PW NEET REAL TEST

Sample Paper - 02

DURATION
DURATION:: 200
90 Minutes
Minutes M. MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Full syllabus

Chemistry: Full syllabus
Botany: Full syllabus
Zoology: Full syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185).
All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200).
In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the
event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
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 Sample Paper-02_PW NEET REAL TEST

(PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 7. At what height above the surface of the earth, the
acceleration due to gravity decreases by 64% of its
1. A wire has resistance R. What will be its resistance
value on the surface of the earth? (R is the radius of
if it is stretched to three times its initial length?
earth)
(1) R (2) 3R
R 3R
R (1) (2)
(3) (4) 9R 2 2
3
2R R
(3) (4)
3 8
2. A force (iˆ + 2 ˆj − 3kˆ) N acts on a particle whose
position vector is (3iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ) m. If the torque 8. An iron rod is subjected to a magnetizing field of
acting on the particle about origin is 1500 A/m. If permeability of the iron rod is
2.4 × 10-4 Tm/A, then what is the susceptibility of
(−8iˆ + ˆj + 4kˆ) Nm, then the value of  is;
the iron rod? (μ0 = 4 × 10-7 Tm/A)
(1) 8 (2) –8
(1) 299 (2) 499
(3) 10 (4) –10
(3) 599 (4) 699

3. At constant volume, if the temperature of an ideal 9. Which of the following statements is

gas is increased by 4°C, then the percentage change INCORRECT for a forward biased p-n junction
in its pressure is 0.4%. What is the initial diode?
temperature of gas? (1) A potential difference is applied such that P-
(1) 100°C side is at high potential and N-side is at low
(2) 200°C potential.
(3) 500°C (2) The applied potential difference is opposite to
(4) 1000°C the junction barrier potential.
(3) Width of the depletion layer increases.
4. During an experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey (4) Current mainly flows due to majority charge
an additional law VP3 = constant. The gas is initially carriers.
at temperature T and volume V. The temperature of
the gas when it expands to a volume 8V is; 10. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitude of
(1) T (2) 2T electric field is 2 V/m. The frequency of the wave is
(3) 4T (4) 8T 7 × 1014 Hz and it is propagating y-axis. The average
energy density of electric field, in Joule/m3 will be;
5. The figure shows a solid hemisphere of radius R. If (1) 4.45 × 10−12
h is the distance of the center of mass from the base (2) 2.21 × 10−12
of the hemisphere, then the value of h is; (3) 8.85 × 10−12
(4) 17.7 × 10−12

11. Three point charges −q, −q and +q are situated in

X-Y plane at points (0, −a), (0, 0) and (0, a)
respectively. The potential at a distant point r (r >> a)
in a direction making an angle θ from the +X-axis in
anti-clockwise sense is;
R 3R
(1) (2) kq  a cos  
(1) 1−
r  r 
2 8
R 5R
(3) (4) kq  a sin  
(2) 1−
r  r 
8 8

kq  a cos  
6. A thin prism of angle 5° and refractive index 1.68 (3) − 1
will give a deviation of; r  r 
(1) 3.2° (2) 3.4° kq  a sin  
(4) − 1
(3) 3.6° (4) 3.8° r  r 
12. A pebble is thrown vertically upwards from a bridge 17. Water rises to a height of 10 mm in a capillary. If
of height 9.8 m. If the pebble strikes the water after the radius of the capillary is made one fifth of its
2 s, then the speed with which it strikes the water is; previous value, then the new height to which the
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2) water rises is;
(1) 9.8 m/s (2) 12.3 m/s (1) 2 mm
(3) 14.7 m/s (4) 16.2 m/s (2) 5 mm
(3) 10 mm
13. If no current flows through the galvanometer, then (4) 50 mm
what is the value of the unknown resistance X in the
circuit given below? Assume that the resistance per 18. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the magnetic field
unit length of the wire AB is 0.03 Ω/cm. oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz
and has an amplitude of 1.6 × 10−7 T. What is the
amplitude of the oscillating electric field?
(1) 24 V/m
(2) 48 V/m
(3) 84 V/m
(4) 114 V/m

19. A small telescope has an objective of focal length

(1) 6 Ω (2) 5 Ω 120 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 8.0 cm.
(3) 4 Ω (4) 3 Ω What is the magnifying power of the telescope if the
final image is formed at infinity?
14. The mass defect in a nuclear fusion reaction is
(1) 10 (2) –10
0.06%. What amount of energy will be liberated in
(3) 15 (4) –15
2 kg fusion reaction of the nucleus?
(1) 9 × 1012 J
20. Two wires are made of the same material. The
(2) 1.8 × 1013 J
length of the first wire is half that of the second wire
(3) 10.5 × 1012 J
and its diameter is three times that of the second
(4) 10.8 × 1013 J
wire. If equal loads are applied on both the wires,
then the ratio of increase in their lengths is;
15. A closely wound solenoid is 40 cm long and has 4
(1) 1 : 6
layers of windings of 500 turns each. The diameter
(2) 1 : 12
of the solenoid is negligible compared to the length
(3) 1 : 18
of the solenoid. If the current carried is 4.0 A, then
the magnetic field inside the solenoid is; (4) 1 : 24
(1) 8 × 10–3 T
21. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
(2) 7 × 10–3 T
0.0625 eV. Convert this energy in joules.
(3) 6 × 10–3 T
(1) 1019 (2) 10–19
(4) 4 × 10–3 T
(3) 1020 (4) 10–20

16. A tank used for filling helium balloons has a volume

22. The potential function of an electrostatic field is
of 0.6 m3 and contains 4.0 mol of helium gas at
given by V = 3x2. The electric field strength at the
20.0°C. Assuming that helium behaves like an ideal
point (3 m, 0, 4 m) is;
gas, what is the total translational kinetic energy of
the molecules of the gas? (1) −6iˆ N/C
(1) 1.46 × 103 J (2) 6iˆ N/C
(2) 1.46 × 104 J (3) 18iˆ N/C
(3) 7.3 × 103 J
(4) −18iˆ N/C
(4) 7.3 × 104 J
23. Two gases A and B are confined in two separate 28. Unpolarized beam of light of intensity I0 is incident
identical containers. The mean free path of gas A is on a set of two polarizers in contact with each other.
λm. Find the mean free path of gas B, whose If the angle between the axes of two polarizers is θ,
molecular diameter is twice as that of A and number then the intensity of the light beam finally emerging
density is half of that of A. from the combination is;
(1) λm (2) 2λm (1) I0 cos2 
m m
(3) (4) (2) I0 sin2 
2 4
I0
24. A deutron is accelerated through a potential of 400 V. (3) cos2 
2
The potential through which a singly ionized helium
I0 2
ion is to be accelerated for the same De Broglie (4) sin 
wavelength as that of the deutron is; 2
(1) 400 V (2) 300 V
(3) 200 V (4) 100 V 29. The phase difference between velocity and
acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic
motion is;
25. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive
(1)  radians
waves given by: y1 = 4 sin(520t) and
(2) 2 radians
y2 = 2 sin(516t). These tuning forks are held near

the ear of a person. The person will hear α beats/s. (3) radians
2
The value of  is;
2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (4) radians

(3) 3 (4) 4
30. A semicircular ring of radius 0.5 m is uniformly
26. In the given circuit, applied voltage is
charged with a total charge of 1.4 × 10–9 C. The
V = 40 2 sin(100t ) volt and ammeter reading is electric field intensity at the center of this ring is
4 A. The value of inductance L is; approximately;
(1) zero (2) 320 V/m
(3) 64 V/m (4) 32 V/m

31. 64 charged water droplets, each of radius 10–3 m and

having a charge of 10–12 C, coalesce to form a single
bigger drop. The potential of the bigger drop is;
(1) 81 V (2) 144 V
1 (3) 18 V (4) 41 V
(1) H (2)  H

32. Taking into account the significant figures, what is
10 1
(3) H (4) H the value of (10.99 m + 10.0099 m)?
 10 (1) 20.99 m (2) 21.00 m
(3) 20.999 m (4) 20.9999 m
27. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of
10 V is applied as shown. Then, the output signal 33. In an L-C-R series circuit, R = 150 Ω, L = 0.750 H
across RL will be; and C = 0.0180 μF. If the source has voltage
amplitude V = 150 V and a frequency equal to the
resonance frequency of the circuit, then the average
power delivered by the source is P watt. Now, the
capacitor is replaced with C = 0.0360 μF and the
source frequency is adjusted to the new resonance
(1) (2) value keeping all the other parameters constant. The
average power delivered by the source now is;
P
(1) P watt (2) Watt
(3) (4) 2
P
(3) 2P Watt (4) Watt
4
 −1 39. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are
34. The dimensions of (0 0 ) 2 are: connected by massless inextensible strings as
1 1 shown in the figure and placed on a frictionless table.
−
(1) 2
[L T 2 ] They are pulled with a force of 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg,
(2) [L–1T] m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg, then tension T2 will be:
(3) [LT–1]
1 1
−
(4) [ L 2T 2 ]
(1) 10 N
35. When a metallic surface is illuminated with (2) 20 N
radiation of wavelength , the stopping potential is (3) 32 N
V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation
(4) 40 N
V
of wavelength 2, the stopping potential is . The
4
40. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 50
threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is;
divisions on the circular scale. In measuring the
(1) 4 (2) 5
5 diameter of a sphere there are six divisions on the
(3)  (4) 3 linear scale and forty divisions on circular scale
2
coincide with the reference line. If there is no zero
SECTION-B error in the instrument, then the diameter of the
36. Read the following statements carefully. sphere is;
Statement I: The resistivity of semiconductor (1) 6.20 mm
decreases with increase of temperature. (2) 6.40 mm
Statement II: In a conducting solid, the rate of (3) 6.60 mm
collisions between free electrons and ions increases (4) 6.80 mm
with increase of temperature.
Select the correct statement(s) from the following. 41. In Young's double slit experiment, if the separation
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. between coherent sources is doubled and the
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
halved, then the fringe width becomes;
(4) Statement I is true and Statement II is the
(1) one-fourth
correct reason for Statement I.
(2) double
37. A chain of length 5 m is kept on a horizontal table. (3) half
If the coefficient of static friction between the chain (4) four times
and the table is 0.2, then the maximum length of the
chain which can hang from the table without sliding 42. For the logic circuit shown below, the truth table is;
is approximately;
(1) 0.633 m
(2) 0.833 m
(3) 1.233 m
(4) 2.533 m
(1) (2)
38. The resistance of a thin silver wire is 1.0 Ω at
20°C. The wire is placed in a liquid bath and its
resistance rises to 1.2 Ω. If the temperature
coefficient of resistance for silver is 3.8 × 10−3/°C,
then the approximate temperature of the bath is;
(Take reference temperature as 20°C)
(3) (4)
(1) 59.3°C
(2) 72.6°C
(3) 89.6°C
(4) 92.5°C
43. In a fission reaction: 48. An equiconvex lens has a focal length f. First, the

92 U → X+ 117Y+n + n
236 117 lens is cut into two identical parts by a plane along
its optical axis, and the focal length of each part is
The binding energy per nucleon of X and Y are
found to be f′. Next, the lens is cut into two equal
8.5 MeV whereas of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total
parts by a plane perpendicular to optical axis, and
energy liberated will be about;
the focal length of each part is found to be f′′.
(1) 400 MeV
Identify the correct option.
(2) 400 keV
(1) f  = f '' = f
(3) 200 keV
(4) 200 MeV f
(2) f  = f '' =
2
44. The angular momentum of electron in 3rd orbit of f
(3) f  = f and f '' =
He+ ion is; (h is the Planck’s constant) 2
3h h (4) f  = f and f '' =  f
(1) (2)
2 
h 3h 49. A relief plane is flying horizontally with a speed of
(3) (4)
3  200 m/s at a height of 8000 m from the ground. The
plane, when at a point P, drops a survival kit
45. Two vessels of different materials are identical in towards a stationary man Q on the ground. For the
size and wall thickness. They are filled with equal kit to reach the man, the angle θ must be; (Take g =
quantities of ice at 0°C. If the ice melts completely 10 m/s2)
in 20 and 30 minutes respectively, then the ratio of
the coefficients of thermal conductivity of the
materials of the vessels is; (Assume heat is supplied
at constant rate to both the vessels.)
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 1 : 4

46. A particle is moving along a straight-line OX. At a (1) 30° (2) 37°
time, t (in seconds), the distance x (in metres) of (3) 45° (4) 60°
particle from point O is given by x = 15 + 4t − 2t2.
How much distance would the particle travel before 50. A wire is bent as shown in the figure. It consists of
coming to rest? R
two straight wires of length and a semicircle of
(1) 15 m 2
(2) 17 m radius R. It carries a current I and is placed in a
(3) 2 m uniform field of magnetic induction B that emerges
(4) 32 m out from the plane of the figure. The magnitude of
force acting on the wire;
47. Charged particles having a drift velocity equal to
7.5 × 10–4 m/s in an electric field of
3 × 10–10 V/m will have a mobility (in m2V–1s–1);
(1) 2.25 × 10–15
(2) 2.25 × 1015
(1) RIB
(3) 2.5 × 106
(2) 2RIB
(4) 2.5 × 10–6
(3) 3RIB
(4) 4RIB
 Sample Paper-02_PW NEET REAL TEST

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 58. The major product ‘P’ in the given reaction will be;
51. Solubility product of a salt AB2 is 4 × 10–9 in a
solution in which the concentration of [B–] ions is
10–2 M. The salt will precipitate when;
(1) [A2+] > 10–7 M
(2) [A2+] > 10–5 M (1) (2)
(3) [A2+] < 10–5 M
(4) [A2+] is between 10–7 M to 10–5 M
(3) (4)
52. The oxidation state of sulphur is largest in;
(1) H2S2O3 (2) S8
59. Among the following molecules, those having same
(3) S2F2 (4) H2S
number of lone pairs on central atom are;
(I) BrCl3 (II) XeO2F2 (III) SeCl4
53. When the initial concentration of reactant is reduced
(IV) XeO3 (V) I 3+ (VI) I 3−
by the factor of 2, no change is observed in its half
life time. The order of reaction is; (1) V and VI
(1) 2 (2) 3 (2) I and VI
(3) Zero (4) 1 (3) II, III and IV
(4) II and IV
54. Which of the following represents the correct order
of the first ionization energy? 60. Statement I: Equimolar mixture of D-(+)-glucose
(1) Se < Ca < Ba (2) K > Na > Li and D-(–)-fructose are obtained on hydrolysis of
(3) Be < Mg < Ca (4) Na < Al < Mg sucrose.
Statement II: Lactose is composed by the linkage
55. The number of isomers for the given compound are; between C-1 of -D-glucose and C-4 of -D-
C2(CH3)(Br)(C2H5)(Cl) glucose.
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) 8 (4) 4 (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
56. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct option. correct.
List-I List-II (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(A) Radial nodes of 4s (I) 1
61. Which of the following is not an extensive
atomic orbital
property?
(B) Angular nodes of 4dyz (II) 3
(1) Mass (2) Volume
atomic orbital
(3) Molarity (4) Heat
(C) Angular nodes and (III) 2
radial nodes of 5dxy
62. The alkene which react fastest with H2 under
atomic orbital
catalytic hydrogenation condition is;
(D) Angular nodes of 2p (IV) 4
(1) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
atomic orbital
(2) 2-Methylprop-1-ene
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) trans-But-2-ene
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) cis-But-2-ene
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
63. If 0.75 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.80 mole of
Na3PO4, then the total number of oxygen atoms in
57. Kjeldahl’s method is used in the estimation of; the product formed Ba3(PO4)2 will be;
(1) oxygen (2) sulphur (1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 6.02 × 1022
(3) fluorine (4) nitrogen (3) 12.04 × 1023 (4) 1.204 × 1022
64. Which of the following factor increases the 69. On treating sodium fusion extract with sodium
concentration of product for the given reaction? nitroprusside, appearance of a violet colour is due to
2NOCl(g)  2NO(g) + Cl2(g) + 150 kJ the formation of;
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Fe(CN)5NO]2–
(1) Increase in the temperature
(3) [Fe(CN)5NOS] (4) [Fe(SCN)]2+
4–
(2) Increase in the concentration of NO
(3) Increase in the pressure
70. Which of the following order is not correctly
(4) Decrease in the concentration of Cl2 matched with the property mentioned against it?
(1) H2O > H2S > H2Se : (pKa value)
65. Which of the following amine will give the positive (2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 : (Basic character)
carbylamine test? (3) HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 : (Acidic character)
(1) (C2H5)3N (4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 : (Bond dissociation enthalpy)

71. Statement I: m-Chlorobromobenzene in an isomer

of m-Bromochlorobenzene.
(2)
Statement II: 2,3,4-Trichloropentane has three
asymmetric carbon atoms.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3)
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

66. 0.008M K2SO4 is isotonic with 0.012M fructose. 72. Magnetic moment 3.87 BM is given by;
Degree of dissociation of K2SO4 is; (1) Cr3+ (2) Ti3+
(1) 65% (2) 45% (3) Ni2+ (4) Mn2+
(3) 25% (4) 55%
73. The number of faradays (F) required to produce 80
67. In SN2 reactions, the correct decreasing order of gm of calcium from molten CaCl2;
reactivity is; (atomic mass of calcium = 40 g mol–1)
(1) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane > 2-Chlorobutane (1) 4 (2) 3
> Chloroethane (3) 6 (4) 2
(2) Chloroethane > 2-Chlorobutane > 2-Bromo-2-
methylpropane 74. The molar conductivity of 0.1M solution of
(3) Chloroethane > 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane > AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of 2 × 10–4 s
2-Chlorobutane cm–1 at 298 K is;
(4) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane > Chloroethane > (1) 2 S cm2 mol–1
2-Chlorobutane (2) 0.2 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 20 S cm2 mol–1
68. Which one of the following substituted phenols is
(4) 0.02 S cm2 mol–1
the strongest acid?
75. Identify the major product ‘R’ in the following
reaction;
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) p-Nitrobenzoic acid

(2) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
(3) m-Nitrobenzaldehyde
(4) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
76. When vapours of 3-Methylbutan-2-ol is passed over 84. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the
heated copper at 573 K, the product formed is; correct option.
(1) 2-Methylpropanal List-I List-II
(2) 2-Methylbutan-3-one (A) [Fe(H2O)6] 2+
(I) 1.73 BM
(3) 3-Methylbutan-2-one (B) [Ni(CN)4]2– (II) 5.92 BM
(4) 3-Methylbut-1-ene (C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (III) 0 BM
2+
(D) [Mn(H2O)6] (IV) 4.90 BM
77. Identify the major product ‘B’ in the following
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
reaction;
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(1) Benzene-1,6-dicarboxylic acid
(2) Benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid 85. Statement I: Cr2+ is a stronger reducing agent than
(3) p-Methylbenzoic acid Fe2+ in water.
(4) Acetophenone Statement II: Cu+ disproportionate in aqueous
solution as: 2Cu+→Cu0 + Cu2+.
78. Which of the following has the lowest (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
nucleophilicity? (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(1) CH3− (2) NH−2 incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(3) OH − (4) F−
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
79. The correct increasing order for the wavelengths of
absorption in the visible region is; SECTION-B
(1) [Fe(SCN)6 ]3−  [Fe(NH3 )6 ]+3  [FeCl6 ]3− 86. When excess of Cl2 reacts with ammonia, …… is
(2) [Fe(SCN)6 ]3−  [FeCl6 ]3−  [Fe(NH3 )6 ]+3 formed.
(1) ammonium chloride
(3) [Fe(NH3 )6 ]+3  [FeCl6 ]3−  [Fe(SCN)6 ]3− (2) hypochlorous acid
(4) [Fe(NH3 )6 ]+3  [Fe(SCN)6 ]3−  [FeCl6 ]3− (3) nitrogen trichloride
(4) chloric acid
80. If 50% of a first order reaction was completed in 100
minutes, 80% of the same reaction would be 87. The correct order of equivalent conductance at
completed in; infinite dilution is;
(1) 230 min (2) 420 min (1) KCl < NaCl < LiCl
(3) 160 min (4) 260 min (2) BeO > MgO > CaO
(3) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3
81. The ionization of K2HgI4 in aqueous solution is 60% (4) NaI < NaBr < NaCl
only. The value of its van’t Hoff factor (i) is;
(1) 1.2 (2) 2.2 88. What will be the wavelength corresponding to the -
(3) 1.6 (4) 0.6 lines of Balmer series of He+ ion?
(Given: Rydberg constant = RH)
82. Which of the following statement is correct for 21 1 25 1
diborane? (1)  (2) 
25 R H 21 R H
(1) Hybridisation of each boron is sp2
(2) Contains four 3c–2e– bonds 25 21
(3)  RH (4)  RH
(3) All the H-atoms lies in one plane 21 25
(4) Bridging B–H bond are stronger than terminal
B–H bonds. 89. Which of the following product will form when
acetone reacts with ethyl amine?
83. The number of oxygen atoms shared by each unit of (1) Oxime
linear chain silicate are; (2) Imine
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) Schiff’s base
(3) 2 (4) 3 (4) Semicarbazone
90. Assertion (A): Boiling point of Butan-1-ol is more
than Butane.
Reason (R): Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is
present in alcohols but not in hydrocarbons.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
91. Identify the major product ‘P’ in the following
reaction;
(1)
95. Which one of the following isomerism is not shown
by [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl ?
(1) Linkage isomerism
(2) optical isomerism
(3) Ionization isomerism
(4) Geometrical isomerism
96. In which of the following arrangements, the order is
according to the property indicated against it?
(1) C < N < O : (First ionization enthalpy)
(2) Br < F < Cl : (Electron gain enthalpy)
(3) Li > Na > K : (Metallic radius)
(4) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– (Ionic size)
97. When N2 and O2 are converted into N +2 and O +2
respectively. Then, which of the following
statement is correct for the monocations?
(1) In O +2 , paramagnetism increases.
(2) In N +2 diamagnetism increases.
(3) In O +2 , the bond order decreases.
(4) In N +2 , the bond order decreases

98. The correct decreasing order of acidity for the

(2) following compounds is;

(3)

(4) No reaction

92. The correct increasing order of basic strength for

the following compounds is; (1) II > IV > I > III (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) IV > III > I > II

99. If the enthalpy of fusion is 0.2a and enthalpy of

b
vapourisation is . Then the enthalpy of
5
sublimation will be;
(a + b) b
(1) III < I < II (2) II < I < III (1) (2) a +
5 5
(3) II < III < I (4) III < II < I (a − b)
(3) (4) 0.2a – b
5
93. What will be the volume of gaseous product 100. The major product ‘X’ in the given reaction will be;
formed at STP, when 445 g of C57H110O6
undergoes combustion?
(1) 63.84 L (2) 638.4 L (1)
(3) 28.5 L (4) 285 L

94. Which of the following statement is correct? (2)

(1) DNA contains four bases, adenine, guanine,
cytosine and uracil.
(2) Nucleotides are joined together by the (3)
phosphodiester linkage between C5 and C3 of
the hexose sugar.
(3) All amino acids are optically active. (4)
(4) Melting point of -form of glucose is less than
its -form.
 Sample Paper-02_PW NEET REAL TEST

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A 106. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
101. David Tilman’s long-term ecosystem experiments option.
using outdoor plots showed that; List-I List-II
(1) increased diversity contributed to higher (I) Ex-albuminous seeds (A) Wheat, maize,
productivity. barley
(2) loss of rivets on the wings is obviously a more (II) Albuminous seeds (B) Pea, groundnut
serious threat to flight safety. (III) Thalamus contributes (C) Banana
(3) within a region, species richness increased with to fruit formation
increased explored area but only upto a limit. (IV) Fruits develop (D) Apple,
(4) more than 70 per cent of all the species without fertilisation strawberry
recorded are animals. I II III IV
(1) B A D C
102. Secondary xylem and phloem tissues are formed (2) C A D B
due to the activity of; (3) C D A B
(1) pericycle. (4) D C A B
(2) conjuctive tissue.
107. Lichens represent;
(3) casparian strips.
(1) commensalism. (2) mutualism.
(4) cambium.
(3) predation. (4) amensalism.
103. Which one of the following is related to in-situ
108. Statement I: In human beings and in grasshopper
conservation of threatened animals and plants?
the males have one X and one Y chromosome,
(1) Zoological parks
whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes
(2) Botanical gardens
besides autosomes.
(3) Wildlife sanctuaries
Statement II: Drosophila is an example of XO type
(4) Wildlife safari parks
of sex determination in which the males have only
one X-chromosome besides the autosomes, whereas
104. Identify the correct statement for the given figure.
females have a pair of X-chromosomes.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(1) This is radial vascular bundle present in roots.
(2) This is radial vascular bundle present only in 109. Which of the following processes does not occur in
stems. bacteria?
(3) This is conjoint closed vascular bundle present in (1) Replication
leaves only. (2) Transcription
(4) This is conjoint open vascular bundle present in (3) Translation
leaves only. (4) Post-transcriptional modification

105. Viroids have; 110. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra and Volvox is

(1) a protein coat. respectively;
(2) a free RNA. (1) anisogamous and oogamous.
(3) a free DNA. (2) isogamous and oogamous.
(4) abnormally folded protein coat. (3) oogamous and isogamous.
(4) oogamous and anisogamous.
111. Mycoplasma are organisms that; 117. Assertion (A): During chemiosmosis in
(1) have a cell wall that differ from other bacteria. photosynthesis, the protons or hydrogen ions that
(2) are larger than other bacteria. are produced by the splitting of water accumulate
(3) can survive without oxygen. within the lumen of the thylakoids.
(4) are pathogenic in animals only. Reason (R): Splitting of the water molecule takes
place on the stroma side of the membrane.
112. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
option. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
List-I List-II Assertion (A).
(I) Oxidative (A) Electron transport (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
decarboxylation system but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(II) Glycolysis (B) Krebs’ cycle
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(III) Oxidative (C) Pyruvic
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
phosphorylation dehydrogenase
(IV) TCA cycle (D) Hexokinase
118. Identify the correct sequence of phases of meiotic
I II III IV prophase I.
(1) B D A C
(1) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene →
(2) C A D B
Diplotene → Diakinesis
(3) C D A B
(2) Leptotene → Diplotene → Pachytene →
(4) D C A B
Zygotene → Diakinesis
(3) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene →
113. In some bacteria glycocalyx may be thick and tough
Diplotene → Diakinesis
and it is called as;
(1) slime layer. (4) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene →
(2) capsule. Diakinesis → Diplotene
(3) mesosome.
(4) fimbriae. 119. Statement I: Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen
grains from the anther to the stigma of another
flower of the same plant.
114. Histones are;
Statement II: Geitonogamy is the only type of
(1) set of negatively charged, basic proteins.
pollination which during pollination brings genetically
(2) set of positively charged, basic proteins.
different types of pollen grains to the stigma.
(3) set of positively charged, acidic proteins.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(4) set of negatively charged, acidic proteins.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
115. In grasses which type of pollination is quite (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
common? correct.
(1) Water pollination (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(2) Wind pollination
(3) Insect pollination 120. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(4) Animal pollination option.
List-I List-II
116. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (I) Auxins (A) Breaks seed and bud
option. dormancy
List-I List-II (II) Gibberellins (B) Help to initiate rooting in
(I) Amyloplasts (A) Store proteins stem cuttings
(II) Chromoplasts (B) Store oil and fats (III) Ethylene (C) Promote nutrient
(III) Aleuroplasts (C) Store carbohydrates mobilisation
(IV) Elaioplasts (D) Store carotenoid (IV) Cytokinins (D) Used to speed up the
pigments malting process in brewing
I II III IV industry
(1) B D A C I II III IV
(2) C A D B (1) B D A C
(3) C D A B (2) C A D B
(4) D C A B (3) C D A B
(4) D C A B
121. Identify the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t the 126. In some leguminous plants the leaf base may
products of microbes. become swollen, which is called the;
(1) Aspergillus niger - Citric acid (1) petiole.
(2) Trichoderma polysporum - Cyclosporin A (2) pulvinus.
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Lactic acid (3) lamina.
(4) Streptococcus - Streptokinase (4) leaf blade.

122. How many out of 64 possible triplet codons, code 127. Identify the correct statements from the following.
for amino acids? A. In bryophytes, the sporophyte is not free-living
(1) 61 but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte.
(2) 62 B. The main plant body of the bryophyte is called
(3) 63 a gametophyte.
(4) 64 C. In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a
sporophyte.
123. In Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn D. Majority of the pteridophytes are
McCarty experiment, digestion with DNase did heterosporous.
inhibit transformation, it suggested that; E. The gymnosperms are homosporous.
(1) DNA does not cause transformation. Select the correct option.
(2) the RNA caused the transformation. (1) A, B and C
(3) protein caused the transformation. (2) B, C and D
(4) the DNA caused the transformation. (3) C, D and E
(4) A, D and E
124. Identify the incorrect statements from the following.
A. The length of DNA is usually defined as 128. In C4 plants, the first CO2 fixation product formed is;
number of nucleotides present in it. (1) oxaloacetic acid in the bundle sheath cells.
B. A nucleotide has three components, a (2) oxaloacetic acid in the mesophyll cells.
nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a (3) phosphoenolpyruvate in the mesophyll cells.
phosphate group. (4) phosphoenolpyruvate in the bundle sheath
C. A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1'C cells.
pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage
to form a nucleotide. 129. Identify the statement that is not true w.r.t
D. Adenosine or deoxyadenosine, guanosine or glycolysis.
deoxyguanosine are nucleosides. (1) In this process, glucose undergoes partial
E. Cytidine or deoxycytidine and uridine or oxidation.
deoxythymidine are nucleotides. (2) In anaerobic organisms, it is the only process
Select the correct option. in respiration.
(1) A and C (3) It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and is
(2) B and E present in all living organisms.
(3) A and D (4) Phosphoenolpyruvate is the key product of
(4) C and E glycolysis.

125. Assertion (A): Human skin colour is a classic 130. Spraying sugarcane crop with _____ increases the
example of pleiotropy. length of the stem, thus increasing the yield by as
Reason (R): Human skin colour is generally much as 20 tonnes per acre.
controlled by three or more genes. (1) auxin (2) cytokinin
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (3) gibberellin (4) ethylene
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). 131. The region of the stem where leaves are borne are
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true called;
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of (1) nodes.
Assertion (A). (2) internodes.
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (3) axillary buds.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (4) root apical meristems.
132. Identify the algae which is not filamentous. 137. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes
(1) Ulothrix (2) Spirogyra among the following.
(3) Volvox (4) Ectocarpus (1) Selaginella and Salvinia
(2) Psilotum and Salvinia
133. Statement I: Hydrogen acts as the final oxygen (3) Equisetum and Salvinia
acceptor in electron transport system (ETS). (4) Lycopodium and Selaginella
Statement II: For each ATP produced in ETS, 4H+
passes through F0 from the intermembrane space to the 138. In animal cells, DNA replication takes place in;
matrix down the electrochemical proton gradient. (1) the nucleus during S phase.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) the cytoplasm during S phase.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) the nucleus during M phase.
incorrect. (4) the cytoplasm during M phase.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. 139. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t replication of
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. DNA.
(1) Replication is continuous on the template with
134. Among the following identify the type of pyramid polarity 3' → 5'.
that is always upright and can never be inverted. (2) Replication is discontinuous on the template
(1) Pyramid of biomass with polarity 5' → 3'.
(2) Pyramid of energy (3) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase joins
(3) Pyramid of number the discontinuously synthesised DNA
(4) Pyramid of biomass in sea fragments.
(4) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases
135. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct catalyse polymerisation only in one direction,
option. that is 5' → 3'.
List-I List-II
(I) Colour blindness (A) Autosomal recessive 140. Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers are
trait invariably autogamous.
(II) Myotonic (B) Loss of an X Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers do not open at
dystrophy chromosome in all and the anthers and the stigma lie close to each
human females other.
(III) Phenylketonuria (C) Sex linked recessive (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
disorder and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(IV) Turner’s (D) Autosomal dominant Assertion (A).
syndrome trait (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
I II III IV but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(1) B A C D Assertion (A).
(2) C A D B (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(3) C D A B (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(4) D C A B
141. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
SECTION-B option w.r.t the biological classification of
housefly.
136. Statement I: During G1 phase the cell is
List-I List-II
metabolically active and continuously grows but
does not replicate its DNA. (I) Genus (A) Muscidae
Statement II: In Quiescent stage (G0), cells remain (II) Family (B) Insecta
metabolically inactive. (III) Order (C) Musca
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (IV) Class (D) Diptera
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is I II III IV
incorrect. (1) B A C D
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) C A D B
correct. (3) B C D A
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) D C A B
142. Identify the incorrect statement from the following. 147. Identify the organisms that are found in hot springs.
(1) The tissue between the upper and the lower (1) Halophiles
epidermis in leaf is called the mesophyll. (2) Thermoacidophiles
(2) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade (3) Methanogens
and spongy parenchyma in isobilateral leaf. (4) Eubacteria
(3) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and
spongy parenchyma in dorsiventral leaf. 148. Identify the incorrect statements from the
(4) In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along following.
the veins modify themselves into large, empty, A. The metabolic pathway through which the
colourless cells called bundle sheath cells. electron passes from one carrier to another, is
called the electron transport system.
143. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in a B. Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the
way that the former is; outer surface of the inner mitochondrial
(1) a sex-linked recessive trait. membrane and acts as a mobile carrier for
(2) an autosome-linked dominant blood disease. transfer of electrons between complex IV and V.
(3) a quantitative problem of synthesising too few C. Complex III refers to cytochrome c oxidase
globin molecules. complex containing cytochromes a and a3, and
(4) a qualitative problem of synthesising an two copper centres.
incorrectly functioning globin. D. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise
to 3 molecules of ATP, while that of one
144. In sewage treatment, primary treatment basically molecule of FADH2 produces 2 molecules of
involves physical removal of particles from the ATP.
sewage through; (1) A and D (2) B and C
(1) filtration and sedimentation. (3) A and B (4) B and D
(2) anaerobic sludge digesters.
(3) reducing the biochemical oxygen demand. 149. Statement I: Net primary productivity is the available
(4) vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs.
into flocs. Statement II: Gross primary productivity of an
ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter
145. Identify the correct statements from the following. during photosynthesis.
A. Species diversity decreases as we move away (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
from the equator towards the poles. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
B. Tropical environments are less seasonal, incorrect.
relatively more constant and predictable. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
C. There is less solar energy available in the correct.
tropics, which contributes to higher (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
productivity.
D. A stable community should show more 150. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
variation in productivity from year to year. option w.r.t population interactions.
(1) A and C List-I List-II
(2) B and D (I) Competition (A) (+, –)
(3) A and B (II) Predation (B) (+, 0)
(4) C and D (III) Commensalism (C) (–, 0)
(IV) Amensalism (D) (–, –)
146. In mango, edible part is; I II III IV
(1) outer thin epicarp. (1) B A C D
(2) middle fleshy mesocarp. (2) C A D B
(3) inner stony endocarp. (3) B C D A
(4) outer thin mesocarp. (4) D A B C
 Sample Paper-02_PW NEET REAL TEST

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 157. Select the incorrect statement.
151. Which among the following feature is common in (1) Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor
between chordates and non chordates? neuron occurs at the neuromuscular junction.
(2) The 'H' zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due
(1) Presence of notochord.
(2) Absence of dorsal heart. to the gap between myosin filaments in the A-
(3) Presence of central nervous system. band.
(4) Absence of post-anal tail. (3) Storage of minerals is one of the function of the
skeletal system.
152. Lungs are made up of air filled sacs, the alveoli. (4) Fibrous joint do not allow any movement.
They do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of; 158. The compound which is not found in acid insoluble
(1) Residual volume. pool is;
(1) protein. (2) nucleic acid.
(2) Inspiratory Reserve Volume.
(3) Tidal volume. (3) glycine. (4) polysaccharide.
(4) Expiratory Reserve Volume.
159. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the
153. In a standard ECG, which one of the following following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
alphabets is the correct representation of the explanation for this feature?
respective activity of the human heart? A. They do not need to reproduce.
(1) S – Start of systole B. They are somatic cells.
C. They do not metabolise.
(2) T – End of diastole
(3) P – Depolarization of the atria D. All their internal space is available for oxygen
(4) R – Repolarization of ventricles transport.
(1) Only D (2) Only A
154. A woman with 110 days of her pregnancy consulted (3) A, C and D (4) B and C
a doctor and request for MTP. Which of the
160. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to deficiency of;
following is correct w.r.t. her MTP?
(1) She needs opinion of one registered medical (1) vasopressin. (2) insulin.
(3) glucagon. (4) cortisol.
practitioner.
(2) She needs opinion of two registered medical
practitioners. 161. Which of the following enzyme catalyse
(3) She needs an affidavit from a family court. oxidoreduction between two substrates?
(4) She does not require opinion of any medical (1) Dehydrogenases
practitioner. (2) Lyases
(3) Isomerases
155. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to the liver (4) Transferases
from;
(1) heart. 162. Organism __X__ exhibits a closed circulatory
(2) stomach. system and unlike reptiles its body is devoid of
(3) kidney. scales. It is an ectoparasite on some fishes.
(4) intestine. Identify 'X' and select the correct option.
(1) Anopheles (2) Lamprey
156. Which of the following becomes founder in the (3) Bangarus (4) Balanoglossus
founder effect?
(1) Original stayed population. 163. Chilled ethanol is used in precipitation of which of
(2) Naturally selected population. the following molecule in biotechnology?
(3) Original drifted population. (1) Sugars (2) DNA
(4) New formed population. (3) Proteins (4) Lipids
164. Which of the following is the most recent ancestor
of man?
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Australopithecines
(3) Ramapithecus
(4) Homo erectus
165. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(1) Total lungs capacity minus residual volume.
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume.
(3) Total lungs capacity minus expiratory reserve
volume.
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory
reserve volume.
166. Select the wrong statement w.r.t. immunity.
(1) If preformed antibodies are introduced, passive
immunity develops.
(2) Acquired immunity is characterised by
memory.
(3) Mucus present on mucus membranes is
included in physical barrier.
(4) PMNLs act as cytokine barriers.
167. Which of the following pairs of hormones increase
the strength of heart contraction and the rate of
respiration?
(1) Insulin and GnRH
(2) ADH and Glucagon
(3) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
(4) Adrenaline and ADH
168. Which of the following is preferably used to deliver
a desirable gene into plant cells?
(1) Retrovirus.
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
(3) Plasmid pBR322.
(4) Disarmed retrovirus.
169. Assertion (A): In closed circulatory system, the
blood is circulated through a series of vessels of
varying diameters (arteries, veins and capillaries).
Reason (R): Closed type of circulatory system is
present in Arthropoda.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
170. Select the correct match w.r.t. cockroach.
(1) Nervous system – Alary muscles
(2) Compound eyes – Ommatidia
(3) Digestive gland – Fat body
(4) Hypopharynx – Grinding region
171. Today we know X restriction enzymes that have
been isolated from over Y strains of bacteria each
of which recognises different recognition
sequences. Choose the option that correctly
identifies X and Y.
X Y
(1) Less than 900 230
(2) More than 130 900
(3) More than 900 230
(4) More than 900 130
172. Which of the following scientists demonstrated by
careful experimentation that life comes only from
pre-existing life?
(1) S.L. Miller
(2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Oparin and Haldane
(4) Lamarck
173. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the
tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-
functional, what will be the immediate effect?
(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
will be reduced.
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed
down.
(3) The pacemaker will stop working.
(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the left
atrium.
174. Which of the following is the correct description of
a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
(1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull
are joined by fibrous joint.
(2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the
occipital condyles.
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the
floating ribs.
(4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the
thigh bone articulates.
175. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the
action potential results from the movement of;
(1) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
intracellular fluid.
(2) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular
fluid.
(3) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid.
(4) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular
fluid.
176. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
reproduction, acts on;
(1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and oxytocin.
(2) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and FSH.
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of FSH and oxytocin.
(4) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and relaxin.
177. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the
category of;
(1) columnar epithelium.
(2) connective tissue.
(3) smooth muscle tissue.
(4) squamous epithelium.
178. MALT constitutes about _______ percent of the
lymphoid tissue in human body.
(1) 50 (2) 20
(3) 70 (4) 10
179. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA
polymerase used in PCR?
(1) It remains active at high temperature.
(2) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient
cells.
(3) It serves as a selectable marker.
(4) It is isolated from a virus.
180. In human adult females, oxytocin;
(1) causes strong uterine contractions during
parturition.
(2) is secreted by anterior pituitary.
(3) stimulates growth of mammary glands.
(4) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin.
181. Which part of human brain is concerned with the
regulation of body temperature?
(1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla Oblongata
182. Which one of the following is the correct matching
of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(1) Proliferative phase – Rapid regeneration of
myometrium and maturation of Graafian
follicle
(2) Development of corpus luteum – Secretory
phase and increased secretion of progesterone
(3) Menstruation – Breakdown of myometrium
and ovum not fertilised
(4) Ovulation – LH and FSH attain peak low levels
and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
183. The test-tube baby programme employs which one
of the following techniques?
(1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer.
(2) Artificial insemination.
(3) Intra uterine insemination.
(4) Gamete intra fallopian transfer.
184. The second maturation division of the mammalian
ovum occurs;
(1) in the Graafian follicle following the first
maturation division.
(2) shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes
entry into the fallopian tube.
(3) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a
sperm.
(4) after fusion of the nucleus of the sperm with
that of the ovum.
185. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases
and immunisation.
(1) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(2) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite
is an example of active immunisation.
(3) If due to some reason B and T lymphocytes are
damaged, the body will not produce antibodies
against a pathogen.
(4) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens causes
passive immunity.
SECTION-B
186. Statement I: Nitrogenous bases found attached to
sugar are called nucleosides.
Statement II: Cytosine, thymine and uracil are
substituted purines.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
187. The main drawback of sterilisation technique w.r.t.
contraception is;
(1) easily available only in district hospitals.
(2) reversibility is poor.
(3) it is not very effective contraception.
(4) post-operative complications are common.
188. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct 192. When you cut your finger or hurt yourself, your
option. wound does not continue to bleed for a long time.
List-I List-II This is due to the presence of;
(A) Mendel (I) Embryological support for (1) Calcium ions and γ-Globulins.
evolution (2) Thrombocytes and Albumins.
(B) Early (II) Inheritable factors (3) Fibrinogens and γ-Globulins.
Greek influence phenotype (4) Platelets and Calcium ions.
thinkers
(C) Karl Ernst (III) Vertebrate embryos never 193. Ventricle of frog contains;
von Baer pass through the adult (1) oxygenated blood.
stages of other vertebrates (2) deoxygenated blood.
(IV) Spores were transferred to (3) no blood.
different planets including (4) mixed blood.
earth
A B C 194. Consider the given statements w.r.t. malaria.
(1) III II I A. The rupture of RBCs is associated with the
(2) IV I II release of a toxic substance, haemozoin, which
(3) II III I is responsible for chill and high fever.
(4) II IV III B. Plasmodium, a tiny fungus is responsible for
malaria.
189. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct C. Human is the vertebrate host for Plasmodium.
option. D. Gametocytes are developed in RBCs of human.
List-I List-II How many of the above statements are correct?
(A) Tapeworm (I) Trygon (1) 1 (2) 2
(B) Sting ray (II) Testudo (3) 4 (4) 3
(C) Electric ray (III) Torpedo
(D) Tortoise (IV) Taenia 195. Statement I: Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in
A B C D muscle due to Ca++ in body fluid is called gout
(1) I II III IV disease.
(2) IV III II I Statement II: Muscular dystrophy is an auto-
(3) IV II I III immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
(4) IV I III II leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of
skeletal muscles.
190. There are three basic steps in genetically modifying (1) Both Statement land Statement II are correct.
an organism, except; (2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(1) Introduction of the identified DNA into the (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
host cell using a cloning vector. incorrect.
(2) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
and transfer of the DNA to its progeny. correct.
(3) Fragmentation of DNA and vector by
restriction exonuclease. 196. Which one of the following is a possibility for most
(4) Identification of DNA with desirable genes. of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious
effort?
191. Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes cut the strand (1) One can consciously breathe in and breathe out
of DNA a little away from the centre of the by moving the diaphragm alone, without
palindrome sites, but between the same two bases
moving the ribs at all.
on the opposite strands.
(2) The lungs can be made fully empty by
Reason (R): Restriction enzymes are also known as
forcefully breathing out all air from them.
molecular scissors.
(3) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(4) One can breathe out air through Eustachian
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
197. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
the release of;
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (1) Renin (2) ANF
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (3) Aldosterone (4) ADH
198. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of
which is;
(1) Hypothalamus.
(2) Spinal cord.
(3) Corpus callosum.
(4) Cerebellum.
199. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does
not cause further increase in height, because;
(1) growth hormone becomes inactive in adults.
(2) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
(3) bones loose their sensitivity to growth hormone
in adults.
(4) muscles fibres do not grow in size after birth.
■■■
200. The correct sequence of spermatogenesis stages
leading to the formation of sperms in a mature
human testis is;
(1) Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatid
→ Sperms
(2) Spermatid → Spermatocyte → Spermatogonia
→ Sperms
(3) Spermatogonia → Spermatid → Spermatocyte
→ Sperms
(4) Spermatocyte → Spermatogonia → Spermatid
→ Sperms
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