GT-20

AITS NEET Grand Test – 20 (01-05-2023)

SR ELITE, AIIMS S60, MPL & LTCS

INSTRUCTIONS
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on side-1 and side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen
only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min duration and Text Booklet contains 200 questions. The test pattern
comprises of two sections. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section-A will consist of 35
questions and Section-B will have 15 questions, out of these 15 questions, candidate can chose to
attempt any 10 questions.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
10. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
11. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
12. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over there Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt
with as an unfair means case.
13. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
PHYSICS 2
5. In an adiabatic process, R = C . The
SECTION – A 3 V

1. A 140 mH inductor is connected to 220V, 50 pressure of the gas will be proportional to

Hz A.C. supply. The rms value of current is (1) T5/3

(1) 5 A
(2) T5/ 2
5
(2) A
2 (3) T5/ 4

(3) 5 2A (4) T5/6

(4) 31.4A
3
2. At a certain place, the horizontal component 6. A solid floats in water with th of its
4
of the earth’s magnetic field is B0 and the
angle of dip is 45º. The total intensity of the volume below the surface of water. The
field at that place will be density of the solid is
(1) B0
(1) 500kg m3
(2) 2B0

(3) 2B0 (2) 750kg m3

B0 620kg m3
(4) (3)
2
3. A cylinder of capacity 20 litres is filled with (4) 430kg m3
Helium gas. The total average kinetic energy
of translatory motion of its atoms is 7. Assertion (A) : Paper pins are made to have
1.5 ×10 J . The pressure of Helium in the
5
pointed end
cylinder is
Reason (R) : Due to the pointed end (small
(1) 2 ×106 N / m 2
area) even for small forces applied, large
(2) 3 ×106 N / m2
pressure will be exerted at the surface
(3) 4 ×106 N / m 2
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
(4) 5 × 106 N / m2
the reason is the correct explanation of the
4. Water falls from a height of 210 m. assertion
Assuming whole of energy due to fall is
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but
converted into heat the rise in temperature of
reason is not the correct explanation of the
water would be
assertion
(1) 2100 o C
(2) 49 o C (3) Assertion is true, but reason is false

(3) 0.49 o C (4) Both assertion and reason are false

(4) 4.9 o C
2
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
8. A gas mixture consists of 4 moles of nitrogen 12. The density of nuclear matter
and 2 moles of helium at temperature T.
(1) Increases with mass number
Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total
internal energy of the system is (2) Decreases with mass number
(1) 6 RT
(3) Is independent of mass number
(2) 13 RT
(4) Increases up to mass number 56 then
(3) 26 RT
decreases
(4) 30 RT
9. A long copper wire of diameter 1.6 mm 13. de Broglie wavelength of electron accelerated
carries a current i.. The maximum magnetic through a potential difference of 100 V is of
−3
field due to this wire is 5 × 10 T . The the order of
value of i is
(1)visible radiation
(1) 40 A
(2) Infrared radiation
(2) 5 A
(3) X- radiation
(3) 20 A
(4) U.V. radiation
(4) 2 A
10. In the figure a carbon resistor has bands of 14. In a photoelectric experiment for 4000Å
different colours on its body as mentioned in incident radiation, the potential difference to
the figure. The value of the resistance is
stop the ejection is 2V. If the incident light is
changed to 3000Å, then the potential
required to stop the ejection of electrons will
be
(1) 2.2 kΩ ± 10% (1) 2 V
(2) 3.3kΩ ± 20%
(2) Less than 2V
(3) 5.6 kΩ ± 10%
(4) 9.1 kΩ ± 10% (3) Zero

11. Heater coil A takes t1 second to boil certain (4) Greater than 2V
quantity of water. Heater coil B takes t2 15. The angle of polarisation for a pair of media
second to boil same quantity of water. If A
is 60o, what will be critical angle for this
and B are connected in series, the time taken
to boil the same quantity of water by the medium?
combination is −1
(1) sin 3
(1) t1t2
−1
(2) tan 3
(2) t1 + t 2
1 (3) cos −1 3
(3) ( t1 + t2 )
2
−1 1
tt (4) sin
(4) 1 2 3
t1 + t2
3
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
16. Acceleration – displacement graph of a
particle executing SHM is as shown in given
figure. The time period of its oscillation is (in
sec)
19. If I 1 is the moment of inertia of a thin rod
about an axis perpendicular to its length and
passing through its centre of mass and I2 is
the moment of inertia of the ring formed by
the same rod about an axis tangent to the ring
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring,
I
then the ratio 1 is
I2

π π2
(1) (1)
2 3
(2) 2π
(3) π π2
(2)
π 6
(4)
4 π2
17. When a particle moves in a circle with a (3)
2
uniform speed
(1)
1) its velocity and acceleration are both π2
(4)
constants 5
(2)its velocity is constant but the acceleration 20. A particle is projected at time t = 0 from a
changes point ‘O’ with a speed ‘u’ at an angle ‘ θ ’ to
3)its acceleration is constant but the velocity
(3)its
horizontal. The torque of gravitational force
changes
on projectile about the origin at time ‘t’ is
(4)
4) its velocity and acceleration both change
18. A body of mass m1 moving with an unknown (1) ( mg u cot θ ) t

velocity of v1ɵi , undergoes a collinear (2) ( mg u cos θ ) t

collision with a body of mass m2 moving (3) ( mg u sin θ ) t
with a velocity v2ɵ
i . After collision, m1 and
(4) ( mg uTanθ ) t
m2 move with velocities of v3ɵ
i and v4ɵi , 21. A man runs towards a stationary mirror at a
respectively. If m2 = 0.5m1 and v3 = 0.5v1,
speed 15 m/s. The speed of the image relative
then v1 is
to the man is
v
(1) v4 − 2 (1) 15 ms −1
2
(2) v4 − v2 (2) 30 ms −1
v2 (3) 35 ms −1
(3) v4 −
4 (4) 20 ms −1
(4) v4 + v2
4
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
22. To an observer on the earth, the stars appear 25. In case of a liquid
to twinkle. This can be ascribed to (1) Only bulk modulus is defined
(2) Only bulk modulus and Young’s
(1) The fact that stars do not emit light
modulus are defined
continuously (3) Only bulk modulus and shear modulus
(2) Frequent absorption of star light by their are defined
own atmosphere (4) All the three modulli (bulk, Young’s
and shear) are defined
(3) Frequent absorption of star light by the
26. A stretched string of 1m length and mass
earth's atmosphere
5 ×10−4 kg is having tension of 20N. If it is
(4) The refractive index fluctuations in the plucked at 25cm from one end then it will
earth's atmosphere vibrate with frequency
(1) 100 Hz
23. Two bodies M and N of equal masses are
(2) 200 Hz
suspended from two separate massless
(3) 256 Hz
springs of spring constants k1 and k 2 (4) 400 Hz
respectively. If the two bodies oscillate 27. Two point charges Q and -3Q are placed at
vertically such that their maximum velocities some distance apart. If the electric field at the

are equal, then ratio of the amplitude of location of Q is E , the field at the location
vibration of M to that of N is of -3Q is

(1) E
(1) k1 / k 2 
(2) − E
k 2 / k1 
(2) E
(3) +
(3) k 2 / k1 3

E
(4) −
(4) k1 / k 2 3
28. An electric dipole is along an uniform
24. A particle executes simple harmonic motion
electric field. For a deflection of 60º, work to
between x = − A and x = + A . The time
taken for it to go from O is A/2 is T1 and to be done by an agent is 2 × 10 −19 J . Then the
extra work to be done by an agent if it is to
go from A/2 to A is T2 , then
be deflected by 30º further is
(1) T1 < T2
(1) 2.5 × 10 −19 J
(2) T1 > T2 (2) 2 × 10 −19 J

(3) T1 = T2 (3) 4 × 10 −19 J

(4) T1 = 2T2 (4) 2 × 10 −16 J

5
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
29. The capacitance of an air capacitor is 15µ F . 31. A block of mass ‘m’ slides down an inclined
The
he separation between the parallel plates is plane of angle 300 to horizontal with an
g
6mm. A copper plate of 3mm thickness is acceleration . The value of coefficient of
4
introduced symmetrically between the plates.
kinetic friction is
The capacitance now becomes 1
(1)
(1) 5 µ F 2 3
(2) 7.5µ F (2)
3
2
(3) 22.5µ F
2 3 +1
(4) 30µ F (3)
2
30. Match Column-I with Column-II 2 3 −1
(4)
Column – I Column – II 2
(x – t graphs) (v – t graphs) 32. Assertion (A) : Photodiodes are preferably
operated in reverse bias condition for light
intensity measurement.
A. I. Reason (R) : It is easier to measure the
fractional change in minority carriers number
due to change in light flux in reverse bias
compared to forward bias.
(1) Both A and R are false
B. II. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
C. III. 33. The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit
diagram is

D. IV

Choose the correct answer from the options

given blow:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (1) OR
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) NAND
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) NOR
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) AND
6
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
34. Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a 37. Earth speeds up about its axis such that
circular coil carrying current at a distance of objects at the equator becomes weightless. In
such a situation duration of one day would be
1m and 5m from the centre are in the ratio
(R : Radius of earth)
27:1. The radius of the coil is R
(1) 2π
(1) 1 m g
(2) 2 m
2R
(2) 2π
(3) 2m g
1
(4) m R
2 (3) 2π
2g
35. Two wires A and B have the same length and
R
area of cross-section. But Young’s modulus (4) 2π
4g
of A is two times the Young’s modulus of B.
38. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying
Then the ratio of force constant of A to that
cross section are maintained at 200ºC and
of B is 0ºC respectively. In the steady state.
(1) 1 A B
(2) 2 200ºC 0ºC
C D
(3) 1/2
x x
(4) 2
(1) temperature difference across AB and CD
SECTION – B
are equal.
36. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of
(2) temperature difference across AB is
length l = 1.0m is situated in a uniform
greater than that across CD.
magnetic field B = 2T perpendicular to the
(3) temperature difference across AB is less
plane of loop. Resistance of connector is
than that across CD.
r = 2 Ω . Two resistances of 6Ω and 3 Ω are
(4) temperature difference may be equal (or)
connected as shown in figure. The power
different depending on the thermal
dissipated as Joule heat when the connector
conductivity of the rod
is moved with a constant velocity of 2 m/s is
39. If Vn and rn denotes the velocity of electron
and radius for nth orbit of hydrogen atom
respectively, then ratio of the product of Vn
and rn for successive orbits is
(1) 6 W (1) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16….
(2) 4W (2) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4…….
(3) 2 W (3) 1 : 8 : 27 : 64….
(4) 1W (4)1 : 1 : 1 : ……….
7
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
40. In Young’s double slit experiment, the 43. If εo is the permittivity of free space, µo the
fringes are displaced by a distance x when a permeability of free space and ε is the
glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is permittivity of glass, µ the permeability of
introduced in the path of one of the beams. glass, then the refractive index n of glass is
When this plate is replaced by another plate given by
of the same thickness, the shift of fringes is
µε
(1) n=
(3/ 2)x . The refractive index of the second µ oε o
plate is
µ oε o
(1) 1.75 (2) n =
µε
(2) 1.50
µoε o
(3) 1.25 (3) n=
µε
(4) 1.00
µε
41. A time dependent force F = 3t2 + 6t acts on a (4) n =
µ oε o
particle of mass 18 kg. If particle starts from
44. A transverse wave is represented by the
rest, the work done by the force during the
2π
first 3 second, will be equation, y = y0 sin (vt − x ) . For what
λ
(1) 40.5 J value of λ, the maximum particle velocity is
(2) 324 J equal to two times the wave velocity?
(3) 81 J (1) λ = 2π y0
(4) 262 J
(2) λ = π y0 / 3
42. Two particles of masses m1 and m2
(3) λ = π y0 / 2
( m1 > m2 ) are separated by a distance 'd'. (4) λ = π y0
The shift in the centre of mass when the two
45. Two resistors of resistances R1 = (100 ± 3 ) Ω
particles are interchanged is
and R2 = ( 200 ± 4 ) Ω are connected in

(1)
( m1 + m2 ) d parallel. The equivalent resistance of the
m −m
1 2 combination

( m1 − m2 ) d (1) ( 66.7 ± 1.8 ) Ω

(2)
m1 + m2
(2) ( 300 ± 7 ) Ω
(3) Zero
(3) ( 66.7 ± 7 ) Ω
mm d
(4) 1 2 (4) ( 300 ± 1.8 ) Ω
m −m
1 2
8
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
46. A body projected obliquely at 450 to 48. Statement – I : When a Si sample is doped
horizontal just crosses a wall at a distance with Boron, it becomes pp–type and when
doped by Arsenic it becomes n – type
‘a’ from point of projection and falls at a
semiconductor such that p – type has excess
distance ‘b’ on the other side of wall. The
holes and n – type has excess electrons
maximum height above the wall that it can Statement – II : If p type and n – type
reach is semiconductors, are fused to make a junction,
ab a current will automatically flow which can
(1)
a+b be detected with an externally connected
ammeter
a+b
(2) (1) Both statement I and statement II are
2
incorrect
ab (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(3)
a −b is correct
(a − b) (3) Both statement I and statement II are
2

(4)
4 (a + b) correct
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II
47. One end of a massless rope, which passes is incorrect
over a massless and frictionless pulley P is 49. In an experiment, the angles are required to
tied to a hook C while the other end is free. be measured using vernier callipers.
cal 29
Maximum tension that the rope can bear is divisions of the main scale exactly coincide
with 30 divisions of the Vernier scale. If the
360 N. With what value of minimum safe
smallest division of the main scale is half-a-
half
acceleration (in ms −2 ) can a monkey of degree ( =0.5°), then the least count of the
60kg move down on the rope ? instrument is
(1) One minute
(2) Half minute
(3) One degree
(4) Half degree
50. A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 100 turns and
resistance 2 Ω is placed with its plane
perpendicular to horizontal component of the
earth’s magnetic field. It is rotated about its
vertical diameter through 180° iin 0.25 s. The
induced current through the coil is
(1) 16 (Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
(2) 6 field is 3.0 × 10–5 T)
(1) 3.77 × 10–4 A
(3) 4
(2) 37.7 × 10–4 A
(4) 8 (3) 75.4 × 10–4 A
(4) 75.4 × 10–5 A
9
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
CHEMISTRY 54. Match List I and List II
SECTION- A List I List II
51. Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total Hydrides Nature
nodes A) MgH 2 i) Electron precise
(1) 6d B) GeH 4 ii) Electron deficient
(2) 5p C) B2 H 6 iii) Electron rich
(3) 3d D) HF iv) Ionic
(4) 4f Choose the correct answer from the options
52. The first emission line in the atomic given below.
spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series A B C D
appears at (1) iii i iv ii
5 R −1 (2) i ii iv iii
(1) cm
36 (3) ii iii iv i
3 R −1 (4) iv i ii iii
(2) cm
4 55. Identify incorrect statements.
7R A) Pure hydrogen is obtained by the
(3) cm −1
144
electrolysis of Ba(OH ) 2 solution using
9R
(4) cm −1 Nickel electrodes
400
1273 K
53. Given below are two statements
B) C( s ) + H 2O( g ) → CO( g ) + H 2( g ) is

One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is called water gas shift reaction.
labelled as Reason(R). C) Cu + 2 H + → Cu 2+ + H 2 is useful
Assertion(A): Alkali metals do not occur in method to prepare hydrogen.
native state in earth’s crust catalyst
D) CH2 = CH2 + CO + H2   →CH3CH2CHO
Reason(R): Alkali metals are highly reactive is called hydro formylation.
elements. (1) A,C,D only
Choose the correct option from the options (2) A and B only
given below. (3) B and C only
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is (4) A,B and D only
not the correct explanation of (A). 56. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (1) +10
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. (2) +5
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is (3) +6
the correct explanation of (A). (4) Zero
10
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
57. The following is the correct order of first 60. The crimson colour imparted to flame is due
ionization enthalpies of the elements B,P,S to salt of
and F (1) Barium
(1) F<S<P<B (2) Calcium

(2) P<S<F<B (3) Strontium

(4) Sodium
(3) B<P<F<S
61. Among the following substituted silanes the
(4) B<S<P<F
one which will give rise to cross linked
58. The increasing order of reactivity of the
silicone polymer on hydrolysis is
following compounds towards aromatic
(1) RSiCl3
electrophilic substitution reaction is
OMe (2) R2 SiCl2
Cl
(3) R3 SiCl

(4) R4 Si
A) B)
62. The heat of formation of ethanol from the
CH 3 NO2
following data is (All values are at standard
state)
C) D) C2 H 5OH (l ) + 3O2( g ) → 2CO2( g ) + 3H 2O(l ) ;
(1) A<B<C<D
∆ H 0 = −1368KJ / mol
(2) D<A<C<B
(3) B<C<A<D
( )
∆ H f CO2( g ) = −393.5 KJ / mol

(4) A<D<B<C ( )
∆ H f H 2O(l ) = −286 KJ / mol

59. A dilute solution of an alkali metal in liquid (1) -277KJ/mol

ammonia is (2) -1260.5KJ/mol
I) Blue in colour (3) -688.5KJ/mol

II) Conducts electricity (4) -3013 KJ/mol

III) Paramagnetic 63. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is

denoted by *c , average speed by c and root
IV) An oxidizing agent
mean square speed by c, then the correct ratio
Identify true statements
at given temperature is represented in
(1) I and II only
(1) *c : c : c = 1.128 : 1.225 : 1
(2) II and III only
(2) *c : c : c = 1.225 : 1.128 : 1
(3) I,II and III only
(3) *c : c : c = 1 : 1.128: 1.225
(4) I and III only
(4) *c : c : c = 1 : 1.225 : 1.128
11
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
64. Formation of product is favoured according 69. The percentage of C, H and N in an organic
to Lechatelier’s principle at compound are 40%, 13.3% and 46.7%. The
A2( g ) + 4 B2( g ) ⇌ 2 AB4( g ) ; ∆ H < 0 empirical formula of this compound is

(1) Low temperature and high pressure (1) CH 2 N

(2) High temperature and low pressure (2) CH 4 N

(3) Low temperature and low pressure (3) CH 5 N
(4) High temperature and High pressure
(4) C3 H 9 N5
65. Equal volumes of two solutions of P H = 2
and P H = 4 are mixed together. The P H of 70. At 30oC, the half – life for the decomposition
resulting solution will be AB2 is 200 S and is independent of the initial
(1) 2.0
concentration of AB2. The time required for
(2) 3.1
80% of the AB2 to decompose is (Given log
(3) 4.2
(4) 2.3 2 = 0.30, log 5 = 0.70)

66. The element Z=114 has been discovered (1) 200 S

recently. It will belong to which of the (2) 323 S

following family group and its electronic (3) 467 S

configurations (4) 632 S

71. Select the graph that correctly describes the
(1) Halogen family [ Rn ] 5 f 14 6d 10 7 s 2 7 p 5
Freundlich adsorption isotherms at two
(2) Carbon family [ Rn]5 f 14 6d 10 7 s 2 7 p 2
temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2) for a gas
14 10 2 4
(3) Oxygen family [ Rn]5 f 6d 7 s 7 p (x = mass of the gas adsorbed, m = mass of
(4) Nitrogen family [ Rn]5 f 14 6d 10 7 s 2 7 p 6 the adsorbent)
67. Which of the following is an electrophile (1)
(1) :CCl 2
T2
(2) H 2O x T1
m
(3) NH3

(4) Cl − P
68. 2-hexyne gives trans - 2 -hexene on treatment
(2)
with
T1
(1) Na liq.NH3
T2
x
(2) Pd / BaSO4 m
(3) LiAlH 4
P
(4) Pt / H 2
12
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
(3) 75. The polymer which can be stretched and
retains its original status on releasing the
T1
x T2 external force is
m
(1) Buna - N

P
(2) Bakelite

(4) (3) Nylon - 6, 6

T2 (4) Terylene
x T1 76. Which one of the following is soluble in
m
NaOH but insoluble in NaHCO3 and thus
P
cannot liberate CO 2 with NaHCO3 ?
72. Which of the following is a correct
statement? (1) CH 3CH 2OH

(1) Brownian motion destabilises sols OH

(2) Any amount of dispersed phase can be
added to emulsion without destabilising it
(3) mixing two oppositely charged sols in
equal amounts neutralises charges and (2)
stabilises colloids
COOH
(4) presence of equal and similar charges on
colloidal particles provides stability to the
colloidal sol
73. Which one of the following is not a sulphide
(3)
ore ?
(1) Calamine COOH

(2) Galena
(3) Copper pyrites
(4) Zinc blende
74. Which oxo acid of phosphorous has highest (4)
number of oxygen atoms present in its 77. The number of tetrahedral and octahedral
chemical formula? voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are
(1) pyrophosphoric acid (1) 12, 6
(2) hypo phoshoric acid (2) 4, 2
(3) ortho phosphoric acid
(3) 8, 8
(4) pyro phosphorus acid
(4) 1, 2
13
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
78. Which of the following is not a broad 82. Which of the following statements regarding
spectrum antibiotic? sulphur is incorrect?

(1) Vancomycin (1) S2 molecule is paramagnetic

(2) Ampicillin (2) Melting point of S8 (monoclinic) > S8

(3) Ofloxacin (rhombic)

(4) Penicillin - G (3) Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur

are soluble in CS2
79. Thiamine and pyridoxine are also known
(4) The oxidation state of sulphur is never
respectively as
less than +4 in its compounds
(1) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin E
83. Assertion (A): Frenkel defect is vacancy as
(2) Vitamin E and Vitamin B2 well as interstitial defect
(3) Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B2 Reason (R): Frenkel defect leads to colour in
ionic solids due to presence of F-centres
(4) Vitamin B1 and Vitamin B6
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
80.  Co (en )2 Cl 2  Cl can exhibit the correct explanation of (A)
 
(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct but (R) is not
(1) Ionisation isomerism only
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Optical isomerism only
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Geometrical and optical isomerism (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Geometrical isomerism only 84. Correct trend is not represented in
81. Match List – I with list - II (1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 ….
List – I List - II
Bond dissociation enthalpy
(Species) (Numbers of lone
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ….
pairs of electrons
Oxidising power in aqueous solution
on central atom)
(3) Cl > F > Br > I …. Electron affinity
A. XeF2 1) 0
(4) F− > Cl− > Br − > I − ….
B. XeO2 F2 2) 1
Reducing power in aqueous solution
C. XeO4 3) 2 85. The reaction can be classified as

D. XeF4 4) 3 OH
NaOH O Na+
Choose the correct option given below
A B C D
CH3I O CH3
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 3 4 2 1 (1) Dehydration reaction
(3) 3 2 4 1 (2) William son ether synthesis reaction
(4) 4 2 1 3 (3) William son alcohol synthesis reaction
(4) Wurtz - Fitting reaction
14
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
SECTION - B 90. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the
O
entire composition range. At 350 K the
O vapour pressures of pure A and pure B are
Cl
7 × 103 pa and 12 ×103 pa respectively. The
86. The IUPAC name of O composition of vapour in equilibrium with a
is solution containing 40 mole percent of A at
(1) 3 - Chloro carbonyl methyl benzoate
this temperature is
(2) 2-Chloro ethyl benzoyl chloride
(3) Ethyl-2-(chloro carbonyl) benzene (1) X ' A = 0.76, X ' B = 0.24
carboxylate (2) X ' A = 0.28, X ' B = 0.72
(4) Methyl - 1 - (chloro carbonyl) benzoate
(3) X ' A = 0.4, X ' B = 0.6
87. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) Ethene is a colourless gas with faint (4) X ' A = 0.37, X ' B = 0.63
sweet smell 91. The pair in which the two species are
(2) Methane on complete combustion gives isostructural is:
carbon black
(1) SiF4 and SF4
(3) Lower alkanes do not undergo
sulphonation (2) ClO−4 and XeO3
(4) A cyclic halonium ion intermediate is (3) BF4 − and NH 4+
formed in the reaction of alkene and
Br2 CCl4 (4) H3O+ and NO2−

88. Which one of the following can undergo 92. HC ≡ CH 

(1) NaNH 2 / liq . NH 3
( ii ) CH 3CH 2 Br
→ X 
( i ) NaNH 2 / liqNH 3
( ii ) CH 3CH 2 Br
→Y
hydrolysis (1) X = 2-butyne ; Y = 2-hexyne
(1) NF3 (2) X = 1-butyne ; Y = 2-hexyne
(2) BF3 (3) X = 1-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
(3) SiCl4 (4) X = 2-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
(4) CCl 4 93. Given below are half cell reactions

89. If w1 , w2 and w3 are magnitude of workdone MnO4 − + 8 H + + 5e − → Mn 2+ + 4 H 2O ; EMnO

o
4− / Mn +2
= 1.510V

of an ideal gas in isothermal, adiabatic and 1

O2 + 2 H + + 2e − → H 2O; EOO2 / H 2O = 1.223V
isobaric reversible expansion process from 2
same initial stage to same final volume. Then will the permanganate ion liberate O2 from
correct order will be water in the presence of an acid?
(1) w3 > w1 > w2
(1) No, because Eo cell = - 0.287 V
(2) w3 > w2 > w1
(2) Yes, because Eo cell = + 2.733 V
(3) w2 > w1 > w3
(3) No, because Eo cell = - 2.733 V
(4) w1 > w2 > w3 (4) Yes, because Eo cell = + 0.287 V
15
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
94. The lanthanoid that does not show +4 (3)
oxidation state is O H OH

(1) Dy
A= B=
(2) Ce
H H
(3) Eu COOH COOH

(4) Tb (4)

95. The incorrect statement among the following O H OH

is
A= B=
(1) Cr2O3 is an amphoteric oxide
H H CH 2OH
COOH
(2) Mn 2O7 is a green oily covalent liquid
97. Given below are two statements
(3) Red colour of ruby is due to the
Statement- I: In the esterification reaction,
presence of Co3+ in Al2O3
alcohol acts like a nucleophile
2+ 2+ 2+
(4) Ti , V and Cr can act like Statement- II: Esterification involves C – O
reducing agents in aqueous solution cleavage of carboxylic acid
96. The products formed in the following Choose the most appropriate option
reaction A and B are (1) Both statement (I) and (II) are correct.
O (2) Both statement (I) and (II) are incorrect

 Ag ( NH 3 )2  OH − (3) Statement (I) is correct and statement

NaBH 4
A B
(II) is incorrect
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect and statement
H CHO
(II) is correct
(1)
98. The osmotic pressure of an ionic substance
O
XY is in water is four times that of 0.01M

A= B= BaCl2 at same temperature. Concentration

H CH 2OH H
XY (in mole lit ) −1
is (assume 100%
CH 2OH
ionisation in XY and BaCl2 )
(2)
(1) 4 ×10−2
H OH H OH
(2) 16 ×10−4
A= B=
(3) 4 ×10−4
H CHO H CH 2OH (4) 6 × 10−2
16
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
99. A compound ‘X’ on treatment with 102. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear
Br2/NaOH gives a compound C3H9N (Y). white in contrast to the blue colonies of non-
‘Y’ gives foul smell in carbyl amine test. The recombinant bacteria because of
compound ‘X’ is (1) insertional inactivation of coding
(1) CH3COCH2NHCH3 sequence of α galactosidase in non-

(2) CH3CH2CH2CONH2 recombinant bacteria.

(2) insertional inactivation of coding
(3) CH3CON ( CH3 )2
sequence of an enzyme, β galactosidase in
(4) CH3CH2COCH2NH2
recombinant bacteria.
100. Regarding the reactions, the incorrect
(3) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
statement is
recombinant bacteria
(1) Reactivity towards SN 2 reaction : RI >
(4) non-recombinant bacteria produce α
RBr > RCl
galactosides
(2) SN 2 reaction always gives rearranged
103. Which of the following statements is correct,
products with respect to sporophytic generation of
(3) During SN 1 reaction of single chiral angiosperms?
centered alkyl halides racemic mixture is (A) Generation that produce the spores
obtained (almost) (B) The generation that possesses vascular
(4) Energy required to break C – X bond of tissue
alkyl halide in SN 1 reactions is obtained by (C) The generation is diploid
solvation enthalpy Correct Statements are :
BOTANY (1) Only A
SECTION – A
(2) Only B
101. Assertion(A):Semi-conservative method of
(3) Only A and B but not C
DNA replication was experimentally proved
(4) All A,B and C
by Watson & Crick.
104. In the vascular bundles of dorsiventral leaf,
Reason (R) : The experimental proof was
xylem present towards A and phloem present
first shown in Escherichia coli
towards B.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains
(A) (1) A- Adaxial side B- abaxial side

(2)Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) does not (2) A – Abaxial side, B – Adaxial side

explain (A) (3) A and B – Both adaxialside

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is false (4) A and B – Both abaxialside
(4) A is incorrect but (R) is correct
17
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
105. Match the following and select the correct 109. Assume that genes ‘a’ and ‘b’ are linked and
option shows 40% recombinations. When ++/++
Column –I Column –II individual is crossed with ab/ab; the type and
A. ATP synthase i) Complex –I proportion of gametes in F1 are
B. NADH ii) Complex –IV (1) ++20%; ab 20%; +b20%; a+40%
dehydrogenase (2) ++50%; ab 50%
C.Cytochrome-bc1 iii) Complex –V (3) ++25%; ab 25%; +b 25%; +a 25%
complex (4) ++30%; ab 30%; +b 20%; a+ 20%
D. Cytochrome-c iv) Complex -III 110. Assertion (A) :Endosperm in angiosperms is
oxidase triploid.
(1) A(iii), B(i) C(iv), D(ii) Reason (R) It is formed due to the fusion of
(2) A(iii), B(ii) C(iv), D(i) three triploid nuclei
(3) A(ii), B(i) C(iv), D(iii) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains
(4) A(iv), B(i) C(iii), D(ii) A
106. Choose the correct match (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) does not
(1)Valine - Basic amino acid explains (A)
(2)Tryptophan - Aromatic Amino acid
(3) A is true but (R) is false
(3)Lysine - Acidic aminoacid
(4) A is false but (R) is true
(4) Glycine - R group is hydroxymethyl
111. Match the following
107. Identify the below cell division stage
Column –I Column –II
A) Opposite phyllotaxy I) Trifolium
B) Perigynous flower II) Guava
C) Polyadelphous III) Peach
D) Fodder yielding plant IV) Citrus
(1) Anaphase (1) A - II; B - IV; C - III; D - I
(2) Interphase (2) A - II; B - III; C - IV; D - I
(3) Telophase (3) A - II; B - I; C - III; D - IV
(4) Metaphase (4) A - III; B - II; C - IV; D – I
108. Which one of the following crosses will 112. What is correct for monocotyledon stems?
have ratio 1: 1: 1: 1 in the progeny ? (1) Vascular bundles are collateral and open
(1) TtRRXttrr
(2) Separate radial exarchpolyarch
(2) TTRRXttrr
(3) Scattered vascular bundles
(3) TtRrXttrr
(4) Eustele
(4) TtRRXTTrr
18
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
113. Choose the correct match. 116. Choose the correct option for the given
Property Simple Facilitated Active image.
Diffusion Diffusion transport
(1) Highly
Yes Yes Yes
selective
(2) Uphill
Yes No No
transport
(3) Transport
No Yes Yes A B
saturation
(1) Relative growth of leaf B is higher than
(4) Proteins are
leaf A
sensitive to No No No
(2) Relative growth of leaf A and B are same
inhibitors
(3) Absolute growth of leaf A is higher than
114. Transport of water through the xylem is
leaf B.
(1) active, requiring energy expenditure by
(4) Absolute growth is same in both ofthe
plants
leaves.
(2) passive, no energy expenditure is
117. Assertion (A) : Protein is a hetero polymer
required by the plant
Reason
son (R) :A Protein is made up of different
(3) active requiring no energy expenditure
types of aminoacids
by the plant
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R)
(4) passive requiring energy expenditure by
explains A.
the plants.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) does not
115. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. explain (A)
(A) C4 plants gives greater productivity of (3) A is correct (R) is incorrect
biomass.
(4) A is incorrect, (R) is correct
(B) C4 plants have two carboxylations
separated by time. 118. Which one of the following is correct?
(C) Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells lack (1) When proteins are respiratory substrates
RuBisco in C4 plants. the R.Q value is 1.90.
(D) Pyruvic acid is produced by oxidative (2) According to chemiosmotic theory, break
decarboxylation
ion in mesophyll cells of C4 down of proton gradient leads to the
plants. synthesis of ATP
(1)Except A, all are incorrect (3) Plant absorb molybdenum in the form
(2) Except B, and C, remaining A and D of MoO23+ ions.
are incorrect (4) Cells in quiescent stage are also
(3) A,B and C are incorrect metabolically inactive, hence can’t
(4) A,B,C and D - all are correct proliferate.
19
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
119. Match Column - I with Column – II 123. In which one of the following examples the
Column –I Column –II second whorl of floral leaves shows not only
A) Hub (Proteinaceous) I) Golgi cohesion among themselves, but also shows
apparatus adhesion with third whorl of floral leaves?
B) Axoneme II) Middle (1) Garden Pea
lamella (2) Makoi
C)Packaging materials III) Centriole (3) Mustard
D) Glues the different IV) Cilium (4) Muliathi
neighbouring cells together 124. Which one of the following are formed by
(1) A - IV; B - III; C - I; D - II redifferentiation?
(2) A - III; B - IV; C - I; D - II (A) Primary medullary rays
(3) A - IV; B - I; C - II; D - III (B) Secondary medullary rays
(4) A - IV; B - II; C - III; D – IV (C) Phellogen
120. The validity of GM research and the safety of
(D) Phelloderm
introducing GM-organisms for public use has
The correct option is
been decided by
(1) A, C and D
(1) GECAA
(2) B, C and D
(2) GEAC
(3) B and D only
(3) UPSC
(4) A, B, C and D
(4) CSIR
125. Match the following
121. DNA that is separated out after the addition
Column –I Column –II
of chilled ethanol can be removed by
A) Kinetochore I) Suckers
(1) spooling
B) Primrose II) Centromere
(2) elution
(3) ultra centrifugation C) Cucumber III) Epigynous

(4) gel electrophorosis D) Pineapple IV) Free central

122. How many of the following examples placentation

belongs to Solanaceae? (1) A - II ; B - IV ; C - I ; D - III
Muliathi;Bellodona,Asparagus; Colchicum, (2) A - II ; B - I ; C - IV ; D - III
Sesbania; (3) A - III ; B - II ; C - IV ; D - I
Makoi; Brinjal, Petunia, Lupin; Arhar, (4) A - II ; B - IV ; C - III ; D – I
Sweet Pea. 126. Puccinia, Ustilagoand Agaricus
(1) 6 (1) belongs to the class Ascomycetes
(2) 4 (2) lack of perfect stage
(3) 10 (3) asexual spores are generally not formed
(4) 8 (4) all the three are parasitic fungi.
20
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
127. Tiger and cat belong to 131. Which one of the following is a correct
(1) different genera, same family statement?

(2) same genus, same family (1) Adenylate residues are added at 5’-end to

(3) different genera, different families ‘hnRNA’

(4) same species, same family
128. Statement -I : Cellulose, pectin
polysulphate esters are present in the cell
wall structure of phaeophyceae members.
Statement - II : Flagellated spores or gametes
are absent in phaeophyceae members.
(1) S - I and S - II are correct
(2) S - I and S - II are incorrect
(3) S - I is correct and S - II is incorrect
(4) S - I is incorrect and S - II is correct
129. Identify incorrect match
(1) Nucleolus - Not membrane bound
(2) Kinetochore - Nucleosome
(3) Centrioles - Basal body of cilia
(4) Golgi apparatus - Materials
secreted outside the cell.
130. Match the following
(2) GUG; GUA; GUC; GUU - Codes for
valine
and
(3) In Lac - operon, RNA polymerase bind
with promoter when inducer binds with
operator.
(4) Lac operon is only under the control of
positive regulation.
132. Identify the correct match
(1) UTR - for efficient translation process.
(2) Inducer in lac operon - galactose
(3) Biolistic method – gene transfer in animal
cells
(4) Homologous host-recombinant protein
133. Identify the incorrect statement of the
following.
also (1) Jaya and Ratna are semi dwarf rice
varieties
(2) Sonalika and Kalyansona are wheat

Column –I Column –II varieties

(3) IR-8 and T.N.1 are high yielding maize
A) Self Incompatibility I. Grass Embryo
varieties
B) Monoecious II. Perispermic
(4) Red rot of sugarcane caused by
C) Epiblast III. Genetic mechanism Colletotrichum falcatum
D)Black pepper IV. Castor 134. Which one of the following is not a mutant
A B C D variety, but -shows resistance to Yellow

(1) (IV) (III) (II) (I) mosaic Virus?

(2) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (1) Mung bean

(2) Parbhanikranti
(3) (IV) (I) (II) (III)
(3) Pusasadabahar
(4) (III) (I) (II) (IV)
(4) Pusakomal
21
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
135. Pomato is a 139. Stability is one of the properties of genetic
(1) mutant variety material was evident by
(2) transgenic variety (1) O. Avery, Colins, MacLeod and
(3) somatic hybrid McCarty experiments

(4) haploid variety (2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

SECTION - B
136. Statement 1 : 4 × 1013 kg of carbon is fixed
annually in the biosphere
photosynthesis.
Statement 2 : The atmosphere only contains
about 1 percent of total global carbon.
(1) S - 1 and S - 2 are correct
(2) S - 1 and S - 2 are incorrect
(3) S - 1 is correct , S - 2 is incorrect
(4) S - 1 is incorrect, S - 2 is correct
137. Cry IAb gene controls
(1) Cotton bolloworm
(2) Corn borer
(3) Beetles
(4) Aphids
138. How many of the following statements are
correct with respect to retrovirus?
(A) Have ability to transfer normal cells
into cancerous cell in animals.
experiments
(3) F. Griffith - transformation experiments
(4) Taylor - experiments
through
140. Which aminoacids are richly present in
histones of nucleosomes ?
(1) Lysine and Aspargine
(2) Arganine and Leucine
(3) Aspartate and glutamate
(4) Lysine and Arginine
141. How many of the following statements are
true ?
(A) Thymine is also called 5 – methyl uracil
(B) The two ploynucleotide chains of DNA
have anti - parallel polarity
(C) DNA is more reactive and less stable
A+G
(D) In the DNA of any species is
T +C
always one.
(1) 2
(2) 1

(B) The RNA molecules of retroviruses (3) 3

involve reverse transcription in host cells. (4) 4

(C) Disarmed retrovirus are used to deliver 142. Which one of the following is species -

desirable genes into animal cells specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal

(D) Retrovirus also causes tumors in plants application?

(1) Trichoderma polysporus
(1) A and B are correct
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) B, C, D are incorrect
(3) Nucleo polyhedrovirus
(3) A, B and C are correct
(4) Retro viruses
(4) Except D all are incorrect

22
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
143. Statement - 1: A key belief of the organic
farmer is that, biodiversity furthers health.
Statement - 2 : The greater the BOD of waste
water, more is its polluting potential.
(1) S - 1 ; S - 2 are correct
(2) S - 1 ; S - 2 are incorrect
(3) S - 1 is true, S - 2 is incorrect
(4) S - 1 is incorrect, S - 2 is correct
144. Which of the following is a correct
statement?
(1) LHC (antenna) is made up of only
chlorophyll-a molecules
(2) Except chlorophyll-a and ‘b’ molecules,
xanthophylls and carotenoids are accessory
pigments of photosynthesis
(3) Ingenhousz showed that it is only the
green part of the plant that could release O2
(4) In the structure of ATP synthase, CF0
acts catalyst, and CF1 acts as proton channel.
+
145. Cyt-a; Cyt-a3and Cu are associated to
(1) Cytochrome -C reductase
(2) Cytochrome -C oxidase
(3) NADH dehydrogenase
(4) Succenicdehydrogenase
146. Stem tendrils are present in
(1) Garden Pea and sweet pea
(2) Zaminkand andColocasia
(3) Citrus andgrapevine
(4) Pumpkins and watermelons
147. Gonyaulax belongs to
(1) Chrysopytes
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Protozoans
(4) Euglenoids
23
148. How many of the following plants shows
haplo-diplontic life cycle?
Fucus; Spirogyra, Equisetum, Ectocarpus
,Cycas; Kelps; Marchantia, Polysiphonia
(1) Four
(2) Eight
(3) Five
(4) Six
149. Ethidium bromide is used to
(1) extract DNA fragments from gel piece
(2) identify the DNA fragments as they are
stained, exposed to UV light
(3) separate purified DNA strands by
spooling
(4) operate PCR technology.
150. Identify the correct match.
(1) Propionibacterium sharmanii -
Roquefort cheese
(2) Monascus purpureus - Statins
(3) Candida lypolitica - Cyclosporin- A
(4) Pusakomal - Resist to white rust
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Islets of Langerhans are
(1) intestinal glands to secrete enzymes
(2) pancreatic regions that produce hormones
(3) protecting cells found in the skin
(4) pancreatic acini that secrete enzymes
152. AnRh+ boy born as second Rh+ offspring to
Rh– mother dies due to
(1) production of antibodieson boy’s RBCs
(2) passage of Rh antigens ofmother into the
blood of boy
(3) entry of Rh antibodies into the boy’s
blood circulation from mother
(4) production of antibodies by the immune
system of boy that destroy his RBC
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
153. Amount of O2 and CO2 released by 100 mL
of blood into tissues and lungs respectively is
(1) 5 mL and 4 mL
(2) 5 mL and 5 mL
(3) 4 mL and 5 mL
(4) 4 mL and 4 mL
154. Atrial natriuretic factor
(1)is a steroid hormone
(2) increases blood pressure
(3) is synthesised by ventricle of heart
(4) causes dilation of blood vessels
155. Observe the following diagram related to
spermatozoon of human being and identify
the incorrect with respect to A, B, C and D
(1) A – Stores enzymes
(2) B – Mitochondria are found along with
DNA
(3) C – Centrioles are seen
(4) D – Participates in locomotory activity
156. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Cancer cells starve the normal cells by
competing for vital nutrients
(2) Protooncogenes have been identified in
normal cells
(3) Unlike normal cells the cancer cells
exhibit contact inhibition
(4) DNA makeup found in a normal cell is
altered in cancer cells
24
157. Which of the following is not a
protein/peptide hormone secreted by
placenta?
(1) hPL
(2) Relaxin
(3) hCG
(4) Estrogen
158. Which of the following characteristics is
incorrect with respect to cockroach?
(1) Haemolymph is composed of colourless
plasma and haemocytes
(2) Absorbed nitrogenous wastes are
converted into uric acid in Malpighian
tubules
(3) Sperms received are stored as bundles in
seminal vesicles offemale during copulation
(4) Next to last nymphal stage has wing pads
159. Read the following
(a) Stinging corpuscles on the tentacles of sea
walnut help in protection
(b) A few flatworms absorb nutrients from
the host directly through the body surface
(c) Statocysts are balancing organs in aquatic
arthropods
(d) A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a
mantle in molluscs
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) b and c only correct
(4) a, b, c and d are correct
160. Glisson’s capsule covers
(1) hepatic artery
(2) hepatic lobule
(3) hepatic duct
(4) hepatic vein
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
161. Read the following deficiency disorders Choose the correct answer from the options
(P) Diabetes mellitus given below.
(Q) Diabetes insipidus (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
Choose the more appropriate option with (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(i), (e)-(iv)
respect to P and Q
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(i)
(1) (P) is a hormonal deficiency disorder and
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v)
(Q) is an enzyme deficiency disorder
165. Which of the following is an extinct African
(2) In (P) frequent urination and in (Q) less
species?
urination occur
(3) In (P) glycosuria and ketonuria are seen (1) Caspian tiger

but in (Q) not seen (2) Quagga zebra

(4) Both (P) and (Q) are due to deficiency of (3) Dodo bird
pancreatic hormones (4) Passenger pigeon
162. Twenty cheetahs are brought from Africa and 166. Which of the following is a correct match for
introduced into wild life safari park of disease and its symptoms?
Madhya Pradesh. This type of conservation (1) Uremia: Accumulation of urea in urine
method is (2) Renal calculi: Stone mass of crystallized
(1) in situ conservation cholesterol
(2) in vitroculture
(3) Glomerulonephritis: Inflammation of
(3) ex situconservation
glomeruli of kidney
(4) Cryopreservation
(4) Renal agenesis: Kidney failure
163. The human fossil discovered in Java in 1891
167. Which of the following is not an event of
was
inspiration?
(1) Homo habilis
(1) Contraction of internal intercostal
(2) Homo erectus
muscles
(3) Homo neanderthelensis
(4) Homo fossilis (2) Elevation of ribcage upward and forward

164. Match column-I with column-II (3) Flattening of diaphragm

Column-I Column-II (4) Decrease in intrapulmonary pressure
(a) Earthworm (i) Radula 168. All are the parts of ribcage, except
(b) Frog (ii) Typhlosole (1) scapula
(c) Cockroach (iii) Conus arteriosus
(2) thoracic vertebrae
(d) Snail (iv) Tegmina
(3) sternum
(e) Tuatara (v) Epidermal scales
(4) thoracic ribs
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 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
169. Match the following 173. Which of the following part of brain
integrates the information received from
Column-I Column-II
semicircular canals of the ear and auditory
(a) Conformers (i) Nearly all plants system?
(1) Medulla
(b) Partial (ii) Camels
(2) Limbic system
regulators
(3) Cerebellum
(c) Faecal pellets (iii) Census of tigers (4) Superior colliculi
(d) Declining (iv) More individuals in 174. Which of the following is viviparous?
post-reproductive group (1) Sea horse
population
(2) Sea hare
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) Sea urchin
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) Sea cow
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 175. Which of the following are neuroglia?
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (1) Dieter cells
170. Select the incorrect statement regarding the (2) Hanson cells
mechanism of vision. (3) Rauber cells
(1) Light induces dissociation of retinal from (4) Schwann cells
opsin. 176. Identify the mismatched combination from
(2) Membrane permeability changes occur in the following.
rods prior to light induction. Enzyme Activated by
(3) Action potentials are generated in the (1) Chymotrypsinogen Trypsin
ganglion cells. (2) Lipase Bilirubin
(4) Image formed on the retina is recognized (3) Pepsinogen HCl
based on earlier memory.
(4) Salivary amylase Chloride ions
171. Which of the following takes place after 177. What is the common feature in fishes and
entry of Na+ into axoplasm, as an immediate amphibian?
effect to restore the resting potential to
(1) Presence of twoatria
membrane with in a fraction of second?
(2) Heart is absent
(1) Quick outflux Na+
(3) Open circulatory system
(2) Quick influx of Cl–
(4) Single ventricle is present
(3) Quick outflux of K+ 178. Substitution of glutamic acid with valine in
+
(4) Quick influx of K the sixth position of beta chain of
172. In which part of sarcomere, only myosin haemoglobin is due to a defective gene
filaments are noticeable? located on

(1) Z-line (1) chromosome 16

(2) chromosome 12
(2) Complete A-band
(3) chromosome 11
(3) H-zone
(4) chromosome 21
(4) A-I junctions
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 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
179. Given below are two statements: one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Motor vehicles equipped with
catalytic converters should use lead free
petrol.
Reason (R) : Lead in the petrol inactivates
the expensive metals namely platinum-
palladium and rhodium that act as catalysts.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the option
given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
180. Hearts of vertebrates are
(1) analogous organs
(2) vestigial organs
(3) atavistic organs
(4) homologous organs
181. Which of the following is an example of
mutualism?
(1) Cattle egret and cattle
(2) Copepod and Marine fish
(3) Wasp and fig
(4) Balanus and Chathamalus
182. Each trophic level has certain mass of living
material at a particular time is termed
(1) gross primary productivity
(2) eutrophication
(3) standing state
(4) standing crop
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183. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) Leydig cells (i) Testis
(b) Urethral meatus (ii) Vaginal orifice
(c) Fructose (iii) Penis
(d) Fundus (iv) Seminal vesicle
(e) Hymen (v) Uterus
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(v)
184. ICSI is a specialized procedure to produce
(1) zygotein the laboratory
(2) sperms artificially
(3) sperms altered by gene therapy
(4) an embryo in surrogate mother
185. A protein, alpha lactalbumin naturally
produced by a woman from her
(1) modified cells of liver
(2) muscle cells of breast region
(3) epithelial cells of mammary glands
(4) neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus
SECTION-B
186. All are the features of Ascaris lumbricoides
except
(1) mode of infection is contamination
(2) three oral lips are found around the mouth
(3) internal bleeding is possible in its
infection
(4) lives in lymph and causes gross
deformities in organs
 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
187. Read the following statements. 191. In the natural selection phenomenon, if more
Statement I: Neural signals through the individuals acquire mean character value, it
sympathetic nerves can increase the rate of is called
heartbeat, the strength of ventricular
(1) directional selection
contraction and thereby cardiac output.
(2) disruptive selection
Statement II: Sympathetic nerves primarily
release the neurotransmitter, nor-epinephrine. (3) stabilising selection
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) saturation
the most appropriate answer from the option 192. Read the following
given below.
(a) Pill
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(b) Lippe’s loop
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (c) Implant
correct. (d) Tubectomy
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
Which of the above contraceptive methods
correct.
can disturb the ovulation in females?
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) a, b and c
incorrect.
188. Identify the mismatched combination from (2) b and d
the following (3) a, c and d
List-I List-II (4) a and c
(1) VNTR Minisatellite
193. Read the following with respect to
(2) EST Genes expressed as RNA
cannabinoids
(3) RFLP Vector used for bacteria
(a) Cannabinoid receptors are found
(4) SNPs Single base differences
principally in cardiovascular system
189. Which of the following is a pesticide
(b) These are obtained from inflorescence of
pollutant that undergoes biological Cannabis sativa
magnification? (c) They have long been used in folk
(1) Mercury medicine
(2) CO (d) Smack is one of the combinations of
(3) DDT cannabinoids
(4) Ozone In the above the incorrect statements related
190. In humans, sex of the baby depends on the to cannabinoids are
(1) autosomes of the sperm (1) a and d
(2) allosomes of the sperm (2) a, c and d
(3)autosomes of the ovum (3) b and c
(4) allosomes of the ovum (4) a, b and c
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 AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)
194. Rearing of catla, rohu and catfish come under 198. Match List - I with List - II with respect to
(1) Pisciculture their characteristics and given examples.
(2) Shellfishery List-I List-II
(3) Sericulture (a) Operculum covers (i) House sparrow
(4) Mariculture the gills
195. Given below are two statements (b) Pelvic fins bear (ii) Dogfish
Statement-I: Sometimes,a person who has
claspers
undergone thyroidectomy may be the sufferer
(c) Oil gland on the (iii) Magur
of hypoparathyroidism.
base of tail
Statement-II: Parathyroid glands are present
(d) Scales shed as skin (iv) Garden lizard
on backside of thyroid gland in close
cast
proximity.
Choose the correct answer from the options
In the light of the above statements, choose
given below:
the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: (1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
incorrect (3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
correct 199. Read the following type of epithelia
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (a) Squamous epithelium
incorrect (b) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II (c) Columnar epithelium
is correct (d) Compound epithelium
196. The levels of gonadotropins attain a peak Which of the following statements is correct
during with respect to the above types of epithelia?
(1) early follicular phase (1) a and c are provided with basal nuclei
(2) late follicular phase (2) c and d are highly vascular
(3) early luteal phase (3) a and b are found in PCT and DCT

(4) late luteal phase respectively

(4) b and c may have cilia on their apical
197. Identify the correct combination
surfaces
(1) Parasite: Derives nutrients for itself at the
200. Which of the following organism cannot be
expense of the host
accommodated in a single trophic level at the
(2) Prey: No prey can show defence to lessen
time of construction of ecological pyramid?
the impact of predation
(1) Cow
(3) Scavenger: Synonym for an omnivore
(2) Grass hopper
(4) Predator: As it is not prudent, it (3) Sparrow
overexploits its prey (4) Frog
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AITS GT-20 (01-05-23)

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