N
9
14. Answer (2) 900 = × 3300 × IP
10
dI q
L =  100  10
dt C IP =   = A
 330  33
dI 12 × 10 −6
0.3 = 23. Answer (2)
dt 4.0 × 10 −5
B ω 2
dI 12 × 10 −6 V1 – V2 =
= 2
dt 4 × 3 × 10 −6 = ω = 2πf
dI 10
= 1.0 A/s ω = 2π ×
dt π
15. Answer (1) ω = 20
Current in the circuit will be zero rate of charge of
0.2 × 20 × 1× 10 −2
current will be maximum therefore emf induced will = = 2 × 10–2
be not zero. 2

XII-NEET 19
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

24. Answer (2) 28. Answer (1)

  −
t = I I0 sin ωt
=i i0 1 − e  τ

   1 
=I 3 2 sin  100π × 
i0  −
3
  600 
= i0 1 − e τ

4 1 3
  =I 3 2× = A
3 2 2
1 −
= 1− e τ 29. Answer (1)
4
3 P = I2R
3 −
=e τ V2
4 P= R
3 Z2
4
eτ =
3 Z= R 2 + (ωL )2
3 4 On increasing ω impedance increase and current
= ln  
τ 3 decrease therefore bulb glow dimmer
3 30. Answer (2)
τ= If current leads the voltage it means circuit will be
4
ln   capacitive XC > XL i.e. f < fr
3
31. Answer (1)
25. Answer (3)
R
1 cosφ =
Reactance x = − ωL R + (ωL )2
2
ωC
1 4 4
= − 100 × 100 × 10 −3 cosφ = =
100 × 100 × 10 −6 2
4 +3 2 5
= 90 Ω ⇒ φ =37º
Impedance = R2 + x2 32. Answer (4)
Resistance of line = 2 × 30 × 1 = 60 Ω
= (120)2 + 902 = 150 Ω
2 × 106
V r.m.s. current = = 400 A
I= 5000
z
Power loss = I2 R
300
= =2A = (400)2 × 60
150
= 16 × 104 × 60
26. Answer (2)
= 96 × 105 = 9.6 MW
τ
∫ i dt
2
33. Answer (4)
0
i rms = τ V
∫ dt 0
I=
R + X L2
2

i 02 τ

τ3 ∫ 0
t 3 dt 2I =
V
= X L2
τ R2 +
9
i0 τ4 i
= = 0 3V
τ2 4 2 2I =
9R 2 + X L2
27. Answer (3)
Power loss = I2R 1 9R 2 + X L2
=
l 2 3 R 2 + X L2
R =e
A
For thin transmission line power loss will be 3 9R 2 + X L2
=
maximum. 2 R 2 + X L2

XII-NEET 20
RPS GOS
 For 12th Class Appearing

9 9R 2 + X L2 39. Answer (3)

= 2
4 R + X L2 1
V=
2 2
9R + 9 X = 36R + 4 X 2 2 9µ0 ε0
L L

⇒ 5 X L2 = 27R 2 C
V=
2 3
 XL  27
 R  = 5 λ′ =VT
 
λ
λ′ =
XL 27 3
=
R 5 40. Answer (1)
34. Answer (3) q = q0 sin 2π ft
P = Vr.m.s. Ir.m.s. cos φ dq
Id =
10 4 π dt
= × × cos  
2 2 3 = q0 2 π f cos 2 π ft
10 × 4 1 41. Answer (1)
= × = 10 W
2 2 1 2
35. Answer (3)
E= ε0E0  × volume
2 
VL or VC 42. Answer (4)
Q=
VR β-rays are not a electromagnetic wave.
36. Answer (3) 43. Answer (2)
R P
cos φ = I=
Z 4πr 2
1 R 5
= ⇒ Z1 = 2R I=
2 Z1 4π
1 R W
= ⇒ Z2 = 4R ≈ 0.4
4 Z2 m2
Z2 − Z1  4R − 2R  44. Answer (2)
=
Z1  2R  × 100 2I
  F= A
C
= 100 %
37. Answer (4) 2 × 50 × 10 4 × 5 × 10 −2
=
Intensity of bulb first decrease then becomes 3 × 10 −8
same as that of initial value. 2×5×5
= × 10 −5 = 16.6 × 10 −5 N
38. Answer (2) 3
E0 ω 45. Answer (4)
=
B0 k Maxwell’s equation describes the fundamental law
E0 k= B0 ω of electricity and magnetism both.

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4) 50. Answer (4)
47. Answer (1) acetone
R − Cl + KI  → R − I + KCl
48. Answer (3)
51. Answer (3)
Dipole moment :
Boiling point :
CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
49. Answer (2)

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52. Answer (2) 69. Answer (1)
53. Answer (2)
Due to least steric hinderane, is
54. Answer (1)
RMgX
+
H2O more reactive towards SN2 reaction.
HCHO → RCH2OMg X  → RCH2OH
1° -Alcohol 70. Answer (3)
+ CH2 − CH2 − COOH : 3-hydroxypropanoic acid
|
55. Answer (1) OH
(No chiral centre)
Pinacol to pinacolone rearrangement
71. Answer (4)
72. Answer (2)
1 Light
CHCl3 + O2  → COCl2 + HCl
2 (Phosgene)
( Air ) (A)

73. Answer (2)

ClCH = C = CHCl is asymmetric molecule.
74. Answer (3)

56. Answer (3)

57. Answer (2)
75. Answer (3)
CH3
|
(i) CH3MgBr(Excess)
CH3COOC2H5  → CH3 − C − OH
(ii) H2O |
CH3
(3°- Alcohol)

58. Answer (4)

59. Answer (3) 76. Answer (2)
60. Answer (1)
61. Answer (4)
62. Answer (4)
Butoxide ion is a stronger base than OH– hence 77. Answer (4)
acid base reaction will not take place.
63. Answer (3)
64. Answer (2)

78. Answer (1)

65. Answer (4)

66. Answer (1)
67. Answer (4) 79. Answer (4)
68. Answer (4) Polar aprotic solvents are used for SN2 reaction.

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80. Answer (3) 86. Answer (3)

87. Answer (1)

81. Answer (2)
In basic medium, nucleophile will attack on less
NBS is used for allylic bromination.
substituted carbon.
82. Answer (1)
88. Answer (1)
CH3COOAg + Br2 → CH3 − Br + CO2 + AgBr 89. Answer (2)
83. Answer (1)
84. Answer (4)

85. Answer (4) 90. Answer (4)

BOTANY
91. Answer (4) 101. Answer (2)
Immigration (I) refers to numbers of individuals Organisms → Population → Community
entering a habitat. → Ecosystem → Landscape → Biome → Biosphere
92. Answer (2) 102. Answer (1)
93. Answer (1) Birds are eurythermal while, polar bear, lizards,
Abies are stenothermal.
94. Answer (2)
103. Answer (2)
B ∆N 6
Vital index for population : × 100 Death rate (Mortality) = = = 0.25
D N∆t 24
95. Answer (3) Individuals per Drosophila per week
Mortality and emigration decrease population 104. Answer (3)
density.
J-shaped growth curve is seen in
96. Answer (1) exponential/geometric growth model.
In the given, the pyramid is bell-like with pre- 105. Answer (1)
reproductive figure individuals being only 106. Answer (2)
marginally more than reproductive individuals.
Population is said to be mature or stable as there Cyclosporin A is produced by Trichoderma
is no increase or decrease in its size due to polysporum.
growth rate bring almost zero. 107. Answer (4)
97. Answer (4) 108. Answer (3)
98. Answer (2) 109. Answer (2)
Protocooperation → (+, +) 110. Answer (3)
111. Answer (2)
99. Answer (1)
112. Answer (1)
100. Answer (3)
113. Answer (2)
Rainfall, temperature range, nature of soil,
barriers, latitude and altitude determine the 114. Answer (1)
nature and extent of biomes. Lactobacillus convert milk into curd.

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115. Answer (1) 128. Answer (1)

116. Answer (1) 129. Answer (2)
117. Answer (1)
Brown rust of wheat, Red rot of sugarcane, Late
118. Answer (3) blight of potato are caused by fungi. Black rot of
119. Answer (3) crucifer is caused by bacteria. Turnip mosaic is a
120. Answer (1) viral disease.
121. Answer (2) 130. Answer (1)
122. Answer (2)
Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for
123. Answer (1) species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal
Germplasm collection is first step of plant applications. They have been shown to have no
breeding. negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds,
124. Answer (2) fishes or even non-target insects.
The disease resistance variety of wheat is 131. Answer (1)
Himgiri. While, Parbhani Kranti is a variety of
132. Answer (2)
Okra.
125. Answer (4) 133. Answer (2)
Saccharum officinarum did not grow well in north Genetic variability is the backbone or root of any
India. breeding programme.
126. Answer (2)
134. Answer (1)
127. Answer (2)
135. Answer (3)
Citric acid is produced by Aspergillus niger
(a fungus) and lactic acid, acetic acid, butyric acid Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
are produced by bacteria.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 141. Answer (3)
Rhino viruses cause common cold. They infect ELISA is enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay.
the nose and respiratory passage but not the
lungs. Mantoux test – TB detection
137. Answer (3) VDRL test – Test for syphilis detection
Symptoms of typhoid fever in human beings 142. Answer (1)
involve sustained high fever (39° to 40°C),
weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache Formation of gametes occurs in human RBC's
and loss of appetite. Intestinal perforation and which are picked up during blood meal by
death may occur in severe cases. mosquito.

138. Answer (2) 143. Answer (2)

Aedes mosquitoes are vector for diseases like
dengue and chikungunya.
139. Answer (3)
Antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly
reduce symptoms of allergy. The common
approaches for treatment of cancer are surgery,
radiation therapy and immunotherapy.
140. Answer (2)
Morphine belongs to the class of opioids.
Cannabinoids are a group of chemicals which
interact with cannabinoid receptors present
principally in the brain.
Many fungi belonging to the genera Microsporum,
Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
responsible for ringworms.
144. Answer (3)
Ascaris, an intestinal parasite causes ascariasis,
symptoms of this disease include internal
bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and
blockage of the intestinal passage.
145. Answer (3)
Helminthic infections – Elephantiasis, Ascariasis
Bacterial diseases – Dysentery, Plague

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146. Answer (3)
AIDS was first reported in 1981 and in the last
twenty – five years or so, it has spread all over
the world killing more than 25 million persons.
147. Answer (2)
The filarial worms cause a slowly developing
chronic inflammation of the organs in which they
live for many years. Amoebic dysentery is caused
by Entamoeba histolytica.
148. Answer (4)
HIV is a retrovirus; using the enzyme reverse
transcriptase, it can synthesize DNA from RNA.
Antitoxin is preformed antibodies. Virus-infected
cells secrete proteins called interferons. Several
genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto
oncogenes have been identified in normal cells
which when activated under certain conditions,
could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cell.
149. Answer (2)
Barbiturates-helps patient cope with mental
illnesses. Biological response modifiers such as
α-interferon activate immune system and help in
destroying the tumor.
150. Answer (3)
Colostrum, rich in IgA provides natural passive
immunity.
151. Answer (1)
Air-borne diseases such as pneumonia and
tuberculosis can spread by physical proximity or
sharing objects. Insect vectors and their breeding
places should be controlled to eliminate malaria
and dengue.
152. Answer (4)
As AIDS has no cure, prevention is the best
option. Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral
drugs is only partially effective. They can only
prolong the life but cannot prevent death, which is
inevitable.
153. Answer (2)
Scurvy – Deficiency disease
Cholera – Bacterial disease
Measles – Viral disease
154. Answer (4)
The most common warning signs of drug and
alcohol abuse among youth include drop in
academic performance, unexplained absence
from school/college, lack of interest in personal
hygiene etc.
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155. Answer (2)
Morphine and codeine are natural opiates. Heroin
(diacetylmorphine) and smack are semisynthetic
opiates. Marijuana is obtained from Cannabis.
156. Answer (3)
Antiplague vaccine → Bubonic plague
Oral polio vaccine, Salk vaccine → Polio
157. Answer (4)
Antibody binding site is a part of antigens.
Antibody contains antigen binding site.
158. Answer (2)
Lysozyme attacks bacteria and degrades their
cell walls.
159. Answer (1)
Memory-B and T-cells recognise the pathogen
quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm
the invaders with a massive production of
antibodies. Adaptive immune system shows
antigen specificity. Metastasis is the most feared
property of cancer cells.
160. Answer (3)
First generation vaccines include attenuated live
vaccines and killed/inactivated vaccine. Second
generation vaccines are made using surface
antigens of the pathogens e.g., Hepatitis B
vaccine. Synthetic vaccines are third generation
vaccines.
161. Answer (2)
Heroin is a depressant and slows down body
functions. Other given drugs have a stimulating
action on central nervous system.
162. Answer (3)
Macrophages continue to produce virus after
being infected and act like HIV factories.
25
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163. Answer (1) 173. Answer (4)

In AIDS, the patient becomes so immuno-
deficient that he/she is unable to protect himself/
herself from infections such as Mycobacterium,
viruses, fungi and even parasites like
Toxoplasma.
164. Answer (1)
Haemozoin is a toxic substance resulting in high
fever.
165. Answer (2)
Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from
Erythroxylum coca. Plants with hallucinogenic
properties are Atropa belladona and Datura.
166. Answer (2)
Normal cells show a property called contact
inhibition by virtue of which contact with other
cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
167. Answer (3)
Adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and
adulthood.
168. Answer (2)
Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid
organs.
169. Answer (2)
Suprarenal glands are adrenal glands.
170. Answer (4)
Antibodies are secreted by B-lymphocytes.
171. Answer (4)
Innate immunity involves four types of barriers.
B-cells provide humoral immunity.
172. Answer (2)
Maturation of B-lymphocyte occurs in bone
marrow.
Malignant tumours are cancerous.
174. Answer (4)
Antibodies are secreted by B-lymphocytes.
Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytic cells.
175. Answer (1)
HIV has single stranded RNA as genetic material,
while HSV-1 has dsDNA.
176. Answer (2)
In the likelihood of getting infected from tetanus,
quick immune response is provided by
administering tetanus antitoxin (preformed
antibodies to the tetanus).
177. Answer (3)
Grave’s disease is an example of auto-immune
disorder.
178. Answer (1)
Sexual stages develop in RBCs. Fertilisation and
development take place in the mosquito’s gut.
Sporozoites escape from gut and migrate to the
mosquito's salivary glands.
179. Answer (2)
Amoebiasis is amoebic dysentery characterised
by the given symptoms.
180. Answer (2)
In vaccination, antigenic proteins of pathogens or
weakened pathogen is introduced into the body,
this generates primary immune response and the
memory B and T cells. Anamnestic response is
characterised by massive production of
lymphocytes and antibodies.

  

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