English

*6001CMD30302123SRG017*Test Pattern
(6001CMD30302123SRG017)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)
SRG TEST
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 21-12-2023

PRE-MEDICAL SRG ENTHUSIAST TEST SEREIS-II_IT-17 PHASE-1&2

Test Booklet Code

Q2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology. 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A
and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination
Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : Magnetic Effects Of Current & Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction,Properties Of Matter & Fluid
Mechanics

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 5. An electron moves with velocity v in uniform

transverse magnetic field B on circular path of
1. A horizontal overhead powerline is at a height of radius ‘r’ then e for it is
4m from the ground and carries a current of 100 m
A from east to west. The magnetic field directly (1) v (2) B (4) vr
(3) Bvr
below it on the ground is: Br rv B

(1) 2.5 × 10−7 T , Southward

6. If number of turn, area and current through the
coil is given by n, A and i respectively then its
(2) 5 × 10−6 T , Northward magnetic moment will be :
(3) 5 × 10−6 T , Southward (4) ni
(1) niA (2) n2 iA (3) niA2
(4) 2.5 × 10−7 T , Northward √
A

π ampere current is flowing through a long

7. The Magnetic susceptibility of a
2.
straight wire. Due to this a field of 5 × 10−5 T paramagnetic material at – 73°C is 0.0075
produced, then distance of the point from the then its value at – 173°C will be :
axis of the wire is :
(1) 0.0045 (2) 0.0030 (3) 0.015 (4) 0.0075
(1) 104 μ 0 m (2) 105 μ 0 m
8. If a hole is made at the centre of a bar magnet,
(3) 106 μ 0 m (4) 108 μ 0 m then its magnetic moment will be :
3. If number of turns and current becomes double (1) Increase (2) Decrease
for any solenoid, then value of magnetic field
(3) Not Change (4) None of these
becomes.
9. Statement-1: A charged particle undergoes
(1) Twice (2) Same uniform circular motion in a uniform magnetic
(3) Half (4) Four times field. The only force acting on the particle is that
exerted by the uniform magnetic field. If now the
4. Cathode Rays are moving between the poles of a speed of the same particle is somehow doubled
magnet. Due to the effect of magnetic Field of keeping its charge and external magnetic
magnet : field constant, then the centripetal force on the
particle becomes four times.
Statement-2: The magnitude of centripetal force
on a particle of mass m moving in a circle of
mv2
radius R with uniform speed v is
R
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is correct explanation
for Statement-1
(1) Velocity of Rays increases
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
(2) Velocity of Rays decreases True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct
(3) Rays deflected towards south pole explanation for Statement-1
(4) Rays deflected in upward direction and (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
perpendicular to the plane of the paper (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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10. Statement-1: A current carrying closed loop
remains in equilibrium in a uniform and constant
magnetic field parallel to its axis. Consider
forces only due to this magnetic field.
Statement-2: Torque on a current carrying closed
loop due to a magnetic field is maximum when
the plane of the coil is parallel to the direction of
the magnetic field.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is correct explanation
for Statement-1
3
13. Assertion: Cyclotron is a accelerating device
Reason: Neutrons can be accelerated by the
cyclotron
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
11. Diamagnetic substance are :
(1) Feebly attracted by magnets
(2) Strongly attracted by magnets
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
14. Assertion: A linear solenoid carrying current is
equivalent to a bar magnet.
Reason: The magnetic field lines due to current
carrying solenoid resemble exactly with those of
a bar magnet.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

(3) Feebly repelled by magnets (2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of
(4) Strongly repelled by magnets the Assertion
12. A straight conductor carrying current i splits into (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
two parts as shown in the figure. The radius of
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
the circular loop is R. The total magnetic field at
the centre P of the loop is: 15. Assertion: The ferromagnetic substance do not
obey curie’s law below curie temperature
Reason: At curie point a ferromagnetic substance
start behaving as paramagnetic substance.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True
but Reason is not a correct explanation of
(2) 3 μ 0i
(1) Zero , outward the Assertion
32 R
(3) 3 μ 0i (4) μ 0i (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
, inward , inward
32 R 2R (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

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16. A circular loop of radius r is placed in a region
where magnetic field increases with respect to
time as B(t) = at then induced emf in coil:
(1) π r2 a (2) 3 π r2 a (3) 2 π r2 a (4) 4 π r2 a
17. A solenoid of 10 henry inductance and 2 ohm
resistance, is connected to a 10 volt battery. In
how much time the magnetic energy will reach
to 1/4 of the maximum value?
(1) 3.5 sec (2) 2.5 sec (3) 5.5 sec (4) 7.5 sec
18. The loop shown moves with a constant velocity
‘v’ in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude ‘B’
directed into the paper. The potential difference
between P and Q is ‘e’:
20. Assertion: Induced electric field is non
conservative
Reason: ∮
→ d→l ≠ 0
E.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
21. In case of a closed circuit of 10 Ω resistance, the
change of flux ϕ with respect to time t is given
by the equation ϕ = 2t2 − 5t − 1, the current at
t = 0.25 S will be:

(1) 4A (2) 0.04A (3) 0.4A (4) 1A

22. The network shown in the figure is a part of a
complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current
i is 5A and is decreasing at the rate of 103 A/S
(1) BLv
e= , Q is positive with respect to P then VB − VA is:
2
(2) BLv
e= , P is positive with respect to Q
2
(3) e = 0
(4) e = BLw, Q is positive with respect to P (1) 5V (2) 10V
19. Pure inductor each of inductance 3 H are (3) 15V (4) 20V
connected as shown. The equivalent induction of 23. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows
the circuit is : 0.1% decrease in its volume at the bottom. What
is the bulk modulus of the material of the ball
(1) 19.6 × 108 N/m2 (2) 19.6 × 10−10 N/m2

(1) 1H (2) 2H (3) 3H (4) 9H (3) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (4) 19.6 × 10−8 N/m2

24. The mean distance between the atoms of iron is

3 × 10−10 m and inter atomic force constant for
iron is 7 N/m. The young’s modulus of elasticity
for iron is:
(1) 2.33 × 105 N/m2 (2) 23.3 × 1010 N/m2

(3) 233 × 1010 N/m2 (4) 2.33 × 1010 N/m2

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25. A sample of metal weights 210 gm in air, 180 31. Assertion: Young’s modulus for a perfectly
gm in water and 120 gm in an unknown liquid. plastic body is zero.
Then Reason: For a perfectly plastic body, restoring
force is zero.
(1) The density of metal is 3 gm/cm3
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(2) The density of metal is 7 gm/cm3 Reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) Density of metal is 4 times the density of Assertion.
unknown liquid (2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
(4) The metal will float in water Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
26. Which law states that the magnitude of pressure
change within fluid is equal in all parts? (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) Pascal’s law (2) Gay-Lusac’s law (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
(3) Dalton’s law (4) Boyle’s law 32. Assertion: The angle of contact of a liquid
decreases with increases in temperature.
27. Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4cm Reason: With increase in temperature the surface
and 5cm are touching each other over a common tension of liquid increases.
surface S1 S2 (Shown in figure). Its radius will
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
be:
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(1) 4 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 5 cm (4) 4.5 cm
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
28. In a capillary tube, water rises by 1.2 mm. The
height of water that will rise in another capillary (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
tube having half the radius of the first, is: 33. Assertion: A needle placed carefully on the
(1) 1.2 mm (2) 2.4 mm surface of water may float.
Reason: A needle placed carefully on the surface
(3) 0.6 mm (4) 0.4 mm of water may float due to surface tension, as
29. Radius of a capillary is 2 × 10−3 m. A liquid of upward forces due to surface tension balances
the weight of the needle.
weight 6.2 × 10−4 N may remain in the capillary.
Then the surface tension of liquid will be: (1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) 5 × 10−3 N/m (2) 5 × 10−2 N/m
Assertion.
(3) 5 N/m (4) 50 N/m
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
30. The pressure of water in a water pipe when tap is Reason is not a correct explanation of the
opened and closed is respectively 3 × 105 N/m2 Assertion.
and 3.5 × 105 N/m2 . With open tap, the velocity
of water flowing is: (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4) 15 m/s (4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

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34. Two soap bubbles, each of radius r, coalesce in 38. Two solid spheres of same metal but of mass M
vacuum under isothermal conditions to form a and 8M fall simultaneously on a viscous liquid
bigger bubble of radius R. Then R is equal to: and their terminal velocities are v and nv, then
(1) 2−1/2 r (2) 2−1/3 r (3) 21/2 r (4) 2r value of n is:

35. Bernoullis principle is based on the law of (1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2
conservation of: 39. Water flows through a tube of radius 1 cm at a
(1) Mass speed of 6 cm s – 1. Find Reynolds number. Is the
flow steady? ( η = 0.01 poise)
(2) Energy
(1) 6000, No (2) 3000, No
(3) Angular momentum
(3) 600, Yes (4) 1200, Yes
(4) Linear momentum
40. Two drops of equal radius coalesce to form a
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) bigger drop. What is ratio of surface energy of
bigger drop to smaller one?
36. Assertion: Specific gravity of a fluid is a
dimensionless quantity. (1) 22/2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
Reason: It is the ratio of density of fluid to the (3) 22/3 : 1 (4) None of these
density of water.
41. A rectangular loop is being pulled at a constant
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the speed v, through a region of certain thickness d,
Reason is a correct explanation of the in which a uniform magnetic field B is set up.
Assertion. The graph between position x of the right hand
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but edge of the loop and the induced emf E will be:
Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
37. To get the maximum flight, a ball must be
thrown as: (arrows represents the motion of the
ball)
(1) (2)
(1)
(2)

(4)
(3)
(3)
(4) Any of 1, 2 & 3

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42. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with 45. The dimension of the magnetic field intensity B
constant angular speed ω about its perpendicular is:
bisector. A uniform magnetic field B→ exists (1) MLT −2 A−1 (2) MT −2 A−1
parallel to the axis of rotation. The e.m.f.
(3) ML2 T A−2 (4) M 2 LT −2 A−1
induced between two ends of the rod is:
46. A wire oriented in the East-West direction carries
a current eastward. Direction of the magnetic
field at a point to the South of the wire is:
(1) Vertically down (2) Vertically up
(3) North-East (4) South-East
47. Two wires of the same length are shaped into a
(1) Bω ℓ2 (2) 1 square and a circle respectively when they carry
Bω ℓ2
2 the same current. The ratio of their magnetic
(3) 1 (4) Zero
ω ℓ2 moments is:
8
43. Statement-1: Two coaxial conducting rings of (1) 2 : π (2) π : 2 (3) 4 : π (4) π : 4
different radii are placed in space. The mutual 48. The path of a charged particle in a uniform
inductance of both the rings is maximum if the magnetic field, when the velocity and the magnetic
rings are also coplanar. field are perpendicular to each other is a:
Statement-2: For two coaxial conducting rings of
(1) Circle (2) Parabola
different radii, the magnitude of magnetic flux in
one ring due to current in other ring is maximum (3) Helix (4) Straight line
when both rings are coplanar. 49. A Rigid circular loop of radius r and mass m lies
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is in the x – y plane on a flat table and has a current
True; Statement-2 is correct explanation I following in it. At this particular place,
for Statement-1 magnetic field is B = Bx ˆi + By ˆj. How large
→

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is must I be so that one edge of loop will lift from
True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct table.
explanation for Statement-1 Given m = 1kg, r = 1m,
Bx = 3 tesla, By = 4 tesla
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (1) 2 (2) π (3) 2A (4) π A
π 2
44. Work done in rotating a bar magnet from 0 to
angle is θ : (where M is magnetic moment of the
bar magnet and H is the external uniform
magnetic field.)
(1) MH(1 − cos θ ) (2) M
(1 − cos θ )
H
(3) M (4) MH(cos θ − 1)
(cos θ − 1)
H

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50. Statement-1: Imagine holding two identical

bricks under water. Brick A is completely
submerged just below the surface of water, while
brick B is at a greater depth. The magnitude of
force exerted by the person (on the brick) to hold
brick B in place is the same as magnitude of
force exerted by the person (on the brick) to hold
brick A in place.
Statement-2: The magnitude of buoyant force on
a brick completely submerged in water is equal
to magnitude of weight of water it displaces and
does not depend on depth of brick in water.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is correct explanation
for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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Topic : BIOMOLECULES, POC, Alkanes, Alkenes, Alkynes & Benzene

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 55. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Three moles of phenylhydrazine and one
51. Markownikoff's rule is not applicable on which mole of aldose required to produce
of the following alkene : phenylosazone
(2) (2) Glucose form gluconic acid with Br2/HOH
(1)
(3) Glucose form Glucaric acid with HNO3
(3) (4) (4) Lowering in carbon chain can be done by
Kiliani Fischer method.
52. 56. Structures of alanine at pH = 2 and pH = 10 are
respectively
(1)
and
Choose the correct statement ?
(1) (P) & (Q) are chain isomers (2)
and
(2) (P) will give imediate turbidity with lucas
reagent (3)
both
(3) (P) & (Q) are identical
(4) (P) & (Q) are positional isomers (4)
both
53. Reaction incorrectly matched with its major
product is : 57. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) (1) α -D-glucose & β -D-glucose are
enantiomers
(2) Glycine is optically active.
(2)
(3) Cellulose on hydrolysis yields
α -D-glucose
(3)
(4) In Duma’s method nitrogen present in
(4) None of these compound is estimated as N2
54. The glycosidic linkages in cellulose and amylose
are......respectively.
(1) α C – 1 – C – 4 and β C – 1 – C – 4
(2) β C – 1 – C – 4 and α C – 1 – C – 4
(3) β C – 1 – C – 4 and α C – l – C – 6
(4) α C – l – C – 4 and α C – l – C – 2

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58. Which of the following statements are correct 61. Following are the structure of D-Glucose and D-
about the structure of starch? Galactose.
(A) It is a polymer of α -D (+) glucose linked
through α -glycosidic bond.
(B) It consists of water soluble long unbranched
chain of amylose.
(C) It consists of water insoluble branched
amylopectin having C1 – C4 and C1 – C6 Which of the following statements are correct
glycosidic linkage between α -D glucose. about these compounds ?
(D) In animal body it is stored in the form of (1) They are diastereomers
glycogen, also known as animal starch. (2) Both are component of maltose
(1) A, B & C (2) All are correct
(3) They are C – 3 epimer
(3) B & C (4) C & D
(4) Both are optically inactive
59. X is a hexose. On catalytic reduction X gives
62. Statement 1 : Bromine water changes glucose to
two hexahydric alcohol Y and Z. Y can be
gluconic acid.
obtained from D(+) glucose by
Statement 2 : Bromine water acts as oxidising
reducing with NaBH4. X can be :
agent.
(1) (2)
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2 is correct explanation for
statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation
for statement-1.
(3) (4) (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
63.
NaNO2
−−−−−−→ A −−−→ B
HCl 278K HBF4

60. Which of the following vitamin is water soluble? The compounds A & B respectively are
(1) Vitamin-C (2) Vitamin-D (1) Nitrobenzene & Chlorobenzene
(3) Vitamin-K (4) Vitamin-E (2) Nitrobenzene & fluorobenzene
(3) Phenol & benzene
(4) Benzene diazonium chloride &
fluorobenzene

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64. 67. Which of the following will not produce
aromatic product.
(1) Me – C ≡ CH −Re−−d−hot
−→
F e tube

(1) (2)
C6H14

(3)
(2)
(4) All of the above
68. Which can not give Friedel Craft reaction:
(3)
(2)
(1)
(4)

(3) (4)
65. Choose the correct option regarding following
reaction sequence:

(S) gives Violet colour with FeCl3

69. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) Product (R) is butanone
(i)AlCl3 (anhyd.)
(2) Product (S) is acetone −−−−−−−−−−→
(ii)H2 O

(3) Product (Q) is cumene hydroperoxide

(1)
(4) Product (P) is known as cumene
66.
(2)

Major product of above reaction is :

(3)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(4)

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70. 74. Kjeldal's method for estimation of nitrogen is

applicable for

Final product of above reaction is : (1) Nitrobenzene (2) Azobenzene

(2) (3)
(1) (4) Acetamide

75. Which of the following decolorises Br2 water

solution :
(1)
(3) (2) CH3 – CH2 – OH
(4)

(3) HC ≡ CH (4) CH3 – CH2 – Cl

76. In Lassaigne’s test for detection of sulphur, the
violet colour is obtained due to the formation of
71. Correct order of boiling point of compounds is
(1) Na3[Fe(CN)6] (2) Na3[Fe(CN)5S]
(I) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
(3) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (4) Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(II) CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH3 (III)
77.
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I (4) II > I > III
72. In aniline & water mixture, aniline can be P2 and P4 are related as :
separated by : (1) Chain isomer
(1) Steam distillation (2) Metamer
(2) Fractional distillation (3) Functional group isomer
(3) Simple distillation (4) Homologue
(4) Distillation under reduced pressure 78. In carius method of estimation of halogen 0.15g of
an organic compounds gave 0.12g of AgBr. Find
73. Select INCORRECT option(s) : out the percentage of bromine in the compound.
(1) Phenol give violet colour with neutral (Atomic masses Ag = 108, Br = 80)
FeCl3 (1) 34% (2) 68% (3) 54% (4) 90%
(2) Glucose and fructose can be differentiated 79. The distillation technique most suited for
by Seliwanoff test separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap
(3) 1-butyne and 2-butyne can be differentiated industry is :
by Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH (1) Distillation under reduced pressure
(4) (2) Simple distillation
can be differentiated by
(3) Fractional distillation
Victor Meyor's test (4) Steam distillation
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80. In Kjeldahl method, NH3 evolved from 0.5 gram
organic compound is absorbed by 20 ml, 1 M
sulphuric acid solution. Remaining sulphuric
acid needed 20 ml, 1 M NaOH solution for
complete neutralisation then % of N in organic
compound?
(1) 20% (2) 56% (3) 14% (4) 84%
81. Calculate the Rf value for x = 2 cm and y = 5 cm
as shown in the given figure.
Choose the correct option:
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4 (3) 0 (4) 1
82. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: A mixture contains benzoic acid
and napthalene. The pure benzoic acid can be
separated out by the use of benzene.
Reason R: Benzoic acid is soluble in hot
water. In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true
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83. Which of the following statement(s) is NOT
correct ?
(1) Kjeldahl's method is applicable to
compounds containing nitrogen in nitro and
azo groups
(2) Sulphur is determined in an organic
compound by heating it in a Carius tube
with Na2O2 and precipitating all sulphur as
BaSO4
(3) For determining phosphorus, the organic
compound is heated with conc. HNO3
which oxidizes all phosphorus to H3PO4. It
is precipitated as ammonium
phosphomolybdate by adding NH3 and
ammonium molybdate
(4) Oxygen is estimated by decomposing the
organic compound by heating it in a stream
of N2 gas. The gaseous mixture is passed
over red hot coke which converts all O2 to
CO. The CO produced is treated with warm
I2O5 which produces CO2 and I2. The CO2
produced gives estimation of oxygen.
84. When sodium extract is treated with FeCl3
solution a blood red coloured is obtained due to
the presence of -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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85. CH3 – C ≡ CH → CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 90.

Above conversion can be made by following
sequence :
(1) 1. AgNO3 / NH4OH, 2. CH3MgBr Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(2) 1. CH3MgBr, 2. CH3 – CH2 – Cl (1) X and Y are geometrical isomers
(3) 1. NaNH2, 2. CH3 – Cl (2) X −Br 2
−−→ racemic mixture
CCl4
(4) All correct
(3) Y −Br 2
−−→ meso compound
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) CCl4

(4) X is more stable than Y

86. Which of the following is not reducing 91. (i)Hg(OAc)2 ,H2 O ( i ) B2 H 6
disaccharide ? R ←−−−−−−−−−−− −−−−−−−¯−−→ P
¯
(ii)NaBH4 /OH (ii) H2 O2 / OH

(1) Starch (2) Lactose Incorrect option is :

(3) Maltose (4) Sucrose (1) H2O > P > R (Acidic strength)

87. In milk sugar which linkage is presence. (2) R > P (Rate of dehydration)

(1) C1 – C4 α -glycosidic linkage (3) All P & R gives same dehydration major
product with conc. H2SO4
(2) C1 – C2 α -glycosidic linkage
(4) All P & R react with Lucas reagent with
(3) C1 – C4 β -glycosidic linkage same rate
(4) C1 – C2 β -glycosidic linkage 92. Wolf Kishner – reduction cannot be used to
88. Not correct statement for the given compound : reduce only carbonyl group in which of
the following ?
(1) (2)

(1) It is a dipeptide
(2) On hydrolysis it produces Glycine &
Alanine (3) (4)

(3) Total number of functional groups is 3

(4) It contains two peptide linkage.
89. During nitrogen estimation of an organic 93.
compound by Kjeldahl's method, the ammonia
evolved by 0.5 g of the compound neutralised 10
ml of 1 M H2SO4. Calculate the percentage of major product having α H
nitrogen in the compound.
(1) 12 α H (2) 8 α H
(1) 65 (2) 56 (3) 75 (4) 60
(3) 4 α H (4) 11 α H

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94. 97. Given below a statement S and explanation E is
Na/Diethyl ether
−−−−−−−−−−→ Products given. Choose the correct answer
S : Addition of H2 in presence of catalyst on
The hydrocarbon product formed in above trans-2, 3-diphenyl but-2-ene gives meso form of
reaction is- 2, 3-diphenyl butane.
E : Addition of H2 in presence of catalyst is syn-
(1) (2) addition and the product formed is racemic
mixture.
(1) S is correct but E is wrong
(3) (4) (2) S is wrong but E is correct
(3) Both S and E are correct and E is correct
explanation of S
95. Which alkyne reacts with HgSO4/dil. H2SO4 to (4) Both S and E are correct but E is not
give aldehyde as a major product? correct explanation of S
(1) CH ≡ CH 98. Given below a statement S and explanation E is
(2) CH3 – C ≡ CH given. Choose the correct answer.
S : Addition of bromine to trans-2-butene yields
(3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 meso-2, 3-dibromo butane.
(4) Ph – C ≡ CH E : Bromine addition to an alkene is an
electrophilic addition.
96. Given below a statement S and explanation E is
given. Choose the correct answer (1) S is correct but E is wrong
S : During test for nitrogen with Lassaigne (2) S is wrong but E is correct
extract on adding FeCl3 solution sometimes a red
(3) Both S and E are correct and E is correct
precipitate is obtained.
E : Sulphur is also present. explanation of S
(1) S is correct but E is wrong (4) Both S and E are correct but E is not
correct explanation of S
(2) S is wrong but E is correct
(3) Both S and E are correct and E is correct
explanation of S
(4) Both S and E are correct but E is not
correct explanation of S

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99. Given below a statement S and explanation E is
given. Choose the correct answer.
S : C6H6 does not decolourize Br2 water.
E : All the six carbon atoms have delocalized π -
electrons, which makes ring aromatic.
(1) S is correct but E is wrong
(2) S is wrong but E is correct
(3) Both S and E are correct and E is correct
explanation of S
(4) Both S and E are correct but E is not
correct explanation of S
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100. Given below a statement S and explanation E is
given. Choose the correct answer.
S : A mixture of HNO3 and H2SO4 is used for
the nitration of benzene.
E : H2SO4 works as an acid and HNO3 as a base
to produce NO+2 ion.
(1) S is correct but E is wrong
(2) S is wrong but E is correct
(3) Both S and E are correct and E is correct
explanation of S
(4) Both S and E are correct but E is not
correct explanation of S
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Topic : Genetics-2 (Molecular Basis Of Inheritance), Cell Cycle And Division

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 104. In a diploid cell before S-phase quantity of DNA

is 20 pico gram (pg) after meiosis I what will be
101. Match the column-I with column-II the quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?
Column-I Column-II (1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg
Most of organelles (3) 5 pg (4) 40 pg
(I) S phase (i)
duplication
105. Sometime karyokinesis is not followed by
Tubulin proteins are cytokinesis then it is known as ___(A)____ and
(II) G1 phase (ii)
synthesised it leads to formation of ___(B)____. What is A
(III) Anaphase (iii) DNA Replication and B respectively ?
(IV) G2 phase (iv) Splitting of Centromere (1) A-Free nuclear division ; B-Multinucleate
cell
(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) A-Free nuclear division ; B-Polytene
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
chromosome
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(3) A-Endomitosis ; B-Multinucleate cell
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv
(4) A-Endoreduplication ; B-Polytene
102. Once nerve cells become mature, they do not chromosome
usually undergo cell division. The cell cycle of
106. How many chromosomes shall be present in a
the mature nerve cells become arrested and this
diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell has
phase of cell cycle is known as :-
10 chromosomes ?
(1) G2 phase (2) M-phase
(1) 10 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 20
(3) G1 phase (4) G0 phase
107. Arrange the different stages of meiosis (i), (ii),
103. Assertion : Crossing over take place during (iii) and (iv) in sequence :-
pachytene stage.
Reason : It is a process of interchange of
chromatin material between non sister chromatid
of homologous chromosomes.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(1) (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (iii)
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
(4) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
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108. A triploid nucleus cannot undergo meiosis
because
(1) Nuclear membrane can not degenerate.
(2) Not all of the chromosomes can form
homologous pairs.
(3) Cell wall can not form.
(4) Sister chromatid can not separate.
109. Which of the following is true for S-phase of cell
cycle ?
(1) If the initial amount of DNA is 2C then it
increases to 4C
113. Which of the following statements are related
with the first phase of karyokinesis in mitosis?
(A) Morphology of chromosomes can be most
easily studied.
(B) Centrioles, which had undergone duplication
during S phase, begin to move towards opposite
poles of the cell.
(C) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.
(D) The initiation of condensation of
chromosomal material.
(1) C,D (2) B,D
(3) A,B (4) B,C

(2) Centriole duplicates in animal cells and 114. Longest phase of cell cycle is :-
cells of higher plants (1) Prophase (2) G1 phase
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) Interphase (4) Telophase
(4) Histone protein synthesis is absent 115. Which of the following is correct event for G2
110. The enzme involved in the process of crossing phase of interphase ?
over : (1) DNA replication in the nucleus and the
(1) Crossinase (2) DNA ligase centriole duplication in the cytoplasm

(3) Recombinase (4) DNA polymerase (2) Attachment of spindle fibres to

kinetochores of chromosomes
111. Phragmoplast is a term used in connection with
(3) Proteins are synthesised in prepration for
(1) Division of nucleus mitosis
(2) Cell elongation (4) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(3) Assemblage of chromosomes at metaphase 116. According to HGP the average gene consists
(4) Cytokinesis of...I...bases while the largest known human
gene consists of...II...bases.
112. What is significance of meiosis division?
Choose the correct digit for I and II blanks.
(1) Creates variation in sexually reproducing I II
organisms
(1) 30,000 2.4 million
(2) In evolution
(2) 231 1.4 million
(3) Generation to generation maintain constant
(3) 3000 1,40,000
number of chromosome
(4) 3000 2.4 million
(4) All of the above
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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117. The number of chromosomes in Down's 121. Given below in the diagrammatic sketch of the
syndrome is: trancription unit. Identify the parts labelled A, B,
(1) 23rd pair with one less = 45 C and D. Select the right option about them.

(2) 21st pair with one more = 47

(3) 17th pair with one more = 47
(4) One extra sex chromosome = 47
Part- A Part- B Part- C Part -D
118. A + G = C + T is applicable to :-
Pribnow Antisense
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA (1) Promoter Sense strand
box strand
(3) mRNA (4) DNA Sense Antisense
(2) Terminator Promoter
119. Read the following statements and select the strand strand
correct option :- Antisense
(3) Promoter Terminator Sense strand
a. DNA polymorphism in the basis of genetic strand
mapping of human genome as well as DNA Sense Antisense
(4) Promoter Terminator
finger printing. strand strand
b. Minisatellites are also called VNTR. 122. Most number of genes are located on
(1) Only a is correct chromosome :-
(2) Both a & b are incorrect (1) 6 (2) X (3) 1 (4) 21
(3) Only b is correct 123. How many ATP and GTP molecules are required
(4) Both a & b are correct respectively for incorporation of amino acid in
peptide chain for translation of following m-
120. Which one of the following options given the RNA sequence :-
correct categorisation of codon according to 5'AUG GGG GAG GUG UUU UAG UCC UAU
given A, B and C AUG UAA3'
A B C
(1) 9 ATP & 9 GTP (2) 9 ATP & 18 GTP
Phenyl alanine Glycine Stop codon
(3) 18 ATP & 9 GTP (4) 5 ATP & 10 GTP
UUU GAG UAA
(1) 124. Termination of transcription is achieved by :-
CUU AUG UGA
UUU GGG UAA (1) Releasing factor (RF)
(2)
UUC GGC UAG (2) Sigma factor ( σ )
UAA GAU UGA (3) Rho factor ( ρ )
(3)
UGA CAG UAG
(4) Stop codon
UUU GGG UGA
(4)
UUA GGU UAG
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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125. In a double stranded DNA, if base sequence in 131.

one strand is ATTAGA then find out ?
(A) Total number of hydrogen bond
(B) Total number of phosphodiester bond
(C) Total number of sugar molecule What was the result of Griffth's experiment :-
(D) Total number of nitrogen base (i) He obtain living S bacteria from dead mice
(1) (A)-13, (B)-12, (C)-12, (D)-12 (ii) Genetic material is transformed to R bacteria
in S III form.
(2) (A)-12, (B)-11, (C)-10, (D)-10 (iii) DNA was Ist time discovered as genetic
(3) (A)-13, (B)-10, (C)-12, (D)-12 material
How many statement is correct?
(4) (A)-12, (B)-12, (C)-10, (D)-10
(1) All three (2) Only ii and iii
126. In E.coil, Lac operon is induced by:
(3) Only i and ii (4) Only i and iii
(1) I-gene (2) Lactose
132. Select the wrong statement :-
(3) Permease (4) β – galactosidase
(1) Meselson & Stahl used non radio active
127. Which one of the following acts as catalyst in a
isotope to prove semiconservative mode of
bacterial cell?
DNA replication
(1) "5" S-rRNA (2) "28" S-rRNA
(2) RNA can directly code for synthesis of
(3) "16" S-rRNA (4) "23" S – rRNA protein
128. The last step in DNA finger printing technique is :- (3) RNA mutate faster than DNA
(1) Autoradiography (4) Radio active substance detected in uper
(2) Digestion of DNA by restriction layer of centrifugation tube if radio active
endonuclease 'P' was used by Hershey & Chase
(3) Separation of DNA fragments by 133. Central dogma of molecular biology was
electrophoresis proposed by
(4) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe (1) F. Crick (2) H. Temin
129. Which organism was utilised by Taylor et. al. to (3) D. Baltimore (4) M. Wikins
prove semiconservative replication of DNA 134. The number of base pairs in E.coli is
using radioactive thymidine?
(1) 6.6 × 109 (2) 4.6 × 106
(1) E.coli (2) Oryza sativa
(3) 0.34 × 106 (4) 1.36 × 109
(3) Drosophila (4) Vicia faba
130. Double strand DNA having 6800 nucleotides
total, then what will be the total Helix Number in
it :-
(1) 340 (2) 200 (3) 50 (4) 680

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135. In the given diagram identify A, B and C 140. Lac y gene in Lac operon
(1) Is constitutive
(2) Produces a biochemical called repressor
protein
(3) Codes for permease that increases
A B C permeability of cell to β -galactoside
(1) 15N15N 15N15N 14N14N
(4) Produces β -galactosidase that degrades
15 15 14 14 14 14
(2) N N N N N N lactose
(3) 15N15N 14N15N 14N14N
141. Which of the following is/are wrong ?
(4) 14N15N 15N15N 14N14N (a) RNA splicing means removal of introns and
joining of exons.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (b) Steps of eukaryotic transcription are DNA
SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) (split gene) → hnRNA (primary transcript) →
Splicing or tailoring → Capping → Tailing →
136. Tm (Melting temperature) value of DNA in high mRNA (fully processed hnRNA]
when it contains : (c) The split gene arrangements represent
(1) High GC (2) High AT probably an advance feature of the genome.
(d) Presence of introns is reminiscent of
(3) A + T > G + C (4) A + T = G + C antiquity i.e., no role of introns in protein
137. A DNA have 2000 bp and 20% adenine, then synthesis.
find out no. of hydrogen bond in DNA : (e) Splicing represents the dominance of RNA
(1) 3600 H-bond (2) 5200 H-bond world.

(3) 1600 H-bond (4) 1998 H-bond (1) a, c, d, e

138. In a eukaryotic cell, three types of RNA (2) a, b, d, e

polymerases are found. Which of the given (3) c, d, e
RNA/enzyme will not be formed if the cell lacks (4) Only b & c are wrong
RNA polymerase II?
142. Which among these codons acts as initiator
(1) Peptidyl transferase codon?
(2) snRNA (1) UGG (2) UAG (3) UAA (4) AUG
(3) 18S rRNA 143. Which one is the correct squence of cell cycle ?
(4) hnRNA (1) G2 → M → G1 → S
139. Which of the following does not have dsDNA ? (2) S → G2 → M → G1
(1) Lambda phage (3) G1 → S → G2 → M
(2) Homo sapiens (4) M → G1 → S → G2
(3) ϕ × 174 bacteriophage
(4) E. coli
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144. Gap between meiosis - I and meiosis-II is called :-
(1) Cytokinesis (2) Karyo kinesis
(3) Interphase (4) Interkinesis
145. Interphase is also called resting stage because
(1) Cell has stopped differentiation
(2) Cell is metabolically inactive
(3) No visible changes occur in the nucleus
148. Assertion (A) : Meiosis is responsible for
conservation of constant number of
chromosomes across generations in a sexually
reproducing organism.
Reason (R) : Number of chromosome is reduced
to half during anaphase-II of meiosis II.
(1) A is true while R is false
(2) A and R both are false

(4) Cell does not grow (3) A and R both are true and R explain A

146. Cells at the end of _______, when viewed under (4) A and R both are true and R does not
explain A
microscope do not show golgi bodies, ER,
nucleolus and nuclear membrane. 149. Precursor of cell wall is :
(1) Metaphase (2) Prophase (1) Cell membrane
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (2) Cell fragments
147. The given graph shows the change in DNA (3) Cell plate
content in a single cell during the mitosis which (4) Nuclear membrane
stage occurs between the time x and y ?
150. G1 phase in a cell cycle:
I. Corresponds to the interval between initiation
of mitosis and DNA replication.
II. Is characterized by a metabolically active cell
that grows continuously and replicates its DNA.
(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(1) Interphase (2) Prophase
(3) Both I and II are correct
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(4) Both I and II are incorrect

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Topic : Evolution (Complete),Breathing & Exchanges Of Gases

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 157. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced

amino acids by mixing the following in a closed
151. Which organ in man is not vestigial. flask
(1) Pinna muscles (1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800oC
(2) Vermiform appendix (2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600oC
(3) Epiglottis (3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600oC
(4) Nictitating membrane (4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800oC
152. The biggest dinosaur with fearsome dagger like 158. The ultimate source of all variations is :
teeth was (1) Mutation
(1) Tyrannosaurus (2) Pteranodon
(2) Sexual reproduction
(3) Stegosaurus (4) Triceratops
(3) Genetic drift
153. Missing link between reptiles and aves is -
(4) Natural selection
(1) Tyrannosaurus rex (2) Peripatus
159. Which of the following pairs of structures
(3) Platypus (4) Archaeopteryx is homologous?
154. Louis Pasteur's view on the origin of life is that: (1) Wings of grasshopper and forelimbs of
(1) Life originated within six days flying squirrel.
(2) Life originated from the living organisms (2) Tentacles of Hydra and arms of star fish.
only (3) Forelimbs of bat and forelegs of Horse.
(3) Life originated spontaneously from the non (4) Wings of bird and wings of moth.
living substances
160. According to Lamarckism, long necked
(4) Life came from other planet giraffes evolved because of
155. The Earth come in existence about ? (1) Stretching of necks over many
(1) 4.5 billion years ago generation by short necked ones.
(2) 3.7 billion years ago (2) Nature selected only long necked ones.

(3) 2.9 billion years ago (3) Human preferred only long necked ones.

(4) 1.5 billion years ago (4) Short necks suddenly changed into long
necks.
156. Use and Disuse of organ theory was proposed by
161. The theory of evolution indicates that man
(1) Lamarck (2) Darwin
(1) Evolved from monkeys
(3) Vries (4) Mendel
(2) Evolved from apes
(3) And apes had a common ancestor
(4) Evolved from dinosaurs
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162. Gene pool is 168. Match the column

(1) Genotype of an individual of a population
(2) Total genes and their alleles in a population
(3) Pool of artificially synthesised genes
(4) Genes of a genus
163. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in (1) a - r,b - s,c - q,d - p (2) a - t,b - s,c - p,d - q
(1) Human (2) Frog (3) a - r,b - s,c - q,d - t (4) a - r,b - t,c - q,d - p
(3) Crocodile (4) Lizard 169. Under normal condition 100ml of blood carry
164. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) 4 ml of CO2 (2) 10 ml of CO2
(1) The skull of adult chimpanzee is more like (3) 1.34 ml of CO2 (4) 30 ml of CO2
adult human skull than baby chimpanzee 170. Rate of respiration in directly affected by
skull.
(1) CO2 concentration
(2) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like
adult human skull than adult chimpanzee (2) O2 in trachea
skull. (3) Concentration of O2
(3) The Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked
in Malay Archepelago come to same (4) Diaphragm expansion
conclusions as that of Darwinism. 171. Carbonic anhydrase is abundantly found in
(4) Homo sapiens arose in Africa and (1) WBC (2) RBC
moved across continents and developed
into distinct races. (3) Blood plasma (4) All
165. In Hardy-weinberg equation, the frequency 172. Which of the following is incorrect about the
given graph
of heterozygous individual is represented by
(1) pq (2) p2 (3) q2 (4) 2pq
166. Which species of Homo used hides to protect
their body and buried their dead.
(1) H. sapiens sapiens
(2) H. sapiens fossilis
(3) H. sapiens neanderthalenis
(4) H. erectus erectus (1) The curve is called carbon-di-oxide
dissociation curve
167. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
for a gene with only two alleles. If the gene (2) The part 'A' represents percentage
frequency of an allele A is 0.7, the genotype saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen
frequency of Aa is : (3) This curve is highly useful in studying the effect
(1) 0.21 (2) 0.42 (3) 0.36 (4) 0.7 of factors like pcO2, H+ concentration, etc
(4) The part 'B' represents partial pressure of O2
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173. What happens to the O2 dissociation curve of Hb 178. Which of the following sequences is correct
if pH is decreased to initiate inspiration
(1) Shift to left i. The contraction of external intercostal muscles
raises the ribs and sternum
(2) Shift to right ii. Volume of thorax increases in the
(3) Remains unchanged dorsoventral axis
(4) Will oscillate erratically iii. Intrapulmonary pressure decreases
iv. Diaphragm contraction
174. Arrange the following in the order of v. Air rushes into lungs
increasing volume: vi. Volume of thorax increases in the anterior
A. Tidal volume - posterior axis
B. Residual volume
(1) (i),(ii),(iv),(v),(iii),(vi)
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Vital capacity (2) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(vi),(v)
(1) A < B < C < D (2) A < C < B < D (3) (i),(ii),(iv),(vi),(iii),(v)
(3) A < D < C < B (4) A < D < B < C (4) (vi),(v),(i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
175. Trachea is lined with incomplete rings of 179. In alveolar air, the partial pressure of CO2 is
(1) Fibrous cartilage (2) Calcified cartilage (1) 40 mm of Hg (2) 95 mm of Hg
(3) Elastic cartilage (4) Hyaline cartilage (3) 104 mm of Hg (4) 45 mm of Hg
176. Which of the following in not true about asthma 180. Match the items on column I with column II
(1) The basic defect is chronic inflamation and choose the correct option
of airways
(2) The air way smooth muscle is
hyper responsive
(3) It can be treated with bronchiodilator
therapy
(4) It is always caused by a infection
177. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate
the functions of respiratory rhythm centre is (1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
present at
181. Which of the following lung volumes or
(1) Cerebellum capacities can be measured by spirometer
(2) Medulla directly
(3) Pons (1) Functional residual capacity
(4) Left cerebral hemisphere (2) Residual volume
(3) Total lung capacity
(4) Vital capacity
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182. Trachea divide into left and right primary 187. Directional selection favours
bronchi at the level of (1) Only one extreme form of a trait
(1) 4th thoracic vertebra (2) Both extreme forms of a trait
(2) 5th thoracic vertebra (3) Intermediate form of a trait
(3) 6th thoracic vertebra (4) Environmental differences
(4) 3rd thoracic vertebra 188. This question consist of two statements each,
183. This question consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While
printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering this Questions you are required to
answering this Questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
choose any one of the following four responses. (A) If both A & R are True & the R is a
(A) If both A & R are True & the R is a correct explanation of the A.
correct explanation of the A. (B) If both A & R are True but R is not a
(B) If both A & R are True but R is not a correct explanation of the A.
correct explanation of the A. (C) If A is True but the R is False.
(C) If A is True but the R is False. (D) If both A & R are False.
(D) If both A & R are False.
Assertion (A): Chemosensitive area is
Assertion (A):The diffusion of CO2 is
situated adjacent to the rhythm center which is
generally from tissues to alveoli but not in
highly sensitive to CO2 and H+ ions
Reason (R): The role of oxygen in the regulation reverse direction
of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant Reason (R): Solubility of CO2 is 10 times more
than O2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
184. During inspiration , the pressure of air is
maximum in 189. This question consist of two statements each,
(1) Trachea (2) Bronchus printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering this Questions you are required to
(3) Alveoli (4) Environment choose any one of the following four responses.
185. Hugo de Vries worked on the plant (A) If both A & R are True & the R is a
(1) Pisum sativum correct explanation of the A.
(B) If both A & R are True but R is not a
(2) Lathyrus odoratus correct explanation of the A.
(3) Primula sinensis (C) If A is True but the R is False.
(D) If both A & R are False.
(4) Oenothera lamarkiana
SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY ) Assertion (A):Smoking makes oxygen less
available to the body
186. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium operates in the Reason (R): In presence of CO, O2 binds less
absence of:
with haemoglobin
(1) Recombination (2) Mutation
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(3) Natural selection (4) All of these
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190. Chloride shift occurs in response to 194. The diversity within the wild bird species in the
(1) H+ (2) K+ (3) HCO−3 (4) Na+ diagram below can best be explained by which
process ?
191. Match the hominids with their correct brain size.
A. Homo habilis I. 900 cc
B. Homo neanderthalensis II. 1350 cc
C. Homo erectus III. 650-800 cc
D. Homo sapiens IV. 1400 cc
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (1) Natural selection (2) Ecological succession
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 195. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the
192. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges form ___A___, ventrally by the ___B___, laterally by
2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average the ___C___ and on lower side by the dome-
weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% shaped ___D___.
of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 or Select the right choices for A, B, C and D.
4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process
is taking place? (1) A-vertebral column, B-sternum, C-ribs, D-
diaphragm
(1) Cyclical selection
(2) A-vertebral column, B-ribs, C-sternum, D-
(2) Directional selection diaphragm
(3) Stabilizing selection (3) A-diaphragm, B-ribs, C-sternum, D-
(4) Disruptive selection vertebral column
193. Match List-I with List-II. (4) A-ribs, B-diaphragm, C-sternum, D-
List-I List-II vertebral column
Selection of resistant
varieties due to 196. Select the favourable conditions required for the
a Adaptive
radiation i excessive use of formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli
herbicides &
pesticides (1) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher
temperature
b Convergent
evolution ii Bones of forelimbs
in Man & Whale
(2) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower
c Divergent
evolution iii Wings
& bird
of Butterfly temperature
Evolution by (3) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher
d anthropogenic iv Darwin Finches temperature
action
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher
given below. temperature
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

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197. Identify A to E in the given diagram and chose
the correct option accordingly.
(1) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary artery,
Pulmonary vein, D-Systemic vein,
Systemic arteries
(2) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary vein,
Pulmonary artery, D-Systemic vein,
Systemic arteries
(3) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary vein,
Pulmonary artery, D-Systemic arteries,
Systemic vein
(4) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary vein,
Pulmonary artery, D-Systemic arteries.
Portal vein
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28 English
198. This question consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering this Questions you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.
(A) If both A & R are True & the R is a
correct explanation of the A.
(B) If both A & R are True but R is not a
correct explanation of the A.
(C) If A is True but the R is False.
(D) If both A & R are False.
Assertion (A): Tasmanian wolf and Placental
wolf are the good example of convergent
C- evolution.
E- Reason (R): More than one adaptive radiation
appeared to have occured in an isolated
C- geographical area, (representing different
E- habitates) one can call this convergent evolution.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
C- 199. This question consist of two statements each,
E- printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering this Questions you are required to
C- choose any one of the following four responses.
E- (A) If both A & R are True & the R is a
correct explanation of the A.
(B) If both A & R are True but R is not a
correct explanation of the A.
(C) If A is True but the R is False.
(D) If both A & R are False.
Assertion (A): Lichens can be used as industrial
pollution indicator.
Reason (R): Lichens forces the moth to change
as dark-winged or white winged in industrial
area
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
200. At the time of an inspiration, muscles of
diaphragm are
(1) Contracted (2) Relaxed
(3) Unaffected (4) Become colied
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