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NEET (UG)-2023
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
50 questions in each subject are divided into two sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85,
101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100,
136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of
15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting
the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions
answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, 1 mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses on Answer
Sheet.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy)
to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is G3.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the line joining the
bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational constant)
20 G m 8 Gm
(1) − (2) −
R R
12 Gm 16 Gm
(3) − (4) −
R R
Answer (4)
2. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is . The shortest wavelength in the
Bracket series is
(1) 16 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 9
Answer (3)
3. Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air and 10x in time t2 in another denser medium. What is the critical angle
for this medium?
− 1 10 t1
t
(1) sin (2) sin −1 2
t
2 t1
− 1 10 t 2
t
(3) sin (4) sin −1 1
t
1 10 t 2
Answer (1)
4. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 H carrying a current of 2 A is
(1) 8 J
(2) 4 J
(3) 4 mJ
(4) 8 mJ
Answer (1)
5. The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly (surface
tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m–1)
(1) 50.1 × 10–4 J (2) 30.16 × 10–4 J
(3) 5.06 × 10–4 J (4) 3.01 × 10–4 J
Answer (4)
6. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential
energy stored in it will be
(1) 16 U (2) 2U
(3) 4U (4) 8U
Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
7. A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an opponent.
The force that acts on the player while turning is
(1) Along south-west (2) Along eastward
(3) Along northward (4) Along north-east
Answer (4)
8. The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the
same length is
(1) 3:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 2:1
(4) 1:3
Answer (3)
5
(3) 0.5 A from A to B through E (4) A from A to B through E
9
Answer (3)
11. The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage
supply are
(1) Random errors (2) Instrumental errors
(3) Personal errors (4) Least count errors
Answer (1)
12. The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is
(1) Along the axis of rotation
(2) Along the radius, away from centre
(3) Along the radius towards the centre
(4) Along the tangent to its position
Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
13. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining distance with speed 2v. Its average speed
is
3v v
(1) (2)
4 3
2v 4v
(3) (4)
3 3
Answer (4)
14. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given by
15. Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is (22000 ± 5%) . The colour of third band
must be
(1) Yellow (2) Red
(3) Green (4) Orange
Answer (4)
16. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327°C. The temperature of the
sink is
(1) 200°C (2) 27°C
(3) 15°C (4) 100°C
Answer (2)
17. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is
(1) Negative
(2) Zero
(3) Positive
(4) Infinity
Answer (2)
18. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a
load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
(1) Load resistance
(2) A centre-tapped transformer
(3) p-n junction diodes
(4) Capacitor
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
19. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of
V volts is proportional to
(1) V2 (2) V
1 1
(3) (4)
V V
Answer (3)
20. The temperature of a gas is –50°C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is
increased by 3 times?
(1) 223 K (2) 669°C
(3) 3295°C (4) 3097 K
Answer (3)
21. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 F and resistance R is 100 . The
frequency at which resonance occurs is
(1) 1.59 kHz (2) 15.9 rad/s
(3) 15.9 kHz (4) 1.59 rad/s
Answer (1)
22. A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step-down transformer, whose primary is connected to
ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?
(1) 0.37 A (2) 0.27 A
(3) 2.7 A (4) 3.7 A
Answer (2)
23. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV
respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these
photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
(1) Na only (2) Cs only
(3) Both Na and K (4) K only
Answer (2)
24. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2 × 10 5 N C–1. It experiences a
torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
(1) 2 mC (2) 8 mC
(3) 6 mC (4) 4 mC
Answer (1)
25. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at
a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m–1. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is
(Speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m s–1)
(1) 1.6 × 10–6 T
(2) 1.6 × 10–9 T
(3) 1.6 × 10–8 T
(4) 1.6 × 10–7 T
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
26. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum
possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be
(1) 1.4%
(2) 1.2%
(3) 1.3%
(4) 1.6%
Answer (4)
27. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to
th
1
of its initial value?
16
(1) 80 minutes (2) 20 minutes
(3) 40 minutes (4) 60 minutes
Answer (1)
28. The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of
gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is
(1) 5:2
(2) 3:5
(3) 5:3
(4) 2:5
Answer (2*)
29. The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is
(1) 9 F (2) 2 F
(3) 3 F (4) 6 F
Answer (2)
30. For Young’s double slit experiment, two statements are given below:
Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains
constant.
Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger
wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Answer (4)
31. A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280 m s –1 in the direction 30° above the horizontal. The maximum
height attained by the bullet is (g = 9.8 m s–2, sin30° = 0.5)
(1) 3000 m (2) 2800 m
(3) 2000 m (4) 1000 m
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
35. Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end.
The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is
(1) Zero
(2) 2W/A
(3) W/A
(4) W/2A
Answer (3)
SECTION-B
36. A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm through
u
the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes . Then it further penetrates into the block
3
in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block
is
(1) 30 cm (2) 27 cm
(3) 24 cm (4) 28 cm
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
37. A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically
upwards with a velocity 4 m s–1. The ball strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge above water
surface is (Take g = 10 m s–2)
(1) 68 m (2) 56 m
(3) 60 m (4) 64 m
Answer (4)
38. A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from A to B as shown in figure. The magnetic field
at point P for steady current configuration is given by
0 i 2
(1) 1 − pointed into the page
4 R
0i
(2) pointed into the page
4R
0i
(3) pointed away from the page
4R
0 i 2
(4) 1 − pointed away from page
4 R
Answer (4)
The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be
39.
(1) 25 (2) 10 2
(3) 15 (4) 5 5
Answer (4)
40. The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10 –11 m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of
hydrogen atom?
(1) 4.77 Å (2) 0.53 Å
(3) 1.06 Å (4) 1.59 Å
Answer (1)
41. A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period T. If d is the density of the earth and G is
3
the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity represents
Gd
(1) T
(2) T
(3) T2
(4) T3
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
42. The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 2 and 6.8 at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of
the wire is
(1) 3 × 10–1 °C–1 (2) 3 × 10–4 °C–1
–3
(3) 3 × 10 °C –1 (4) 3 × 10–2 °C–1
Answer (4)
43. Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains
stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 (g = 10 m s–2).
(1) 50 m s–2 (2) 1.2 m s–2
(3) 150 m s–2 (4) 1.5 m s–2
Answer (4)
44. 10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series to a battery of emf E and negligible internal
resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased n times. The
value of n is
(1) 1000 (2) 10
(3) 100 (4) 1
Answer (3)
45. In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all
layers are thin)?
2
2
(1) – m s –2 (2) ms
–2
16 8
2
2
(3) – m s –2 (4) ms
–2
8 16
Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
48. An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure.
1
The electric potential (in 102 V) at point P due to the dipole is (0 = permittivity of free space and =K)
4 0
8
(1) qK
3
3
(2) qK
8
5
(3) qK
8
8
(4) qK
5
Answer (2)
A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 1
(1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0
A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 1
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0
Answer (3)
50. A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field
B = (2iˆ + 3 jˆ – 4 kˆ ) T . The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is
(1) 3 lL
(2) 3 lL
(3) 5 lL
(4) 5 lL
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. In Lassaigne’s extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood
red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation of
(1) [Fe(SCN)]2+
(2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3xH2O
(3) NaSCN
(4) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–
Answer (1)
52. The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm –1 cm–1 and the resistance of the cell
containing the solution at 25°C is 60 ohm. The value of cell constant is
(1) 3.34 cm–1 (2) 1.34 cm–1
(3) 3.28 cm–1 (4) 1.26 cm–1
Answer (4)
53. Amongst the following the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its
outermost shell, is
NH3, AlCl3, BeCl2, CCl4, PCl5 :
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 4
Answer (2)
54. Amongst the given options which of the following molecules/ ion acts as a Lewis acid?
Answer (4)
55. Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product?
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
56. The number of bonds, bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:
(1) 12, 2, 1 (2) 11, 2, 0
(3) 12, 3, 0 (4) 11, 3, 1
Answer (4)
Sol.
No. of bonds = 11
No. of bonds = 3
No. of lone pair of e– = 1
57. A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and
atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is A xBy, then the value of x + y
is in option
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 3
Answer (2)
58. The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is
(1) Na (2) O
(3) F (4) N
Answer (4)
59. Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with
(1) 18 (2) 16
(3) 32 (4) 30
Answer (3)
CH3
|
(1) H2C = C – CH = CH2 (2) H2C = CH – CH = CH2
Cl
|
(3) H2C = C – CH = CH2 (4) H2C = CH – C CH
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
61. Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is
(1) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride (2) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
(3) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II) (4) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride
Answer (2)
62. Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?
(1) TlI > TI3 (2) TCI3 > TCI
(3) InI3 > InI (4) AlCl > AlCl3
Answer (1)
63. Identify the product in the following reaction:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
64. The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of
Ca = 40) CaCO 3 ⎯⎯⎯
1200 K
⎯→ CaO + CO2
(1) 1.32 g
(2) 1.12 g
(3) 1.76 g
(4) 2.64 g
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
65. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Answer (3)
66. For a certain reaction, the rate = k[A]2[B], when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration
of B constant, the initial rate would
(1) Increase by a factor of three (2) Decrease by a factor of nine
(3) Increase by a factor of six (4) Increase by a factor of nine
Answer (4)
(1) Combination between dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form ammonia in the presence of finely divided
iron
(2) Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in the presence of oxides of nitrogen
Answer (1)
68. Which amongst the following options are correct graphical representation of Boyle’s law?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
69. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (4)
71. Consider the following reaction and identify the product (P).
Product (P)
(1) (2)
Answer (2)
72. Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?
Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
73. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals.
B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism.
C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils.
D. The H–H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of
any elements.
E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C only (2) B, C, D, E only
Answer (4)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (2)
(1) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < (2px = 2py) < (*2px = *2py) < 2pz < *2pz
(2) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < (2px = 2py) < 2pz < (*2px = *2py) < *2pz
(3) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < 2pz < (2px = 2py) < (*2px = *2py) < *2pz
(4) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < 2pz < *2pz < (2px = 2py) < (*2px = *2py)
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Answer (4)
77. Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting particles that will include :
A. dipole - dipole forces
B. dipole - induced dipole forces
C. hydrogen bonding
D. covalent bonding
E. dispersion forces
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A, C, D, E are correct (2) B, C, D, E are correct
(3) A, B, C, D are correct (4) A, B, C, E are correct
Answer (4)
78. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Answer (3)
79. The relation between nm, (nm = the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number (m)) for a
given value of azimuthal quantum number (l), is
nm – 1
(1) nm = l + 2 (2) l=
2
(3) l = 2nm + 1 (4) nm = 2l2 + 1
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
81. The given compound
is an example of ______.
(1) Vinylic halide (2) Benzylic halide
(3) Aryl halide (4) Allylic halide
Answer (4)
82. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is
paramagnetic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
[C] is ________
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
84. The stability of Cu2+ is more than Cu+ salts in aqueous solution due to
Answer (4)
85. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation energy.
Reasons R : The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy
becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Answer (3)
SECTION-B
86 Consider the following compounds/species:
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
87 Consider the following reaction :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (4)
88 The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range
during extraction of iron is :
Answer (2)
3 – OH ⎯⎯→ major product
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
90 Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in
internal energy?
Answer (3)
1 1
(3) (4)
3 4
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
Answer (4)
96 Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (3)
Statement II : Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
98 Identify the final product [D] obtained in the following sequence of reactions.
CH3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯
i) LiAIH4
ii) H O+
→ [A] ⎯⎯⎯→
H2SO4
[B]
3
Answer (2)
99 The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction A + B C + D are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L–1,
respectively at 300 K. Gº for the reaction is (R = 2 cal/mol K)
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
(1) Transcription of only snRNAs
(2) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(3) Transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
(4) Transcription of precursor of mRNA
Answer (3)
102. Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be
explained by
(1) Active Transport
(2) Osmosis
(3) Facilitated Diffusion
(4) Passive Transport
Answer (1)
103. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
(1) Bright orange colour
(2) Bright red colour
(3) Bright blue colour
(4) Bright yellow colour
Answer (1)
104. The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :
(1) Kilobase
(2) Dobson units
(3) Decibels
(4) Decameter
Answer (2)
(2) M phase
(3) S phase
(4) G1 phase
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
106. Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps hastening the maturity period,
that leads early seed production?
(1) Abscisic Acid
(2) Indole-3-butyric Acid
(3) Gibberellic Acid
(4) Zeatin
Answer (3)
108. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, ‘The Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year
(1) 2002
(2) 1985
(3) 1992
(4) 1986
Answer (3)
109. Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
(1) Copper
(2) Manganese
(3) Molybdenum
(4) Magnesium
Answer (2)
110. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in
conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1 6-diphosphate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
118. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?
(1) Diakinesis
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene
Answer (3)
121. Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because
(1) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it
(2) It is a disaccharide
(3) It is a helical molecule
(4) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
123. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
(1) 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2
(2) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
(3) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
(4) 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2
Answer (3)
124. In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ________ metal are used.
(1) Silver
(2) Copper
(3) Zinc
(4) Tungsten or gold
Answer (4)
125. Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?
(1) Co-extinctions
(2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Over exploitation for economic gain
(4) Alien species invasions
Answer (2)
126. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.
Reason R : Cambium is less active in winters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
127. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by
(1) Wilkins and Franklin
(2) Frederick Griffith
(3) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(4) Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
Answer (3)
128. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance
between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
(1) Henking
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(3) Sutton and Boveri
(4) Alfred Sturtevant
Answer (4)
130. Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the
characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
(1) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
(2) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
(3) Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
(4) Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers
Answer (2)
131. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This
phenomenon may be called as
(1) Senescence
(2) Differentiation
(3) Dedifferentiation
(4) Development
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
133. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out
(1) Polysaccharides
(2) RNA
(3) DNA
(4) Histones
Answer (3)
SECTION-B
136. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral
meristem.
Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at
successive node instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Answer (2)
137. How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
(1) 20
(2) 80
(3) 60
(4) 40
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
138. Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of
(1) Dinitrogenase
(2) Succinic dehydrogenase
(3) Amylase
(4) Lipase
Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
142. Given below are two statements : One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air
currents.
Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are
discharged and pollen tube is not formed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the current explanation of A
Answer (4)
(1) The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at
successive trophic levels
(2) The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water body
consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms
(3) Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries
(4) Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem
dynamics of the water body
Answer (3)
144. Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine developement is also
expressed.
Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
List I List II
List I List II
(Interaction) (Species A and B)
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-G3)
149. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct
sequence.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) B, D, A, C
(2) B, C, D, A
(3) C, A, B, D
(4) C, B, D, A
Answer (2)
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3 G3
ZOOLOGY
152. Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early
and treated properly?
(1) HIV Infection
(2) Genital herpes
(3) Gonorrhoea
(4) Hepatitis-B
Answer (3)
153. Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
(1) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
(2) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole
(3) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
(4) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
Answer (3)
List I List II
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (2)
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Answer (3)
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3 G3
159. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex
and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop
of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
Answer (4)
161.
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3 G3
166.
(1) Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
(2) Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic sewage and waste water in lakes.
(3) Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
(4)
Answer (3)
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3 G3
168. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?
(1) Eosinophils
(2) TH cells
(3) B-lymphocytes
Answer (2)
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3 G3
172. Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?
(1) (2)
(3)
Answer (3)
173. Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its
early treatment?
Answer (3)
List I List II
A. Taenia I. Nephridia
Answer (4)
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3 G3
175. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health
Care Programme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Answer (1)
176.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Answer (4)
177. Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by
Answer (3)
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3 G3
179.
182.
183. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of
endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
Answer (3)
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3 G3
184. Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-
(1) Thalassemia (2)
(3)
Answer (2)
185. Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Answer (1)
B
186. Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) C and D only (2) A, B and C only
(3) B and C only and D only
Answer (3)
187. Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
(1) Presence of anal cerci
(2) Dark brown body colour and anal cerci
(3) Presence of anal styles
Presence of sclerites
Answer (3)
188. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, D and E only (2) A and B only
(3) B, C and D only (4) A, B and E only
Answer (3)
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(4)
Answer (3)
191. Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
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196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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197. Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of RBCs formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D and E only (2) A and D only
(3) B and C only C and D only
Answer (4)
198. Select the correct statements.
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and E only (2) A and C only
(3) B and D only (4) A, C and E only
Answer (3)
199. The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure,
rage, fear etc. are:
(1) Corpus callosum and thalamus
(2) Limbic system and hypothalamus
(3) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus
Brain stem and epithalamus
Answer (2)
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