AEEE

SAMPLE PAPERS
 Amrita VISHWA VIDYAPEETHAM
(University established u/s 3 of UGC Act 1956)

Amrita Entrance Examination – Engineering 2015

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Question Booklet
Version Code A Question Booklet No. Time: 2½ Hrs
Max. Marks:
Number of Pages 20 Number of Questions 100 300
Name of the Candidate
Registration Number
Signature of the Candidate
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

GENERAL
1. Any malpractice or attempt to commit malpractice in the examination hall will lead to disqualification of the
candidate.
2. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written bits of paper, Mathematical and
Physical Tables, Electronic gadgets like tablet, calculator, cell phone, etc. into the examination hall.
3. Candidates shall possess the Amrita Entrance Examination – Engineering 2015 Hall Ticket which should be
produced on demand.
4. Candidates shall occupy the respective seats bearing their registration numbers.
5. Candidates shall sign the attendance sheet available with the invigilator.
6. Candidates are not permitted to leave the hall before the end of the examination.
7. Candidates are required to handover the ANSWER SHEET and the QUESTION BOOKLET to the
invigilator before leaving the hall.
8. After submitting the answer sheet, candidates are required to affix their left thumb impression on
the attendance sheet available with the invigilator.

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 QUESTION BOOKLET
9. DO NOT OPEN THIS SEALED BOOKLET UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR ANNOUNCES TO DO SO.
10. Before opening the Question Booklet, write the Name, Registration Number and Signature using ball
pen in the space provided at the top of this page.
11. Immediately after opening the booklet, examine whether it contains all the 100 questions in serial
order and 20 pages as mentioned at the top of this page. In case of unprinted, torn or missing pages, the
matter should be reported to the invigilator immediately.
12. Rough work may be done on the space provided in this booklet.
(Continued on the last page)

Space for rough work

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 PHYSICS

1. The electric current in a circuit is given by I = I0 sin ( t +θ). What is the dimension
of ?
a) second b) 1/second
c) meter / second d) dimensionless

2. The velocity varies with time according to the relation, v = 3t + 4. The distance travelled
by the body in t = 2 s will be

a) 10 m b) 12 m
c) 14 m d) 16 m

3. When a projectile is at the highest point on its trajectory, the potential and kinetic
energies are respectively

a) maximum and minimum b) minimum and zero

c) zero and maximum d) maximum and zero

4. A block of mass 2 kg starts moving when the angle of inclination of the inclined plane is
60o. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.6, the frictional force is

a) 2 N b) 1 N
c) 4 N d) 0.5 N

5. Two forces F1 = (7i + 2j) N and F2 = (-5i + 3j) N act on a particle. The third force F3 that
should act on the particle to make it move with constant velocity is

a) (2i + 5j) N b) (-2i – 5j) N

c) (–2i + 5j) N d) (2i – 5j) N

6. Two satellites of masses 3M and M orbit the earth in circular orbits of radii r and 3r
respectively. The ratio of their speeds is

a) 1 : 1 b) :1
c) 3 : 1 d) 9 : 1

7. In an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is proportional to the cube of its absolute
temperature. The value of (which equals Cp/Cv) is

a) 5/4 b) 4/3
c) 5/3 d) 3/2

Space for rough work

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8. A mass is moving towards the origin along the x-axis with constant velocity. Its angular
momentum with respect to the origin

a) remains constant b) is zero

c) increases d) decreases

9. The rate of cooling of a liquid is 4o C/s, when its temperature is 80o C and is 2o C/s when
its temperature is 50o C. The temperature of the surrounding is
a) 30o C b) 20o C
c) 10o C d) 25o C

10. A Charged sphere of radius 1m carries a charge of 1 x 10-9 C. The electric fields at a
point P, which is at a distance d = 3m from the centre of the sphere and at a point Q, at
a distance d = 0.3m from the centre of the sphere are respectively
a) 1 N/C and 100 N/C b) 1 N/C and zero
c) zero and 1 N/C d) 1 N/C and 3 N/C

11. An electric dipole lying along X-axis with moment 5 Am2 is subjected to an electric field
of magnitude 10j N/C. The torque experienced is
a) 2 Nm b) 10 Nm
c) 50 Nm d) 25 Nm

12. A parallel plate capacitor with air gap of 5 mm is 2 MFD. If a metallic plate of thickness
3 mm is inserted in between the plates, the new capacitance is
a) 5 MFD b) 1 MFD
c) 2 MFD d) 2.5 MFD

13. A galvanometer of resistance 50 ohm gives a full scale deflection when 3 mA current
passes through it. The series resistance that is to be connected to convert it into a
voltmeter of range 0 – 3 V is
a) 500 Ω b) 950 Ω
c) 1000 Ω d) 750 Ω

14. Two resistances 6Ω and 3Ω are connected in parallel and this combination is connected
in series with a 4Ω resistance. This combination is powered by a voltage source of 12 V
and zero internal resistance. The ratio of power dissipated between 6Ω resistance and
4Ω resistance is
a) 1:4 b) 4:1
c) 1:8 d) 3:2

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15. Two charged particles of charge ratio 1:4 moving with same velocity enter a region of
uniform magnetic field of strength B and get deflected and move along curves with equal
radius R. The ratio of their masses is
a) 4:1 b) 2:1
c) 1:4 d) 1:2

16. When a charged particle moves in a region with electric field E = 3i N/C and magnetic
field B = 5j T, the trajectory of the particle is
a) circle b) parabola
c) straight line d) helix

17. Two co-axial coils A and B of radius R1 and R2 carry equal amount of current but flowing
in opposite direction. The net magnetic field produced at the centre of these coils is zero.
The ratio of the current flowing in the coil A to current in coil B is
a) R1 : R2 b) R2 : R1
2
c) (R2 / R1) d) (R1 / R2)2

18. Which among the following is a desirable feature of a ferromagnet that can be used as
core of a transformer?
a) high hysteresis loss and low retentivity
b) low hysteresis loss and high retentivity
c) high coercive field and high retentivity
d) low hysteresis loss and low retentivity

19. The phase difference between the current through the resistance and voltage across the
resistance in a series LCR circuit is
a) 180o b) 0o
c) 90o d) 45o

20. An object of size 10 cm is kept at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens. If the focal
length of the lens is 5 cm, the size of the image is
a) 10 cm b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm d) 15 cm

21. A biconvex lens of focal length 10 cm is to be made from a glass material. If the
refractive index of the material is 1.5, what must be the radius of curvature of the
surface of the lens?
a) 0.1 m b) 0.15 m
c) 0.20 m d) 0.30 m

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22. A diffraction grating with 106 lines / m is used to determine the wavelength of a
monochromatic source. The angle of first order diffraction is 30 o. The wavelength of the
source is
a) 1000 nm b) 500 nm
c) 400 nm d) 600 nm

23. A glass plate of thickness 1.5 μm and refractive index 1.5 is introduced between one of
the slits and screen in a Young’s double slit experiment. If the wavelength of the
monochromatic source used is = 0.75 μm, the phase difference between the
interfering waves at the centre of the screen is equal to

a) 6 b) 3

c) d) 2

24. What is the velocity of light in a medium with refractive index 1.5?
a) 2 x 108 m/s b) 3 x 108 m/s
c) 1.5 x 108 m/s d) 2.5 x 108 m/s

25. Which among the following electromagnetic radiations is the most energetic?
a) Infra red light b) Visible light
c) Ultraviolet light d) microwaves

26. Which of the following particles has the shortest de-Broglie wavelength, if all of them
move with same speed?
a) beta particle b) alpha particle
c) proton d) neutron

27. The mass of a photon of wavelength is given by

a) h /c b) /hc
c) h/ c d) hc/

28. The radius of a nucleus with A = 256 is 8 fermi (1 fermi = 1 x 10-15 m). The radius of a
nucleus with A = 4 is
a) 1 fermi b) 2 fermi
c) 3 fermi d) 4 fermi

29. Photons of energy 6 eV fall on the surface of a metal with work function 4 eV. The
stopping potential of the metal surface is
a) 2 V b) 10 V
c) 3 V d) 1 V

30. Addition of a minute quantity of phosphorus to a silicon crystal makes it

a) an n-type semiconductor b) a bad conductor
c) a good conductor d) a p-type semiconductor

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 CHEMISTRY
31. The actual atomic weight of an element is represented in
a) number b) “u”
c) “amu” d) “mu”

32. The weight of nascent oxygen in milligrams obtained from 6.32 g of potassium
permanganate (Molecular weight 158) in acid medium is
a) 16 b) 0.016
c) 0.16 d) 1.6

33. The value of Plank’s constant in units of Js is

a) 6.626 x 10-34 b) 6.626 x 10-23
c) 6.626 x 10-27 d) 1.38 x 10-23

34. The mass of proton having a wavelength of 4.2Ao is

a) 4.78 x 10-33 kg b) 4.78 x 10-33 g
c) 7.17 x 10-33 kg d) 2.39 x 10-33 g

35. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on

a) zeroth law of thermodynamics b) first law of thermodynamics
c) second law of thermodynamics d) kirchoffs equation

36. The bond dissociation enthalpies of H2(g), Cl2(g) and HCl(g) are 435, 243 and 431
kJ/mol respectively. The enthalpy of formation of HCl(g) in kJ/mol will be
a) 121 b) -1211
c) -121 d) -242

37. Defective coating of zinc over mild steel leads to

a) enhanced corrosion of mild steel
b) increase of corrosion potential
c) corrosion of zinc coating
d) hydrogen evolution over mild steel

38. What will happen to the rate constant of a reaction when the temperature is raised by
10o C?
a) Increase by 10 times b) Is halved
c) Is doubled d) Not affected

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39. The equivalent conductances at infinite dilution ( ) of ammonium chloride, sodium
hydroxide and sodium chloride are 120, 240 and 150 mhocm 2eq-1. The of
ammonium hydroxide in mhocm2eq-1 is
a) 270 b) 210
c) 30 d) 510

40. 100 cm3 of an aqueous solution of protein contains 0.63 g of protein. If the osmotic
pressure of the solution at 300K is 2.57 x 10-3 bar, the molar mass of the protein will be
a) 60039 b) 61039
c) 62039 d) 63039

41. A compound formed by elements P and Q crystallizes in cubic structure in which atoms
of P are at corners and atoms of Q are at the face center. The formula of the compound
is
a) AB3 b) AB
c) A3B d) A2B

42. Syn gas is a mixture of

a) carbon dioxide and hydrogen b) carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c) methane and hydrogen d) methane and carbon monoxide

43. Which one of the following alkali metal hydrides is thermally stable?
a) Lithium hydride b) Sodium hydride
c) Potassium hydride d) Rubidium hydride

44. The correct order of acidic character of the following is

a) SO2 > CO2 > CO >N2O5 b) SO2 > N2O5 > CO > CO2
c) N2O5 > SO2 > CO > CO2 d) N2O5 > SO2 > CO2 > CO

45. Bell metal is an alloy of

a) copper and tin b) silver and copper
c) copper and nickel d) copper, zinc and tin

46. Ammonium dichromate is used in fireworks. The green coloured powder blown in the air
is
a) CrO3 b) Cr2O3
c) Cr d) CrO (O2)

47. Which one of the following complexing agents is used for the estimation of hardness of
water?
a) Cyanide b) Pyrophosphate
c) EDTA d) Ethylene diamine

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48. How many and bonds are present in nitromethane
a) 6 and 1 b) 5 and 2
c) 6 and 2 d) 5 and 1

49. Retardation factor is calculated as

a) ratio between ‘distance travelled by the substance from the base line and distance
moved by the solvent from the base line’

b) ratio between ‘distance travelled by the solvent from the base line and distance
moved by the substance from the base line’

c) sum of ‘distance travelled by the substance from the base line and distance moved
by the solvent from the base line’

d) difference of ‘distance travelled by the substance from the base line and distance
moved by the solvent from the base line’

50. In which one of the following, Mn exhibits its highest oxidation state?

a) MnO2 b)

c) d) MnO

51. SN1 reaction is favored by

a) non polar solvents
b) more number of alkyl group on the carbon atom attached to the halogen atom
c) small groups on the carbon attached to the halogen atom
d) no groups on the carbon attached to the halogen atom

52. Phenol is less acidic than

a) ethanol b) o-nitrophenol
c) o-methylphenol d) o-methoxyphenol

53. Chloro ethane reacts with compound Z to form diethyl ether. Identify Z?
a) NaOH b) H2SO4
c) C2H5ONa d) Na2S2O3

54. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic
acid?
a) Tollens’ reagent b) Molisch reagent
c) Neutral FeCl3 d) Aqueous NaOH

Space for rough work

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55. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound ‘B’.

The compound B is
a) CH3CHO b) CH3COCH3

c) CH3CH2CHO d) CH3CH2COCH3

56. How many chiral carbons are there in -D-(+)-glucose?

a) five b) six
c) three d) four

57. Why are certain rubbers called as ‘vulcanized rubber’?

a) They are formed under volcanic eruption
b) They are prepared by adding 5% of sulphur as cross-linking agent
c) They do not use any co-monomer
d) By the addition of excessive co-monomer

58. One of the common components of photochemical smog is

a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde
c) methane d) CO2

59. Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate refers to

a) anionic detergent b) soap
c) cationic detergent d) nonionic detergent

60. Which one of the following acts as antihistamine?

a) Equanil b) Morphine
c) Serotonine d) Bromophenylamine

Space for rough work

AEE15vA 10
 MATHEMATICS

61. If a, b, c are AM, GM and HM respectively of two equal numbers, then

a) 2b = a + c b) b = 2ac / (a+c)
c) b2 = ac d) ab2 = c

62. The harmonic mean of the roots of the equation is

(7 + √3) x2 - (6 + √7) x + (12 + 2√7 ) = 0
a) 8 b) 6
c) 3 d) 4

63. The general solution of x satisfying the system of equations 5 (Sinx+Siny) = 1;

25(Sin2x+Sin2y) = 5 is

a) n /6 b) 2n + /6
c) n -( /6) d) n + /6

64. The angles of a triangle are in A.P and the least angle is 40°. The greatest angle in
radians is

a) /2 b) 4 /9
c) /4 d) 3 /2

65. If Sin =1/√5 and tan =1/2, then Cos is equal to

a) 2/√5 b) 1/√3
c) 1/√5 d) 1/(2√5)

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66. The value of is equal to
a) 1 b) e4
c) e d) e1/4

67. Rolle’s Theorem for f(x) = x(x-3)e(-x⁄2) is applicable in the interval

a) (0, 3) b) (0, -3)
c) (-3, 0) d) (3, 0)

68. Equation of the normal to the curve y=(1+x)y + Sin-1(Sin2 x) at x = 0 is

a) y = x b) y - x = 1
c) y + x = 1 d) y - 1 = 2x

69. If A and B are two matrices such that AB = A and BA = B , then A2 – B2 =

a) 2 AB b) A – B
c) A + B d) 2 BA

70. The system of linear equations x + 3y + ( +2)z = 0, 2x + 4y + 8z = 0,

3x + 5y + 10z = 0 has non-trivial solution, when is

a) -2 b) 2
c) 4 d) -4

71. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are in the ratio 2 : 3, then
a) 6b2 = 25 ac b) 6b2 = 25(a+c)
c) 13b2 = 6 ac d) 13b2 + 6 ac = 0

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72. If and are adjacent sides of a parallelogram with | + |=| - |, the adjacent
sides of parallelogram are

a) perpendicular b) inclined at an angle of /3

c) parallel d) inclined at an angle of /4

73. The scalar ◦{ + ) X ( + + )} is equal to

a) [ , , ] b) 0

c) [ , , ] + [ , , ] d) [ , , ] + [ , , ] + [ , , ]

74. The equation of the line passing through the point of intersection of the lines and which

is perpendicular to the plane

5x-y+9z=10 is

a) b)

c) d)

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75. The equation of the plane through the intersection of the planes 2x – y + z = 6 and
x + y + 2z = 7 and passing through the point (1, 1, 1) is

a) 2x - 7y – 5z + 10 = 0 b) 2x – 7y + 5z +10 = 0
c) 2x - 7y – 5z – 10 = 0 d) 2x + 7y – 5z – 10 = 0

76. The equation of the line passing through the point (1, 1, 0) and parallel to the plane
3x + 2y + z = 5 is

a) b)

c) d)

77. The angle between the complex numbers 2 + 2i and -7 is

a) /2 b) /4
c) 3 /2 d) 3 /4

78. What is the value of ?

a) b)

c) d)

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79. The ratio between the number of ways we can arrange n persons in a circular manner to
the number of ways we can arrange them in a line is

a) 1:n b) n:1

c) 1:1 d) 1:2

80. A team of 8 students goes on an excursion, in two cars, of which one can seat 5 and the
other only 4. In how many ways can they travel?

a) 274 b) 26

c) 126 d) 96

81. The number of common tangents to the circles x2 + y2 – 4y = 0 and x2 + y2 – 2y = 0 is

a) 4 b) 2

c) 3 d) 1

82. Centre of the circle passing through (4, 5), (3, 4), (5, 2) is
a) (9/2, 7/2) b) (7/2, 9/2)

c) (7/2, 7/2) d) (9/2, 9/2)

83. If e1 and e2 are the eccentricities of a hyperbola and its conjugate then will be

a) 1 b)

c) 0 d)

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84. The equation 4x2 + 7y2 + 32x – 56y + 148 =0 represents
a) an ellipse with center (4, -4)
b) an ellipse with center (-4, 4)
c) an ellipse with center (2, -2)
d) an ellipse with center (-2, 2)

85. The equation for the circle obtained by shifting the circle x2 + y2 = 49 to 3 units down
and 2 units left is:

a) (x+3)2 + (y+2)2 = 49 b) (x-3)2 + (y-2)2 = 49

c) (x-2)2 + (y-3)2 = 49 d) (x+2)2 + (y+3)2 = 49

86. The variance of a data set is k, then the variance of the data set obtained by shifting the
original data to 3 units is

a) k – 3 b) k + 3

c) k d) 3k

87. Suppose that P (A/B) = 0.7, P(A) = 0.5 and P(B) = 0.2 then P(B/A) is,

a) 0.14 b) 0.4

c) 0.3 d) 0.28

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88. A medical test is capable of identifying someone with the illness as positive is 99% and
someone without illness as negative 95%. If the illness is present in the general
population with probability 0.0001, the probability for anyone to have illness when the
medical test results positive is

a) 0.00009 b) 0.002

c) 0.0001 d) 0.9980

89. The probability that the roots of the equation = 0 are not real

numbers where n N such that n 5 is

a) 2/5 b) 4/5
c) 1/5 d) 3/5

90. If A is area lying between the curve y = cos x and x-axis between x = 0 and x = /2 ,
then the area of the region between the curve y = cos2x/2 and the x-axis in the same
interval is given by

a) ( +A)/2 b) ( /4)+A

c) ( /2)+A d) ( /4)+(A/2)

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AEE15vA 17
91. is equal to

a) 2 b) -2

c) 1 d) 0

92. If the area bounded by the curve y = f(x), x-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = b is
(b - 1) sin(3b + 4), then f(x) is

a) [(x-1) cos (3x+4)] b) [sin(3x+4) + 3(x-1) cos(3x+4)]

c) sin (3x+4) d) None

93. The coefficient of x10 in the expansion of (1 - x3 )4 (1 + x)5 is

a) 15 b) 20

c) 10 d) 6

94. Which one of the following is TRUE for any x

a) b)

c) d)

95. The order and degree of the differential equation is

a) 1, 2 b) 1, 4
c) 1, 5√2 d) 1, 3

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96. The general solution of the differential equation (1 + e(x/y) ) dx + e(x/y) (1-(x/y)) dy = 0
is
a) y + xe(x/y)=C b) x + ye(x/y)=C
c) x + C=ye(x/y) d) y + ye(x/y)=C

97. The triangle with vertices A = (2, 7), B = (4, y) and C = (-2, 6) is right angled at B if
the value of y is

a) 10 or -3 b) -10 or -3
c) 10 or 3 d) 9 or 4

98. The point equidistant from the three lines x + y =1, y = 1 and x = 1 is

a) b)

c) d)

99. The equation of the line mid parallel to the two lines 5x – 2y – 9 = 0 and 5x – 2y + 7 = 0 is

a) x + 5y – 8 = 0 b) 5x – y – 1 =0
c) 2 x -5y – 6 =0 d) 5x - 2y – 1 =0

100. The straight line 3x + 4y + 4 = 0 is moved parallelly so that its distance from the
point (3, -2) is increased by 4 units. Then its equation in the new position is

a) 3x + 4y – 30 = 0 b) 3x + 4y – 24 = 0
c) 3x + 4y – 21 = 0 d) 3x + 4y + 24 = 0

Space for rough work

AEE15vA 19
(continued from the first page)

OMR ANSWER SHEET

13. Use the OMR answer sheet carefully; no spare sheet will be issued under any circumstance.
14. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.
15. Use HB Pencil or Black ball point pen for shading the bubbles and ball point pen for writing.
16. In the OMR answer sheet, make the following entries
a. Write the Registration Number, Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Version
code using ball point pen.
b. Fill the ovals corresponding to the Registration Number, Question Booklet Number and
Question Booklet Version Code using HB pencil / ball point pen.
c. Write your Name and Signature using ball point pen.
17. Rough work should not be done on the answer sheet.

ANSWERING AND EVALUATION

18. For each question, four answers are suggested of which only one is correct / most
appropriate. Mark the correct / most appropriate answer by darkening the corresponding
bubble using HB pencil or Blue / Black ball point pen.
19. In case the candidate wishes to change the choice already shaded using HB pencil, he/she
may erase the marking completely and thereafter shade the alternative bubble. If ball point
pen is used for shading the ovals, make sure of the answer before shading since such
markings cannot be altered.
20. If more than one bubble is darkened against a question, it will be treated as an incorrect
answer.
21. For each correct answer, three marks will be awarded.
22. For each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted from the total score.
23. If any smudge is left on the OMR sheet, evaluation will become imperfect.

AEE15vA 20
 Amrita VISHWA VIDYAPEETHAM
(University established u/s 3 of UGC Act 1956)

Amrita Entrance Examination – Engineering

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Question booklet
Question booklet no. Time : 3 hrs
Version Code
Number of pages Number of questions 120 Max. Marks : 360
Registration number
Name of the candidate
Signature of the candidate
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
GENERAL
1. Any malpractice or attempt to commit malpractice in the examination hall will lead to
disqualification of the candidate.
2. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written bits of papers,
Mathematical and Physical Tables, electronic gadgets like calculator, cell phone, etc. into the
examination hall.
3. Candidates shall possess the University Hall Ticket which should be produced on demand.
4. Candidates shall occupy the respective seats bearing their registration numbers on time.
5. Candidates shall sign the attendance sheet available with the invigilator.
6. Candidates are not permitted to leave the hall before the end of the examination.
7. Candidates are required to handover the ANSWER SHEET and the QUESTION
BOOKLET to the invigilator before leaving the hall.
8. After submitting the answer sheet, candidates shall affix their left thumb impression on
the attendance sheet.

QUESTION BOOKLET
9. DO NOT OPEN THE SEALED QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR
ANNOUNCES TO DO SO.
10. Before opening the Question Booklet, write the Registration Number, Name and Signature
using ball pen in the space provided at the top of this page.
11. Immediately after opening the booklet, the candidate should examine whether it contains
all the 120 questions in serial order and ---- pages as mentioned at the top of this page. In case of
unprinted, torn or missing pages in the booklet, the matter should be reported to the invigilator
immediately.
12. Rough work may be done on the space provided in this booklet.
(Continued on the last page of this question booklet)
 MODEL QUESTIONS

PHYSICS (S.No.1 to 35 ) 35 Questions

Data:
Acceleration due to gravity = 10m/s2, Mass of electron = 9.1 x 10-31kg
Charge of electron = 1.6 x 10-19 C, Velocity of light, c = 3 x 108m/s
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J

1. Which of the following has the dimensionality of farad?

a) A2s4kg-1m -2 b) A-2kg m2s3 c) kg m2 A-1s2 d) kg m3 A-2s2

2. Choose the correct combination of the planet and its average orbital speed(in km s -1 )
a) Earth (29.8); Saturn(9.65); Venus(35.0); Mars(24.2)
b) Earth (9.65); Saturn(29.8); Venus(35.0); Mars(24.2)
c) Earth (24.2); Saturn(9.65); Venus(35.0); Mars(29.8)
d) Earth (29.8); Saturn(9.65); Venus(24.2); Mars(35.0)

3. At a point 3200 km vertically above the surface of the earth, acceleration due to gravity
of earth in SI units is
a) 6.66 b) 3.33 c) 5.55 d) 4.44

4. Two laser beams one of wave length 640 nm and the other 400 nm have same unit flux of
photons. Their powers are in the ratio
a) 64:40 b) 1:1 c) 5:8 d) 25:64

5. The relation, Work Done = Change in internal energy holds for

a) isothermal process b) adiabatic process
c) isobaric process d) isochoric process

6. The rate of flow of volume of a fluid of viscosity  along a horizontal pipe of radius r and
length L due to pressure difference P is (V/t). If a pipe of radius 2r and length 2L is
used and P is doubled the rate of flow will increase by a factor
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16

7. If the charge Q in a capacitor is doubled, electric field energy stored inside

a) doubles b) increases by factor 4
c) remains unchanged d) increases by factor 8

8. A capacitor with C =0.144 F having charge Q is made to discharge through a resistance

of 1.0 . What is the time taken for the discharge of 50% of the initial charge?
a) 10-7 s b) 0.144 x10-6 s c) 2.1 x 10-7s d) 0.144 x 10-7 s
Rough Work
9. A slab having dielectric constant  = 3 is placed in a region having constant electric field
E = 10 V m-1. The electric field inside the slab volume is
a) 1.1 V m-1 b) 30 V m-1 c) zero d) 3.33V m-1

10. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery supplying constant voltage difference
such that it accumulates charge Q. While being connected, if the separation d between
the plates is increased
a) both electric field inside the capacitor and Q decrease
b) electric field inside the capacitor decreases and Q increases
c) electric field inside the capacitor increases and Q decreases
d) both electric field inside the capacitor and Q increase

11. The sides (in meters) of a box joining at origin are represented by vectors
a= 4i, b= 2i + 3j and c= i+k. The surface area of the box is
a) 20 m2 b) 26 m2 c) 36 m2 d) 40 m2

12. The slant side of a frictionless incline making an angle 60 with the vertical is 1 m.
Starting from rest the time taken by a mass to slide down the incline from top to the base
is
a) 0.63 s b) 0.23 s c) 0.2 s d) 0.4 s

13. A mass of 0.01 kg is hung from a series combination of two ideal light springs having
spring constants k1= 10 Nm-1 and k2 =20 Nm-1. The net stretching of this spring-mass
system is
a) 3 cm b) 1.5 cm c) 6 cm d) 2.5 cm

14. A mass m =1 kg located at point (3,4) in x-y plane at time t is subjected to a force of 2 N
in the y direction. All numbers are in SI units. The angular acceleration is
a) 0.24 radians s-2 along z direction b) 0.18 radians s-2 along z direction
c) 0.12 radians s-2 along x direction d) 0.32 radians s-2 along z direction

15. A circuit is operated by a battery of internal resistance 0.2  and emf 6 V. The current
flowing in the circuit is 0.3 A. The power supplied to the rest of the circuit other than the
internal resistance is
a) 1.8 W b) 1.74 W c) 1.42 W d) 1.62 W

16. A small magnet of magnetic moment m is placed inside a hollow sphere of radius R; the
net magnetic flux emerging out of the sphere is
a) proportional to m
b) proportional to the product R2 and magnitude of m
c) zero
d) a function of location and orientation of the magnet
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17. What is the magnetic induction flux crossing unit area in xy plane if magnetic induction
vector is B = 2i + 4j + 6k ? All numbers are in SI units.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d)

18. The direction of a ray of light from a plane wave is along unit vector n = i + j. The
corresponding wave front is
a) parallel to z axis b) parallel to n
c) perpendicular to z axis d) parallel to y-z plane

19. Electric potential in a region is given by 4x2+3. All numbers are in SI units. The Electric
field magnitude at a point (-5,1,2) is
a) 40 b) 20 c) 80 d) 10

20. When a glass prism of refracting angle 60o is immersed in a liquid, its angle of minimum
deviation is 30o. The critical angle of glass with respect to the liquid medium is
a) 45o b) 30o c) 60o d) 55o

21. Choose the group of incorrect statement formed from the following
(i) The ammeter used to measure current in a circuit is to be connected in series.
(ii) An ammeter should have very low resistance.
(iii) An ammeter should have very high resistance.
(iv) Connecting ammeter in series will not lead to any change in the current present
before.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (iv) and (i)

22. Let Ei, Ni,, Ii with i=1,2 denote respectively the emf, number of turns , and the current in
the primary and secondary coils of an ideal transformer. Then
a) E1/E2 = N1/N2 = I1/I2 b) E1/E2 = N2/N1 = I1/I2
c) E2/E1 = N1/N2 = I1/I2 d) E1/E2 = N1/N2 = I2/I1

23. Which of the following are unrelated?

a) Fermat’s principle and propagation of light
b) Huygen’s principle and speed of light
c) Law of gravitation and Kepler’s laws
d) Alpha decay and Coulomb force

24. A tiny electric dipole of dipole moment p k is placed at the origin. The electric fields at
two far away point (b,0,0) and (0,0,b) are
a) equal in magnitude
b) equal
c) equal in direction only
d) unequal in magnitude and opposite in direction
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25. A compound telescope have two lenses A and B. Lens A is closer to object than lens B.
Which statement is correct?
a) Both A and B form real images.
b) Both A and B form virtual images.
c) A forms real image and B forms virtual image.
d) A forms virtual image and B forms real image.

26. Assume that the wave length of yellow light in crown glass of refractive index 1.5 is
600 nm. Its frequency is
a) 0.5 x1015 Hz b) 0.33 x1015 Hz c) 1.5 x1015 Hz d) 0.5 x1015 Hz

27. The energies of two photons are in the ratio 1:4. The corresponding ratio of their
momenta is
a) 1:2 b) 1:4 c) 2:1 d) 4:1

28. At a given kinetic energy which of the following has the highest speed?
a) neutrino b) electron c) muon d) photon

29. The time taken by light to travel over a length equal to the radius of nucleus 64Ni is of the
order of
a) 10-21 s b) 10-23 s c) 10-25 s d) 10-19 s

30. Water in a porcelain container is placed in a microwave oven to heat it. The temperature
of the water rises, but the container temperature does not rise much. This is because
a) porcelain is a bad conductor of heat.
b) water is a liquid and can set up convection currents but the container is solid non
conductor.
c) preferential absorption of microwaves of certain frequencies by water.
d) microwaves are more energetic than infrared waves.

IN COMPLETE
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 CHEMISTRY (S.No. 36 to 70 ) 35 Questions

36. 20 g of a solute whose density is 2.0 g/cc is dissolved in water and the solution is made
upto one litre. If the molecular weight of the solute is 100, what is the molality of the
solution?
a) 0.2020 b) 0.4040 c) 0.2000 d) 0.0200

37. The velocity of infra red radiation in vacuum compared to ultra violet is
a) twice b) half c) equal d) four times

38. Which one of the following statements is true?

a) An orbit and orbital mean the same thing.
b) An orbit and orbital contain the same number of electrons always.
c) The energies of the orbit and the orbital are the same.
d) The maximum number of electrons present in an orbit and an orbital will be different.

39. Which one of the following has electronic configuration in violation of Aufbau
principle?
a) calcium b) titanium c) chromium d) manganese

40. Which one of the following changes is spontaneous?

a) A matchstick on strike burns.
b) Camphor packed in a container without over space catches fire on its own.
c) Petrol kept in an open beaker reduces in quantity slowly.
d) Water in a beaker surrounded by ice and salt freezes.

41. For a substance A2B the first dissociation constant is 5x10–5 and the second dissociation
constant is 1x10–9 at 25oC. The value of the equilibrium constant for the following
reaction
A2B ↔ 2A+ + B2–
at the same temperature is
a) 5 x104 b) 2 x10–5 c) 4 x10–4 d) 5 x10–14

42. In ice-liquid water equilibrium, increase of pressure leads to

a) increase in melting point of ice b) decrease in melting point of ice
c) no change in melting point of ice d) disappearance of one phase

43. A silver rod dipped in a solution of silver nitrate of a particular concentration shows a
potential of 0.75 V vs standard hydrogen electrode. If the standard potential for silver is
0.8V, at what molar concentration of the solution the potential will become zero?
a) 2.76 x 10–14 b) 2.76 x 1014 c) 7.6 x 10–28 d) 7.6 x 1028
Rough Work
44. What is the theoretical quantity of hydrogen required to generate 53.6Ah in a Proton
Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell?
a) 1.0 g b) 1.0 kg c) 2.0 g d) 2.0 litre

45. For a reaction, X + Y + Z → Products

the concentration of X is doubled keeping that of Y and Z constant. The rate of the
reaction increases by four times. What is the order of the reaction?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 1 d) 0

46. Which one of the following exhibits Schottky defect?

a) nickel oxide b) potassium bromide
c) ferrous sulphide d) silver chloride

47. Which one of the following is anti ferromagnetic?

a) titanium dioxide b) nickel
c) oxygen d) ferrous oxide

48. The gas that is produced through catalytic reforming of sewage is

a) producer gas b) syngas
c) natural gas d) carbon monoxide

49. Which one of the following hydrides is non-stoichiometric?

a) ammonia b) nickel hydride c) sodium hydride d) diborane

50. The order of energy released on combustion of the following fuels per litre is
a) LPG > octane > liquid hydrogen > gaseous hydrogen
b) liquid hydrogen > gaseous hydrogen > LPG > octane
c) octane > LPG > liquid hydrogen > gaseous hydrogen
d) gaseous hydrogen > liquid hydrogen > octane > LPG

51. Density of the following alkali metals is in the order of

a) lithium < sodium < potassium < rubidium
b) rubidium < potassium < sodium < lithium
c) sodium < potassium < lithium < rubidium
d) lithium < potassium < sodium < rubidium

52. The discontinuity in ionization enthalpy values of group 13 elements in the periodic table
is due to
a) irregular variation in ionic radii
b) irregular variation in electronegativity
c) poor shielding effect of ‘p’ and ‘d’ electrons
d) poor shielding effect of ‘d’ and ‘f’ electrons
Rough Work
53. The reduction of germanium tetrachloride with lithium aluminium hydride gives
a) digermane b) di and tri germanes
c) monogermane d) mixture of all germanes

54. Which one of the following is used as cathode in lithium primary battery?
a) liquid sulphur dioxide b) thionyl chloride
c) poly ethylene oxide d) methyl cyanide

55. What type of isomerism is possible in pentaamminenitrocobalt(II)chloride?

a) linkage b) optical c) position d) ionisation
56. A coordination compound has trigonal bipyramidal distribution of hybrid orbitals. What
is the type of hybridisation present?
a) dsp2 b) sp3 c) sp3d d) d2sp3
57. 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 60 mL of nitrogen collected over water at 730 mm
pressure and 27oC. Aqueous tension at 27oC is 20 mm. What is the percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound?
a) 21.25 b) 2.125 c) 212.5 d) 42.5

58. Predict the products formed on passing acetylene through acetic acid followed by
distillation in presence of mercuric sulphate.
a) acetic anhydride and acetone b) acetic anhydride and ethanol
c) propionic anhydride and methanol d) acetic anhydride and ethanal
59. The order of reactivity of the following for an SN2 reaction is
a) alkyl fluoride > alkyl chloride > alkyl bromide > alkyl iodide
b) alkyl fluoride > alkyl bromide > alkyl chloride > alkyl iodide
c) alkyl iodide > alkyl bromide > alkyl chloride > alkyl fluoride
d) alkyl bromide > alkyl fluoride > alkyl iodide > alkyl chloride
60. An organic compound A of molecular formula C3H8O is treated with 85% phosphoric
acid at 170oC to give B which on ozonolysis, followed by hydrolysis with lithium
aluminium hydride gave rise to a set of products. Predict the correct set of products from
the following
a) acetaldehyde and formaldehyde b) ethanol and methanol
c) acetic acid and formic acid d) ethanol and formaldehyde

IN COMPLETE

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 MATHEMATICS( S.No. 71 to 120 ) 50 Questions

71. Let and . If is any complex number such that the argument

of is , then is equal to

72. The complex numbers and are such that and . If has

positive real part and has negative imaginary part, then may be

73. The maximum value of where ‘ ’ satisfies the condition is

74. If ‘ ’ is a non real cube root of unity, then is

75. If , then, lies in the interval

76. Let denote the number of triangles which can be formed by using the vertices of a
regular polygon of sides. If , then the value of is

77. If , then the value of is

78. The inverse of the function is

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79. The sum of the first terms of the series is

80. If , and are three consecutive terms of an A.P., then the

values of ‘ ‘ are given by

81. If are in H.P., then the value of is

82. Let , where are positive. Then

83. If , then the value of is

84. The quadratic expression takes

85. Three vectors are given by and

respectively. Then the vector which satisfies the relation and
is

Rough Work
86. If the magnitude of moment about the point of a force acting
through the point is , then the value of is

87. The arithmetic mean of odd natural numbers is

88. A car completes the first half of its journey with a velocity and the remaining half with
velocity . The average velocity of the car for the whole journey is

89. An integer is chosen at random from the numbers to . The probability that

is

90. Let be a nonzero real number. A determinant is chosen from the set of all
determinants of order two with entries and only. The probability that the value of
the determinant is nonzero is

91. Two candidates A and B are seeking admission in AMRITA UNIVERSITY. The
probability that A is selected is and the probability that both and B are selected is
atmost . Then the probability of B getting selected cannot exceed

92. The curve satisfying the differential equation and passing through
the point is

Rough Work
93. The solution of the differential equation , given when
is

94. is equal to

95. The value of is equal to

96. If the orthocentre of a triangle bisects the altitude of the triangle ,

then the value of is

97. The remainder got by dividing by is

98. If and , then is

99. If and are two functions such that

and , then the derivative of at is

100. If is a
polynomial of degree three which attains its maximum value at and
minimum value at , then the polynomial is

Rough Work
101. Part of the domain of the function lying in the interval
is

102. If the matrix is orthogonal, then

103. Let be positive real numbers. The following system of equations

, and has

104. If the quadratic equation and ,

have a common root, then is equal to

105. A helicopter is to fly directly from a helipad at the origin in the direction of the point

at a speed of . The position of the helicopter after

is

106. Let be the number of times heads occur in tosses of a fair coin. If ,
and are in A.P., then the least value of is

Rough Work
107. The solution of the differential equation is

108. The solution of the differential equation is

109. The equation is solvable for

110. Given that and satisfy the equations

and , then at is

111. Two ships are steaming away from a point ’ along routes that make an angle of
12 . Ship A moves at and ship B at . The ships are moving apart
at a rate of when and ,
where is

112. If , then the value of is

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113. The value of is

114. The pair of tangents drawn from the point to the two circles
and coincide. Then the point P is

115. Two circles pass through and touch the straight line . If
the two circles are orthogonal, then the value of is

116. A force is applied to a spacecraft with velocity . Then the

force expressed as a vector which is both parallel and orthogonal to is

117. If is the normal to the curve at the point ,

then the pair is

118. The value of the integral

is

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119. If , then the values of p , q and r are
respectively

120. The area enclosed between the two parabolas and is

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(Continued from the first page)
OMR ANSWER SHEET
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3. Use HB Pencil or Blue / Black ball point pen for shading the bubbles and black ball pen for
writing.
4. In the OMR answer sheet, make the following entries
a. Write the Registration number, Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Version
code.
b. Fill the ovals corresponding to the Registration Number, Question Booklet Number and
Question Booklet Version Code.
c. Write your Name and Signature.
5. Rough work should not be done on the answer sheet.

ANSWERING AND EVALUATION

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Mark the correct / most appropriate answer by darkening the corresponding bubble using HB
pencil or Blue / Black ball point pen.
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erase the marking completely and thereafter shade the alternative bubble.
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